Podcast
Questions and Answers
Where do the superior and inferior eyelids join together?
Where do the superior and inferior eyelids join together?
- Lacrimal glands
- Palpebral commissures (correct)
- Tarsal plate
- Orbital septum
What is the name of the triangle of conjunctiva exposed at the level of the palpebral commissures?
What is the name of the triangle of conjunctiva exposed at the level of the palpebral commissures?
- Lacrimal sac
- Orbital septum
- Tarsal plate
- Lakes / canthi (correct)
In what location are the mimic muscles hosted in the face?
In what location are the mimic muscles hosted in the face?
- Orbital septum
- Lacrimal gland
- Tarsal plate
- SMAS (correct)
Which muscle makes possible the movement of the skin that is lining the frontal bone?
Which muscle makes possible the movement of the skin that is lining the frontal bone?
What structure is like a large surface of dense connective tissue and merges with one of the levator palpebrae superioris tendons?
What structure is like a large surface of dense connective tissue and merges with one of the levator palpebrae superioris tendons?
What is the name of the second posterior tendon that continues independently from the levator aponeurosis?
What is the name of the second posterior tendon that continues independently from the levator aponeurosis?
What is the structure that separates the skin and subcutaneous tissue from the orbital fat pad?
What is the structure that separates the skin and subcutaneous tissue from the orbital fat pad?
What type of tissue primarily composes the orbital fat pad?
What type of tissue primarily composes the orbital fat pad?
Which glands are sebaceous glands associated with eyelashes?
Which glands are sebaceous glands associated with eyelashes?
Which glands are a huge collection of sebaceous glands not associated with hair follicles?
Which glands are a huge collection of sebaceous glands not associated with hair follicles?
What is the approximate size of the orbital cavity?
What is the approximate size of the orbital cavity?
The six muscles of the eye have their origin connected by what structure?
The six muscles of the eye have their origin connected by what structure?
What is the name for muscles which make possible the movements of the eye?
What is the name for muscles which make possible the movements of the eye?
What is the primary component of the orbital fat that fills the spaces around the eye?
What is the primary component of the orbital fat that fills the spaces around the eye?
Which structure primarily suspends the eyeball vertically?
Which structure primarily suspends the eyeball vertically?
Which muscle is responsible for moving the eyeball inferiorly?
Which muscle is responsible for moving the eyeball inferiorly?
What type of movement does the medial rectus muscle produce?
What type of movement does the medial rectus muscle produce?
What is the transparent part of the fibrous tunic called?
What is the transparent part of the fibrous tunic called?
Which structure is the location of stem cells for the corneal epithelium?
Which structure is the location of stem cells for the corneal epithelium?
What is the condition called where the iris is fully extended and the pupil becomes a tiny opening, typically in bright light?
What is the condition called where the iris is fully extended and the pupil becomes a tiny opening, typically in bright light?
What is the main function of the sphincter pupillae muscle?
What is the main function of the sphincter pupillae muscle?
What is the name given to the process of pupil dilation?
What is the name given to the process of pupil dilation?
What structure connects the ciliary body to the lens?
What structure connects the ciliary body to the lens?
What is a key characteristic of zonular fibers?
What is a key characteristic of zonular fibers?
Which layer of the eye is highly vascular and located between the retina and the sclera?
Which layer of the eye is highly vascular and located between the retina and the sclera?
What is the function of the ciliary processes?
What is the function of the ciliary processes?
What is the most common location for melanoma to develop, other than the skin?
What is the most common location for melanoma to develop, other than the skin?
What part of the ciliary body has folds with a radial orientation?
What part of the ciliary body has folds with a radial orientation?
Which layer is responsible for focusing light on the retina?
Which layer is responsible for focusing light on the retina?
What is the name of the area where the visual retina begins?
What is the name of the area where the visual retina begins?
How many main layers comprise the retina?
How many main layers comprise the retina?
Which layer of the retina is the most superficial?
Which layer of the retina is the most superficial?
Which type of cells primarily compose the retinal pigmented epithelium (RPE)?
Which type of cells primarily compose the retinal pigmented epithelium (RPE)?
In which retinal layer are the nuclei of photoreceptors located?
In which retinal layer are the nuclei of photoreceptors located?
Which layer of the retina contains axons of ganglion cells?
Which layer of the retina contains axons of ganglion cells?
What is the primary function of the retinal pigmented epithelium (RPE)?
What is the primary function of the retinal pigmented epithelium (RPE)?
What is the approximate number of axons of ganglionic cells in the nerve fibers layer?
What is the approximate number of axons of ganglionic cells in the nerve fibers layer?
What condition is caused by vascular endothelial growth factor prompting the proliferation of endothelial cells in the choriocapillary layer?
What condition is caused by vascular endothelial growth factor prompting the proliferation of endothelial cells in the choriocapillary layer?
What is the name of the barrier that prevents glutamate, aspartate and glycine from entering the retina?
What is the name of the barrier that prevents glutamate, aspartate and glycine from entering the retina?
What is the name of the location in the retina where retinal detachment often starts?
What is the name of the location in the retina where retinal detachment often starts?
Which cells are considered the most important glial cells in the retina?
Which cells are considered the most important glial cells in the retina?
What structure connects the inner and outer segments of photoreceptors?
What structure connects the inner and outer segments of photoreceptors?
What is the name of the synaptic button found in rods?
What is the name of the synaptic button found in rods?
What type of photoreceptors are best suited for black and white vision?
What type of photoreceptors are best suited for black and white vision?
During darkness, what neurotransmitter is released by photoreceptors?
During darkness, what neurotransmitter is released by photoreceptors?
How many main layers are used to describe the retina by ophthalmologists?
How many main layers are used to describe the retina by ophthalmologists?
In which layer of the retina are the nuclei of photoreceptors located?
In which layer of the retina are the nuclei of photoreceptors located?
What is the estimated number of axons in the nerve fibers layer?
What is the estimated number of axons in the nerve fibers layer?
Which vitamin is captured and manipulated by cells of the retinal pigmented epithelium?
Which vitamin is captured and manipulated by cells of the retinal pigmented epithelium?
What is the name of the barrier that prevents glycine, aspartate, and glutamate from entering the retina?
What is the name of the barrier that prevents glycine, aspartate, and glutamate from entering the retina?
Where does retinal detachment typically begin?
Where does retinal detachment typically begin?
What type of photoreceptors are responsible for black and white vision?
What type of photoreceptors are responsible for black and white vision?
What type of cell connects photoreceptors to ganglion cells?
What type of cell connects photoreceptors to ganglion cells?
At what angle are the centrioles arranged in the organelle connecting the outer and inner segments of photoreceptors?
At what angle are the centrioles arranged in the organelle connecting the outer and inner segments of photoreceptors?
Where are the soma of ganglion cells located?
Where are the soma of ganglion cells located?
Into which layer do the dendrites of ganglion cells extend?
Into which layer do the dendrites of ganglion cells extend?
Where do the axons of ganglion cells extend?
Where do the axons of ganglion cells extend?
Which order of neurons are ganglion cells in the visual pathways?
Which order of neurons are ganglion cells in the visual pathways?
At which location do ganglion cell axons exit the eye?
At which location do ganglion cell axons exit the eye?
Towards which part of the retina do ganglion cells appear later during differentiation?
Towards which part of the retina do ganglion cells appear later during differentiation?
What type of inputs do ganglion cells receive?
What type of inputs do ganglion cells receive?
What are the specialized synaptic structures in pre-synaptic bipolar cell terminals called?
What are the specialized synaptic structures in pre-synaptic bipolar cell terminals called?
What are the two post-synaptic processes opposing each ribbon in the IPL called?
What are the two post-synaptic processes opposing each ribbon in the IPL called?
What is one of the typical sources that connect ganglion cells?
What is one of the typical sources that connect ganglion cells?
What is the purpose of dividing the IPL into two functionally discreet subliminae?
What is the purpose of dividing the IPL into two functionally discreet subliminae?
In the IPL, where is sublamina 'a' primarily located?
In the IPL, where is sublamina 'a' primarily located?
Which layers does sublamina 'b' stretch to in the IPL?
Which layers does sublamina 'b' stretch to in the IPL?
What type of bipolar cells interact primarily within sublamina a?
What type of bipolar cells interact primarily within sublamina a?
What is the function of horizontal cells?
What is the function of horizontal cells?
In what direction do horizontal cells transfer information?
In what direction do horizontal cells transfer information?
What type of cell synapse does one type of horizontal cell make?
What type of cell synapse does one type of horizontal cell make?
What is released by photoreceptors in the dark based on the video transcription?
What is released by photoreceptors in the dark based on the video transcription?
What neurotransmitter is released by horizontal cells that hyperpolarizes photoreceptors?
What neurotransmitter is released by horizontal cells that hyperpolarizes photoreceptors?
In the described horizontal cell circuitry, what causes an ON-bipolar cell to become depolarized?
In the described horizontal cell circuitry, what causes an ON-bipolar cell to become depolarized?
What type of receptor fields do RGC's have?
What type of receptor fields do RGC's have?
When is firing at a maximum in RGC's with an ON-center/OFF-surround receptive field?
When is firing at a maximum in RGC's with an ON-center/OFF-surround receptive field?
What kind of cells are amacrine cells?
What kind of cells are amacrine cells?
What type of cells release and have both presynaptic and postsynaptic endings?
What type of cells release and have both presynaptic and postsynaptic endings?
What is the function of interplexiform neurons?
What is the function of interplexiform neurons?
What type of junction makes up an adherens junction?
What type of junction makes up an adherens junction?
Which type of cells form the inner limiting membrane?
Which type of cells form the inner limiting membrane?
