Anaemia and Blood Disorders Quiz
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Questions and Answers

Which condition indirectly contributes to anaemia but is not a direct cause?

  • Splenomegaly (correct)
  • Shortened RBC life span
  • Mutations in haemoglobin
  • Blood loss

    • What is a primary effect of Pyruvate Kinase Deficiency on red blood cells?

  • Reduced DNA synthesis
  • Reduced ATP formation (correct)
  • Reduced 2-3 DPG synthesis
  • Reduced haemoglobin synthesis

    • Pernicious anaemia is primarily associated with a deficiency in which vitamin?

  • Vitamin B12 (correct)
  • Vitamin D
  • Vitamin K
  • Vitamin C

    • What genetic pattern does Thalassaemia follow?

    <p>Autosomal recessive inheritance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the direct Coombs test primarily detect?

    <p>Antibodies present on the red blood cell surface</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic is associated with acute leukaemia?

    <p>Fast progression with &gt;30% blasts in the bone marrow</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which is a consequence of mutations in haemoglobin chain genes?

    <p>Thalassaemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly describes the role of EPO in anaemia?

    <p>It stimulates red blood cell production</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the key laboratory test to confirm hereditary spherocytosis?

    <p>Osmotic fragility test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which blood disorder is associated with an increased risk of thrombotic events?

    <p>Polycythaemia vera</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most likely cause of elevated haemoglobin and haematocrit in a patient with polycythaemia vera?

    <p>JAK2 mutation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main clinical feature of von Willebrand disease?

    <p>Mucosal bleeding</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vitamin is crucial for the synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X?

    <p>Vitamin K</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which anticoagulant is commonly used in blood collection tubes for a complete blood count (CBC)?

    <p>EDTA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key diagnostic feature of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

    <p>Prolonged PT and APTT, and low fibrinogen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of anaemia is commonly seen in chronic kidney disease?

    <p>Normocytic normochromic anaemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which compound initiates fatty acid synthesis?

    <p>Acetyl CoA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cofactor is essential for the activation of phosphatidate in phosphoglyceride biosynthesis?

    <p>CTP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is crucial for the iron ion in red blood cell metabolism to effectively carry oxygen?

    <p>The iron ion needs to be in its reduced form</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of Tay Sachs disease?

    <p>A deficiency in Hexosaminidase A</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Proteins are primarily tagged for degradation through which process?

    <p>Addition of ubiquitin by an isopeptide bond</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a low reticulocyte count in a blood test suggest?

    <p>Bone marrow dysfunction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most prevalent cause of microcytic hypochromic anemia?

    <p>Iron deficiency</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which laboratory parameter is likely to be elevated in cases of iron-deficiency anemia?

    <p>High Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which red blood cell index is specifically used to determine the size classification of anaemia?

    <p>Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary genetic defect associated with beta-thalassaemia?

    <p>Mutation in the beta-globin gene</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the hallmark feature seen in megaloblastic anaemia on a blood film?

    <p>Hypersegmented neutrophils</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which laboratory finding typically indicates pernicious anaemia?

    <p>Macrocytic red blood cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary defect observed in sickle cell anaemia?

    <p>Mutation in beta-globin leading to HbS formation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test is a standard method for diagnosing sickle cell disease?

    <p>Haemoglobin electrophoresis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant finding in the blood film of a patient with lead poisoning?

    <p>Basophilic stippling</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency, which pathway is primarily affected?

    <p>Pentose phosphate pathway</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a defining characteristic of acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)?

    <p>Rapid progression with &gt;20% myeloblasts in the bone marrow</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which genetic abnormality defines chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)?

    <p>BCR-ABL fusion gene (Philadelphia chromosome)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of abnormal protein is commonly detected in the urine of patients with multiple myeloma?

    <p>Bence-Jones protein</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What specific cell type characterizes Hodgkin lymphoma?

    <p>Reed-Sternberg cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL), which cell lineage is predominantly affected?

    <p>B lymphocytes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which blood group antigen is most likely to result in severe haemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)?

    <p>Rh (D) antigen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test is used to detect recipient antibodies against donor red cells in crossmatching for blood transfusion?

    <p>Indirect antiglobulin test (IAT)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main role of immunoglobulin IgG in blood transfusion reactions?

    <p>Coats red blood cells for removal by macrophages</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is associated with a prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and a normal prothrombin time (PT)?

    <p>Factor VIII deficiency</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which parameter in a complete blood count (CBC) indicates red blood cell size variability?

    <p>Red cell distribution width (RDW)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main purpose of flow cytometry in hematology?

    <p>Detection of cell surface markers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which condition are Heinz bodies typically observed?

    <p>G6PD deficiency</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What laboratory method is used to evaluate clot retraction?

    <p>Thromboelastography (TEG)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most likely cause of a blood smear showing schistocytes?

