Anesthesia and Preoperative Evaluation Quiz
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Questions and Answers

What is the primary purpose of a preoperative cardiac evaluation?

  • To diagnose underlying cardiac conditions.
  • To identify patients at risk for perioperative cardiac complications. (correct)
  • To assess the patient's overall health status.
  • To determine the best type of anesthesia for the patient.
  • Which of these factors is NOT consistently associated with a higher incidence of postoperative cardiac complications?

  • History of asthma (correct)
  • Advanced age
  • History of congestive heart failure
  • History of coronary artery disease
  • What is a key element of the preoperative evaluation that should be considered when assessing the patient's medical history?

  • Previous pregnancies
  • Social habits, such as alcohol consumption
  • Family history of allergies
  • Previous surgical procedures and anesthesia (correct)
  • Which of the following is NOT considered a major perioperative cardiac complication?

    <p>Pulmonary embolism (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the abbreviation 'NPO' stand for and what does it indicate?

    <p>Nothing Per Os, indicating the patient has not had anything to eat or drink (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of a family history of problems with anesthesia?

    <p>It might reveal a potential history of Malignant Hyperthermia. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main goal of the anesthetic evaluation?

    <p>To determine the best type of anesthesia for the patient. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it important to distinguish between true allergies and drug intolerances/side effects?

    <p>To ensure the patient receives the appropriate medications. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A student is learning about vascular access. Which is the MOST common experience they will have with arterial catheter insertions?

    <p>Becoming familiar with the technique of arterial catheterization. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the PRIMARY function of the Site Rite device regarding central venous catheter insertion?

    <p>To identify vascular structures in the neck. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A student is learning about monitoring during anesthesia, and should be able to understand the following:

    <p>Monitors used to assess ventilation, oxygenation, circulation, and temperature. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is MOST important for a student to learn regarding intraoperative fluid management?

    <p>Understanding of fluid management, transfusion reactions and complications. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the post-anesthetic care unit (PACU), what is the MOST important aspect of recovery that students should recognize?

    <p>Both phases of recovery. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A student is reviewing pain management in the PACU. Which of the following nerve blocks should they understand the use of, in addition to epidural catheters?

    <p>Femoral, interscalene, popliteal, and axillary nerve blocks. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the MOST important respiratory complications students should understand management of in the PACU?

    <p>Airway obstruction, hypoventilation, and hypoxemia. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A student is learning about circulatory issues in the PACU. What should they understand the management of?

    <p>Hypotension, hypertension, and dysrhythmias. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most significant preoperative evaluation for pulmonary complications?

    <p>History and physical examination (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is absolutely linked to increased postoperative risk?

    <p>Obstructive lung disease (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for postoperative pulmonary complications?

    <p>Diabetes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what circumstance can pulmonary function tests predict postoperative morbidity?

    <p>Lung resectional surgery (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant physical finding that may indicate acute airflow obstruction?

    <p>Wheezing and rhonchi (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the Mallampati scale assess?

    <p>Upper airway classification (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which aspect of airway examination is crucial in identifying a potentially difficult airway?

    <p>Dentition status (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended approach to chest X-rays prior to surgery?

    <p>Rarely of benefit without abnormal findings (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common cause of obstructive apnea?

    <p>Mucous plugging (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which maneuver can help relieve airway obstruction?

    <p>Chin lift (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is evaluating a patient’s airway critical before anesthesia?

    <p>To identify difficult ventilation or intubation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the laryngeal mask airway (LMA)?

    <p>To provide a channel for gas passage (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should limit peak airway pressure during bag ventilation?

    <p>25 cmH2O (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main technique used during tracheal intubation?

    <p>Using a laryngoscope to visualize vocal cords (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factors could contribute to difficulty with mask ventilation?

    <p>Presence of dental work (B), Unconsciousness of the patient (C), Large abdominal circumference (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which airway obstruction treatment involves physical separation from the palate?

    <p>Oral airway (B), Nasal airway (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary effect of anticholinesterase agents like neostigmine and edrophonium at the neuromuscular junction?

    <p>Make more acetylcholine available to compete with NMBA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is NOT typically associated with malignant hyperthermia (MH)?

    <p>Hypotension (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect does the administration of anticholinesterase agents have on the heart?

