Clin Med Unit 3: Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)

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Questions and Answers

The degeneration of which cells is primarily responsible for the motor deficits observed in Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)?

  • Schwann cells in peripheral nerves
  • Anterior horn cells in the spinal cord (correct)
  • Purkinje cells in the cerebellum
  • Astrocytes in the cerebral cortex

Which of the following clinical findings is indicative of upper motor neuron damage in a patient with suspected ALS?

  • Muscle fasciculations
  • Hyperreflexia (correct)
  • Muscle atrophy
  • Flaccid muscle weakness

A patient presents with progressive muscle weakness, fasciculations, and bulbar symptoms such as dysarthria and dysphagia. An electromyogram (EMG) shows acute and chronic denervation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) (correct)
  • Guillain-Barre Syndrome
  • Myasthenia Gravis
  • Bell's Palsy

What is the primary mechanism of action of riluzole, a medication commonly used in the treatment of ALS?

<p>Reduces glutamate-mediated excitotoxicity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a typical early symptom of Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS)?

<p>Ascending symmetrical muscle weakness (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A lumbar puncture in a patient with Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS) is most likely to reveal which of the following cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) findings after the first week of symptom onset?

<p>Normal white blood cell count, elevated protein (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following antecedent infections is most commonly associated with Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS)?

<p>Campylobacter jejuni (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary treatment for severe, rapidly worsening Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS) affecting ventilation?

<p>Intravenous Immunoglobulin (IVIG) or Plasmapheresis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Bell's Palsy is characterized by paralysis of which cranial nerve?

<p>Facial nerve (CN VII) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Bell's Palsy is unable to wrinkle their forehead on the affected side. This finding helps differentiate Bell's Palsy from:

<p>Upper motor neuron facial weakness (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is considered the first-line treatment for Bell's Palsy?

<p>Prednisone (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism in Myasthenia Gravis (MG)?

<p>Autoimmune destruction of acetylcholine receptors (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Myasthenia Gravis (MG) presents with ptosis and diplopia that worsen throughout the day. Which term best describes this fluctuating weakness?

<p>Early fatigability (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The 'ice pack test' is used in the diagnosis of Myasthenia Gravis (MG). A positive test is indicated by:

<p>Increased muscle strength after cooling the muscle (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which class of medications is used for symptomatic treatment of Myasthenia Gravis (MG) by improving neuromuscular transmission?

<p>Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD) is caused by a genetic mutation affecting which protein?

<p>Dystrophin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following clinical signs is characteristic of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD) and indicates proximal muscle weakness?

<p>Gower's sign (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary laboratory finding indicative of muscle damage in a patient with Muscular Dystrophy?

<p>Elevated creatine kinase (CK) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Eteplirsen, used in some cases of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD), is what type of therapeutic agent?

<p>Anti-sense oligonucleotide (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS) is often characterized by:

<p>Pain disproportionate to the inciting event (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a typical early finding in Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS)?

<p>Diffuse edema and skin color/temperature changes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A bone scan in a patient with early Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS) is likely to show:

<p>Diffuse increased uptake (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a non-pharmacological treatment strategy for Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS) focused on retraining the brain and motor function?

<p>Mirror therapy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference in the distribution of symptoms between mononeuropathy and peripheral neuropathy?

<p>Mononeuropathy affects a single nerve in a focal distribution, while peripheral neuropathy affects multiple nerves in a distal, symmetric pattern. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome is an example of:

<p>Mononeuropathy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following diagnostic studies is most useful in localizing the lesion in a patient with mononeuropathy?

<p>Nerve conduction studies (NCS) and electromyography (EMG) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 'stocking-glove' distribution of sensory loss is characteristic of:

<p>Peripheral neuropathy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of headache in children?

<p>Primary headaches such as migraine and tension-type headache (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following headache characteristics is considered a 'red flag' in pediatric headaches, warranting further investigation?

<p>New onset headache that is explosive or worsening (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In pediatric migraine management, which medication class is generally considered first-line for abortive treatment?

<p>NSAIDs (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic skin finding associated with Sturge-Weber Syndrome?

<p>Port wine stain (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Buphthalmos, a potential complication of Sturge-Weber Syndrome, refers to:

<p>Infantile glaucoma (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Intracranial leptomeningeal vascular anomalies and calcifications are commonly found in patients with Sturge-Weber Syndrome. These are typically located in which lobes of the brain?

<p>Parietal and occipital lobes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Prenatal screening for Spina Bifida primarily involves:

<p>Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein levels and ultrasound (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Myelomeningocele, the most severe form of Spina Bifida, involves protrusion of:

<p>Meninges and spinal cord (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common early complication of Myelomeningocele requiring monitoring and potential intervention?

<p>Hydrocephalus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The most common cause of congenital hydrocephalus is:

<p>Myelomeningocele (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a surgical management option for hydrocephalus?

<p>CSF shunt or Endoscopic third ventriculostomy (ETV) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Chiari Malformation Type 1 is characterized by the displacement of cerebellar tonsils below the:

<p>Foramen magnum (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Cerebral Palsy is best described as:

<p>A group of non-progressive motor disorders due to brain damage (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Spasticity, the most common motor impairment in Cerebral Palsy, is primarily due to damage in:

<p>Upper motor neurons (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease (CMT) is primarily a disorder affecting:

<p>Peripheral nerves (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The 'Champagne-glass deformity' in Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease (CMT) refers to:

<p>Distal muscular atrophy of the lower extremities (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Infant botulism is caused by the toxin produced by which bacteria?

<p>Clostridium botulinum (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic early symptom of Infant Botulism?

<p>Constipation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Spinal Muscular Atrophy (SMA) is characterized by the degeneration of:

<p>Lower motor neurons (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical inheritance pattern of Spinal Muscular Atrophy (SMA)?

<p>Autosomal recessive (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Poliomyelitis primarily targets which cells in the nervous system?

<p>Motor neurons in the anterior horn of the spinal cord (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The primary mode of transmission for poliovirus is:

<p>Fecal-oral route (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Tourette Syndrome is characterized by the presence of:

<p>Chronic motor and vocal tics (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical age range during which Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) manifests?

