354 Questions
Which of the following is NOT a component of an amino acid?
Hydrogen
What is the charge of the amino group at neutral pH?
Positive
Which of the following statements about amino acids is true?
They have a positive charge at neutral pH
What is the classification of amino acids based on?
Side chain
Which of the following is true about protein synthesis?
It involves the formation of proteins
What type of compounds are amino acids?
Chiral compounds
At neutral pH, what is the charge of the carboxyl group in an amino acid?
Negative
What is the overall charge of an amino acid at neutral pH?
Neutral
What is the primary structure of a protein?
The sequence of amino acids in the protein
What are amino acids considered as in the context of protein synthesis?
Building blocks
Which group determines the functional differences of amino acids?
Side-group
What are the two categories of amino acids based on their side-group charge?
Charged or neutral
Which type of side-chain interaction determines the polarity of an amino acid?
Hydrogen bonding
Which type of side-chain interaction causes hydrophobic amino acids to cluster together in the center of proteins?
Van der Waals interactions
Which type of side-chain interaction allows the formation of disulfide bonds in proteins?
Covalent bonding
What is the primary structure of a protein?
The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide
Which secondary structure of a protein is stabilized by hydrogen bonds between amino acids?
α-helix
What is the tertiary structure of a protein?
The additional folding due to interactions of side chains
What is the quaternary structure of a protein?
The formation of more than one polypeptide
What is the process of joining amino acids together in a protein called?
Peptide bonding
Which of the following is true about amino acids?
Amino acids have no charge at neutral pH
What is the classification of amino acids based on?
Amino acid structure
What is the process of joining amino acids together in a protein called?
Protein synthesis
What is the primary structure of a protein?
The sequence of amino acids in a protein
Which secondary structure of a protein is stabilized by hydrogen bonds between amino acids?
Alpha helix
What is the tertiary structure of a protein?
The overall three-dimensional shape of a protein
What type of compounds are amino acids?
Chiral compounds
Which type of side-chain interaction determines the polarity of an amino acid?
Ionic interactions
What are the two categories of amino acids based on their side-group charge?
Acidic and basic
What is the quaternary structure of a protein?
The interaction between multiple protein subunits
Which type of side-chain interaction allows hydrophobic amino acids to cluster together in the center of proteins?
Van der Waals interactions
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of polar amino acids?
They have sulfur groups in their side chains
What is the primary structure of a protein?
The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide
Which type of side-chain interaction determines the polarity of an amino acid?
Hydrogen bonds
What is the charge of the amino group at neutral pH?
Positive
What is the quaternary structure of a protein?
The interaction between multiple polypeptides
Which type of side-chain interaction allows the formation of disulfide bonds in proteins?
Disulfide bonds
What is the tertiary structure of a protein?
The additional folding of a protein
Which of the following statements about amino acids is true?
Amino acids can have different side-chain structures
What is the process of joining amino acids together in a protein called?
Peptide bond formation
Which of the following is true about amino acids?
Amino acids have a neutral charge at neutral pH.
What is the charge of the amino group at neutral pH?
Positive charge
What is the charge of the carboxyl group in an amino acid at neutral pH?
Negative charge
What is the primary structure of a protein?
The sequence of amino acids in a protein.
What are amino acids considered as in the context of protein synthesis?
Building blocks
What type of compounds are amino acids?
Chiral compounds
What is the classification of amino acids based on?
Their side chain (R-group)
Which type of side-chain interaction allows the formation of disulfide bonds in proteins?
Covalent bonds
Which secondary structure of a protein is stabilized by hydrogen bonds between amino acids?
Alpha helix
Which type of side-chain interaction determines the polarity of an amino acid?
Ionic interactions
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of polar amino acids?
They have aliphatic side chains.
What is the charge of the carboxyl group in an amino acid at neutral pH?
Negative
What are the two categories of amino acids based on their side-group charge?
Charged and neutral
Which secondary structure of a protein is stabilized by hydrogen bonds between amino acids?
Alpha-helix
What is the primary structure of a protein?
The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide.
What is the tertiary structure of a protein?
The additional folding due to interactions of side chains.
What is the quaternary structure of a protein?
Proteins made from more than one polypeptide.
What type of compounds are amino acids?
