Preoperative Evaluation and Fasting Guidelines

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Questions and Answers

What amount of long-acting insulin should patients with type 1 diabetes take on the day of surgery?

  • One quarter of their usual dose
  • Their full usual dose
  • No insulin
  • One third of their usual dose (correct)

Which class of medication should be discontinued 24 hours before elective surgery?

  • Thiazide diuretics
  • SGLT2 inhibitors (correct)
  • Non-insulin antidiabetic medications
  • COX-2 inhibitors

How long before surgery should warfarin be discontinued for most patients?

  • 7 days
  • 1 day
  • 3 days
  • 5 days (correct)

Which of the following medications should be continued on the day of surgery?

<p>Diuretics for hypertension (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action should be taken with topical medications on the day of surgery?

<p>They should be discontinued (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended preoperative discontinuation time for Ephedra: ma huang due to its sympathomimetic effects?

<p>At least 24 hours (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following herbal medications is associated with irreversible inhibition of platelet aggregation?

<p>Garlic (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the physiological impact of nicotine found in e-cigarettes?

<p>Sympathomimetic, cardiac, vascular, and endocrine toxicity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is true regarding Ginger: Zingiber officinale and its preoperative guidelines?

<p>It should be discontinued at least 7 days before surgery. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which substance found in e-cigarettes is known to generate pulmonary toxicity?

<p>Diacetyl (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the impact of long-term alcohol intake on anesthetic requirements?

<p>Increased requirements due to withdrawal syndrome (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the required cessation time for Ginkgo: duck foot tree before surgery?

<p>At least 36 hours (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which constitutes a significant risk factor for perioperative complications?

<p>A smoking history of more than 20 pack years (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How long should Kava: awa be discontinued before surgery to minimize sedation and anxiolysis risk?

<p>At least 24 hours (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which herbal medication does not have a specified preoperative discontinuation time?

<p>Valerian (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be done with antihypertensive medications on the day of surgery?

<p>Continue all except ACEIs and ARBs on the day of surgery (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should aspirin be managed for patients with prior percutaneous coronary intervention on the day of surgery?

<p>Discontinue aspirin 3 days before surgery unless specific conditions apply (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended action regarding the discontinuation of insulin for patients on the day of surgery?

<p>Only short-acting insulin should be discontinued (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement is true regarding the management of P2Y12 inhibitors before surgery?

<p>Discontinuation should occur 5–7 days before surgery for clopidogrel and ticagrelor (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key consideration for corticosteroid use in patients undergoing surgery?

<p>Patients may require stress dosing if they have not taken oral corticosteroids recently (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is recommended concerning the continuation of antidepressants on the day of surgery?

<p>Antidepressants can be continued on the day of surgery without modification (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which category of medications is explicitly stated as needing to be discontinued on the day of surgery?

<p>Short-acting insulin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be documented regarding allergies before surgery?

<p>Responses to past medications and contact allergies should be documented (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following substances is NOT typically considered an illicit drug?

<p>Anabolic steroids (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the acronym LEMON stand for in airway evaluation?

<p>Look, Evaluate, Mallampati, Obstruction, Neck (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT part of the physical examination process as outlined?

<p>Patient history review (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is assessed during the airway evaluation concerning the patient's anatomy?

<p>Length of the upper incisors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Obesity is defined in relation to what measurement?

<p>Ideal body weight (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of the physical examination in the context described?

<p>To detect abnormalities not evident in history (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is a co-morbidity that can impact the administration of anesthesia?

<p>Obesity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Mallampati Airway Classification assesses the visibility of what anatomical structure?

<p>Uvula (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of the preanesthetic evaluation?

<p>To optimize patient conditions and mitigate risks (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component is NOT typically included in a preanesthetic evaluation?

<p>Patient’s socioeconomic status (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of the ASA classification system in a preoperative setting?

<p>To classify patients based on their health status and anesthesia risk (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which fasting recommendation is appropriate for a patient before surgery according to general guidelines?

<p>Clear liquids should be allowed until 2 hours before surgery (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an important strategy to prevent aspiration pneumonitis in at-risk populations?