    <p>Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is involved in hemophilia A?

    <p>Factor VIII</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which condition is the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells a defining characteristic?

    <p>Hodgkin lymphoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Anaemia Causes

    • Splenomegaly is not a direct cause of anaemia, it can exacerbate it.
    • Shortened red blood cell lifespan, mutations in haemoglobin, blood loss, and lack of erythropoietin (EPO) production are direct causes of anaemia.

    Pyruvate Kinase Deficiency

    • Reduced ATP formation is a consequence of pyruvate kinase deficiency.

    Pernicious Anaemia

    • Pernicious anaemia is linked to Vitamin B12 deficiency.

    Thalassaemia

    • Thalassaemia is an inherited autosomal recessive disorder.
    • Mutations in haemoglobin chain genes, usually on chromosomes 11 and 16, cause thalassaemia.

    Coombs Test

    • The direct Coombs test identifies antibodies bound to red blood cell surfaces.

    Acute Leukaemia

    • Fast progression, easier to treat, and more than 20% blasts in the bone marrow are characteristics of acute leukaemia.

    Blood Film Observations

    • Hypochromic red blood cells have an increased central area of pallor, characteristic of iron deficiency anaemia.

    Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)

    • Waterproof trousers are not generally considered PPE in a laboratory setting.

    Blood Sample Disposal

    • Blood samples in Eppendorf tubes should be disposed of in biohazard bags with lids.

    Pre-analytical Phase

    • Patient identification checks and ensuring proper sample labelling and handling before analysis.

    Fatty Acid Synthesis

    • Acetyl CoA is the starting material for fatty acid synthesis.

    Phosphoglyceride Biosynthesis

    • CTP acts as a cofactor in phosphoglyceride synthesis.

    Red Blood Cell Metabolism

    • Iron needs to be in its reduced form to carry oxygen in red blood cells.

    Tay Sachs Disease

    • A defect in lipid degradation causes Tay-Sachs disease.

    Protein Degradation

    • Ubiquitin, attached by an isopeptide bond, marks proteins for degradation by the proteasome.

    Reticulocyte Count

    • The reticulocyte count in a blood test indicates bone marrow function and red blood cell production.

    Microcytic Hypochromic Anaemia

    • Iron deficiency is the most common cause.

    Iron Deficiency Anaemia

    • High total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) is a common laboratory finding.
    • Low serum ferritin is also commonly observed.

    Red Blood Cell Indices

    • Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) is used to classify anaemia as microcytic, normocytic, or macrocytic.
    • Mean corpuscular haemoglobin (MCH) and mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) are also used.

    Beta-thalassaemia

    • A defect in the beta globin gene causes beta-thalassaemia.

    Megaloblastic Anaemia

    • Hypersegmented neutrophils are a hallmark feature of megaloblastic anaemia.

    Pernicious Anaemia Laboratory Findings

    • Macrocytic red blood cells are a common laboratory finding in pernicious anaemia.

    Sickle Cell Anaemia

    • A mutation in the beta-globin gene leads to haemoglobin S (HbS) formation in sickle cell anaemia.

    Sickle Cell Disease Detection

    • Haemoglobin electrophoresis is commonly used to detect sickle cell disease.

    Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase (G6PD) Deficiency

    • G6PD is an enzyme deficient in hereditary haemolytic anaemia caused by pyruvate kinase deficiency.

    Lead Poisoning

    • Basophilic stippling is a characteristic blood film finding in lead poisoning.

    Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase (G6PD) Pathway

    • The pentose phosphate pathway is impaired in G6PD deficiency.

    Haptoglobin Function

    • Haptoglobin binds free haemoglobin in the plasma.

    Haemolysis

    • Elevated LDH (lactate dehydrogenase) and unconjugated bilirubin are indicators of haemolysis.

    Hereditary Spherocytosis

    • A peripheral blood smear is crucial to identify hereditary spherocytosis.

    Thrombotic Events

    • Polycythaemia vera increases the risk of thrombotic events.

    von Willebrand Disease

    • Mucosal bleeding is the primary clinical feature of von Willebrand disease.

    Coagulation Factor Synthesis

    • Vitamin K is crucial for the synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X.

    Complete Blood Count (CBC) Anticoagulant

    • EDTA is a common anticoagulant used for CBC blood collection tubes.

    Heinz Bodies

    • Heinz bodies are typically seen in G6PD deficiency.

    Schistocytes

    • Schistocytes (fragmented red blood cells) indicate mechanical damage to red blood cells, such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

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    BS-section A MQS study PDF

    Description

    Test your knowledge on various conditions related to anaemia and blood disorders. This quiz covers topics such as Pyruvate Kinase Deficiency, pernicious anaemia, Thalassaemia, and the role of EPO. Challenge yourself with questions on genetics, laboratory tests, and clinical features of leukaemia.

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