<p>30-60 years (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The diagnostic criteria for Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) as of 2019 (Gold Coast criteria) require:

<p>Progressive upper and lower motor neuron signs in one limb or body segment OR progressive lower motor neuron signs in at least two body segments. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic finding is commonly observed on an Electromyogram (EMG) in patients with Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)?

<p>Acute and chronic denervation with reinnervation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following complications is a primary concern in the management of Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)?

<p>Respiratory failure (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical range for the median survival time after the onset of Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) symptoms?

<p>3-5 years (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the function of noninvasive ventilation (NIV) in the management of Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)?

<p>It improves quality of life and survival by supporting respiratory function. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common timeframe for the onset of Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS) symptoms following an antecedent infection?

<p>1-3 weeks (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS), what is the characteristic pattern of weakness progression?

<p>Ascending symmetrical weakness (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with suspected Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS). Upon physical examination, which of the following reflex findings is most consistent with this diagnosis?

<p>Reduced or absent reflexes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary concern when autonomic nerves are affected in a patient with Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS)?

<p>Cardiac dysrhythmia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a crucial evaluation to perform when managing a patient diagnosed with Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS)?

<p>Monitoring ventilation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following Nerve Conduction Velocity (NCV) findings in a patient with Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS) indicates a poorer prognosis?

<p>Decreased amplitudes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Bell's Palsy, if vesicles are observed in the external ear canal, what additional diagnostic consideration should be undertaken?

<p>Considering herpes zoster as a possible cause (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the expected time course for maximum weakness and resolution in a typical case of Bell's Palsy?

<p>Max weakness in 3 weeks, resolution within 6 months (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When are antiviral medications typically considered in the treatment of Bell's Palsy?

<p>Only if herpetic vesicles are present in the ear canal (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which autoimmune process is primarily responsible for the pathology observed in Myasthenia Gravis (MG)?

<p>Antibody-mediated block of neurotransmitter binding to acetylcholine receptors (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which associated finding should prompt suspicion for underlying malignancy in older patients newly diagnosed with Myasthenia Gravis (MG)?

<p>Lambert-Eaton syndrome (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of performing a CT scan of the chest in a patient diagnosed with Myasthenia Gravis (MG)?

<p>To evaluate for thymoma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What adverse effect requires monitoring when initiating pyridostigmine for the treatment of Myasthenia Gravis (MG)?

<p>Bradycardia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of symptomatic treatment with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors in Myasthenia Gravis (MG)?

<p>To improve neuromuscular transmission (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The progressive muscle weakness seen in Muscular Dystrophies is due to mutations affecting what?

<p>Muscle proteins (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Genetic testing in patients with Muscular Dystrophy is conducted to:

<p>Identify specific mutations (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Elevated creatine kinase (CK) levels are indicative of what process in muscular dystrophies?

<p>Muscle damage (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy, what clinical finding would be most indicative of proximal muscle weakness?

<p>Calf pseudohypertrophy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What causes the need for respiratory and cardiac monitoring in patients with muscular dystrophies?

<p>Progressive weakness of respiratory and cardiac muscles (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Eteplirsen is a treatment being used in some cases of Muscular Dystrophy, and works by improving what?

<p>Dystrophin in muscle fibers (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following most accurately represents the underlying mechanism of Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS)?

<p>Inflammatory processes, autonomic dysregulation, and central sensitization (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After what event does Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS) usually occur?

<p>Surgery or direct physical trauma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical character of pain associated with Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS)?

<p>Burning and hypersensitive to mild stimuli (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What skin changes are commonly observed in a limb affected by Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS)?

<p>Diffuse edema and glossy skin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What radiological finding on a bone scan is suggestive of Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS)?

<p>Diffuse increased uptake (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What component is crucial to treatment for Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS)?

<p>Rehabilitation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is Buphthalmos?

<p>Enlargement of the globe (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why give low dose aspirin when treating Sturge-Weber Syndrome?

<p>To limit blood clotting (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What symptoms are commonly associated with myelomeningocele?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

One feature of cerebral palsy is non-progressive, what is that?

<p>Brain Injury (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The genetic testing associated with CMT looks for...

<p>PMP22 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are symptoms of Infant Botulism?

<p>Poor suck, Weak cry (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the only thing that Infant Botulism Immune Globulin can be used for?

<p>Small infants (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A weak floppy baby has what?

<p>SMA (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS), the degeneration of anterior horn cells directly results in:

<p>Lower motor neuron signs like muscle atrophy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following electrodiagnostic findings is most consistent with a diagnosis of Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)?

<p>Acute denervation with chronic rein nervation in multiple muscle groups (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common initial presentation of Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)?

<p>Asymmetric limb weakness (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with ALS is experiencing increasing dyspnea. What intervention is most appropriate to improve their quality of life and survival?

<p>Non-invasive ventilation (NIV) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following symptoms is the MOST indicative of bulbar involvement in Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)?

<p>Difficulty with speech and swallowing (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient diagnosed with Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS), what clinical finding would warrant immediate assessment for respiratory support?

<p>Progressive ascending weakness reaching the diaphragm (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) findings is MOST indicative of Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS) after one week of symptom onset?

<p>Normal cell count, elevated protein level (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS). What is the MOST important initial step in managing this patient?

<p>Monitoring respiratory function closely (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What Nerve Conduction Velocity (NCV) finding suggests a poorer prognosis in a patient with Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS)?

<p>Decreased CMAP amplitudes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following cranial nerves is affected in Bell's Palsy, resulting in facial paralysis?

<p>Facial nerve (VII) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Bell's Palsy is unable to close their left eye completely. Which intervention is MOST important to prevent complications?

<p>Instructing the patient to patch the eye and use lubricating eye drops (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition should be suspected if a patient presents with Bell's Palsy and also has vesicles in the external ear canal?

<p>Ramsay Hunt Syndrome (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Myasthenia Gravis (MG), autoantibodies primarily target:

<p>Acetylcholine receptors on the postsynaptic muscle membrane (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of performing a chest CT scan in a newly diagnosed patient with Myasthenia Gravis (MG)?