If there is damage of photoreceptors, outer nuclear layer, bipolar cell layer, outer plexiform layer, or plexiform layer (4) all these layers will be replaced by the proliferation of which type of cell?
If there is damage of photoreceptors, outer nuclear layer, bipolar cell layer, outer plexiform layer, or plexiform layer (4) all these layers will be replaced by the proliferation of which type of cell?
General speaking, which cell have an important role in host defence against invading microorganisms in the initiation of inflammatory...
General speaking, which cell have an important role in host defence against invading microorganisms in the initiation of inflammatory...
What is the main purpose of the external acoustic meatus?
What is the main purpose of the external acoustic meatus?
What type of cartilage forms the auricle (pinna) of the ear?
What type of cartilage forms the auricle (pinna) of the ear?
Ceruminous glands are only associated with which part of the external acoustic meatus?
Ceruminous glands are only associated with which part of the external acoustic meatus?
What instrument is used to inspect the eardrum?
What instrument is used to inspect the eardrum?
Which of these is a division for the ear?
Which of these is a division for the ear?
Which of the following structures is the inferior tip of the malleus/hammer?
Which of the following structures is the inferior tip of the malleus/hammer?
Which part of the eardrum primarily contributes to the transfer of acoustic waves?
Which part of the eardrum primarily contributes to the transfer of acoustic waves?
What is the superior wall of the tympanic cavity called?
What is the superior wall of the tympanic cavity called?
What passes lateral to the long limb of the anvil and medial to the handle of the hammer in the tympanic cavity?
What passes lateral to the long limb of the anvil and medial to the handle of the hammer in the tympanic cavity?
Which muscle's primary function is to limit the movements of the stapes?
Which muscle's primary function is to limit the movements of the stapes?
Which part of the ear is embedded within the temporal bone?
Which part of the ear is embedded within the temporal bone?
What are the names of the two fluids found within the inner ear?
What are the names of the two fluids found within the inner ear?
Which of the following is a component of the bony labyrinth?
Which of the following is a component of the bony labyrinth?
What type of stimuli are the vestibule and semicircular canals sensitive to?
What type of stimuli are the vestibule and semicircular canals sensitive to?
Where are the cristae ampullaris located?
Where are the cristae ampullaris located?
What structure contains the receptor organs for hearing?
What structure contains the receptor organs for hearing?
What is the name given to the shared opening of the anterior and posterior semicircular canals?
What is the name given to the shared opening of the anterior and posterior semicircular canals?
The utricle and saccule both contain which structure?
The utricle and saccule both contain which structure?
What type of cell is a hair cell?
What type of cell is a hair cell?
What structure covers the apical surface of hair cells and is not directly exposed to the endolymph?
What structure covers the apical surface of hair cells and is not directly exposed to the endolymph?
What is the name of the elliptical recess located on the medial wall of the vestibule?
What is the name of the elliptical recess located on the medial wall of the vestibule?
Which structure of the inner ear is described as a hollow, bony spiral?
Which structure of the inner ear is described as a hollow, bony spiral?
Which cranial nerve does the internal acoustic meatus contain?
Which cranial nerve does the internal acoustic meatus contain?
What two structures merge to form the vestibular part of cranial nerve VIII?
What two structures merge to form the vestibular part of cranial nerve VIII?
What is another name for cranial nerve VIII?
What is another name for cranial nerve VIII?
What geometric shape best describes the shape of the cochlea?
What geometric shape best describes the shape of the cochlea?
What is the name for the shared opening of the anterior and posterior semicircular canals?
What is the name for the shared opening of the anterior and posterior semicircular canals?
Which structure receives all the semicircular ducts?
Which structure receives all the semicircular ducts?
What duct connects the utricle and saccule with the endolymphatic sac?
What duct connects the utricle and saccule with the endolymphatic sac?
Which structure is the equivalent of cristae ampullares, but found in the utricle and saccule?
Which structure is the equivalent of cristae ampullares, but found in the utricle and saccule?
What is the term for the part of the central nervous system (CNS) located within the cranial cavity?
What is the term for the part of the central nervous system (CNS) located within the cranial cavity?
What are aggregations of neurons in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) called?
What are aggregations of neurons in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) called?
What is the equivalent of ganglia in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) within the central nervous system (CNS)?
What is the equivalent of ganglia in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) within the central nervous system (CNS)?
From which embryonic structure are most neurons in the peripheral nervous system derived?
From which embryonic structure are most neurons in the peripheral nervous system derived?
What structure do axons in the PNS form?
What structure do axons in the PNS form?
What is the term for pathways carrying information toward the central nervous system (CNS)?
What is the term for pathways carrying information toward the central nervous system (CNS)?
What type of cells protect axons in both the peripheral nervous system (PNS) and central nervous system (CNS)?
What type of cells protect axons in both the peripheral nervous system (PNS) and central nervous system (CNS)?
What is the connective tissue that wraps each single nerve fiber in the peripheral nervous system?
What is the connective tissue that wraps each single nerve fiber in the peripheral nervous system?
What staining agent is used to visualize myelin sheaths?
What staining agent is used to visualize myelin sheaths?
What can the compression of a peripheral nerve cause?
What can the compression of a peripheral nerve cause?
What name is given to inflammatory diseases that arise if the peripheral blood barrier is broken?
What name is given to inflammatory diseases that arise if the peripheral blood barrier is broken?
Which cells are located around the periphery of the soma in ganglia?
Which cells are located around the periphery of the soma in ganglia?
How many pairs do the cranial nerves come in?
How many pairs do the cranial nerves come in?
Through what structure do the axons of the olfactory primary neurons pass?
Through what structure do the axons of the olfactory primary neurons pass?
What structures contain the secondary olfactory neurons?
What structures contain the secondary olfactory neurons?
What is another name for the primary olfactory cortex?
What is another name for the primary olfactory cortex?
Which Brodmann area corresponds to the secondary olfactory cortex?
Which Brodmann area corresponds to the secondary olfactory cortex?
What is the main function associated with the secondary olfactory cortex?
What is the main function associated with the secondary olfactory cortex?
Which Brodmann area is the primary olfactory cortex?
Which Brodmann area is the primary olfactory cortex?
What is another name for the optic nerve?
What is another name for the optic nerve?
What is the shape of the optic disc?
What is the shape of the optic disc?
What is the name of the central white depression in the optic disc?
What is the name of the central white depression in the optic disc?
Which retinal area looks slightly darker than the surrounding retina due to increased pigment?
Which retinal area looks slightly darker than the surrounding retina due to increased pigment?
Relative to veins, what is a characteristic of arteries in the retina?
Relative to veins, what is a characteristic of arteries in the retina?
What cells myelinate the optic nerve after it passes through the sclera?
What cells myelinate the optic nerve after it passes through the sclera?
The optic nerve travels to the orbital cavity through what structure?
The optic nerve travels to the orbital cavity through what structure?
What structure is formed by the merging of the optic nerves?
What structure is formed by the merging of the optic nerves?
What is the name of the area where CN II exit from the eyeball?
What is the name of the area where CN II exit from the eyeball?
Which Brodmann area is considered the primary visual cortex?
Which Brodmann area is considered the primary visual cortex?
Damage to the inferior radiation of the lateral geniculate nucleus can cause what condition?
Damage to the inferior radiation of the lateral geniculate nucleus can cause what condition?
What symptom is commonly associated with a defect in cranial nerve III, causing a patient to seek medical attention?
What symptom is commonly associated with a defect in cranial nerve III, causing a patient to seek medical attention?
What visual defect, aside from diplopia, can result from defects in cranial nerve III?
What visual defect, aside from diplopia, can result from defects in cranial nerve III?
What term describes a patient's inability to read due to a sudden issue with focusing?
What term describes a patient's inability to read due to a sudden issue with focusing?
In cases of abducens nerve (cranial nerve VI) defects, which muscle's function is primarily affected?
In cases of abducens nerve (cranial nerve VI) defects, which muscle's function is primarily affected?
Which cranial nerve possesses both sensory and motor components but lacks a visceral component?
Which cranial nerve possesses both sensory and motor components but lacks a visceral component?
The mesencephalic nucleus of the trigeminus nerve is devoted to which function?
The mesencephalic nucleus of the trigeminus nerve is devoted to which function?
What type of neurons are contained in the spinal nucleus of the trigeminus nerve?
What type of neurons are contained in the spinal nucleus of the trigeminus nerve?
What is the sensory distribution pattern called which is associated with central lesions of the cranial nerve V?
What is the sensory distribution pattern called which is associated with central lesions of the cranial nerve V?
What is the name of the ganglion in which the somatosensory lateral root expands to form?
What is the name of the ganglion in which the somatosensory lateral root expands to form?
From which nerve does the lacrimal nerve originate?
From which nerve does the lacrimal nerve originate?
Which nerves pass superior to the annulus of Zinn?
Which nerves pass superior to the annulus of Zinn?
What canal does the frontal nerve pass into?
What canal does the frontal nerve pass into?
The frontal and lacrimal nerves are what type of nerves?
The frontal and lacrimal nerves are what type of nerves?
Through which structure does the nasociliary nerve enter the superior orbital fissure?
Through which structure does the nasociliary nerve enter the superior orbital fissure?
What is the name of the nerve that is depicted as originating from the sensory root of the ciliary ganglion?
What is the name of the nerve that is depicted as originating from the sensory root of the ciliary ganglion?
Which nerve provides innervation to the vestibule of the nasal cavity?
Which nerve provides innervation to the vestibule of the nasal cavity?
What foramina does the anterior ethmoidal nerve passes through in order to get access to the vestibule?