<p>Ensuring adequate fasting prior to surgery (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should the preanesthetic evaluation focus on regarding the patient's medical history?

<p>Collecting comprehensive airway, cardiac, and pulmonary information (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which best describes an outcome of inadequate preoperative planning?

<p>Higher rates of surgical delay and complications (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should a patient be educated about before surgery to reduce anxiety?

<p>Intra- and postoperative care expectations (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the preanesthetic evaluation help with surgical efficiency?

<p>By individualizing management plans based on patient assessment (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a crucial aspect to confirm during the preoperative drug history assessment?

<p>Last dosage and timing of all medications (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is preoperative fasting important?

<p>To minimize the risk of aspiration during anesthesia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What combination of factors does the content of the preanesthetic evaluation assess?

<p>Medical history, fasting guidelines, and past anesthetic experiences (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What key information should be prioritized during the patient interview component of preanesthetic assessment?

<p>Past anesthetic experiences and risk factors (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors is least likely to directly influence anesthetic technique selection?

<p>Availability of surgical tools (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary characteristic of general anesthesia?

<p>Loss of response to all external stimuli (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which anesthesia type is typically preferred for pediatric cases?

<p>Inhalation only (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the ideal outcome regarding postoperative side effects when selecting an anesthetic technique?

<p>Avoid postoperative complications (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is typically NOT a consideration for anesthesia in critical care?

<p>Type of anesthesia coverage required (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the main components of the anesthetic state that is typically inferred but not directly measured?

<p>Unconsciousness (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which patient consideration is crucial for determining the anesthesia technique for outpatient surgery?

<p>Length of surgery (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Alice Magaw is recognized for her contributions primarily to which area?

<p>Development of nurse anesthesia training (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary patient characteristic that disqualifies someone from being a good candidate for monitored anesthesia care?

<p>Uncooperative behavior (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which sedation level allows patients to respond purposefully to verbal commands with adequate spontaneous ventilation?

<p>Moderate sedation/analgesia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key reason inhalation induction is commonly used for children scheduled for elective cases?

<p>It is less traumatic and does not require an IV. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is included in the maintenance phase of anesthesia after induction?

<p>Monitoring physiological functions and maintaining homeostasis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common risk associated with monitored anesthesia care, as indicated by the ASA Closed Claims Project database?

<p>Over-sedation leading to respiratory collapse (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the anesthesia provider during monitored anesthesia care?

<p>Support of vital functions and diagnosis of clinical problems (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which volatile anesthetic is known for being the most common, non-pungent, and non-irritating?

<p>Sevoflurane (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a correct statement about the administration of drugs during monitored anesthesia care?

<p>Therapy is customized to treat pain, anxiety, and agitation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a crucial step in the inhalation induction process?

<p>Ensuring the circuit is properly primed. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In maintaining physiologic homeostasis during surgery, which goal is critical for normotensive patients?

<p>Maintaining euvolemia and ensuring stable MAP. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary focus of post-standard induction management?

<p>Assessing the loss of lid reflex and maintaining ventilation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines the 'Valley of Anesthesia' period?

<p>Time after induction but before surgical incision. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is NOT a goal of anesthesia maintenance?

<p>Performing rapid sequence intubation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor should be monitored to ensure adequate ventilation during inhalation induction?

<p>Pulse oximetry primarily. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of pre-oxygenation during the induction of anesthesia?

<p>To replace nitrogen in the patient's functional residual capacity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following anesthetic agents is known for providing rapid onset of unconsciousness?

<p>Thiopental (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the application of cricoid pressure during rapid sequence induction aim to achieve?

<p>Close the esophagus to reduce aspiration risk (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which monitor is specifically used when consistent and continuous monitoring of blood pressure is necessary?

<p>Arterial line (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common characteristic of an ideal intravenous anesthesia induction drug?

<p>Rapid onset and minimal respiratory depression (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which reflex is considered a protective reflex during anesthesia induction?

<p>Eyelid reflex (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of pre-induction, what is the primary use of special monitors like cerebral oximeters?

<p>To assess cerebral blood flow and oxygenation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factor determines the choice of anesthetic agent used during induction?