<p>To evaluate the size of the thymus gland (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are patients with Myasthenia Gravis encouraged to avoid certain medications such as aminoglycosides and beta-blockers?

<p>They can exacerbate muscle weakness (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD), the primary cause of muscle fiber instability and degeneration is a mutation affecting:

<p>Dystrophin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A young boy with Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD) uses his hands to 'walk' up his legs when rising from the floor. This maneuver is indicative of:

<p>Proximal muscle weakness (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS) reports hypersensitivity to light touch in the affected limb. How should this be documented?

<p>Allodynia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST likely underlying mechanism contributing to complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS)?

<p>Maladaptive neuroplasticity and altered central processing (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which therapy has shown the MOST promise in Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS) by helping to re-train the brain and motor function?

<p>Mirror therapy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key characteristic that differentiates tension headaches from migraines in children?

<p>Bilateral pain (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A previously healthy child presents with a sudden onset of severe headache, fever, and neck stiffness. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step?

<p>Performing a lumbar puncture to rule out meningitis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When managing pediatric migraines, which non-pharmacological approach is found to provide the MOST benefit?

<p>Regular sleep schedule (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child with Sturge-Weber Syndrome is MOST likely to present with a port-wine stain in which distribution?

<p>Forehead and upper eyelid (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Sturge-Weber Syndrome develops increasing eye pressure and corneal clouding. Which complication is MOST likely occurring?

<p>Glaucoma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Sturge-Weber Syndrome, intracranial leptomeningeal angiomas are MOST commonly located in which areas?

<p>Parietal and occipital lobes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The PRIMARY goal of administering low-dose aspirin to infants with Sturge-Weber Syndrome is to:

<p>Decrease the frequency and severity of stroke-like events (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic study is MOST appropriate for initial prenatal screening for Spina Bifida?

<p>Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A newborn presents with a sac-like protrusion on their lower back containing spinal fluid and neural tissue. This is MOST consistent with which neural tube defect?

<p>Myelomeningocele (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After surgical repair of a myelomeningocele, what is the MOST critical neurological complication to monitor for in the newborn period?

<p>Hydrocephalus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Myelomeningocele is often associated with other congenital CNS malformations. Which of the following malformations contributes MOST significantly to a poorer prognosis?

<p>Chiari II malformation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST common underlying mechanism leading to congenital hydrocephalus?

<p>Obstruction of CSF flow (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A surgical procedure involving the placement of a shunt would be an appropriate intervention for what condition?

<p>Hydrocephalus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Chiari I malformation, what anatomical structure is displaced?

<p>Cerebellar tonsils (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the TYPICAL presentation of Chiari I malformation affecting children?

<p>Insidious headaches and neck pain (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

One of the diagnostic characteristics for definitive diagnosis of Chiari I malformation is:

<p>Cerebellar tonsils displaced over 5 mm (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What prenatal event contributes to the ETIOLOGY of cerebral palsy?

<p>TORCH infections (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is a DEFINING characteristic of Cerebral Palsy?

<p>Static encephalopathy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the PRIMARY finding that indicates cerebral palsy?

<p>Altered gait (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child with cerebral palsy exhibits increased muscle tone, especially in the lower extremities, leading to scissoring of the legs. What is the MOST likely type of motor impairment?

<p>Spasticity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What genetic test is MOST likely used to confirm Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease?

<p>PCR testing for PMP22 gene (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child is suspected of having Charcot-Marie-Tooth. Which of the following would be MOST suspect?

<p>Family history of CMT (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What testing MUST be abnormal in order to make a CHARCOT-MARIE-TOOTH diagnosis?

<p>Electromyography (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which finding on physical exam is MOST suggestive of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease?

<p>Distal muscle atrophy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A rehabilitation plan that includes what component is crucial to treatment for Charcot-Marie-Tooth?

<p>Endurance (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Infant Botulism, how does the toxin lead to muscle weakness?

<p>Blocks acetylcholine release (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST LIKELY source of C. botulinum spores?

<p>Honey (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the PREFERRED treatment for infant botulism?

<p>BabyBIG (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What BEST DESCRIBES the genetic transmission pattern for spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)?

<p>Autosomal recessive (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the PRIMARY indication for use of the medication Spinraza in Spinal Muscular Atrophy (SMA)?

<p>Reduce the frequency and severity of symptoms (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 4-month-old infant presents with severe hypotonia, tongue fasciculations, and absent reflexes. Which diagnosis is MOST concerning?

<p>Spinal muscular atrophy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following recovery from acute paralytic poliomyelitis, a patient reports new onset muscle weakness, fatigue, and joint pain decades later. These signs are MOST suggestive of.

<p>Post-polio syndrome (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The MOST effective method for preventing poliomyelitis is:

<p>Vaccination (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which clinical symptoms are considered the hallmark diagnostic criteria for Tourette Syndrome, according to DSM-5?

<p>Presence of multiple motor tics and at least one vocal tic (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What BEST describes the typical progression of tics in Tourette Syndrome?

<p>Tics fluctuate in severity and type (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the general approach to treatment, what is the most evidence-based initial intervention for managing tics in Tourette Syndrome?

<p>Habit reversal therapy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic result is MOST indicative of mononeuropathy rather than polyneuropathy?

<p>Focal sensory or motor deficits (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with paresthesias and weakness isolated to the ulnar aspect of their hand and forearm. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

<p>Mononeuropathy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with Carpal Tunnel Syndrome. What conservative measures should be taken first?

<p>Activity modification, splinting (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with bilateral numbness, tingling, and burning pain in their feet, gradually ascending up their legs. This presentation is MOST characteristic of:

<p>Diabetic neuropathy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the TREATMENT STRATEGY require when dealing with a patient exhibiting diabetic neuropathy?

<p>Glycemic control (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child presents with a sudden, severe headache along with a fever and stiff neck. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

<p>Performing a lumbar puncture to evaluate for possible meningitis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the diagnostic workup of a child with headaches, which of the following findings is MOST indicative of a secondary headache requiring further investigation?