    <p>Causes vagal-like bradycardia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following anesthetic agents is known to trigger malignant hyperthermia?

    <p>Halothane (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which lead is primarily used for monitoring atrial activity and rhythm disturbances in ECG?

    <p>Lead II (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of a pulse oximeter during surgery?

    <p>To provide a continuous measure of arterial oxygenation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In malignant hyperthermia, what metabolic condition can occur due to muscle hypermetabolism?

    <p>Metabolic acidosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is the role of Dantrolene in the management of malignant hyperthermia?

    <p>Inhibit calcium reuptake by the endoplasmic reticulum (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of pulse oximetry?

    <p>To provide a noninvasive estimation of arterial oxygen saturation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is likely to cause inaccuracies in pulse oximetry readings?

    <p>Low perfusion states (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the P50 value indicate in the context of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve?

    <p>The oxygen saturation at a PaO2 of 26.8 mmHg (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is capnography considered the gold standard for endotracheal tube placement confirmation?

    <p>It assesses the adequacy of patient ventilation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve change as SaO2 decreases?

    <p>There is a marked decrease in PaO2 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the relevance of measuring end tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2)?

    <p>It confirms adequate ventilation in sedated patients (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens during esophageal intubation that can cause complications?

    <p>Carbon dioxide accumulation occurs in the stomach (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions does NOT affect pulse oximetry readings?

    <p>Elevated blood pressure (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the MOST common cause of airway obstruction leading to obstructive apnea?

    <p>The tongue occluding the pharynx (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is NOT a method to relieve airway obstruction?

    <p>Laryngoscopy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the PRIMARY function of oral and nasal airways in managing airway obstruction?

    <p>To provide a physical separation between the tongue and palate or pharynx (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these factors is LEAST likely to cause difficult mask ventilation?

    <p>History of allergies (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where is the laryngeal mask airway (LMA) typically placed?

    <p>In the hypopharynx (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During bag ventilation, what is the recommended limit for peak airway pressure to avoid gastric distention?

    <p>25 cmH2O (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the FIRST step commonly done during tracheal intubation using direct laryngoscopy?

    <p>Placing the laryngoscope into the mouth (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the grading of laryngoscopic views (Grades I-IV) primarily assess?

    <p>The visualization of the vocal cords during laryngoscopy. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A Grade III laryngoscopic view during intubation would expose which structure?

    <p>Only the epiglottis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT an alternative method of endotracheal intubation?

    <p>The use of a standard MAC blade (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In pharmacokinetics, what is the half-life of a drug defined as?

    <p>The time required for the drug's plasma concentration to decrease by 50% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes pharmacodynamics?

    <p>The effect of the drug on the body as shown by the dose-response relation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During the distribution phase of a drug, immediately following an initial bolus, where does the drug initially redistribute from?

    <p>Tissues with high blood flow to tissues with low blood flow (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does 'emergence' refer to in the context of general anesthesia?

    <p>The transition from the anesthetic state to the awake state (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a component of general anesthesia maintenance?

    <p>Administering a pure inhalational agent with or without IV drugs (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Extubation of an intubated patient is performed when the patient demonstrates which set of characteristics?

    <p>Is awake enough to follow simple commands, has adequate minute ventilation and demonstrates adequate muscle strength (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which characteristic of an anesthetic agent allows it to cross the blood-brain barrier more rapidly?

    <p>Lipid-solubility (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does MAC (Minimal Alveolar Concentration) represent regarding volatile anesthetics?

    <p>The concentration that causes 50% of patients to have no movement to stimulus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which volatile anesthetic has the highest MAC value, indicating it is the least potent?

    <p>Desflurane (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common characteristic shared by all volatile anesthetics?

    <p>They are all dose-dependent respiratory depressants (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which intravenous anesthetic is commonly used for induction in hemodynamically unstable patients due to its minimal impact on blood pressure?

    <p>Etomidate (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which intravenous anesthetic is known for increasing blood pressure and heart rate?

    <p>Ketamine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main use of Midazolam (Versed) in the context of anesthesia?

    <p>As an anxiolytic agent administered prior to induction (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following effects is associated with the use of Propofol?

    <p>Decreased blood pressure (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the primary mechanism by which opioids produce analgesia?