What foramina does the anterior ethmoidal nerve passes through in order to get access to the vestibule?
The nasociliary nerve becomes which nerve at the level of the tendon pulley of the superior oblique muscle?
The nasociliary nerve becomes which nerve at the level of the tendon pulley of the superior oblique muscle?
What is the name of the nerve that is also known as tentorial nerve of Arnold?
What is the name of the nerve that is also known as tentorial nerve of Arnold?
The ciliary ganglion is associated to which cranial nerve?
The ciliary ganglion is associated to which cranial nerve?
What type of root the ciliary ganglion is NOT associated with?
What type of root the ciliary ganglion is NOT associated with?
Which branch in the trigeminal nerve is associated with the Gasserian ganglion?
Which branch in the trigeminal nerve is associated with the Gasserian ganglion?
What is another name for Trigeminal ganglion?
What is another name for Trigeminal ganglion?
Which of these is a part innervated by the meningeal branch of the maxillary nerve?
Which of these is a part innervated by the meningeal branch of the maxillary nerve?
What passes on top of the inferior orbital fissure?
What passes on top of the inferior orbital fissure?
Where is located the pterygopalatine fossa?
Where is located the pterygopalatine fossa?
If you damage one of the teeth, you make a felony in which country?
If you damage one of the teeth, you make a felony in which country?
Foramens called supraorbital, infraorbital, and mental are what type of relationship to each other?
Foramens called supraorbital, infraorbital, and mental are what type of relationship to each other?
What nerve reenters inside the scalp through the foramen spinosum?
What nerve reenters inside the scalp through the foramen spinosum?
What is the name of the third branch of the cranial nerve V that innervates the masticatory muscles?
What is the name of the third branch of the cranial nerve V that innervates the masticatory muscles?
Which nerve provides visceromotor innervation for the parotid gland?
Which nerve provides visceromotor innervation for the parotid gland?
Which artery does the auriculotemporal nerve form a hook or ring around?
Which artery does the auriculotemporal nerve form a hook or ring around?
What is the name for a disease that causes episodes of intense facial pain on the maxillary and mandibular areas?
What is the name for a disease that causes episodes of intense facial pain on the maxillary and mandibular areas?
Which nerve is running close to the apex of molar and premolar teeth?
Which nerve is running close to the apex of molar and premolar teeth?
What provides a complete understanding of the situation when the inferior alveolar nerve is running close to the apex of molar and premolar teeth?
What provides a complete understanding of the situation when the inferior alveolar nerve is running close to the apex of molar and premolar teeth?
Which nerve provides the entire innervation of the alveoli of the teeth belonging to the inferior quadrants?
Which nerve provides the entire innervation of the alveoli of the teeth belonging to the inferior quadrants?
How many components does the facial nerve have?
How many components does the facial nerve have?
Which muscles are controlled by the facial somatomotor nucleus?
Which muscles are controlled by the facial somatomotor nucleus?
What is the name for the paralysis resulted by peripheral defect of CN VII?
What is the name for the paralysis resulted by peripheral defect of CN VII?
After exiting the neurocranium, cranial nerve VII divides into which two main branches?
After exiting the neurocranium, cranial nerve VII divides into which two main branches?
Which muscle in the neck is innervated by the facial nerve?
Which muscle in the neck is innervated by the facial nerve?
Which muscles are innervated by the temporal branches of the facial nerve?
Which muscles are innervated by the temporal branches of the facial nerve?
What area does the glossopharyngeal nerve collect somatosensory information from?
What area does the glossopharyngeal nerve collect somatosensory information from?
Which of the following nerves provides the parasympathetic route to the otic ganglion?
Which of the following nerves provides the parasympathetic route to the otic ganglion?
Where are the neurons' soma located for the stretch receptors affected by carotid sinus syndrome?
Where are the neurons' soma located for the stretch receptors affected by carotid sinus syndrome?
Which of the following is a somatomotor nerve that innervates the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles?
Which of the following is a somatomotor nerve that innervates the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles?
Which action would be most affected by a defect in cranial nerve XI?
Which action would be most affected by a defect in cranial nerve XI?
Which cranial nerve can cause dysphagia if there is a defect causing inability to swallow correctly?
Which cranial nerve can cause dysphagia if there is a defect causing inability to swallow correctly?
Which of these structures does the glossopharyngeal nerve NOT innervate?
Which of these structures does the glossopharyngeal nerve NOT innervate?
If there is no innervation of the parotid gland, which of the following would happen?
If there is no innervation of the parotid gland, which of the following would happen?
Which opening in the skull do cranial nerves IX, X, and XI pass through?
Which opening in the skull do cranial nerves IX, X, and XI pass through?
What structure is located close to the internal carotid and external carotid?
What structure is located close to the internal carotid and external carotid?
Damage to which nerve affecting stylopharyngeus exclusively is possible to be tested by electromyography?
Damage to which nerve affecting stylopharyngeus exclusively is possible to be tested by electromyography?
In which case one would lose an activity that is fundamental for our life and not replaceable if damaged bilaterally?
In which case one would lose an activity that is fundamental for our life and not replaceable if damaged bilaterally?
What type of nerve is the hypoglossal nerve?
What type of nerve is the hypoglossal nerve?
The hypoglossal trigone is located on the floor of which ventricle?
The hypoglossal trigone is located on the floor of which ventricle?
The fibers of the hypoglossal nerve pass between the anterior paraolivary nuclei and which other structure?
The fibers of the hypoglossal nerve pass between the anterior paraolivary nuclei and which other structure?
Where does the hypoglossal nerve exit from the neuroaxis?
Where does the hypoglossal nerve exit from the neuroaxis?
The preolivary sulcus is continuous with which structure in the spinal cord?
The preolivary sulcus is continuous with which structure in the spinal cord?
Through which structure does the hypoglossal nerve enter after the rootlets merge?
Through which structure does the hypoglossal nerve enter after the rootlets merge?
What opening is very close to the hypoglossal canal?
What opening is very close to the hypoglossal canal?
Which artery is located close to the region where the horizontal sigmoid sinus becomes vertical?
Which artery is located close to the region where the horizontal sigmoid sinus becomes vertical?
Which muscle has its origin close to the jugular tubercle?
Which muscle has its origin close to the jugular tubercle?
The hypoglossal nerve passes anterior to which artery?
The hypoglossal nerve passes anterior to which artery?
What artery does the hypoglossal nerve pass anterior to?
What artery does the hypoglossal nerve pass anterior to?
The hypoglossal nerve is responsible for innervating which muscles of the tongue?
The hypoglossal nerve is responsible for innervating which muscles of the tongue?
Which cranial nerve innervates the palatoglossus muscle?
Which cranial nerve innervates the palatoglossus muscle?
All of which muscle is innervated by cranial nerve XII?
All of which muscle is innervated by cranial nerve XII?
Which of the following nerves contains fibers originating from the C1 neuromere?
Which of the following nerves contains fibers originating from the C1 neuromere?
From which structures does the longissimus capitis muscle originate?
From which structures does the longissimus capitis muscle originate?
Where does the anterior scalene muscle insert?
Where does the anterior scalene muscle insert?
From what structures does the middle scalene muscle originate?
From what structures does the middle scalene muscle originate?
The roots of what structure are located between the anterior and middle scalene muscles?
The roots of what structure are located between the anterior and middle scalene muscles?
What vertebrae is also known as the prominent vertebra?
What vertebrae is also known as the prominent vertebra?
What nerve innervates the mastoid process, skin posterior to the auricle, and lobule of the ear?
What nerve innervates the mastoid process, skin posterior to the auricle, and lobule of the ear?
Which nerve is composed of C2?
Which nerve is composed of C2?
What type of information do the transverse cervical nerves (TCN) provide?
What type of information do the transverse cervical nerves (TCN) provide?
Which nerve is the only nerve providing motor innervation to the diaphragm?
Which nerve is the only nerve providing motor innervation to the diaphragm?
The Supraclavicular nerves are contributed by what vertebral nerves?
The Supraclavicular nerves are contributed by what vertebral nerves?
Which muscle is NOT innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve?
Which muscle is NOT innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve?
What joints receive proprioception and sensory innervation from the musculocutaneous nerve?
What joints receive proprioception and sensory innervation from the musculocutaneous nerve?
Into what does the musculocutaneous nerve change its name at the level of the humeral protrusions?
Into what does the musculocutaneous nerve change its name at the level of the humeral protrusions?
The right subclavian artery originates from which major vessel?
The right subclavian artery originates from which major vessel?
Which artery does the subclavian artery directly give rise to?
Which artery does the subclavian artery directly give rise to?
What anatomical landmark marks the medial border of the first portion of the subclavian artery?
What anatomical landmark marks the medial border of the first portion of the subclavian artery?
Which portion of the subclavian artery is located posterior to the anterior scalene muscle?
Which portion of the subclavian artery is located posterior to the anterior scalene muscle?
Which of the following is included in the first portion of the subclavian artery?
Which of the following is included in the first portion of the subclavian artery?
Which of the following arteries is fundamental for brain blood supply?
Which of the following arteries is fundamental for brain blood supply?
The costocervical trunk arises from which portion of the subclavian artery?
The costocervical trunk arises from which portion of the subclavian artery?
Which artery supplies the pectoralis minor and major muscles?
Which artery supplies the pectoralis minor and major muscles?
The thoracoacromial artery runs over which muscle?
The thoracoacromial artery runs over which muscle?
What are the lateral and posterior cords of the brachial plexus related to?
What are the lateral and posterior cords of the brachial plexus related to?
To which muscles does the Axillary nerve distribute?
To which muscles does the Axillary nerve distribute?