Proteins
What type of side-chain interaction causes hydrophobic amino acids to cluster together in the center of proteins?
Van der Waals interactions
What are amino acids considered as in the context of protein synthesis?
Building blocks
Which of the following is true about amino acids?
Amino acids are chiral compounds.
What is the overall charge of an amino acid at neutral pH?
Neutral
What is the classification of amino acids based on?
Side chain (R-group)
What type of compounds are amino acids?
Chiral compounds
Which type of side-chain interaction determines the polarity of an amino acid?
Polar interactions
What is the primary structure of a protein?
The sequence of amino acids
Which secondary structure of a protein is stabilized by hydrogen bonds between amino acids?
Beta sheet
What is the process of joining amino acids together in a protein called?
Protein synthesis
Which type of side-chain interaction allows the formation of disulfide bonds in proteins?
Covalent interactions
What are the two categories of amino acids based on their side-group charge?
Basic and acidic
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of polar amino acids?
They have aliphatic side chains.
What is the overall charge of an amino acid at neutral pH?
Neutral
Which type of side-chain interaction allows the formation of disulfide bonds in proteins?
Covalent bonding
Which of the following statements about protein synthesis is true?
Peptide bonds are formed between amino acids.
Which type of side-chain interaction causes hydrophobic amino acids to cluster together in the center of proteins?
Hydrophobic interaction
What are the two categories of amino acids based on their side-group charge?
Neutral and charged
Which secondary structure of a protein is stabilized by hydrogen bonds between amino acids?
Beta-sheet
What is the primary structure of a protein?
The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide
What is the quaternary structure of a protein?
Proteins made from more than one polypeptide
Which of the following statements about amino acids is true?
Amino acids can be polar or non-polar.
Which enzyme targets neutral nonpolar amino acids during protein digestion?
Exopeptidase
Which transporter is responsible for the absorption of dipeptides and tripeptides in the small intestine?
PEPT1
Which amino acids have the quickest transporter affinity during protein absorption?
Met, leu, ile, val
What is the process called when an amino group is transferred from an amino acid to a keto acid to form a new amino acid?
Transamination
Which organ is responsible for ammonia excretion during urea synthesis?
Liver
What are the end products of deamination?
Ammonia and keto acid
Which of the following is NOT a function of keto acid produced during deamination?
Cholesterol
Which expert consultation report provides information on protein and amino acid requirements in human nutrition?
WHO/FAO/UNU Expert Consultation
What is the URL of the WHO Technical Report Series on protein and amino acid requirements in human nutrition?
What is the full name of the author of the lecture on protein digestion and metabolism?
Aifric O’Sullivan BSc, MSc, PhD
Which enzyme is responsible for the hydrolysis of proteins into peptides during protein digestion?
Endopeptidase
Which transporter is responsible for the absorption of dipeptides and tripeptides in the small intestine?
PEPT1 (H+)
Which amino acids have the slowest transporter affinity during protein absorption?
Glutamate and Aspartate
Which process involves the transfer of an amino group from an amino acid to a keto acid to form a new amino acid?
Transamination
Which amino acid is formed from the transamination of glutamate and pyruvate?
Alanine
Which organ is responsible for the excretion of ammonia during urea synthesis?
Liver
Which expert consultation report provides information on protein and amino acid requirements in human nutrition?
WHO/FAO/UNU Expert Consultation
Which amino acids are classified as dispensable?
Asp, Glu, Ser, Gly
What are the two categories of amino acids based on their side-group charge?
Neutral and Charged
What is the overall charge of an amino acid at neutral pH?
Neutral
Which type of process rheometer measurement is considered the most desirable?
In-line
What is the critical shear stress that causes the onset of flow called?
Yield stress
What is the deformation resulting from the applied stress, at which the flow starts, called?
Shear deformation
Which type of fluid has the same viscosity at low shear rates as at high shear rates?
Newtonian fluid
Which type of fluid has a nonlinear and sometimes time-dependent relation between shear stress and strain rate?
Non-Newtonian fluid
Which of the following is NOT a type of probe used in process control for measuring processing conditions and product quality parameters?
Rheometers
Which of the following sensors is used to measure the density of liquid food by vibrating like a tuning fork?
Density sensors
Which of the following is NOT a property measured by viscometers in rheology?
Texture
Which of the following is a challenge in process rheometry for in-line measurement?