<p>Neurological deficits such as cranial nerve abnormalities. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the PRIMARY purpose of the acute management of febrile seizures in children?

<p>To administer anticonvulsants to stop the seizure activity. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which clinical feature is MOST suggestive of a complex febrile seizure rather than a simple febrile seizure?

<p>A seizure with focal onset or prolonged duration. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the inheritance pattern MOST commonly associated with Sturge-Weber Syndrome?

<p>Sporadic (not inherited) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a facial port-wine stain in Sturge-Weber Syndrome. What is it caused by?

<p>Capillary malformation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child with Sturge-Weber Syndrome develops seizures, which is a neurological feature seen in Sturge-Weber Syndrome. What is the cause of their seizures?

<p>Focal (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with suspected Sturge-Weber Syndrome, where are the most common locations for intracranial leptomeningeal vascular anomaly and calcifications?

<p>Parietal and occipital areas (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which complication associated with myelomeningocele would indicate the greatest long term risk?

<p>Hydrocephalus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following surgical repair of a myelomeningocele, what is the MOST critical neurological complication to monitor for in the newborn period?

<p>Hydrocephalus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST common etiology factor in congenital hydrocephalus?

<p>Obstruction (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is THE MOST accurate description of Chiari Malformation type 1?

<p>Cerebellar tonsils displaced below the foramen magnum. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After receiving a diagnosis of Charcot-Marie-Tooth, the patient should receive genetic testing for which gene duplication?

<p>PMP22 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When assessing a child for Charcot-Marie-Tooth, what is the MOST common way that the disease presents?

<p>Slowly progressive symptoms (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic test is ABNORMAL, making the diagnosis of Charcot-Marie-Tooth?

<p>EMG (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A baby presents with poor head control, constipation, and a weak cry. What diagnosis should be considered?

<p>Infant botulism (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the botulinum toxin affect function in Infant Botulism?

<p>Blocks acetycholine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the best preventative strategy, and BEST reduces the risk of Infant Botulism?

<p>Avoid honey in infants &lt; 1 year of age (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What clinical signs differentiate Spinal Muscular Atrophy from other motor neuron diseases in infants?

<p>Upper extremity is stronger/more mobile than lower extremity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factor increases the probability that someone will contract poliomyelitis?

<p>Immunocompromised (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST effective preventative measure for poliomyelitis?

<p>Vaccination (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A young patient is diagnosed with Tourette’s Syndrome. What has to have occurred in the patient’s clinical history to make the diagnosis?

<p>Must have both motor and phonic tics to be diagnosed (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST common pattern of signs and symptoms for Tourette's in patients?

<p>Fluctuating in severity and suppressibility (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is a key in successful controlling or decreasing patient's symptoms due to Tourette Syndrome?

<p>(HRT) and comprehensive behavioral intervention (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Mononeuropathy involves which distribution?

<p>Focal distribution (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Mononeuropathy is often associated with which of the following factors?

<p>Trauma or compression (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following nerve studies help in identifying the local region of compression in Monoeuropathy?

<p>Electrodiagnostic testing (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which strategy is the initial treatment plan in Mononeuropathy?

<p>Activity modification (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to determine causative events in both classifications of neuropathies?

<p>Help make a long term plan for patients (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 6-year-old child presents with a history of recurrent headaches, primarily located in the front of their forehead, and that they report are brought on by stress and lack of sleep. What is the MOST appropriate first-line abortive treatment for their headaches?

<p>Naproxen (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant mother recently had an ultrasound that showed her child has spina bifida. She asks you if there was any preventative measure she could have taken to prevent the condition, what is the MOST important thing to advise this parient?

<p>Folic acid supplementation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Infant botulism is treated using botulism immune globulin intravenous (BIG-IV or BabyBIG). What is the goal of the treatment when treating infant botulism?

<p>Neutralize circulating toxin. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 3-year-old presents with gait abnormalities, muscle weakness, and abnormal posture. What is the PRIMARY cause for patients presenting with this cerebral palsy symptom?

<p>Brain injury (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You are advising a group of expecting parents about steps that can help support their health, and in turn the health of their future baby. What type of exposure should they do their best to reduce, in hopes of preventing brain injury?

<p>TORCH (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When educating parents of a child with cerebral palsy what should they know about course and prognosis?

<p>The brain will be static over the the patients life, though clinical manifestation may evolve (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the treatment plan to reduce paralysis associated with poliomyelitis?

<p>There isn't a treatment to reduce paralysis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 7-year-old patient presents with a new onset of motor tics and vocal tics for at least 1 year. The nurse practitioner suspects the patient has Tourette Syndrome. What must also be ruled out?

<p>Other movement disorders (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In distinguishing between primary and secondary headaches in children, what aspect of the clinical presentation is most critical?

<p>Thoroughness of the history and physical exam (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following headache characteristics should prompt immediate neuroimaging in a child?

<p>New onset headache with fever and stiff neck (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What non-pharmacologic intervention is typically recommended as a first-line approach for managing tension-type headaches in children?

<p>Sleep hygiene, fluids, and stress management (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following clinical findings is most suggestive of Sturge-Weber Syndrome?

<p>Unilateral port-wine stain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child with Sturge-Weber Syndrome presents with increased intraocular pressure. This is most indicative of which complication?

<p>Buphthalmos (infantile glaucoma) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Sturge-Weber Syndrome, where are intracranial leptomeningeal vascular anomalies and calcifications most frequently located?

<p>Parietal and occipital lobes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale for using low-dose aspirin in infants with Sturge-Weber Syndrome?

<p>As an antithrombotic to reduce the risk of stroke-like events (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which prenatal screening method is typically used to detect Spina Bifida?

<p>Ultrasound and/or serum alpha fetoprotein levels (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A newborn presents with a sac-like protrusion containing spinal fluid and neural tissue on their lower back. Which condition is most likely?

<p>Myelomeningocele (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After surgical repair of a myelomeningocele, what potential complication requires close monitoring in the newborn period?

<p>Hydrocephalus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Myelomeningocele is often associated with what?