What nerve innervates all muscles in the forearm's posterior compartment?
What nerve innervates all muscles in the forearm's posterior compartment?
The somatic nervous system is associated with what type of movements?
The somatic nervous system is associated with what type of movements?
What is the primary response associated with sympathetic activation?
What is the primary response associated with sympathetic activation?
Which bodily function is typically increased during parasympathetic activation?
Which bodily function is typically increased during parasympathetic activation?
The sympathetic division is also known as what?
The sympathetic division is also known as what?
In what regions of the spinal cord do preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system originate?
In what regions of the spinal cord do preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system originate?
Where are the preganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system located?
Where are the preganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system located?
Which cranial nerves contain parasympathetic fibers?
Which cranial nerves contain parasympathetic fibers?
What is the diameter range of preganglionic fibers?
What is the diameter range of preganglionic fibers?
Which neurotransmitter is released by the second motor neuron in the parasympathetic nervous system?
Which neurotransmitter is released by the second motor neuron in the parasympathetic nervous system?
What neurotransmitter is released by the second motor neuron in the orthosympathetic nervous system?
What neurotransmitter is released by the second motor neuron in the orthosympathetic nervous system?
What is the typical neurotransmitter found in synapses with clear round vesicles in the PNS?
What is the typical neurotransmitter found in synapses with clear round vesicles in the PNS?
What is the main function of sympathetic innervation in the salivary glands?
What is the main function of sympathetic innervation in the salivary glands?
Which type of fibers are contained in the white communicating rami?
Which type of fibers are contained in the white communicating rami?
Activation of what nerve produces mydriasis?
Activation of what nerve produces mydriasis?
How many cervical sympathetic cardiac nerves are there?
How many cervical sympathetic cardiac nerves are there?
What type of fibers are contained in the cardiac nerves that innervate the heart?
What type of fibers are contained in the cardiac nerves that innervate the heart?
During a heart attack, where is the pain typically projected?
During a heart attack, where is the pain typically projected?
What type of reaction occurs when the heart starts to slow down due to an infarct?
What type of reaction occurs when the heart starts to slow down due to an infarct?
What is the function of the vagal action in response to ischemic pain?
What is the function of the vagal action in response to ischemic pain?
Where are the soma of the viscerosensory neurons collected that are responsible for vagal reactions?
Where are the soma of the viscerosensory neurons collected that are responsible for vagal reactions?
What is the role of noradrenaline when the heart rate increases?
What is the role of noradrenaline when the heart rate increases?
In Prinzmetal angina, what occurs in the small coronary arteries?
In Prinzmetal angina, what occurs in the small coronary arteries?
At what heart rate do we typically experience the first signs of hypoxia during exercise?
At what heart rate do we typically experience the first signs of hypoxia during exercise?
What nerve collects the somatosensory information related to dust entering the bronchi?
What nerve collects the somatosensory information related to dust entering the bronchi?
Which nerve collects somatosensory information from the larynx when a bone enters the airways?
Which nerve collects somatosensory information from the larynx when a bone enters the airways?
What muscle is innervated by the superior laryngeal nerve?
What muscle is innervated by the superior laryngeal nerve?
What is the function of noradrenaline on the airways?
What is the function of noradrenaline on the airways?
What three nerves merge to form the greater thoracic splanchnic nerve?
What three nerves merge to form the greater thoracic splanchnic nerve?
What is the vertebral level of the celiac ganglia?
What is the vertebral level of the celiac ganglia?
What is the origin of the sacral parasympathetic nervous system fibers?
What is the origin of the sacral parasympathetic nervous system fibers?
What structure do the pelvic splanchnic nerves reach?
What structure do the pelvic splanchnic nerves reach?
What type of fibers does the pudendal nerve carry?
What type of fibers does the pudendal nerve carry?
From where does the sympathetic NS system fibers reach the female genital tract ?
From where does the sympathetic NS system fibers reach the female genital tract ?
Through which plexus do preganglionic fibers pass?
Through which plexus do preganglionic fibers pass?
What receptors increase in levels due to the effect of oestrogen stimulation during pregnancy of the uterus?
What receptors increase in levels due to the effect of oestrogen stimulation during pregnancy of the uterus?
What replaces alpha1 receptors at the end of pregnancy?
What replaces alpha1 receptors at the end of pregnancy?
What is 'tocolysis'?
What is 'tocolysis'?
The visceral information from the uterus, tuba, and ovary are carried by?
The visceral information from the uterus, tuba, and ovary are carried by?
Which information does the pudendal nerve NOT receive?
Which information does the pudendal nerve NOT receive?
Which nerves provide sympathetic innervation to the male genital tract in addition to the lumbar splanchnic nerves?
Which nerves provide sympathetic innervation to the male genital tract in addition to the lumbar splanchnic nerves?
Through which nerves the parasympathetic innervation is provided?
Through which nerves the parasympathetic innervation is provided?
Erection depends on which nervous system?
Erection depends on which nervous system?
The inferior hypogastric plexus receives which fibers?
The inferior hypogastric plexus receives which fibers?
What occurs with the autonomic fibers which act on M3 receptors?
What occurs with the autonomic fibers which act on M3 receptors?
Which spinal nerves primarily compose the lumbar plexus?
Which spinal nerves primarily compose the lumbar plexus?
From what structures do the fibers that compose any plexus derive?
From what structures do the fibers that compose any plexus derive?
Which of the following nerves is found within the anterior ramus of the lumbar plexus' divisions?
Which of the following nerves is found within the anterior ramus of the lumbar plexus' divisions?
The iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerves receive major contributions from which spinal nerves?
The iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerves receive major contributions from which spinal nerves?
Which spinal nerves primarily contribute to the genitofemoral nerve?
Which spinal nerves primarily contribute to the genitofemoral nerve?
The obturator nerve is mainly formed by which spinal nerves?
The obturator nerve is mainly formed by which spinal nerves?
What approximate percentage of individuals possess an accessory obturator nerve?
What approximate percentage of individuals possess an accessory obturator nerve?
To which neuromere does the subcostal nerve belong?
To which neuromere does the subcostal nerve belong?
Which of the following passes through the psoas major?
Which of the following passes through the psoas major?
The iliohypogastric nerve originates from which spinal nerve(s)?
The iliohypogastric nerve originates from which spinal nerve(s)?
What is the function of the iliohypogastric nerve?
What is the function of the iliohypogastric nerve?
The iliohypogastric nerve innervates the transverse abdominal muscle and the:
The iliohypogastric nerve innervates the transverse abdominal muscle and the:
What does the ilioinguinal nerve innervate?
What does the ilioinguinal nerve innervate?
Which muscle is innervated by the genitofemoral nerve?
Which muscle is innervated by the genitofemoral nerve?
What nerve brings some sensory fibers to the central part of the femoral triangle?
What nerve brings some sensory fibers to the central part of the femoral triangle?
Flashcards
Palpebral Commissures
Palpebral Commissures
The point where the superior and inferior eyelids meet.
Lacunae/Cunthus
Lacunae/Cunthus
The triangle of conjunctiva exposed at the level of the palpebral commissures
SMAS
SMAS
Location in the face where the mimic muscles are hosted and facilitates the movement of the skin lining the frontal bone.
Orbital Septum
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Orbital Fat Pad
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Glands of Zeis
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Anulus of Zinn
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Tendon's Capsule
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Lockwood Ligament
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Fibrous Tunic
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Anterior chamber
Anterior chamber
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Stroma (iris)
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Sphincter pupillae muscle
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Dilator pupillae muscle
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Mydriasis
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Ciliary Body
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En passant synaptic buttons
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Pars plicata
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Pars plana
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Aqueous humor
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Ora serrata
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Retina
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Cytoarchitectonic
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Archicortices
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Neocortices
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Retinal Pigmented Epithelium (RPE)
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Photoreceptor Layer
Photoreceptor Layer
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Outer Limiting Layer
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External Nuclear Layer
External Nuclear Layer
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Outer Plexiform Layer
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Ganglionic Cell Layer
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Nerve Fibers Layer
Nerve Fibers Layer
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Inner Limiting Layer
Inner Limiting Layer
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Retinal pigmented epithelium
Retinal pigmented epithelium
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Blood-Retinal Barrier (BRB)
Blood-Retinal Barrier (BRB)
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Retinal Vessels
Retinal Vessels
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RPE Functions
RPE Functions
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Renewal of Photoreceptors
Renewal of Photoreceptors
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RPE secreted cytokines
RPE secreted cytokines
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Macular Degeneration
Macular Degeneration
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Bruck's Membrane
Bruck's Membrane
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Blood-brain barrier
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Optic Disc
Optic Disc
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Roles of Rods and Cones
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Primary Cilium in Photoreceptors
Primary Cilium in Photoreceptors
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Ribbon Synapses
Ribbon Synapses
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ON and OFF Bipolar Cells
ON and OFF Bipolar Cells
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Layers of Retina
Layers of Retina
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Ganglion Cells
Ganglion Cells
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Sublamina a and b
Sublamina a and b
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ON-OFF Ganglion Cells
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ON directionally selective ganglion cells
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Lateral Geniculate Nucleus (LGN)
Lateral Geniculate Nucleus (LGN)
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Parvocellular Layers
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M type ganglion cells
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K type ganglion cells
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Horizontal cells
Horizontal cells
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Type I horizontal cells
Type I horizontal cells
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Type II horizontal cells
Type II horizontal cells
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Amacrine cells
Amacrine cells
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Interplexiform neurons
Interplexiform neurons
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Optic Tract
Optic Tract
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Superior orbital fissure
Superior orbital fissure
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1st Ophthalmic Artery
1st Ophthalmic Artery
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Diaphragma sellae
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Central Retinal Artery
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Posterior ciliary arteries
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External Ear
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External Acoustic Meatus
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Ceruminous Glands
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Acute Otitis Externa
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Otoscope
Otoscope
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Tympanic Membrane
Tympanic Membrane
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Umbo
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Pars Tensa
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Middle Ear
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Ossicles
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Temporal Bone
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Bony Labyrinth
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Membranous Labyrinth
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Perilymph
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Endolymph
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Vestibule
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Organ of Corti
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Macula
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Crista Ampullaris
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Modiolus
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Facial Nerve Canal
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Vestibular Nerve
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Cranial Nerve VIII
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Tractus Spiralis Foraminosus
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Striola
Striola
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Otoliths
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Helicotrema
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Cranial Nerve
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Spinal Nerve
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Ganglion
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Nucleus (Nervous System)
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Fascicles (CNS)
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Nerves (PNS)
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Sensory Pathway
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Motor Pathway
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Endoneurium
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Perineurium
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Osmium Tetroxide Stain
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Cranial Nerve I foramen
Cranial Nerve I foramen
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Anterior Ethmoidal Opening
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Optic Nerve Foramen
Optic Nerve Foramen
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Primary Olfactory Cortex
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Secondary Olfactory Cortex
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Olfactory Memory
Olfactory Memory
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Pyriform Cortex
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Optic Nerve
Optic Nerve
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Physiologic Cup
Physiologic Cup
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Fovea
Fovea
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Myelination of Optic Nerve
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Bitemporal Hemianopia
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Homonymous Hemianopia
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Superior Homonymous Quadrantanopia
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Ptosis
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Oculomotor Nerve (CN III)
Oculomotor Nerve (CN III)
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Interpeduncular Fossa
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Pre-ganglionic fibers
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Diplopia
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Ptosis of the Superior Palpebra
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Lack of Accommodation
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Convergent Eye (Adduction)
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Divergent Strabismus (Abduction)
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Sölder Lines
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Anatomical Distribution
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Spinal Nucleus of the Trigeminal Nerve
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Trigeminal Ganglion (Gasserian Ganglion)
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When is the cadaver dissection scheduled?