Periodic sampling is required
What does rheology study in relation to foods?
Deformation and flow
What type of viscometer consists of a probe vibrating at a known frequency and amplitude to measure viscosity?
Vibrational viscometer
Which viscometer is used for highly viscous materials that would not flow into the annular space of a rotational viscometer?
Cone and plate
Which viscometer measures viscosity by allowing a piston or cylinder to fall through the process liquid within a tube and measuring the time of fall?
Falling Cylinder
Which viscometer measures viscosity by measuring the terminal velocity of a falling sphere through a liquid?
Falling Sphere Viscometer
Which viscometer uses a funnel flow from a beaker or cup to measure viscosity?
Funnel flow from beaker or cup
Which of the following factors does NOT influence the viscosity of skim milk concentrate?
pH level
What is the recommended viscosity for skim milk concentrate in falling film evaporators?
100 mPa/s at 100/s shear rate
Which energy source is primarily used in spray dryers to remove water from skim milk concentrate?
Natural gas
Which of the following is true about protein content in skim milk during the months of April/May and June/July?
Protein content is higher in April/May and lower in June/July
What is the primary objective of continuous monitoring of skim milk concentrate viscosity during skim milk production?
To prevent blockage in pipelines
Which equation represents the relationship between shear stress and shear rate in the power law model?
$\tau = \eta \cdot \gamma^n$
Which model is commonly used to describe the flow behavior of molten chocolate?
Casson model
Which equation represents the relationship between shear stress and shear rate in the Casson model?
$\tau = \tau_0 + \eta \cdot \gamma^{0.5}$
Which model is a generalized model of a non-Newtonian fluid?
Herschel-Bulkley model
Which equation represents the relationship between shear stress and shear rate in the Herschel-Bulkley model?
$\tau = \tau_0 + K \cdot \gamma^n$
According to Stoke's law, the terminal velocity (vt) of a spherical particle in a fluid is given by the equation $vt = \frac{{d^2(\rho_s - \rho)g}},{{18\mu}}$, where d is the diameter of the particle, ρs is the density of the sphere, ρ is the density of the liquid, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and μ is the viscosity of the fluid. If the diameter of the particle is 0.01 m, the density of the sphere is 1000 kg/m3, the density of the liquid is 800 kg/m3, the acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/s2, and the viscosity of the fluid is $0.01 Ns/m^2$, what is the terminal velocity of the particle?
0.1 m/s
According to Stoke's equation, the settling area (A) in a tank can be calculated using the equation $A = \frac{{F \cdot (dw/dt)}},{{vr}}$, where F is the mass ratio of liquid to solid in the feed, dw/dt is the mass rate of feed of the solids, v is the velocity, and r is the density of the liquid. If F is 2, dw/dt is 500 kg/h, v is 1 m/s, and r is 1000 kg/m3, what is the settling area?
0.5 m2
According to Stoke's equation, the terminal velocity (vt) of a spherical particle in a fluid can also be calculated using the equation $vt = \frac{{d^2(\rho_s - \rho)g}},{{18\mu}}$. If the terminal velocity of a particle is 0.1 m/s, the diameter of the particle is 0.02 m, the density of the sphere is 1200 kg/m3, the density of the liquid is 900 kg/m3, and the viscosity of the fluid is $0.02 Ns/m^2$, what is the acceleration due to gravity (g)?
9.8 m/s2
According to Stoke's equation, the terminal velocity (vt) of a spherical particle in a fluid can be calculated using the equation $vt = \frac{{d^2(\rho_s - \rho)g}},{{18\mu}}$. If the terminal velocity of a particle is 0.05 m/s, the diameter of the particle is 0.03 m, the density of the sphere is 1500 kg/m3, the density of the liquid is 1000 kg/m3, and the viscosity of the fluid is $0.03 Ns/m^2$, what is the terminal velocity in cm/h?
2 cm/h
According to Stoke's equation, the terminal velocity (vt) of a spherical particle in a fluid can be calculated using the equation $vt = \frac{{d^2(\rho_s - \rho)g}},{{18\mu}}$. If the terminal velocity of a particle is 0.02 m/s, the diameter of the particle is 0.04 m, the density of the sphere is 1800 kg/m3, the density of the liquid is 1200 kg/m3, and the viscosity of the fluid is $0.04 Ns/m^2$, what is the terminal velocity in mm/s?