    <p>Binding to opioid receptors, leading to inhibition of neurotransmitter release and response. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient is experiencing significant respiratory depression following an opioid administration. Which medication is MOST appropriate to reverse this effect?

    <p>Naloxone (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of action of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents?

    <p>Functioning as competitive antagonists at acetylcholine receptors, preventing muscle contraction. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with a history of recent stroke requires rapid sequence intubation. Which of the following neuromuscular blocking agents should generally be avoided?

    <p>Succinylcholine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the predominant type of opioid receptor that is targeted by most common opioid analgesics?

    <p>Mu (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common side effect associated with the use of opioid medications during anesthesia?

    <p>Chest wall rigidity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following characteristics is unique to succinylcholine compared to other neuromuscular blocking agents?

    <p>It has the most rapid onset of action. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is the action of succinylcholine terminated in the body?

    <p>Metabolism by pseudocholinesterase in the plasma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism by which neostigmine and edrophonium reverse neuromuscular blockade?

    <p>They prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, increasing its availability at the neuromuscular junction. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is an anticholinergic like atropine or glycopyrrolate often co-administered with an anticholinesterase?

    <p>To counteract the muscarinic effects of the anticholinesterase, such as bradycardia. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the underlying pathophysiology of malignant hyperthermia (MH)?

    <p>An abnormality in calcium reuptake by the endoplasmic reticulum, causing sustained hypermetabolic muscle contraction. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of a train-of-four (TOF) nerve stimulation?

    <p>To monitor the degree of neuromuscular blockade. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of malignant hyperthermia (MH), what is the primary mechanism of action of dantrolene?

    <p>It reduces calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle cells. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which BIS (Bispectral Index) value range is generally considered optimal for general anesthesia in a healthy patient?

    <p>40 to 60 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which lead of a standard 5-lead ECG configuration is most useful for detecting anterior and lateral wall ischemia?

    <p>Lead V5 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a contraindication for central venous catheter placement in the internal jugular vein?

    <p>Ipsilateral carotid endarterectomy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    According to the Lambert-Beer Law, what is the difference in light absorption between oxyhemoglobin and deoxyhemoglobin that allows pulse oximetry to function?

    <p>Oxyhemoglobin absorbs more light at 960 nm while deoxyhemoglobin absorbs more at 660 nm. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of neuromuscular blockade monitoring, what does it mean when all four twitches are equal in intensity during nerve stimulation?

    <p>There is inadequate neuromuscular blockade or no neuromuscular blockade. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Besides volatile anesthetic agents, which other drug is known to trigger malignant hyperthermia?

    <p>Succinylcholine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following scenarios would MOST likely warrant the use of a BIS monitor?

    <p>A complicated trauma case with signs of shock. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During pulse oximetry, which physiological property enables the continuous detection of arterial oxygen saturation?

    <p>The pulsatile flow of blood in the arteries. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For what reason might a pulmonary artery pressure monitor be considered during surgery?

    <p>When the cardiac index, preload, or volume status needs monitoring in unstable patients. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a potential complication of central venous catheter insertion?

    <p>Pneumothorax or hemothorax. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During general anesthesia and using neuromuscular blockade, how many twitches during a Train-of-Four (TOF) stimulation are typically maintained?

    <p>One or two twitches (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key focus for students learning about intravenous catheter insertion?

    <p>Choosing appropriate sites and sizes, and aseptic technique. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a typical learning experience for students regarding central venous catheter insertion?

    <p>Familiarizing themselves with the indications, complications, and techniques. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of monitoring during anesthesia, as students should understand?

    <p>To assess ventilation, oxygenation, circulation and temperature. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What aspect of fluid management should be understood by students during anesthesia?

    <p>Intraoperative fluid management, blood transfusion, and complications. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU), what is a critical area of focus for students?

    <p>Understanding continued emergence issues. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should students understand about acute pain management in the PACU?

    <p>Narcotic administration and the use of nerve blocks. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a crucial aspect of respiratory management that students should understand in the PACU?

    <p>The management of respiratory complications like airway obstruction. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should students focus on regarding circulatory complications in the PACU?

    <p>The management of hypotension, hypertension, and dysrhythmias. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which surgical procedure is MOST likely to be associated with significant alterations in pulmonary function due to large fluid shifts and/or blood loss?