When is the cadaver dissection scheduled?
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What are the terminal roots of the ophthalmic nerve?
What are the terminal roots of the ophthalmic nerve?
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How does the Frontal nerve pass?
How does the Frontal nerve pass?
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Which nerves pass superior to the annulus of Zinn?
Which nerves pass superior to the annulus of Zinn?
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The Frontal and lacrimal nerves are what kind of nerves?
The Frontal and lacrimal nerves are what kind of nerves?
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What happens when the nasociliary nerve enters the superior orbital fissure?
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The nasociliary gives rise to two what?
The nasociliary gives rise to two what?
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Where does the posterior ethmoidal nerve enter?
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What does the anterior ethmoidal nerve innervate?
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Where is the nerve located in relation to the nasal cartilage?
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What does the recurrent meningeal branch innervate?
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Where does the recurring meningeal branch go?
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Nerves that pass through the superior ?
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Recurrent nerve?
Recurrent nerve?
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What does the autonomic root include?
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Ciliary ganglion?
Ciliary ganglion?
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Cranial nerve V?
Cranial nerve V?
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How does the maxillary nerve enter the splancocranium?
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Which ganglion is connected by sensory nerves with the maxillary nerve?
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What canal contains the parasympathetic root of the sphenopalatine ganglion?
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Mandibular Nerve (CN V)
Mandibular Nerve (CN V)
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Anterior Division (Mandibular Nerve)
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Posterior Division (Mandibular Nerve)
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Auriculotemporal Nerve
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Otic Ganglion
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Cone Beam Computed Tomography (CBCT)
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Submandibular Ganglion
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Inferior Alveolar Nerve
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Trigeminal Neuralgia
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Cranial Nerve VII (Facial Nerve)
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Cranial Nerve VII Divisions
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Temporal Branches Innervation
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CN IX Modalities
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Main Motor Nucleus of IX
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Sensory territory of CN IX
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Visceral Sensory Function of CN IX
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Somatomotor Function of CN IX
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Jugular Foramen
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Parts of Jugular Foramen
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Inferior Petrosal Sinus
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Muscles Innervated by CN IX
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Hypoglossal Nerve (CN XII)
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Hypoglossal Trigone
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Preolivary Sulcus
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Hypoglossal Canal
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Preolivary Sulcus Continuation
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Rectus Capitis Muscles
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Descending Branch (CN XII)
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Muscular Branch (CN XII)
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Ansa Cervicalis Radix Superior
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Ansa Cervicalis
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C3-C4
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Omojugular Lymph Node
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Longissimus Capitis
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Anterior Scalene Muscle
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Middle Scalene Muscle
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Posterior Scalene Muscle
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Levator Scapulae Muscle
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Greater Auricular Nerve (GAN)
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Transverse Cervical Nerves (TCN)
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Supraclavicular Region Innervation
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Erb's Point
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Brachial Plexus
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Musculocutaneous Nerve
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Musculocutaneous Nerve Change
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Subclavian Artery Origin
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Right Subclavian Artery
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First Portion of Subclavian Artery
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Second Portion Subclavian Artery
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Third Portion Subclavian Artery
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Subclavian Artery First Portion Vessels
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Second Portion Subclavian Artery contents
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Third Portion Subclavian Artery Contents
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Axillary Artery Origin
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First part Axillary artery location
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Second Part, Axillary Artery
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Third Part, Axillary Artery
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Autonomic Nervous System
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Sympathetic Division Origin
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Parasympathetic Division Origin
Parasympathetic Division Origin
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Preganglionic Motor Neurons
Preganglionic Motor Neurons
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Preganglionic Fibers Classification
Preganglionic Fibers Classification
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Origin of Preganglionic Fibers
Origin of Preganglionic Fibers
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Sympathetic Cord
Sympathetic Cord
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Parasympathetic Pathway
Parasympathetic Pathway
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En passant Synapses
En passant Synapses
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Acetylcholine Receptors
Acetylcholine Receptors
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Sympatheric Innervation: Salivary Glands
Sympatheric Innervation: Salivary Glands
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Superior Cervical Ganglion
Superior Cervical Ganglion
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Cardiac Nerve Function
Cardiac Nerve Function
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Referred Pain in Heart Attack
Referred Pain in Heart Attack
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Vagal Reaction
Vagal Reaction
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Viscerosensory Role in Ischemia
Viscerosensory Role in Ischemia
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Viscerosensory Neuron Soma
Viscerosensory Neuron Soma
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Rheology
Rheology
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Prinzmetal Angina
Prinzmetal Angina
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Heart Rate Limit
Heart Rate Limit
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Airway Dust Sensation
Airway Dust Sensation
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Airway Foreign Object
Airway Foreign Object
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Superior Laryngeal Nerve
Superior Laryngeal Nerve
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Cricothyroid Muscle
Cricothyroid Muscle
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Vagal Action in Airways
Vagal Action in Airways
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Celiac Plexus
Celiac Plexus
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Vagus Nerve Fusion
Vagus Nerve Fusion
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Pelvic Splanchnic Nerves
Pelvic Splanchnic Nerves
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Superior hypogastric plexus
Superior hypogastric plexus
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Inferior hypogastric plexus
Inferior hypogastric plexus
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Pudendal Nerve
Pudendal Nerve
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Greater Splanchnic Nerve
Greater Splanchnic Nerve
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Lumbar splanchnic nerves
Lumbar splanchnic nerves
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Alpha1 Receptors (Uterus)
Alpha1 Receptors (Uterus)
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Beta2 Receptors (Uterus)
Beta2 Receptors (Uterus)
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Tocolysis
Tocolysis
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Visceral Afferents
Visceral Afferents
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Lesser and Least Thoracic splanchnic Nerves
Lesser and Least Thoracic splanchnic Nerves
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Bladder Parasympathetic Innervation
Bladder Parasympathetic Innervation
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Detrusor Beta 3 Adrenergic Receptors
Detrusor Beta 3 Adrenergic Receptors
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Urethra Adrenergic Receptors
Urethra Adrenergic Receptors
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Pudendal Nerve Contraction
Pudendal Nerve Contraction
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Lumbar Plexus
Lumbar Plexus
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Iliohypogastric Nerve
Iliohypogastric Nerve