60 mm/s
Which of the following is NOT an attribute related to chromatic colour measurement?
Geometric
What is the better approach to define colour in food manufacturing operations?
Objectively
What is the Munsell system used for in relation to colour measurement?
To compare colours visually
What are the limitations of using the Munsell system for colour measurement?
All of the above
What have been developed to overcome the limitations of the Munsell system in colour measurement?
Objective measurements
What is the relationship between a change in one attribute and the perceived change in colour?
Direct
What are the two attributes related to colour measurement?
Geometric and chromatic
Which illuminant represents light from an incandescent lamp?
Illuminant A
What is the color temperature of Illuminant B?
4800 K
Which illuminant represents average daylight from the entire sky?
Illuminant C
What is the color temperature of Illuminant C?
6500 K
What is the purpose of the CIE 20 standard observation curves?
To quantify the average response of the human eye to red, green, and blue
Which instrument can be used to obtain X, Y, and Z values for color measurement?
All of the above
Which color scale is based on opponent colors theory?
Hunter Lab color scale
Which method is used for color determination of beer and worts?
Beer tintometer
What is the final color trimming achieved by in whiskey production?
Caramel coloring
What is the wavelength of light used for color determination in whiskey production?
525 nm
What instrument is used for color determination of cider?
Minolta colorimeter
What parameters are set by the laboratory for color determination of cider?
Tristimulus reading
What offers more flexibility in range of beverages for color determination than a Lovibond colorimeter?
Minolta colorimeter
What is the recommended bandwidth for the spectrometer used in color determination of whiskey?
Less than 10 nm
What is the internationally recognized method used for instrumentally measuring color in whiskey?
Association of Analytical Chemist method
What is the purpose of the Lovibond discs in color determination of beer and worts?
Final color trimming
What is the purpose of representing a light source as a function in color quantification?
To determine the spectral characteristics of different light sources
What is the function of the cones in the human eye?
To provide color vision
What is the purpose of the CIE x, y, z standard observer curves?
To plot the human response to color against wavelength
What is the purpose of using XYZ reference stimuli in color quantification?
To define a mathematical concept of color
What is the process of measuring color using reflection spectrophotometry?
Shining red, green, and blue light beams onto a half circle and matching the color produced to a standard
What is the primary function of the rods in the human eye?
To record light and darkness
What is the purpose of representing the amount of reflected or transmitted light at each wavelength as a spectral curve?
To quantify the reflectance or transmittance of an object at different wavelengths
What is the most biologically active form of vitamin E?
α-tocopherol
What is the equation for calculating α-tocopherol equivalents?
$ ext{α-tocopherol Equivalents} = mg α-tocopherol + 0.5 x mg β-tocopherol + 0.1 x mg γ-tocopherol + 0.3 x mg α-tocotrienol$
What is the α-tocopherol equivalent content of 1 ounce of hazelnuts?
3.1 mg
What is the α-tocopherol equivalent content of 1 tablespoon of sunflower oil?
8.3 mg
What is the primary function of dietary antioxidants?
Neutralize free radicals and donate an electron
What is the main function of Vitamin E in the body?
Limit radical damage from oxidation of PUFAs
What is the association between high blood concentrations of vitamin E and cardiovascular disease (CVD)?
Lower incidence of CVD
What can high levels of free radicals cause in the body?
Cellular dysfunction and disease
Which vitamins are considered dietary antioxidants?
Vitamin C, Vitamin E, Beta-Carotene
What is the role of cofactors and enzymes in defending against disease?
Interconnection between many micronutrients
What is the impact of low antioxidant intake in the diet?
Increased oxidative stress and disease
What are the potential consequences of exposure to toxins, poor nutrition, and stress?
Oxidative stress and disease
What is the main effect of age-related decline in natural defense mechanisms?
Increased oxidative stress
What is the overall impact of high levels of free radicals on cells?
Cellular dysfunction and disease
What is the primary function of VLDL in the body?
Transport lipids to other tissues
What is the main function of tocopherol in the body?
Limit radical damage from oxidation of PUFAs
What is the primary function of dietary antioxidants?
Neutralize free radicals
What do free radicals damage within the body?