<p>Patient-specific comorbidities and situational needs (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a rapid sequence induction, which of the following is a critical step following the administration of induction agents?

<p>Applying cricoid pressure until sufficient oxygenation occurs (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of the standard induction sequence in anesthesia?

<p>To ensure a safe and effective transition to unconsciousness (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of Stage II during intravenous induction of anesthesia?

<p>It includes involuntary movements and carries the highest risk for laryngospasms. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which criterion is essential for 'Awake Extubation'?

<p>The patient should be fully conscious and responsive to simple commands. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal during the emergence phase from general anesthesia?

<p>To allow the patient to regain consciousness and protect their airway. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of Stage III Plane 2 in general anesthesia?

<p>Regular respiration with reduced tidal volume and lost sensation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which method should be employed to minimize diffusion hypoxia after the use of N2O?

<p>Providing 100% oxygen for a duration of 5-10 minutes. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What denotes the end of Stage IV in general anesthesia?

<p>Cessation of spontaneous respiration leading to circulatory collapse. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be prioritized when evaluating a patient for deep extubation?

<p>Verification of adequate NMBA reversal and stable hemodynamics. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the essential responsibility during the maintenance monitoring phase of anesthesia?

<p>Regular assessment of vital signs and anesthetic depth. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a sign of Stage III during the emergence phase?

<p>Presence of slight muscle tone. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Monitored Anesthesia Care (MAC), what indicates that the anesthesia approach has transitioned to general anesthesia?

<p>The patient loses consciousness and the ability to respond purposefully. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for performing pre-oxygenation before induction of anesthesia?

<p>To replace nitrogen in the functional residual capacity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the characteristics of ideal intravenous induction agents?

<p>They should allow for a fast recovery and minimal side effects (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a unique aspect of Rapid Sequence Induction (RSI) compared to standard induction?

<p>It always includes a neuromuscular blocking agent right after unconsciousness (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which monitor is considered a standard for all anesthetic techniques according to the established guidelines?

<p>Temperature monitoring (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What component is critical during the setup procedure for RSI to prevent aspiration?

<p>Applying cricoid pressure (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which anesthetic agent is commonly utilized for inducing anesthesia due to its minimal effect on seizure threshold?

<p>Brevital (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component is typically NOT included in the standard induction sequence checklist?

<p>Patient medication review (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the AANA and ASA standard require regarding monitoring during anesthesia?

<p>Standard monitors are mandatory regardless of location (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which volatile anesthetic is known for being non-pungent and non-irritating?

<p>Sevoflurane (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is primarily assessed in the post-induction phase to determine ventilation effectiveness?

<p>Ease of ventilation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During inhalation induction, which component is essential for achieving a sufficient onset of anesthesia?

<p>Use of nitrous oxide (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At which spinal level is local anesthetic solution typically injected for spinal neuraxial anesthesia?

<p>Below L1 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does 'maintenance of physiological homeostasis' during anesthesia require?

<p>Constant monitoring of vital signs (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a goal of the maintenance phase in anesthesia?

<p>Increased heart rate (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structure must be penetrated to reach the subarachnoid space during a spinal block?

<p>Dura mater (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In inhalation induction, what is the primary role of priming the circuit?

<p>To ensure oxygen delivery effectively (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary blood supply to the lower two-thirds of the spinal cord?

<p>Anterior artery (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common feature of the 'valley of anesthesia' following induction?

<p>Ongoing anesthesia management (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements best describes the mechanism of action of spinal anesthesia?

<p>Local anesthetic acts primarily on the nerve roots. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one potential complication of delayed gastric emptying when considering anesthesia?

<p>Increased risk of aspiration (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What potential complication is associated with spinal blocks that result in sympathetic blockade?

<p>Bradycardia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is indicated by a positive pressure ventilation technique in the post-standard induction phase?

<p>Improving oxygen saturation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which airway device can be utilized without the administration of paralytics?

<p>Laryngeal mask airway (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of neuroaxial anesthesia?

<p>To block signals to and from the nerve adjacent to the spinal cord (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about ETCO2 monitoring is correct?