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Ilioinguinal Nerve
Ilioinguinal Nerve
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Genitofemoral Nerve
Genitofemoral Nerve
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Lateral Cutaneous Nerve of Thigh
Lateral Cutaneous Nerve of Thigh
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Femoral Triangle
Femoral Triangle
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Femoral Nerve
Femoral Nerve
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Saphenous Nerve
Saphenous Nerve
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Femoral Artery
Femoral Artery
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Obturator Nerve
Obturator Nerve
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Accessory Obturator Nerve
Accessory Obturator Nerve
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Sacral Plexus
Sacral Plexus
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Sciatic Nerve
Sciatic Nerve
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Common Peroneal Nerve
Common Peroneal Nerve
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Tibial Nerve
Tibial Nerve
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Study Notes
Heart
- The heart receives 3 cervical and roughly 4 thoracic sympathetic cardiac nerves
- These sympathetic nerves carry postganglionic efferent fibers delivering noradrenaline
- They also carry somatosensory fibers
- During a heart attack, referred pain is projected to the superior limb (typically the left), which is detected by orthosympathetic somatosensory fibers
- Heart infarcts trigger a vagal reaction mediated by viscerosensory fibers carried by cardiac vagal branches
- This vagal reflex protects the heart by slowing it down and reducing oxygen consumption
- Vomiting and vegetative symptoms are related to viscerosensory information collection
- Information is gathered by two cervical vagal cardiac nerves (superior and inferior) and usually one thoracic cardiac vagal nerve branch
- Somatosensory neuron somata are in the dorsal root ganglia
- Viscerosensory neuron somata are in the inferior vagal ganglion (nodose ganglion), mostly outside the brain
- Efferent fibers in cervical and thoracic cardiac nerves are mostly preganglionic
- Postganglionic neurons are close to the pericardium and organ
- Sympathetic cervical cardiac nerves deliver mostly, but not all, postganglionic fibers
- Rheology studies non-Newtonian fluid behavior; blood behaves as a Newtonian fluid at a basal heart rate of 50-60 bpm
- Increased heart rate makes blood a non-Newtonian fluid, flowing faster centrally and slower peripherally
- Prinzmetal angina reverses typical behavior, delivery of noradrenaline activates alpha1 and beta2 receptors to constrict large and dilate small coronary arteries
- Noradrenaline delivery prevents cavitation: linear blood flow becomes whirling at the periphery due to viscosity
- Compensating for viscosity involves reducing large artery caliber and increasing small artery caliber for efficient red blood cell flux
- Prinzmetal angina involves small coronary artery constriction due to exercise, causing risk of cardiac infarct and heart pain with minimal exertion
- The physiological limit of heart beat rate is the blood flow needed to deliver O2 to cardiomyocytes
- Hypoxia signs appear around 180 bpm, measurable by ECG during exercise
- Contraction is limiting perfusion at this point, and pushing past this overpasses the need for O2 in the heart
- Strong vasodilation of small arteries inside the heart occurs during exercise, while noradrenaline causes slight vasoconstriction of large arteries
Lungs and Bronchi
- Somatosensory information (e.g., dust) entering the bronchi is collected mainly by the vagus nerve via the superior ganglion
- Cough receptors' somata are in the inferior ganglion
- This information, however, is viscerosensory, not somatosensory
- Sensory data regarding foreign objects in the airways comes from neurons with somata in the vagus nerve's superior ganglion
- Allergic reaction cough (visceral pain) is collected by neurons in the vagus nerve's inferior ganglion
- Coughing can be triggered by somatosensory or viscerosensory stimulation
- Somatosensory information in the heart is collected by the orthosympathetic system and vagus nerve in the airways
- The superior laryngeal nerve (vagus branch) collects somatosensory information from the larynx (e.g., a bone in the airway)
- The superior laryngeal nerve gathers somatosensory and viscerosensory data from the supraglottic and laryngeal ventricles of the larynx
- The infraglottic cavity and most of the trachea send visceral and somatosensory information via the recurrent or inferior laryngeal nerve
- The recurrent nerve is on one side
- The inferior laryngeal nerve is on the other side
- The vagus nerve sends many efferent branches and collects somatosensory and viscerosensory afferent fibers in the mediastinum
- These fibers are found along the airways from the trachea to the respiratory bronchioles, being sparse in the alveoli
- Viscerosensory fibers in the alveoli mediate the Hering-Breuer reflex
Vocal Ligament and Airways
- The superior laryngeal nerve innervates the cricothyroid muscle, controlling vocal ligament tension
- The inferior laryngeal nerve innervates all other laryngeal muscles
- Some somatosensory airway fibers are collected from somatosensory fibers from the dorsal root ganglion, associated spinal ganglia being associated with posterior roots of spinal nerves
- Vagus nerve collects most of the somatosensory and viscerosensory information
- Sympathetic efferent fibers to the airways originate from paravertebral ganglia T1-T5, releasing noradrenaline for bronchodilation
- The vagal nerve sends preganglionic fibers, releasing acetylcholine for bronchoconstriction
- Bronchodilation is due to beta2 receptor activation, while bronchoconstriction occurs via M3 receptor (metabotropic acetylcholine receptor type 3) activation
- Parasympathetic action increases mucus production dependent on M3 receptors
- Noradrenaline activating alpha 1 receptors causes vasoconstriction and reduces secretion in the airway system
- Secretion activation is mainly from acetylcholine action, while secretion reduction is indirectly from vasoconstriction-induced hypoxia
Thoracic Sympathetic Nervous System
- Sympathetic thoracic nerves from T6-T12, originating from the sympathetic chain ganglia, do NOT innervate the thorax; they enter the abdomen to innervate abdominal organs
- Ganglia T6-T9 receive gray and white rami and send rami that join to form the greater thoracic splanchnic nerve
- Thoracic splanchnic nerve comes from T10-T11
- T12 contributes the least splanchnic nerve independently
- In some individuals, the T12 branch merges with fibers from T10 and T11 to form the lesser splanchnic nerve
- Most individuals have three thoracic splanchnic nerves, while some have two
Abdominal Nerves
- The greater and lesser splanchnic nerves pierce through the diaphragmatic pillars to enter the abdominal cavity
- The least splanchnic nerve, if present, passes beneath the medial arcuate ligaments
- The medial arcuate ligament passes over the origin of the psoas major and minor muscles
- The psoas minor makes a medial groove in the psoas major, inside this is where the least splanchnic nerve passes
Celiac Plexus
- The greater, lesser, and least splanchnic nerves terminate in the celiac plexus, which has at least 5 peripheral ganglia
- The two superior ganglia are paired and known as celiac ganglia, while the intermediate ganglia are associated with the superior mesenteric artery
- The superior mesenteric ganglion is at the same vertebral level as the superior mesenteric artery
- The celiac ganglia are on top of the celiac trunk
- Since the celiac trunk is between two vertebrae, the superior one would give the answer
- There are two aortic renal ganglia associated with the renal arteries
- An image on the right holds information about greater, lesser and least splanchnic nerves levels but is false
Lumbar Splanchnic Nerves
- Roughly four lumbar splanchnic nerves contribute fibers to the inferior mesenteric ganglion, associated superiorly with the inferior mesenteric artery origin
- This ganglion contributes fibers to the superior hypogastric plexus
- The plexus originates inferior to the inferior mesenteric artery and extends down to the aortic bifurcation into common iliac arteries
- The aorta is covered by the superior hypogastric plexus
GI Tract - Enteric Nervous System
- There are two aggregations of local neurons in the GI tract: the myenteric plexus (Auerbach plexus) and submucosal plexus (Meissner plexus)
- Efferent sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers innervate both plexuses
- Most SNS fibers are postganglionic, while all PSNS fibers are preganglionic
- Sensory neurons collect mostly visceral and some somatosensory pain, which travels to spinal cord and through the vagus nerve up to proximal 1/3 of the colon
- The vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) distributes along the esophagus below the tracheal bifurcation
- At the T4 vertebral level, the right and left vagal nerves go around the esophagus and form a plexus in this area named fusion
The Vagus Nerve and Esophagus
- Vagotomy previously the only cure for gastric ulcer involved cutting the left vagus branch (anterior on esophagus) and the right vagus branch (posterior)
- The left vagus branches off from the esophagus
- Anatomical Variations exist and additional branches of the vagal nerve exist making this difficult, requiring a microscope to see the anterior branches
- Sometimes only a single anterior vagal trunk and additional posterior trunks exist
- The ideal position for a root of the vagus would be inferior 1/3 of the esophagus, but often close to the diaphragm
- Vagotomy would decrease the acidity, but not entirely
- Omeprazole proton pump inhibit is effective completely suppressing Hydrochloric Acid
- 20ml twice a day
Dorsal Medial Nucleus
- Dorsal medial nucleus is visceromotor nucleus
- The Superior area releases Acetylcholine and so does the inferior
- Superior neurons release Acetylcholine and substance P where inferior release VIP, NTP and NO
- The sympathetic nervous system mainly restricts
- Paravertebral mainly go to the vesells to restrict perfusion to the GI
- Prevertebral ganglia connect to the immunological system
- Sympatehtic Postaganglionic mainly go to Immunilogical system
- Two places that sympathetic ganglia end
- Circulare Muscle Layer and activaite contraciton
- Meissner Plexus which release neuropeptides
- Para smypatheic reasease acetlycholine
- Interneurons trigger gut with Acetylcholinr
Enterochromaffin Cells
- Enterochromaffin cells and the CNS is done via serotonin
- Soma is in the nodose ganglian
- Transient receptro is called AT1
- Olfr558 is for metaboites
- manipulated by the release of noradrenaline
Small Large bowl ANS
- Somatosensory, Vicerosensory, Somatomotor, Viceromotor
- Sympathetics, parasympathetics fibers act on most the cell, making to differentiate from cateogies
- Viscero is the vagus Nerve
- THe sacrol Neuromere is form S2-S4
Bowel Cont.