Cell membranes, DNA, RNA, and proteins
What is the primary purpose of vitamin E in the body?
Limit radical damage from oxidation of PUFAs
What is the association between high blood concentrations of vitamin E and cardiovascular disease (CVD)?
Lower incidence of CVD
What are examples of dietary antioxidants?
Vitamin C, Vitamin E, Beta-Carotene
What can exposure to toxins, poor nutrition, and stress lead to?
Oxidative stress and increased disease
What are the potential health risks associated with high levels of free radicals?
Cancer, Cardiovascular Disease, Cataracts
What is the impact of randomised controlled trials with high dose vitamin E supplements?
Small effect or no effect
What is the overall impact of low antioxidant intake in the diet?
Increase in oxidative stress and disease risk
What is the role of vitamin C in the reduction of vitamin E radical back to tocopherol?
Reaction with vitamin E radical to reduce it back to tocopherol
What is the effect of high levels of free radicals on cells?
Damage to cells and contribution to disease
What do antioxidants remain stable and do in the body?
Donate an electron to neutralize free radicals
Which of the following is a symptom of vitamin A deficiency?
Xerophthalmia
What is the direct measure used to assess vitamin A status?
Liver biopsy
What is the main function of retinoic acid in the body?
Regulates gene expression and cell differentiation
What is the consequence of excessive intake of vitamin A?
Accumulation in liver and other tissues
Which receptors bind to retinoic acid response elements (RARE) on DNA?
α,β,γ retinoic acid receptor (RAR) and α,β,γ retinoic X receptor (RXR)
What is the primary function of carotenoids in the body?
Act as antioxidants
What is the recommended upper limit of dietary intake for vitamin A in pregnant women to avoid teratogenic effects?
3000-3300 µg
What is the method used to measure the relative change in serum concentration after vitamin A ingestion?
Relative Dose Response test
What is the consequence of vitamin A deficiency on vision?
Night blindness
What is the primary role of retinoic acid in gene expression?
Activates transcription
What is the consequence of vitamin A deficiency on the eye?
Bitot’s spots (small white cell accumulation)
What is the impact of vitamin A toxicity on the liver and bone?
Damage and accumulation
What is the recommended dietary allowance (RDA) of vitamin A for men and women?
Men = 700 µg, Women = 600 µg
What is the primary storage site for vitamin A in the body?
Liver and adipose tissue
What is the biological activity of β-carotene compared to retinol?
~ 12µg = 1µg retinol/RAE
What is the primary function of vitamin A in the body?
Vision, growth, reproduction, and immune function
What is the formula to calculate Retinol Activity Equivalent (RAE) for carotenoids?
RAE = 1µg retinol
What is the recommended dietary allowance (RDA) of vitamin A for lactating women?
950 µg
What is the primary metabolic function of vitamin A?
Participates in the conversion of light into nerve impulses
What are the end products of the cleavage of ProVitamin A?
Retinoic acid
What is the primary source of Vitamin A in the diet?
Beef liver
Which proteins are involved in the transport and storage of vitamin A in the body?
Retinol Binding Protein and transthyretin
What is the primary function of vitamin A in vision?
Maintains the cornea
What is the recommended dietary allowance (RDA) of vitamin A for children aged 7-10?
600 µg
What percentage of the body's calcium is found in bones and teeth?
99%
What is the recommended dietary allowance (RDA) of calcium for adults?
1200mg
Which physiological factor influences calcium absorption?
Vitamin D status
Which food contributes approximately 200mg of calcium to the diet, according to the text?
125mls milk
What is the percentage of calcium absorption that is concentration dependent?
30%
What is the primary role of vitamin D in calcium metabolism?
Stimulates calcium absorption
What is the plasma calcium concentration range in milligrams per 100 milliliters?
9-10.4 mg/100 ml
Which dietary factor can inhibit calcium absorption, as mentioned in the text?
Oxalates and phytates in foods
What is the approximate calcium content in 1.5 cartons of cottage cheese?
300mg
What is the approximate calcium content in a serving of canned sardines (56g)?
400mg
How much calcium is deposited in the body with the help of vitamin D?
200mg
What is the approximate calcium content in 6 medium slices of white or brown bread?
200mg
Which hormone signals the release of calcitonin in response to rising blood calcium levels?