<p>A sealed mask is needed for accurate ETCO2 monitoring (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the original application of modern local anesthesia involve?

<p>Topical anesthesia of the eye with cocaine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a known application of regional anesthesia techniques?

<p>Continuous sedation for all surgical procedures (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do local anesthetics primarily function on nerve fibers?

<p>By interrupting conduction through sodium channels (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of spinal anesthesia?

<p>It can be performed as either a single injection or with a catheter (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which surgeries are typically contraindicated for neuroaxial anesthesia?

<p>Surgeries that may impair ventilation and may require an ETT (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these is true about cardiovascular function during neuroaxial anesthesia?

<p>It is typically maintained during procedures (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who is credited with the development of spinal anesthesia?

<p>Augustus Bier and Theodore Tuffier (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which stage of general anesthesia begins with the onset of regular breathing and ends with the loss of spontaneous respirations?

<p>Stage III: Surgical Anesthesia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which stage of general anesthesia is there a critical risk for laryngospasms, especially if the endotracheal tube is pulled?

<p>Stage II: Delirium (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is necessary for adequate spontaneous ventilation during awake extubation?

<p>Patent airway and responding to commands (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the presence of dilated pupils and tachycardia indicate during the stages of general anesthesia?

<p>Stage II: Delirium (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which criterion is essential for deep extubation immediately prior to extubation?

<p>Adequate reversal of neuromuscular blocking agents. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What must be monitored during maintenance anesthesia in addition to vital signs?

<p>Muscle relaxation level. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What indicates that diffusion hypoxia may have occurred after the use of nitrous oxide?

<p>Hypoxia due to displacement of nitrogen. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When preparing for emergence from general anesthesia, what should be assessed specifically?

<p>Estimate the remaining surgical procedure time. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which breathing irregularity during Stage II could indicate a patient's readiness for extubation?

<p>Regular, deep breathing. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should a patient demonstrate before being considered safe for awake extubation?

<p>Ability to lift their head off the table. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

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Study Notes

Preoperative Evaluation

  • Preanesthetic evaluation aims to assess a patient's medical history and intraoperative risk.
  • Identifying and mitigating risks is crucial for optimizing patient conditions and minimizing complications.
  • Inadequate planning may lead to increased anesthetic complications and surgical delays.

Goals of Preoperative Evaluation

  • Optimize patient care, satisfaction, and comfort.
  • Minimize perioperative morbidity and mortality.
  • Ensure effective communication among care providers about patient management issues.
  • Educate patients regarding surgical and anesthetic expectations to reduce anxiety.

Components of the Preanesthetic Evaluation

  • Chart review includes current medical records, previous anesthetic experiences, and patient medications.
  • A directed physical examination assesses vital signs, airway, cardiac, and pulmonary systems.
  • Preoperative tests and consultations based on patient needs.
  • ASA classification determines patients' health status and anesthesia risk.

Medication Management

  • Certain medications should be continued, including antihypertensives, antidepressants, and anticonvulsants.
  • Medications to discontinue include:
    • Short-acting insulin (day of surgery)
    • Non-insulin antidiabetic meds (day of surgery)
    • Warfarin (5 days before surgery)
  • Herbal medications may require specific discontinuation times to avoid adverse effects.

Fasting Guidelines

  • Applicable ASA fasting guidelines ensure patient safety prior to anesthesia delivery.
  • Preoperative fasting is essential to reduce the risk of aspiration pneumonitis.

Aspiration Pneumonitis

  • Aspiration pneumonitis occurs when foreign substances enter the lungs, causing inflammation.
  • Prevention strategies focus on identifying at-risk populations and implementing appropriate fasting guidelines.
  • Treatment options vary based on the severity of the aspiration.

Airway Evaluation

  • Airway assessment utilizes the LEMON criteria, which includes examining the length of incisors, conditions of teeth, and visibility of the uvula.
  • Factors such as neck circumference and range of motion are critical for determining anesthetic management.

Co-morbidities Impacting Anesthesia

  • Obesity is defined in relation to ideal body weight and can complicate anesthesia due to increased risk and altered pharmacokinetics.