- Distal 2/3 the spinal innervation The lesser and small is the less innervated T10 and T12 Somatosenosy and Visecrla effernt the infereio mestenter artery
- The soma is in the infeerior meseentric of L1 and L2
Stomach ANS
- The stomach the sympathetic system through Celica Plexis Post ganglia come from celiac number 1 and 2 #3 the superior mestritic cella
Renal ANS
- No proof is the Vagal Kidney
- Pancrease and liver are true
- Not a parasmpatheitnervated system
Sacral ANS
- Most sacral parasympathetic NS fibers travel via the pelvic splanchnic nerves, originating from the anterior rami of S2-3-4 spinal nerves
- Pelvic splanchnic nerves reach the inferior hypogastric plexus
- This plexus is a network of fibers and ganglionic neurons
- The inferior hypogastric plexus connects via left and right hypogastric nerves
- This connection goes to the superior hypogastric plexus, an unpaired, medially located plexus of the sympathetic NS above the pelvis
Hypogastric Plexuses
- All autonomic NS based on superior and inferior hypogastric plexuses
- The superior plexus lies superior to the pelvic brim and tightly opposes the vertebral column, specifically the last two lumbar vertebrae and the first sacral vertebra
- The superior hypogastric plexus sits below the inferior mesenteric ganglion
- It connects to the inferior plexus via two hypogastric nerves
- The inferior plexus connects to the anterior rami of S2-3-4 spinal nerves via pelvic splanchnic nerves
- S2-3-4 sacral spinal nerves give rise to rami that form the pudendal nerve
- The pudendal nerve carries somatic sensory and motor fibers, but not sympathetic NS fibers
Autonomic Innervation of the Female Genital Tract
- The pudendal nerve should be considered separately from this system
- The remaining system comprises fibers reaching the female genital tract from the sympathetic NS
- These fibers originate from the greater splanchnic nerve (from the thoracic cavity)
- These nerves end in the celiac, superior, and inferior mesenteric ganglia
- Here, they give rise to postganglionic fibers reaching the reproductive tract
- The lesser and least splanchnic nerves also contribute
- Sympathetic NS contribution also comes from thoracic and lumbar regions via lumbar splanchnic nerves
- Most postganglionic fibers originate from the celiac plexus, and the superior and inferior mesenteric ganglia
Reaching the Ovaries, Oviduct, Uterus, and External Genitalia
- Sympathetic postganglionic fibers travel along the ovarian artery (originates at L2)
- Postganglionic fibers reach the organ via the superior hypogastric plexus, hypogastric nerves, and the inferior hypogastric plexus lateral to the uterus
- In females, the inferior hypogastric plexus resides within the loose connective tissue forming the internal part of the mesometrium
- Preganglionic fibers pass through the celiac, superior mesenteric, and inferior mesenteric ganglia without interruption
- They interact with the inferior hypogastric plexus where local postganglionic sympathetic neurons are located
- These postganglionic sympathetic fibers trigger the contraction of the oviduct, uterine muscle, and smooth muscle cells of the vagina
Uterine Receptors and Pregnancy
- The uterus expresses high levels of alpha1 receptors during pregnancy due to oestrogen stimulation
- These fibers contribute to uterine contraction at the end of pregnancy
- Epidural anaesthesia doesn't affect these fibers as they do not pass through the vertebral canal below the injection level
- At the end of pregnancy, alpha1 receptors are replaced by beta2 receptors
- Beta2 receptors hyperpolarize smooth muscles of the uterus via noradrenaline stimulation, resulting in tocolysis (muscle relaxation)
Parasympathetic Fibers in Female Genital Tract
- Parasympathetic fibers originate from sacral neuromeres S2-4
- These preganglionic fibers release ACh on neurons within the myometrium where the inferior hypogastric plexus is
- These are postganglionic neurons, releasing ACh
- Parasympathetic neurons are located in the hypogastric plexus, not in ganglia
- Postganglionic sympathetic neurons that release noradrenaline intermingle with parasympathetic neurons that release ACh
Pelvic Splanchnic Nerves and Female Genital Tract
- Preganglionic fibers carried by pelvic splanchnic nerves form a network in the hypogastric plexus near the vagina and uterus, mostly embedded in the myometrium.
- Anterior rami of S2-4 give rise to spinal nerves that provide somatosensory and somatomotor fibers
- Somatosensory fibers collect receptors in the female reproductive tract's external genitalia, running inside the pudendal nerve
Sensory Information in Female Genital Tract
- Visceral information from the uterus, tuba, and ovary is carried by sympathetic afferents.
- The pudendal nerve exclusively conveys somatosensory information, not viscerosensory.
Muscles of Pelvic Diaphragm and Perineal Region
- Striated muscles in the pelvic diaphragm and perineal region are innervated by the pudendal nerve
- Cutting the pudendal nerve results in paralysis of striated muscles in the pelvic diaphragm and perineal region, affecting sexual function, urinary and rectal control
- The effect is more drastic in males
Visceral and Somatosensory Sensation Pathways
- Visceral sensation travels through the hypogastric nerves, superior hypogastric plexus, lumbar splanchnic nerves, and thoracic splanchnic nerves to the CNS.
- The pudendal nerve carries somatosensory information from external genitalia
- It also provides motor innervation to striated muscles in the pelvic diaphragm and perineal region.
Sympathetic Innervation of Male Genital Tract
- The male genital tract receives efferent sympathetic innervation via the lesser and least thoracic splanchnic nerves, but not the greater thoracic splanchnic nerve
- It also receives sympathetic innervation from lumbar splanchnic nerves, similar to the female genital tract
Parasympathetic Innervation of Genital Tract
- Parasympathetic innervation occurs via pelvic splanchnic nerves in both sexes
- This innervation is crucial for various reproductive functions
Erection and Detumescence
- Erection relies on the parasympathetic NS, while detumescence requires the sympathetic NS via noradrenaline
- Damage to the pelvic splanchnic nerve in females has minor effects
- Damage to the inferior hypogastric plexus in males significantly impacts both parasympathetic and sympathetic NS, causing defects in erection and potential ejaculation issues
- DaVinci system endoscopic surgery has reduced iatrogenic damage to the inferior hypogastric plexus
Innervation of Male Genital Tract Continued
- The inferior hypogastric plexus contains sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers, with a prevalence of postganglionic sympathetic fibers
- All parasympathetic fibers are preganglionic
- Collectively, these fibers control smooth muscle cells of organs, including bladder, prostate, and rectum, as well as involuntary sphincters
Pudendal Nerve in Males
- The pudendal nerve provides somatomotor and somatosensory innervation to the male genital tract, external genitalia, perineal floor, and pelvic floor
- Damage to the pudendal nerve disrupts somatomotor innervation of the bladder, rectum, and muscles relating to ejaculation
- It also affects somatosensory information from the penis and bladder
- Proprioceptive systems in the bladder wall, critical for continence, relay sensory input to the brain through the pudendal nerve.
Bladder and Urethra Innervation
- Parasympathetic innervation of the bladder utilizes M3 receptors to contract the detrusor vesicae and muscles of the trigone
- sympathetic fibers activate beta 3 adrenergic receptors in the detrusor vesicae, causing relaxation of the muscle
- The urethra utilizes alpha 1 adrenergic receptors to contract the urethra
- The parasympathetic system contracts the detrusor vesicae, causing the urethra to dilate
- The sympathetic system stimulates beta 3 receptors to relax the detrusor vesicae, and contract the urethra
- Thus, the sympathetic system keeps urine inside the bladder
- The pudendal nerve innervates the external urethral sphincter, causing it to contract
Lumbo-Sacral Plexus
- The lumbar plexus includes the four lumbar spinal nerves (L1-L5) and a contribution from T12
- Plexuses consist of fibers from the anterior rami of related spinal nerves, forming peripheral nerves
- The lumbar plexus comprises the anterior and the posterior rami
- The iliohypogastric, ilioinguinal, genitofemoral, and obturator nerves are derived from the anterior ramus
- The iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerves primarily originate from T12 and L1
- The genitofemoral nerve is contributed by L1 and L2
- The obturator nerve originates from L2-L4
Accessory Obturator Nerve
- 25% of individuals have an accessory obturator nerve, composed of tiny fibers and not easily recognized
Nerve Pathways
- The subcostal nerve belongs to the T12 neuromere, residing outside the lumbar plexus
- The ilioinguinal, iliohypogastric, and lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh pass close to the subcostal nerve
- These three nerves, along with the femoral nerve, pass between the psoas and quadratus lumborum muscles
- The genitofemoral nerve passes through the psoas major muscle
Iliohypogastric Nerve
- It originates from T12 and L1 and has both sensory and motor functions
- The iliohypogastric nerve runs between the psoas major and quadratus lumborum muscles
- It moves laterally and downwards, running on the iliac crest posteriorly, internal to the transversus abdominis
- In the anterior two-thirds, it pierces the transversus abdominis and runs between the transversus abdominis and internal oblique muscles
- It innervates the internal oblique and transversus abdominal muscles (motor function)
- Nerve defects can prevent an individual from staying upright
- At the periphery, it consists of pain and sensory information fibers
- Compression causes anesthesia and pain in innervated skin areas
- It innervates the lateral gluteal region and the pubis (sensory function) in both males and females
Ilioinguinal Nerve
- The ilioinguinal nerve moves in the same direction as the iliohypogastric nerve, piercing the transversus abdominis and running on top of the iliac crest
- It is a sensory nerve that does not innervate any muscles
- It innervates the root of the penis and scrotum in males
- It innervates the root of the clitoris, labia minora, and extends to the labia majora in females
Genitofemoral Nerve
- Mostly a motor nerve innervating the cremasteric muscle, which is absent in females
- Absence in females means the cremasteric reflex cannot be elicited
- The genitofemoral nerve pierces the psoas major.