Vitamin D
What is the normal range for plasma calcium concentration in milligrams per 100 milliliters?
9-10.4
What is the primary metabolic function of calcium in addition to bone and teeth health?
Assisting in blood clotting
What is the World Health Organization's definition of osteopenia based on bone mineral density?
BMD between -1 and -2.5 SD of the young adult mean
What is the upper limit for daily calcium intake according to the US?
2500 mg/day
What is a potential consequence of calcium deficiency?
Osteoporosis
What is the primary storage site for vitamin A in the body?
Liver
What is the primary impact of high levels of free radicals on cells?
Cell damage and aging
What is the overall impact of low antioxidant intake in the diet?
Increased oxidative stress
What is the function of the cones in the human eye?
Detecting color and detail
Which transporter is responsible for the absorption of dipeptides and tripeptides in the small intestine?
PEPT1
What is the primary metabolic function of vitamin A?
Supporting vision and immune function
What is the primary difference between magnification and resolution in the context of light microscopy?
Magnification refers to the degree of image enlargement, while resolution refers to the amount of detail visible in the image.
What is the resolution limit of a light microscope?
0.2µm
Which type of microscope has a higher magnification compared to a light microscope?
Electron microscope
What is the consequence of attempting to use increased magnification to improve the resolution of a light microscope?
The resolution will not improve, as magnification does not affect resolution in light microscopy.
What type of microscopy is used to observe external features of cells?
Light Microscopy
What is the primary difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
Presence of a nucleus
How do most electron microscopes magnify objects?
Up to 1 million times
What is the primary method of eukaryotic cell division?
Mitosis
What is the main function of light microscopes in observing cells?
See living cells in action
What is the primary difference in the cytoplasmic membrane of eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?
Presence of sterols
What is the primary difference between scanning electron microscopy and transmission electron microscopy?
Observation of external vs internal cell features
What provides 'illumination' in electron microscopy with a shorter wavelength than light photons?
Electrons
What is the primary difference in cell division between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
Binary Fission vs Mitosis
What is the primary difference in the structure of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells' nucleic acid?
Presence of a nuclear membrane
What is the primary difference in the lenses used in electron microscopy and light microscopy?
Electromagnets vs Light
What enables observation of internal cell structures in electron microscopy?
Transmission Electron Microscopy
Which staining method is considered the most important in Microbiology?
Crystal Violet
Which type of microorganism is known for having an outer membrane in its cell structure?
Gram-negative bacteria
Which type of microscopy is used to study the detailed internal structure of microbial cells?
Transmission electron microscopy
Which type of cells are known for their lack of a true nucleus?
Gram-positive bacteria
Which component is stained by the first step of the Gram stain mechanism?
Cell wall
Which type of microscopy is suitable for observing the surface details of microbial cells?
Scanning electron microscopy
Which type of microorganism is known for its ability to thrive in extreme environments?
Archaea
What is the primary function of the outer membrane in Gram-negative bacteria?
Regulation of nutrient uptake
Which type of staining is used to differentiate between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria?
Gram staining
Which type of cell structure is characterized by the presence of peptidoglycan in its cell wall?
Gram-positive bacteria
Which type of microscopy is commonly used in microbiology laboratories for routine observation of microbial cells?
Light microscopy
Which type of cells are known for their lack of membrane-bound organelles?
Gram-positive bacteria
What is the primary function of the bacterial cell wall?
To regulate osmotic pressure within the cell
Which component makes up the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria?
Phospholipid-Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) Bilayer
What is the main function of flagella in bacteria?
To enable motility and chemotaxis
Which bacteria are stained using the Ziehl-Neelsen stain due to their high wax content in the cell envelope?
Mycobacteria
What is the primary component of the bacterial cell wall that gives the cell its characteristic shape and prevents osmotic lysis?
Peptidoglycan
Which domain of life lacks peptidoglycan in their cell wall?
Archaea
What is the main function of the cytoplasmic membrane in bacterial cells?
Site of energy production and transport of important molecules
What is the composition of the cell wall in Mycoplasmas, the smallest known bacteria?
They have no cell wall
What is the purpose of the crystal violet-iodine complex in the Gram staining mechanism?
Forms within the cells to create a blue color
What is the primary difference in the cell envelope between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria?