Social History Considerations

  • Substance abuse, including tobacco and alcohol, affects anesthetic care and requires careful assessment.
  • The impact of electronic cigarette use and its constituents on physiological function needs evaluation.

Summary of Preoperative Interview Objectives

  • Streamline patient education on surgery and anesthesia.
  • Confirm comprehensive medication history, including over-the-counter and herbal supplements.
  • Gather information on patient's prior surgery and anesthetic experiences, including any adverse reactions.

Overview of Anesthesia

  • Categories of anesthesia include obstetric, pediatric, cardiothoracic, neuro, outpatient surgery, ketamine clinic, office-based, pain management, and critical care.
  • Key historical figures include 1864's Morton, known for the first ether anesthetic, and Alice Magaw, recognized as the first nurse anesthetist.

Considerations Influencing Anesthetic Technique

  • Patient safety is paramount in anesthetic decisions.
  • Patient comfort and provider preference also significantly influence techniques.
  • Coexisting diseases, surgical site, patient positioning, and age are critical factors.
  • Duration of surgery and recovery time vary based on procedure type and facility criteria.

Ideal Anesthetic Technique

  • Prioritizes optimal patient safety, satisfaction, and low costs.
  • Ensures excellent operating conditions and allows for rapid recovery while minimizing postoperative side effects.

Types of Anesthesia

  • General Anesthesia: Induces a drug-induced depression of the CNS leading to loss of response to external stimuli.
    • Types include inhalation-only, intravenous-only (TIVA), and a combination of both.
  • Components of anesthetic state: unconsciousness, amnesia (often achieved via benzodiazepines), analgesia, immobility, and attenuation of autonomic responses.

Phases of General Anesthesia

  • Induction: Administers anesthetic drugs to achieve unconsciousness and requires monitoring (EKG, NIBP, pulse-ox, etc.).
  • Pre-Induction: Involves pre-oxygenation to replace nitrogen in lung capacity, preventing apnea.
  • Intravenous Induction: Common induction agents include Propofol (most used), Thiopental, and Ketamine, each with specific pharmacological characteristics.

Standard Induction Sequence

  • Room setup includes machine checks and patient monitoring.
  • Pre-oxygenation and administration of induction agents are crucial.
  • Neuromuscular blockers are given if an airway device is needed, followed by airway instrumentation.

Rapid Sequence Induction (RSI)

  • Administers anesthetic followed by neuromuscular blocking agents, critical for patients at risk of aspiration.
  • Requires careful monitoring and cricoid pressure to reduce aspiration risk during induction.

Inhalation Induction

  • Common practice for pediatric cases; involves mask induction using oxygen and volatile agents.
  • Volatile anesthetics such as Sevoflurane are preferred for their non-irritating properties.

Maintenance of Anesthesia

  • Focuses on maintaining unconsciousness, analgesia, and muscle relaxation.
  • Monitoring is essential for ensuring patient stability and preventing complications during procedures.

Stages of General Anesthesia

  • Stage I (Analgesia): Begins with induction agent administration and ends with loss of consciousness.
  • Stage II (Delirium): Characterized by involuntary movements; to be avoided during extubation.
  • Stage III (Surgical Anesthesia): Four planes with varying levels of respiratory response; deep anesthesia where most surgeries occur.
  • Stage IV (Overdose): Respiratory paralysis; demands immediate intervention.

Emergence from Anesthesia

  • Transition from general anesthesia includes regaining consciousness and airway reflexes.
  • Recovery involves careful monitoring, adequate reversal of neuromuscular blockers, and management of postoperative nausea and pain.

Monitored Anesthesia Care (MAC)

  • MAC allows the anesthesiologist to administer varying sedation levels during procedures.
  • Requires preparedness to convert to general anesthesia if necessary; patient comfort and vitals are maintained throughout.

Sedation Levels

  • Different levels of sedation range from minimal (anxiolytics) to deep sedation:
    • Minimal Sedation: Patients respond to verbal commands, maintaining airway reflexes.
    • Moderate Sedation: Patients respond purposefully, spontaneous ventilation is adequate.
    • Deep Sedation: Patients require significant stimulation for response; airway and ventilation must be closely monitored.