- Cremasteric reflex checks for function of the genitofemoral nerve in males via needle on the lateral scrotum, eliciting cremasteric muscle contraction and testis movement upwards
- Absence indicates defect in the genitofemoral nerve
- It runs between the internal spermatic fascia and the cremasteric muscle
- The cremasteric muscle derives from the internal oblique muscle
- The pampiniform plexus is inside the internal spermatic fascia, which derives from the transversalis fascia
Lateral Cutaneous Nerve of the Thigh
- Located between the genitofemoral and the obturator nerve
- It is a pure sensory nerve innervating the lateral margin of the thigh
- Sensory information is brought to the CNS upon stimulation
- It derives from L2 and L3 neuromeres
- The nerve distributes to the fascia lata, mainly on the superficial fascia of the thigh
- Veins, nerves, and lymphatic vessels are found on this layer
- It innervates the part depicted in pink (in the image)
- The genitofemoral nerve sometimes brings sensory fibers to the central part of the femoral triangle
- Cutaneous nerves distribute to the superficial fascia, along with the greater and smaller saphenous veins
- Greater saphenous vein collects blood from the thigh and delivers it to the external iliac vein
- Smaller saphenous vein collects blood from anterior/posterior parts of the leg and feet, draining into the femoral vein
Femoral Triangle
- Superior border: inguinal ligament (floor of the inguinal canal)
- Medial border: adductor longus
- Lateral border: sartorius muscle
- It contains lymphatics, vessels, and nodes, then the vein, artery, and femoral nerve, from medial to lateral
Femoral Sheath
- Closes the triangular fossa
- It is pierced by the greater saphenous vein, which empties into the femoral vein at the level of the inferior border of the femoral triangle
- Damage to the triangle may result in massive bleeding due to superficial vessels
Femoral Nerve
- Exits the femoral triangle into different collateral branches
- The sartorius muscle is innervated by the femoral nerve in two places: origin and insertion
- The sartorius is the longest muscle in the body
- The femoral nerve innervates all bellies of the quadriceps muscle: rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, and vastus intermedius
- The quadriceps and sartorius muscles are exclusively innervated by the femoral nerve
- The pectineus is also innervated by other nerves
- The quadriceps muscle allows leg extension over the thigh
- The anterior branch innervates the skin on the anterior thigh (covering rectus femoris) and the antero-medial skin of the leg, including the medial foot
- Continues with the terminal branch called the saphenous nerve
- Origin of the saphenous nerve varies by textbook but changes its name to saphenous nerve below the sartorius
- The saphenous nerve runs parallel but deep to the greater saphenous vein, with no relationship between them
Femoral Nerve Relationships
- Because is covered by the sartorius muscle and runs medially to the medial margin of the vastus medialis, the femoral nerve becomes superficial after the sartorius
- In the superficial fascia of the leg, it follows the small saphenous vein laterally
Femoral Nerve Specifics
- The femoral artery crosses the femoral nerve immediately below the sartorius, before becoming the saphenous nerve
- Before being crossed by the lateral circumflex femoral artery, it creates branches that innervate the pectineus, sartorius, and the skin of the anterior thigh
- It has a relationship with the greater saphenous vein, close to the patella
- Sensory innervation to the knee joint is provided by the infrapatellar branch, which is actually provided by the saphenous nerve
- The iliacus and psoas major are also innervated
Femoral Artery
- Runs close to central branches of the femoral nerve
- Superficial lies between the sartorius and the adductor longus, then posteriorly to the femur, becoming the popliteal artery
- At the level of the adductor longus, posterior branches creates the deep femoral artery of the thigh
- While, the superficial femoral artery remains between the sartorius and the adductor longus, the deep is posterior to the adductor longus
- The deep artery gives rise to two circumflex femoral arteries
- Medial circumflex femoral artery: superior, loops around the neck of the femur and supplies the head of the femur
- Lateral circumflex femoral artery: inferior, at the root of the greater trochanter and enters the diaphysis of the femur
Muscles of Thigh
- Divided into three compartments: anterior, medial, and posterior
Anterior Compartment
- Sartorius, rectus femoris, and vastus lateralis superficially
- Vastus intermedius and vastus medialis internally
Medial Compartment
- Adductor longus, adductor brevis, adductor magnus, and gracilis
Posterior Compartment
- Biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus muscles
- The adductor canal lies between the anterior and medial compartments, with the femoral artery, femoral vein and femoral nerve
- Posterior to the adductor longus lies the deep femoral artery/deep artery of the thigh
- The sartorius, gracilis, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus altogether form the Pes Anserinus
Femoral Nerve Pathology
- Responsible for the patellar tendon reflex, and defects result the absence of it, which tests the L3-L4 spinal component
- Injuries result in weakness of knee extension and numbness over the anterior/medial thigh, leg and foot
Obturator Nerve
- Originates from the anterior rami of L2-L4.
- Has a specific relationship with the obturator externus and the adductor brevis
- Runs close to the pelvic brim and exits the obturator foramen, between the pectineus and the obturator externus
- Then divides into anterior and posterior branches at the adductor brevis.
- Bifurcation occurs internally to the small pelvis at the obturator externus in some people
Obturator Nerve Specifics
- Innervates the adductor magnus, adductor longus, adductor brevis and sometimes the pectineus
- Defects prevent adduction because muscles are compromised
- After innervating the adductor magnus, it becomes more superficial to enter the fascia lata and changes the name to cutaneous branch of the obturator nerve
- Responsible for innervation of a small part near the knee on the medial thigh
Obturator Nerve Branches
- The anterior branch innervates adductor muscles
- The posterior branch innervates the adductor magnus and obturator externus
Accessory Obturator Nerve
- Present in 25% of individuals.
- Takes part in motor innervation of the obturator nerve, innervating the pectineus
- Defects don't cause issues, because the pectineus is also innervated by the femoral nerve
Sacral Plexus
- Goes from L4 to Co1, and is intermingled with the lumbar plexus
- Shared are L4 and L5 with lumbar plexus
- Distributed on the epimysium of the piriformis muscle, which is posterior to the obturator internus and to the levator ani
Sacral Plexus Exit
- Branches exit from an opening between the piriformis, obturator internus, levator ani, and coccygeal muscle
- The coccygeal muscle is sometimes considered part of the levator ani
Greater and Lesser Sciatic Foramina
- The greater sciatic foramen is between the greater sciatic notch, sacro-spinosus ligament and sacro-tuberosus ligament
- The piriformis muscle divides the greater sciatic foramen into an antero-superior and postero-inferior part
- The sciatic nerve passes through the greater sciatic foramen
- Lesser sciatic foramen is between the sacro-tuberosus ligament and the lesser sciatic notch
- The pudendal nerve passes through the lesser sciatic foramen to enter the smaller pelvis
- The sciatic nerve exits the lesser pelvis in between the piriformis (below it) and the obturator internus
- The sciatic nerve moves inferiorly and is superficial to the obturator internus, gemellus inferior, quadratus femoris, and is entirely covered by the gluteus maximus
Sacral Plexus Nerves
- Subdivided into different positions
- The sciatic nerve is most anterior and originates from L4-S3
- Level S3 shares the rectum
Superior and Inferior Gluteal Nerves
- Superior gluteal nerve originates from L4-S1.
- Runs in between the gluteus minimus and piriformis muscle
- Exits from the superior part of the greater sciatic notch
- Innervates the gluteus minimus (anteriorly) and gluteus medius (posteriorly)
- Also innervates the tensor fasciae latae, which is crucial for running
- Inferior gluteal nerve originates from L4-S2
- Comes from the greater sciatic notch, between the piriformis and superior gemellus muscle
- Innervates only the gluteus maximus
- The superior gluteal nerve is superior to the piriformis, while the inferior gluteal nerve is inferior to the piriformis
Sciatic Nerve
- Up to the popliteal cavity it is a single nerve
- Then it divides into the common peroneal/fibular nerve and tibial nerve
- Vessels run far from the sciatic nerve, because the sciatic nerve is posterior
Nerves Between
- Medial to lateral
- Adductor magnus
- Semimembranosus
- Semitendinosus
- Biceps femoris (long and short head)
- In the gluteal region the sciatic nerve is covered by the gluteal muscles
Hamstring
- The semitendinosus, semimembranosus, gracilis, and sartorius make this up
Sciatic Nerve Division
- It separates into the common fibular/peroneal nerve (laterally) and tibial nerve (downwards posteriorly) once enters the popliteal cavity Nerve Levels
- Common fibular/peroneal nerve consists of L4-S2 roots
- Tibial nerve consists of L4-S3 neuromeres
- In the popliteal cavity, the nerve is lateral, the popliteal vein is intermediate and the popliteal artery is medial
- The neurovascular peduncle enters into a space between the gastrocnemius and the soleus, as well as piercing through the soleus medially
- Nerve changes its position from lateral to separate the artery, centrally, and the vein which goes lateral
- The artery and vein are called tibial now
- After piercing soleus, the tibial nerve distributes to the flexor digitorum longus, tibialis posterior, flexor hallucis longus, gastrocnemius, and soleus
- Then it turns on the medial calcaneal side to move medially and enter the foot superficial to the abductor hallucis muscle
- There the tibial nerve divides into two terminal branches
- Lateral plantar nerve, which distributes to the plantar skin of the last digit
- Medial plantar nerve, which distributes to the 1st-3rd plantar skin of the fingers
Tibial Nerve Flaws
- Defects lead to poor inversion (up to 30°) and flexion of toes, which all muscles involved are innervated by the tibial nerve only
Additional Info
- The common peroneal/fibular nerve goes passes the fibula and the fibularis/peroneal longus muscle, and bifurcates between the fibularis and the extensor digitorum longus
Surface level and below
- With the superficial branch, it runs the fibularis longus and extensor digitorum longus muscle, ending on the skin covering the feet With the deep branch, it's associated with the anterior tibial artery, and has less skin innervation than the superficial
Additional Notes
- A defect in the common peroneal nerve leads to a defect in eversion (up to 20°) and extension (or dorsiflexion).
- Stimulating the deep peroneal nerve by scratching between the first and second finger of the feet elicits a reaction
- The triangular area between the first and second digits is exclusively innervated by the deep peroneal nerve
- The remaining dorsum of the foot is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve
- The lateral part of the foot is innervated by the sural nerve
Variant Anatomy
- There are some anatomical variants for the nerves that innervate the posterior part of the leg
- Dermatomes must be studied with the various neuromeres
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