<p>Hydrocephalus and Chiari II malformation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of congenital hydrocephalus?

<p>Obstruction (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following represents a surgical intervention for hydrocephalus?

<p>Placement of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Chiari malformation type 1, which anatomical structure is displaced?

<p>Cerebellar tonsils (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What diagnostic findings are indicative of Chiari 1 malformation?

<p>one or both cerebellar tonsils are displaced by ≥5 mm below the foramen magnum (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristics should be expected from patients diagnosed with Cerebral Palsy?

<p>Static encephalopathy with motor impairments (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the common presentation of cerebral palsy?

<p>Motor impairments such as spasticity or ataxia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the genetic testing associated with CMT, what is the most common subtype?

<p>Duplication of the PMP22 gene (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What clinical presentation would be most expected with Infant botulism?

<p>Hypotonia, constipation, and weak cry (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which action best reduces the risk of Infant Botulism?

<p>Avoiding honey in infants under one year of age (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

ALS Etiology

Progressive degeneration of motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord, leading to muscle weakness and atrophy.

ALS Pathophysiology

Degeneration of upper and lower motor neurons leads to muscle weakness, atrophy, and eventually paralysis. Cognitive decline may occur.

ALS Clinical Features

Muscle weakness, spasticity, fasciculations, dysarthria, dysphagia, respiratory failure. Onset typically between 30-60 years.

ALS Diagnosis

Based on clinical exam, EMG (denervation/reinnervation), nerve conduction studies (normal sensory conduction), and ruling out other conditions.

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ALS Complications

Respiratory failure, malnutrition, aspiration pneumonia, emotional distress.

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ALS Prognosis

Median survival of 3-5 years from symptom onset. Bulbar onset and rapid progression are poorer prognostic factors.

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ALS Treatment

Riluzole (glutamate inhibitor), edaravone (antioxidant), symptomatic management (respiratory support, nutritional support, spasticity management), multidisciplinary care.

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Guillain-Barre Etiology

Acute, inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculoneuropathy (AIDP), often triggered by an infection.

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Guillain-Barre Pathophysiology

Demyelination of peripheral nerves leads to ascending muscle weakness and sensory abnormalities.

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Guillain-Barre Clinical Features

Ascending symmetrical muscle weakness, areflexia, sensory disturbances (tingling, pain), autonomic dysfunction.

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Guillain-Barre Diagnosis

Based on clinical presentation, CSF analysis (elevated protein, normal cells), EMG/NCS (slowing of nerve conduction).

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Guillain-Barre Complications

Respiratory failure, autonomic dysfunction (cardiac arrhythmias, blood pressure instability), paralysis.

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Guillain-Barre Prognosis

Generally good (75%), but recovery may take weeks to months. Poorer prognosis with rapid progression and axonal involvement.

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Guillain-Barre Treatment

IVIG or plasmapheresis to remove antibodies, supportive care (ventilation, cardiac monitoring, PT/OT).

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Bell's Palsy Etiology

Idiopathic inflammation of the facial nerve (CN VII). Can be associated with HSV or varicella zoster.

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Bell's Palsy Pathophysiology

Inflammation and compression of the facial nerve lead to unilateral facial weakness or paralysis.

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Bell's Palsy Clinical Features

Unilateral facial weakness, drooping of mouth, inability to close eye, loss of taste, hyperacusis.

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Bell's Palsy Diagnosis

Primarily clinical diagnosis. If atypical, consider EMG, CT, or MRI to rule out other causes.

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Bell's Palsy Complications

Corneal ulceration (due to inability to close eye), psychological distress.

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Bell's Palsy Prognosis

Most cases resolve completely within weeks to months. Incomplete recovery can occur.

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Bell's Palsy Treatment

Corticosteroids (prednisone) within 72 hours of onset, antivirals (if HSV/VZV suspected), eye care (lubrication, patching), physical therapy.

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Myasthenia Gravis Etiology

Autoimmune disorder affecting the neuromuscular junction; antibodies block acetylcholine receptors.

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Myasthenia Gravis Pathophysiology

Antibodies block acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle weakness that worsens with activity.

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Myasthenia Gravis Clinical Features

Fluctuating muscle weakness, ptosis, diplopia, difficulty chewing/swallowing, limb weakness, respiratory difficulties.

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Myasthenia Gravis Diagnosis

Edrophonium (Tensilon) test, acetylcholine receptor antibody test, EMG (decremental response).

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Myasthenia Gravis Complications

Myasthenic crisis (respiratory failure), thymoma, side effects of medications.

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Myasthenia Gravis Prognosis

Variable, but with treatment, many patients achieve significant symptom control and improved quality of life.

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Myasthenia Gravis Treatment

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (pyridostigmine), corticosteroids, immunosuppressants, thymectomy, plasmapheresis, IVIG.

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Muscular Dystrophies Etiology

Genetic disorders characterized by progressive muscle weakness and degeneration.

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Muscular Dystrophies Pathophysiology

Mutations in genes encoding muscle proteins lead to muscle fiber instability and degeneration.

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Muscular Dystrophies Clinical Features

Progressive muscle weakness, muscle atrophy, contractures, skeletal deformities, respiratory and cardiac complications.

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Muscular Dystrophies Diagnosis

Clinical exam, family history, elevated creatine kinase (CK), muscle biopsy, genetic testing.

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Muscular Dystrophies Complications

Respiratory failure, cardiac dysfunction, scoliosis, contractures, decreased mobility.

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Muscular Dystrophies Prognosis

Prognosis varies depending on the type and severity of MD. Some types are rapidly progressive, while others are slowly progressive.

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Muscular Dystrophies Treatment

Symptomatic care, physical therapy, occupational therapy, respiratory support, cardiac monitoring, medications (corticosteroids, eteplirsen, sodium channel blockers), emerging gene therapies.

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Complex Regional Pain Syndrome Etiology

A chronic pain condition characterized by pain, swelling, and changes in the skin.

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Complex Regional Pain Syndrome Pathophysiology

Likely involves inflammatory processes, autonomic dysregulation, and central sensitization.