Safety Protocols

  • Vigilance in monitoring and equipment readiness is essential to prevent complications during all sedation levels and anesthesia.

General Anesthesia Overview

  • Immobility implies a lack of response to stimuli, not paralysis.
  • Autonomic responses to noxious stimuli are attenuated during anesthesia.

Phases of General Anesthesia

  • Induction: The process of administering anesthetic drugs (IV or inhaled) to induce unconsciousness.
  • Pre-Induction Monitoring: Includes EKG, NIBP, pulse oximetry, CO2 levels, and temperature. These are minimum standards regardless of hospital location.

Pre-Induction Procedures

  • Pre-Oxygenation: Patients inhale 100% oxygen for 3-5 minutes to replace nitrogen in functional residual capacity, facilitating airway security and reducing apnea risks.
  • Intravenous Induction: No single ideal drug exists; characteristics of a desirable agent include rapid onset, analgesia, minimal depression of cardiac/respiratory functions, and lack of toxicity.
  • Common IV Induction Agents: Propofol (most used), Thiopental, Brevital, Etomidate, Ketamine, Opioids, Benzodiazepines.

Standard Induction Sequence

  • Ensure room setup, check machines, apply monitors, position the patient, establish baseline vitals, pre-oxygenate, administer induction agents, perform mask ventilation, and use neuromuscular blockers as needed.

Rapid Sequence Induction (RSI)

  • Involves immediate administration of a neuromuscular blocking agent following an IV anesthetic, particularly crucial for patients with high aspiration risk.
  • Cricoid pressure is employed to reduce aspiration risk until CO2 detection is confirmed.

Inhalation Induction

  • Common in children and involves administering oxygen with a volatile agent.
  • Volatile anesthetics include Sevoflurane (most common), Desflurane, and Isoflurane (slow onset).

Post-Induction Monitoring

  • Assess loss of consciousness, eyelid reflex, and provide ventilation support as required. Ventilation quality must be maintained and monitored.

Maintenance of Anesthesia

  • Surgical anesthesia characterized by sustained unconsciousness, amnesia, analgesia, immobility, and NS control over the sympathetic response to pain.
  • Vigilance is essential for monitoring vital signs and drug administration.

Stages of General Anesthesia

  • Stage I (Analgesia): Begins with induction agent administration.
  • Stage II (Delirium): Involuntary movement, skipped in IV induction.
  • Stage III (Surgical Anesthesia): Divided into four planes; most surgeries occur in planes 1 and 2.
  • Stage IV (Overdose): Respiratory paralysis leading to circulatory collapse; requires urgent lightening of anesthesia.

Emergence from Anesthesia

  • Transition from general anesthesia to consciousness, with attention on neuromuscular recovery and airway protection.
  • Awake extubation is considered when the patient meets specific criteria for safety.

Monitored Anesthesia Care (MAC)

  • Anesthesia service participation in procedures, which may require general anesthesia if the patient becomes unconscious.

History of Regional Anesthesia

  • Carl Koller, in 1884, introduced cocaine for topical anesthesia, followed by William Halstead for nerve blocks.

Neuroaxial Anesthesia

  • Involves local anesthetic adjacent to the spinal cord, disrupting nerve signal conduction.
  • Can be performed as single injections or continuous infusions.
  • Spinal anesthesia requires injection below L1 and results in neural conduction blockade.

Anatomy for Neuroaxial Anesthesia

  • Needle traverses several layers including skin, ligaments, and eventually into the epidural or subarachnoid space.

Mechanism of Action

  • Local anesthetics disrupt nerve conduction primarily at nerve roots.
  • Spinal anesthesia leads to immediate action; heavy blocks (above T4) potentially cause cardiac complications.

Spinal Anesthesia Techniques

  • Single injections in the subarachnoid space allow rapid onset and effective surgical anesthesia.
  • Needle types: Pencil point tips (less traumatic) vs Cutting point tips (more traumatic).

Needles for Spinal Blocks

  • Pencil point needles (Sprotte, Whitacre) are less traumatic than cutting-tip needles (Quincke, Atraucan).

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