Gram-positive has many peptidoglycan layers, while Gram-negative has one peptidoglycan layer
Which bacterial shape is characterized as curved or spiral shaped?
Spirilla
What is the primary function of pili in bacteria?
Adherence and plasmid transfer
What is the result of mitosis and cytokinesis in eukaryotic cells?
Two genetically identical daughter cells
What is the diploid chromosome number maintained in during mitosis?
2n
Which type of cells undergo mitotic cell division?
Both animal and plant cells
What is the purpose of mitosis in reproduction, growth, and tissue repair?
To maintain the same number of chromosomes
What is the significance of mitosis in eukaryotic cells?
To maintain the same number of chromosomes, ensuring genetic consistency
What is the primary function of mitosis in multicellular organisms?
To allow for growth and development of zygote after fertilization
During which stage of mitosis do sister chromatids align along the metaphase plate?
Metaphase
What is the result of mitosis in terms of chromosome number?
A conservation of chromosome number to the original number
What is the primary difference between mitosis and binary fission?
The type of cells that undergo the process
What is the process of nuclear division that occurs in eukaryotes, resulting in four non-identical daughter cells?
Meiosis
What is the term for a pair of homologous chromosomes, each consisting of one maternal and one paternal chromatid?
Nonsister chromatids
During which stage of meiosis do homologous chromosomes separate into 2 daughter cells?
Anaphase I
What is the result of the replication of the genome in meiosis, where homologous chromosomes align to form a tetrad?
Tetrad formation
How many individual phases are there in Meiosis I?
4
What is the term for the process of cell division that results in four daughter cells, each with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell?
Meiosis
What is the primary purpose of DNA replication in the S-phase of interphase?
To ensure equal distribution of chromosomes during mitosis
What is the term for a multinucleated cell generated from multiple nuclear divisions without cytokinesis?
Coenocyte
What is the stage of the cell cycle where the chromosomes condense before mitotic nuclear division?
After genomic DNA duplication
What is the result of incomplete or erroneous DNA replication?
Mutation
What is the term for the phase of the cell cycle where the cell is not dividing?
G0 phase
Who developed the chain termination method for DNA sequencing?
Frederick Sanger
What is the molecule that carries genetic information in eukaryotic organisms?
DNA
What is the name of the genome editing technology developed by Jennifer Doudna and Emmanuelle Charpentier?
CRISPR-Cas9
What was the approximate cost of sequencing a mammalian genome in 2001?
€100,000,000
What is the name of the system of units used to measure length in biology?
International System of Units (SI)
What is the term for one million base pairs in genome size?
Mb
Who are the scientists credited with discovering the structure of DNA?
James Watson and Francis Crick
What is the term for the complete set of genetic material in an organism?
Genome
Who generated the X-ray crystallography data that was crucial to Watson and Crick’s 3D model of the structure of DNA?
Rosalind Franklin
What is the process of translating genetic information encoded in DNA/RNA into amino acid sequences?
Translation
What is the term for the thread-like structures that carry genetic information in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells?
Chromosomes
What is the term for the process of joining amino acids together to form a protein?
Protein synthesis
In Hindu religion, what was believed to be passed on from parents to offspring?
Sickness
Who published the book 'On the Origin of Species by Means of Natural Selection' in 1859?
Charles Darwin
Who isolated 'nuclein' (nucleic acid - DNA) from the nuclei of white blood cells in 1869?
Friedrich Miescher
Who demonstrated that genes are located on specific chromosomes in 1910?
Thomas Hunt Morgan
Who elucidated the three-dimensional structure of DNA (the double helix) in 1953?
James Watson and Francis Crick
What did Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod, and Maclyn McCarty demonstrate in 1944?
That DNA is the genetic material
What is the purpose of microinjection of foreign DNA into embryo pronuclei?
To produce a transgenic animal with a desired trait
What is the role of the promoter in generating transgenic animals?
To target the expression of the gene of interest to a specific tissue
What is the purpose of superovulating an egg donor in generating transgenic animals?
To produce multiple ovulations
What is the outcome of nuclear transfer in generating transgenic animals?
Replacement of the oocyte nucleus with a diploid donor cell nucleus
What is the percentage of transgenic offspring produced using microinjection of DNA into the pronucleus?
1-5%
What is the key advantage of using nuclear transfer in producing transgenic animals?