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Complex Regional Pain Syndrome Clinical Features

Severe pain (burning, throbbing), swelling, skin changes (color, temperature), allodynia, hyperalgesia.

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Complex Regional Pain Syndrome Diagnosis

Clinical evaluation, bone scan (increased uptake in affected area), X-rays (osteopenia).

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Complex Regional Pain Syndrome Complications

Muscle atrophy, contractures, decreased function, psychological distress.

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Complex Regional Pain Syndrome Prognosis

Variable; early diagnosis and treatment improve the prognosis.

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Complex Regional Pain Syndrome Treatment

Pain management (NSAIDs, anticonvulsants, antidepressants), physical therapy, occupational therapy, psychological support, sympathetic nerve blocks, neuromodulation.

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Headache Diagnosis

Often primary vs. secondary, acute vs. chronic; determined through history and physical exam.

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Migraine Symptoms

Presents with or without aura; pounding/throbbing quality is common. Can include nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light or sound.

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Tension Headache Symptoms

Pressure/tight banding pain; often bilateral. Can include sensitivity to light or sound. No nausea or vomiting.

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Cluster Headache Symptoms

Unilateral pain associated with autonomic dysfunction (eye tearing, runny nose, miosis, facial sweating, ptosis).

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Headache Workup

History and physical. Red flags: changes in consciousness, fever, signs of trauma, neurologic changes.

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Headache Treatment

Abortive (NSAIDs, oxygen, triptans) and/or prophylactic (sleep hygiene, fluids, diet, exercise, stressreduction, etc.).

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Pediatric Headaches

Based on the patients age, the most common cause of headaches in children is migraine, tension-type and cluster headaches

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Definition of Febrile Seizures

Seizures occurring in association with fever in infants and children, without evidence of CNS infection.

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Simple Febrile Seizure Description

Usually generalized tonic-clonic seizures, brief duration (<15 minutes), occur once in 24 hours. Considered 'simple' febrile seizures.

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Complex Febrile Seizure Description

Prolonged (>15 minutes), focal features, or multiple seizures in 24 hours. Higher risk of recurrence or underlying neurological issues.

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Febrile Seizure Evaluation

History and physical exam to rule out other causes. If complex or concerning features, consider EEG, lumbar puncture, or imaging.

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Febrile Seizure Management

Control fever (antipyretics), ensure safety during seizure. Most cases self-resolve without long-term anticonvulsant therapy.

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Sturge-Weber Syndrome

Abnormal blood vessels in the brain are the most notable features. Most babies with Sturge-Weber syndrome will have a port wine stain.

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Sturge-Weber Syndrome Etiology

Rare, congenital vascular disorder in infants that affects the skin, brain, and eyes; not hereditary.

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Sturge-Weber Syndrome Clinical Features

Port wine stain on face (usually forehead or upper eyelid), seizures, glaucoma, intellectual disability, hemiparesis.

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Sturge-Weber Syndrome Diagnosis

Clinical diagnosis (characteristic findings). MRI of the brain showing leptomeningeal angioma.

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Sturge-Weber Syndrome Management

Epilepsy control (anticonvulsants), manage glaucoma (eye drops, surgery), laser therapy for skin lesions, low-dose aspirin.

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Sturge-Weber Syndrome Prognosis

Variable, depends on severity. Seizures and intellectual disability affect the prognosis.

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Congenital CNS Malformations

Include neural tube defects (spina bifida), hydrocephalus, and Chiari malformation. Can cause paralysis and other effects

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Diagnosis of CNS Malformations

Prenatal screening (ultrasound, alpha-fetoprotein), postnatal exam/imaging.

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Treatment Approach to CNS Malformations

Fetal surgery, postnatal surgery, supportive care (physical therapy, occupational therapy).

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Spinal Muscular Atrophy Cause

Autosomal recessive SMN (survival motor neuron) gene mutation.

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Spinal Muscular Atrophy Types

5 Types of SMA Neonatal / early infancy onset

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Spinal Muscular Atrophy Treatments

-aggressive and early respiratory toilet -assisted ventilation for most type 1 SMA + many type 2 SMA -physical therapy to avoid / minimize contractures

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Infant botulism Etiology

Toxin of the bacteria Clostridium botulinum prevents release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction

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Signs and symptoms of Infant Botulism

poor feeding, poor suck, absent gag, weak crydescending paralysis, hypotonia, head lag

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Infant Botulism Management and Treatment

Hospitalization of any infant suspected of having botulism Botulism immune globulin intravenous (BIG-IVor BabyBIG) should be given ASAP Supportive care: mechanical ventilation

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Poliomyelitis Etiology

Acute infectious disease in which motor neurons of the spinal cord and brainstem (anterior horn) are targeted by poliovirus, a single positive-strand RNA neurotropic enterovirus

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Signs and symptoms of poliomyelitis

Flaccid asymmetric paralysis usually of the legs May involve bulbar muscles (mouth/throat)

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Poliomyelitis Course and Prognosis

Variable prognosis depending on the patient

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Cerebral Palsy Treatment

Multidisciplinary Management:Involvement of neurology, physical medicine, occupational and speech therapy.

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Cerebral Palsy Course and Prognosis

Degree of brain injury, access to early intervention, and quality of multidisciplinary care.

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Tourette’s Management

TS is a chronic neurodevelopmental disorder with a variable clinical presentation.

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What is the Most common CHRONIC neuropathy in children?

Progressice Charcot-Marie-Tooth

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Spinal muscular atropy Treatment

-aggressive and early respiratory toilet assisted ventilation for most type 1 SMA + many type 2 SMA physical therapy to avoid / minimize contractures

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Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease Management

A comprehensive rehabilitation program is crucial: stretching, endurance, and strengthening exercises and orthotics may help to improve function.

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When to suspect CMT?