    <p>Peripheral vascular surgery (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary goal of a preoperative pulmonary evaluation?

    <p>To identify patients at greatest risk of adverse pulmonary outcomes and institute preventative measures (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Patients with a significant history of wheezing are MOST at risk for developing which of the following complications during anesthesia induction?

    <p>Bronchospasm (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Impaired cough reflexes lead to altered pulmonary function which may result in which of the following complications?

    <p>Atelectasis, infection, respiratory failure (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following directly contributes to a reduction in lung defense mechanisms during anesthesia?

    <p>Use of volatile anesthetic gases (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What causes alterations in gas exchange following surgery?

    <p>Ventilation-perfusion mismatch, intra-pulmonary shunting (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which intervention is LEAST likely to address postoperative hypoxemia caused by altered gas exchange?

    <p>Increase the depth of anesthesia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does upper abdominal surgery impact diaphragmatic function?

    <p>It may cause profound alterations in diaphragmatic function, lasting a week or more (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the PRIMARY goal of the anesthesiology rotation for a medical student?

    <p>To understand the perioperative concerns of the anesthesiologist and to learn basic skills. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When assessing a patient's medical history prior to anesthesia, what is a PRIMARY focus area?

    <p>Specific emphasis on cardiac and pulmonary histories, allergies, and medications. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is the 'time of last oral intake' particularly important to note prior to anesthesia?

    <p>To minimize the risk of pulmonary aspiration. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which intervention is a medical student expected to be proficient in, as part of airway management during the anesthesiology rotation?

    <p>Direct laryngoscopy and tracheal intubation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A student should learn the components of general anesthesia, which of the following is NOT typically one of those key components?

    <p>Reversal agents. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a PRIMARY educational goal regarding regional anesthesia for students during their rotation?

    <p>To understand the techniques, indications, contraindications, and complications of spinal and epidural anesthesia. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an important aspect related to pulmonary aspiration that a student should be aware of?

    <p>Understanding the signs, symptoms, and treatment of pulmonary aspiration. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of the ASA Physical Status Classification?

    <p>It is a method to assess a patient’s overall health and risk for anesthesia. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following opioid receptor types is predominantly targeted by most common anesthetic opioids for analgesia?

    <p>Mu (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these side effects is NOT typically associated with opioid administration during anesthesia?

    <p>Tachycardia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism of action of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents?

    <p>They competitively antagonize acetylcholine receptors, preventing muscle contraction. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements accurately describes the mechanism of action of succinylcholine?

    <p>It acts as an agonist at the acetylcholine receptor, causing initial muscle contraction followed by flaccid paralysis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary way that succinylcholine's action is terminated in the body?

    <p>It is metabolized in plasma by pseudocholinesterase. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is the use of succinylcholine contraindicated in patients with a recent history of stroke or burns?

    <p>It may lead to hyperkalemia and potentially cardiac arrest. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following agents is a pure opioid antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioids, especially respiratory depression?

    <p>Naloxone (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism by which anticholinesterase agents reverse the effect of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents?

    <p>They inhibit the breakdown of acetylcholine, increasing its concentration at the neuromuscular junction. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    According to the provided text, what is the primary basis for obtaining laboratory tests on healthy, asymptomatic patients?

    <p>History and physical examination findings. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which is the MOST appropriate use of a pregnancy test in a woman of childbearing age, prior to any surgery?

    <p>To prevent exposure of the fetus to potentially teratogenic anaesthetics. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    According to the ASA Physical Status Classification, a patient with unstable angina should be classified as:

    <p>PS-4 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which ASA Physical Status classification accurately describes a healthy 60 year old patient undergoing an elective hernia repair?

    <p>PS-1 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    According to the ASA classification system, when should an 'E' be added?

    <p>When an emergency operation is required. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a routine recommendation for preoperative labs in healthy individuals?

    <p>EKG for all patients over 40 years of age. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What information must be conveyed to the patient as part of the informed consent process regarding anesthesia?

    <p>The available options for anesthetic management. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which patient scenario BEST describes an individual with a PS-3 ASA classification?

    <p>A patient with poorly managed hypertension and prior myocardial infarction. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism by which anticholinesterase drugs, such as neostigmine, reverse the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents (NMBAs)?