Can be identified by with slow progressive symptoms or family history of pes cars and CMT

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CMT Etiology

Spectrum of disorders caused by pathogenic variants in various genes whose protein products are expressed in myelin, gap junctions, and/or axonal structures within peripheral nerves

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spinal Muscular Atropy Management

The symptoms should be treat early on

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Study Notes

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)

  • ALS, also known as Lou Gehrig's disease, is a rapidly progressive neurodegenerative condition
  • The state-level age-adjusted average prevalence from 2011-2018 is 2.6 per 100,000 persons in Hawaii, 7.8 per 100,000 in Vermont and 4.4 in the US
  • ALS typically affects individuals between 30-60 years of age
  • ALS is characterized by upper and lower motor neuron deficits in the limbs due to the degeneration of anterior horn cells in the spinal cord
  • Some patients also experience cognitive decline with ALS
  • A small percentage (10-17%) of ALS cases are familial and related to several genetic loci
  • Diagnosis involves identifying upper motor neuron symptoms like weakness, slowness, hyperreflexia, and spasticity
  • Bulbar symptoms may include difficulty chewing, swallowing, coughing, and breathing
  • Lower motor neuron symptoms may include weakness, atrophy, fasciculations, incomplete eye closure, and facial weakness, progressing to diaphragmatic weakness and respiratory failure
  • Upper motor neuron signs include spasticity, increased tone, hyperreflexia, Babinski sign, clonus, and pseudobulbar affect
  • Lower motor neuron signs include muscle atrophy, fasciculations, flaccid weakness, hyporeflexia, and denervation on EMG
  • Diagnostic criteria incorporate progressive upper and lower motor neuron symptoms in one limb or body segment or progressive lower motor neuron symptoms in at least two body segments
  • Diagnosis requires the absence of other explanations for lower and/or upper motor neuron degeneration. Electromyography (EMG) may show acute on chronic denervation with reinnervation, reduced motor velocity, and normal sensory conduction
  • Genetic testing can be diagnostic for SOD1, which accounts for 15% of fALS (familial ALS). EMG is also essential for diagnosis
  • Other causes are ruled out by tests like nerve conduction study, MRI, blood/urine tests, lumbar puncture or muscle biopsy
  • Patients most frequently have respiratory failure, swallowing difficulties, muscular conditions, issues in communication, and psychological impact
  • Patients with ALS have a median survival between 3-5 years from symptom onset
  • Bulbar onset of ALS and rapid disease progression typically correlate with poorer outcomes. Younger age and slower progression are associated with longer survival
  • Treatment includes riluzole which reduces glutamate-mediated excitotoxicity and modestly extends survival, and edaravone, an antioxidant that may slow functional decline in select patients
  • Quality of life is improved via multidisciplinary management, using physical and occupational therapy, speech therapy, palliative care and supportive care

Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS)

  • GBS is an acute inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculoneuropathy (AIDP)
  • GBS can affect all myelinated nerves, including motor, sensory, cranial, and sympathetic nerves
  • GBS is a rapid, progressive demyelinating disorder affecting motor neurons
  • Two-thirds of those affected reported an antecedent infection 1-3 weeks before the onset of GBS like Campylobacter jejuni, mycoplasma, CMV, EBV, Hepatitis, Flu, HSV, COVID, and Zika
  • Symptoms presents include ascending symmetrical progressive proximal weakness over 1-4 weeks, potentially leading to paralysis
  • The first symptoms are typically in the legs, then moving to the face, with reduced or absent reflexes
  • Patients may experience paresthesia, dysesthesias, back and hip pain
  • Autonomic nerve involvement seen include cardiac dysrhythmias, tachycardia, hypotension/HTN, facial flushing, diaphoresis, pulmonary dysfunction, and sphincter control
  • Poor prognostic signs in GBS include rapid weakness progression in less than 7 days, a need of assisted ventilation, axonal involvement (shown by decreased amplitudes on NCVs and not just demyelination)
  • CSF analysis (after the first week) shows elevated protein but normal cell count, and EMG often shows slowing NCVs
  • Management includes supportive care, admission, IVIG or plasmapheresis if ventilation is affected or if the condition is rapidly worsening, and OT/PT. The prognosis for GBS is generally good (~75%), but recovery may take weeks to months

Bell's Palsy

  • Bell's Palsy causes facial paralysis of the lower motor neuron type
  • The etiology is idiopathic, possibly due to HSV or varicella zoster
  • Inflammation involving the facial nerve near the stylomastoid foramen or in the bony facial canal is part of the pathophysiology
  • Symptoms are acute onset of facial paralysis and weakness, often with preceding ear pain
  • Paralysis of the upper face as well as not being able to wrinkle one's forehead can help differentiate between Bell's Palsy
  • Clinical diagnosis is unless presentation is atypical, then EMG, CT scans, or MRI
  • Symptoms often involve ipsilateral restriction of eye closure or disturbance of taste/hyperacusis
  • Max weakness is typically seen within 3 weeks with resolution within 6 months
  • Around 60% of cases will resolve completely without treatment
  • Lubricating eye drops or an eye patch is used for symptomatic relief
  • Corticosteroids are recommended for all new-onset patients as they improve the chances of recovery. Antivirals are potentially used with herpetic vesicles in ear canal

Myasthenia Gravis (MG)

  • MG is more prevalent in young females
  • Etiologies include autoimmune disorders, thymic tumors (thymoma), Lambert-Eaton syndrome (small cell lung CA), thyrotoxicosis, RA, or lupus
  • MG can cause ocular weakness (ptosis, ophthalmoplegia) or generalized weakness
  • Insidious and is exacerbated by concurrent infection and menses
  • It involves T-cell mediated block of neurotransmitters by autoAb binding to acetylcholine receptors
  • Symptoms involves ptosis, diplopia, difficulty chewing/swallowing, respiratory difficulties, and limb weakness
  • Proximal muscles and cranial nerve are most commonly affected
  • Presents with fluctuating progressive weakness of voluntary muscles with "early fatigability”, along with potential acute or subacute onset, diurnal fatigue (worse at night), and potentially need for ventilatory support at presentation. There is potential exacerbation from hot conditions and certain prescription drugs
  • There is often normal sensation and reflexes
  • Diagnosis involves clinical signs and assessment using ice pack tests (cold temperatures improve neuromuscular transmission), Tensilon tests, EMGs
  • Diagnosis can be confirmed though serum testing for autobodies to acteylcholine receptor
  • Diagnostics for underlying causes includes a CT scan of the chest to test for thymoma
  • Management involves acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (pyridostigmine to improve neuromuscular transmission) to avoid cholinergic sx such as increased lacrimation/salivation or bradycardia
  • Steroids (prednisone) are an immunological therapy but can be given with steroid-sparing agents (azathioprine)
  • During immunomodulation, IVIG and plasmapheresis can be considered for cricis or pre-operative prep
  • A thymectomy may also be a management option
  • With appropriate management, most patients achieve significant symptom control and have improved quality of life

Muscular Dystrophies (MD)

  • Muscular dystrophies involves a group of genetic disorders with mutations affecting dystrophin, laminin, and emerin proteins
  • Mutations ultimately lead to impaired muscle fiber stability and degeneration, resulting in progressive muscle weakness
  • Duchenne MD (DMD) is X-linked, with early onset and rapid progression
  • Becker MD(BMD) is also X-linked, but is milder and has a slower course
  • Myotonic dystrophy is autosomal dominant and involves myotonia as well as multi system involvement
  • Limb-Girdle Muscular Dystrophies includes a heterogeneous group affecting shoulder and hip muscles
  • Progressive weakness, along with calf pseudohypertrophy and Gowers' sign on physical exam can indicate MD
  • Lab studies may show elevated creatine kinase (CK)
  • Genetic and muscle biopsies will confirm dx. This can be with genetic testing and a muscle biopsy to idendify dystrophin protein abnormalities
  • Management is primarily supportive care, including physical therapy, respiratory and cardiac monitoring, and emerging gene therapies
  • Duchenne's causes calf enlargement secondary to accumulation of fat
  • DMD is caused by an X-linked recessive gene expression and onset at pre-school age
  • DMD causes proximal muscle weakness as well as difficulty walking/running or general motion
  • Patients also commonly walk on toes
  • Death of patients is often the result of respiratory and cardio myopathy by early 20s
  • Treatment may include eteplirsen to slow the progression, corticosteroids to improve function, plus standard PT. Myotonic symptoms are often treated with sodium channel blocker.

Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS)

  • CRPS is a rare disorder that includes autonomic and vasomotor instability
  • CRPS is usually preceded by surgery or direct physical trauma however can also be caused by any extremity
  • CRPS symptoms can involve severe inflammatory reactions to physical trauma, central sensitization, and neuroplastic changes
  • Patients present as feeling disproportionate feeling of motor, sensory and trophic sensory change
  • Diagnosing CRPS, the following signs presents are burning pain located at the origin site
  • Edema and temperature disturbances involving the distrophic nails and limited mobility
  • Patients symptoms intensify with certain movement along with skin atrophy
  • Testing may involve an x-ray to diagnose and check for osteopienia
  • Bone scintigraphy used to sensitive and locate inflammation
  • Management includes PT, desensitization techniques, and graded motor imagery to help retain muscle memory
  • The patient can also follow pain management techniques and coping strategies
  • NSAIDS, anti-convolsants, antidepressants can also be described to eliminate neuropathic symptoms
  • Interventional procedures may include sympathetic nerve blocks and neuromodulation techniques

Neuropathies: Overview and Definitions

  • Mononeuropathies involve a single peripheral nerve with a focal distribution, and present as local pain, numbness, or weakness and specific inciting event, potentially causing nerve entrapment
  • Peripheral Neuropathies affect many nerves with diffuse affects and symmetric, distal pattern of sensory loss with potential motor involvement and diminished reflexes, and typically is related systemic conditions

Examples of Neuropathies

  • Mononeuropathies include carpal tunnel, cubital tunnel, radial nerve palsy, peroneal nerve palsy, femoral neuropathy, and Bell's palsy
  • Peripheral (poly)neuropathies include diabetic polyneuropathy, alcoholic neuropathy, nutritional neuropathy, uremic neuropathy, Guillain-Barre Syndrome, and hereditary neuropathies
  • Mononeuropathies can be diagnosed through physical exams evaluating local causes, electrodiagnostic testing, and ultrasounds or MRI
  • Peripheral neuropathies can be diagnosed through metabolic panels, HbA1c, vitamin levels, autoimmune markers, and can be further assisted through skin biopsies or genetic tests
  • Treatment for mononeuropathies includes conservative managament (activity modification, splints, and or NSAIDs). Procedures through cortocosteriods or surgery (carpal tunnel)
  • Peripheral neuropathies can be treated by finding the address through nutrition, supplementation, or other therapy. Symptomatic treatments can come through physical therapy. There are various doctors that may involved

Comparing Prognosis & Outcomes

  • Mononeuropathies often have a favorable outcome if the inciting cause is identified and managed early with a potential for complete recovery after decompression
  • Peripheral neuropathies will have a diagnosis that depends on uderlying conditions, with potential need for symptomatic treatment and potential for chronic or reversible treatment

Pediatric Headaches

  • Headaches can be categorized as either primary or secondary, acute or chronic depending on presentation and examination
  • Primary headaches are the most common cause of headache in children, with migraine and tension-type headache also being commonly found, often chronically
  • Triggers are lack of sleep, stress, certain foods, dehydration, or caffeine
  • Secondary headaches can appear from increased intracranial pressure, vascular events, head and neck pathology, systemic illness, drug use, and psychological events
  • There are also different types of headaches based on symptoms; migrane (auras, throbbing, vomitting, photo/phonophobia, etc), tension (band pain, lack of vomiting, possible phono/photo phobia, etc) and cluster (worse with autonomic dysfunction, several episodes of pain.)
  • Severe symptoms in cases such as neurological decline, fever, changes or deformities, imaging (CT scan)
  • Diagnosis must be based on the patient's exam, history, and symptomology
  • Treatment involves lifestyle factors such as fluids, lack of caffine, proper sleep hygiene, and exercise (massage, PT, Yoga)
  • Medication treatments can assist with aborting the headache (NSAIDS), or reduce frequency and intensity, with drugs such as (Topiramate, Propranolol)

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