    <p>They prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, increasing its availability at the neuromuscular junction. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is an anticholinergic medication, like atropine or glycopyrrolate, often administered alongside anticholinesterase agents?

    <p>To counteract muscarinic side effects such as bradycardia caused by anticholinesterases. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the underlying cause of malignant hyperthermia (MH)?

    <p>A genetic defect causing dysregulation in calcium handling within muscle cells. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which ECG lead is MOST useful for detecting anterior and lateral wall ischemia?

    <p>Lead V5 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Based on the principles of pulse oximetry, which statement best explains how it differentiates between oxygenated and deoxygenated hemoglobin?

    <p>It uses differences in light absorption at specific wavelengths to quantify oxygen saturation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following clinical scenarios could suggest ongoing malignant hyperthermia?

    <p>Tachycardia, hypercarbia, muscle rigidity, and increased temperature (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Besides volatile anesthetic agents, which other medication can trigger malignant hyperthermia (MH) in susceptible patients?

    <p>Succinylcholine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be the IMMEDIATE next step if a patient develops signs of malignant hyperthermia during surgery?

    <p>Immediately stop the triggering anesthetic agent and administer Dantrolene. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Anesthesiology Goals and Objectives

    • Goal: To introduce medical students to perioperative anesthesiology practice and concerns. Future physicians will care for patients needing anesthesia.
    • Objectives: Students will understand and perform or observe preoperative patient evaluation, intraoperative care, and postoperative care.

    Preoperative Patient Evaluation

    • Knowledge: Evaluation of planned surgery and associated anesthetic concerns, including anesthesia type selection.
    • Medical/Surgical History: Focusing on cardiac and pulmonary histories, allergies, and medications.
    • Physical Examination: Inclusion of airway evaluation, time of last oral intake, and assessment of appropriate labs, consults, and other studies.
    • ASA Classification: Will understand the American Society of Anesthesiology Physical Status Classification.
    • Informed Consent: Knowledge of informed consent procedures.

    Intraoperative Care

    • Airway Management: Experience with bag-mask ventilation, oral and nasal airways, laryngoscopy and tracheal intubation, and placement of laryngeal mask airways, with observation of additional airway devices as appropriate. Simulations and direct patient care are utilized.
    • General Anesthesia: Components, including intravenous and inhalational anesthetics, neuromuscular blocking agents, narcotics, and sedative-hypnotics are understood. Learn about Malignant Hyperthermia.
    • Regional Anesthesia: Techniques, indications, complications, and contraindications of spinal and epidural anesthesia. Learn about local anesthetics.
    • Intravenous Catheter Insertion: Proper catheter site and size selection, insertion technique, aseptic technique, and universal precautions are understood.

    Postoperative Anesthesia Care

    • PACU (Post Anesthesia Care Unit): Understanding emergency issues in the PACU, specifically the two phases of recovery.
    • Pain Management: Acute pain management techniques, including narcotic administration and nerve blocks (e.g., epidural, interscalene).
    • Respiratory Complications: Management of respiratory complications in the PACU, including airway obstruction, hypoventilation, and hypoxemia.
    • Circulatory Complications: Management of circulatory complications in the PACU, including hypotension, hypertension, and dysrhythmias. discharge criteria are understood.

    Preoperative Evaluation of Patients

    • Patient History: Establish patient's problems, diagnosis, planned procedure, medical history, prior surgeries/anesthesia, allergies, medications, social habits, and NPO status.
    • Cardiac Evaluation: Goal of this evaluation is to identify patients at risk for perioperative cardiac complications (e.g., death, MI, CHF, pulmonary edema, cardiac arrhythmias). Perioperative myocardial ischemia is common in patients with coronary artery disease. Risk factors include: history of CHF, CAD, and advanced age.
    • Pulmonary Evaluation: Goal is to identify patients at risk for adverse pulmonary outcomes by identifying patients with a history of reactive airway disease, previous upper respiratory infection, or significant smoking history. Common complications include: atelectasis, infection, and respiratory failure. Risk factors include smoking history, COPD, and upper respiratory infections.

    Physical Exam

    • Vital Signs: Measurement of vital signs, observation of the patient related to positioning, evaluation of heart and lungs.
    • Dentition/Airway: Inspection of teeth and gums for loose or chipped teeth; caps, bridges, or dentures. Evaluate the airway, including the Mallampati score.
    • Laboratory Examination: Routine labs for healthy asymptomatic patients may no longer be recommended. Based on history and physical findings, labs may be performed, and may include hemoglobin/hematocrit, pregnancy tests, and EKGs.

    Monitoring

    • Electrocardiography (ECG): Used to monitor the heart's electrical activity, looking for rhythm disturbances, inferior wall ischemia (lead II), and anterior/lateral wall ischemia (lead V5).
    • Pulse Oximetry: Non-invasive continuous intraoperative monitoring of arterial oxygenation.
    • Capnography: Monitoring of end tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) to help confirm proper ventilation and endotracheal tube placement.
    • Arterial Blood Pressure: Measuring blood pressure utilizing auscultatory or oscillometric method. Invasive method uses arterial catheter.
    • Temperature: Monitoring of body temperature, including esophageal, nasopharyngeal, skin, rectal, bladder, and pulmonary artery catheter sites.

    Intravenous Fluid and Transfusion Therapy

    • Crystalloids: Aqueous solutions containing low-molecular weight salts and possibly glucose. Provide types (e.g., normal saline). Fluid requirement determination includes maintenance, 3rd space losses, and deficits, replaced as needed.
    • Colloids: Solutions containing high-molecular weight structures (e.g., blood products, albumin). Replaces fluid volume losses while minimizing fluid shifts.
    • Blood Transfusion: Decision to transfuse based on anemia severity, surgery types, expected blood loss, and patient conditions. Includes blood typing, compatibility testing, cross-matching, and possible complications (e.g., hemolytic reactions).

    Local Anesthetics

    • Mechanism of Action: Local anesthetics interrupt depolarization by blocking sodium ion channels, preventing impulse conduction in nerve fibers.
    • Chemical Structure: Classified into esters (e.g., procaine, tetracaine) and amides (e.g., lidocaine, bupivacaine). Amides are metabolized by hepatic enzymes; esters are hydrolyzed.
    • Epinephrine Effects: Added to local anesthetic solutions to prolong duration of action and reduce systemic toxicity.

    Systemic Toxicity of Local Anesthetics

    • Dosage Limits: Each local anesthetic has maximum dosage limits to prevent overdosage and systemic absorption.
    • Symptoms: CNS stimulation (restlessness, tremors) and depression, including cardiovascular symptoms (hypotension, tachycardia).

    Spinal and Epidural Anesthesia

    • Anatomy: Spinal anesthesia involves injecting local anesthetic into the subarachnoid space, affecting sensory and motor nerve fibers. Epidural anesthesia involves injecting local anesthetic into the epidural space.
    • Complications: Including total or high spinal (from excessive local anesthetic administration), intravascular injection, retained catheters, epidural hematoma.

    Post Anesthesia Care Unit

    • Purpose: Emergence phase of general anesthesia continues in the PACU. Stresses include airway, shivering, pain, and autonomic lability.
    • Phases: Phase 1 (immediate recovery) and 2 (readiness for discharge).
    • Causes of Delayed Emergence: Residual drug effects, hypothermia, severe metabolic issues.

    Respiratory Complications

    • Airway Obstruction: Tongue, secretions, laryngospasm, glottic edema.
    • Hypoventilation: Residual anesthetic effect, post-surgical splinting, and muscle paralysis.
    • Hypoxemia: Hypoventilation, shunt. Early and rapid interventions are needed, including oxygen supplementation and potential mechanical ventilation.

    Circulatory Complications

    • Hypotension: Low blood pressure, possible etiology is hypovolemia, left ventricular dysfunction.
    • Hypertension: High blood pressure, likely due to pain or sympathetic activation, possible adverse effects include ischemia and heart failure.
    • Dysrhythmias: Irregular heartbeats, possibly from hypoxemia, hypokalemia, and acidosis.

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    Anesthesia Exam Notes PDF

    Description

    Test your knowledge on preoperative cardiac evaluation and anesthetic assessments. This quiz covers key concepts including risk factors, patient history, and monitoring during anesthesia. Ideal for medical students preparing for surgery-related evaluations.

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