It allows for the use of cultured transgenic cells as nuclear donors with 100% transgenic efficiency
What is the function of tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) produced by transgenic animals?
Prevents strokes by dissolving blood clots
Which of the following procedures does NOT involve genetic engineering?
Surrogacy
What is the name of the first cloned mammal produced using nuclear transfer technology?
Dolly the sheep
What is the function of human growth factor produced by transgenic animals?
Treats pituitary dwarfism
What is the main difference between traditional selective breeding and genetic engineering in plants?
Genetic engineering allows for the introduction of genes from unrelated species.
What is the role of Agrobacterium tumefaciens in plant genetic engineering?
It is a soil bacterium that causes crown galls and integrates the T DNA into plant genomes.
What is the characteristic of Dolly that makes her not transgenic?
She does not carry a gene from a different species in her genome.
What is the advantage of using recombinant DNA technology in plant genetic engineering?
It overcomes the limitations of traditional selective breeding by allowing the introduction of genes from unrelated species.
What is the role of the Ti plasmid in plant genetic engineering?
It is a small section of the Agrobacterium tumefaciens genome that integrates into plant genomes.
What is the primary purpose of DNA cloning in genetic engineering?
To create identical copies of a gene for pharmaceutical production
What is a characteristic of plasmids used in DNA cloning?
They can range in size from 1 kb to 200 kb
What is a major challenge in examining single genes from a genome of interest?
Naturally-occurring DNA is very long and can include many discrete genes
What is the term for any DNA molecule that has been generated in vitro and contains DNA sequences from two or more distinct DNA molecules?
Recombinant DNA
What is the purpose of DNA extraction and purification in genetic engineering?
To prepare DNA for cloning and genetic modification
What is the primary application of DNA biotechnology in agricultural studies?
Development of insect-resistant crops
What is the significance of the 1996 milestone in the timeline of biotechnology?
Cloning of the first mammal
What is the primary goal of bioremediation, a significant application of biotechnology?
Remediation of environmental pollutants
What is the significance of Paul Berg's Nobel prize in 1980?
Development of a general method for joining two DNAs together in vitro
What is the primary application of gene therapy, a significant aspect of biotechnology?
Treatment of genetic disorders
What is the advantage of nuclear transfer over pronuclear microinjection in creating transgenic animals?
Resulting animals have the same nuclear genome as the donor cells plus the transgene
What is the purpose of superovulating an egg donor in the process of creating transgenic animals?
To increase the number of oocytes available for microinjection
What is the advantage of using transgenic animals for pharmaceutical production?
Can isolate large quantities of protein from milk
What is the purpose of clonal selection in the process of creating transgenic animals?
To select for transgenic cells
What is the result of microinjection of a transgene into a pig oocyte?
Transgenic offspring with the transgene expressed in mammary tissue
What is the primary application of transgenic plants with herbicide resistance?
To reduce pesticide use
What is the purpose of introducing the Ti plasmid into plant cells?
To create a transgenic plant with a new trait
What is an example of a transgenic plant with a nutraceutical application?
Golden Rice
What is a potential application of transgenic plants with abiotic stress tolerance?
Increased crop yield
What is the role of Agrobacterium tumefaciens in plant genetic engineering?
To introduce a new gene into a plant cell
What is an example of a transgenic plant with a post-harvest quality improvement?
Improved gluten quality in wheat
What is the purpose of using restriction enzymes in plant genetic engineering?
To cut the DNA at specific sites
What is an example of a transgenic plant with an agronomic trait?
Glyphosate-resistant soybeans
What is the role of DNA ligase in plant genetic engineering?
To join the new gene to the plant DNA
What is the purpose of regenerating whole plants from transgenic plant cells?
To obtain transgenic plants with a new trait
Study Notes
Microscopy and Cell Structures
- Electron Microscopy uses electrons instead of light photons to image cells and cell structures
- Electrons provide "illumination" with a shorter wavelength than light photons
- Electron Microscope uses electromagnets as lenses and functions in a vacuum
- Electron Microscopy involves speeding up electrons in a vacuum until their wavelength is extremely short
- Most electron microscopes can magnify objects up to 1 million times
- Scanning electron microscopy is used to observe external features of cells, while transmission electron microscopy is used to observe internal cell structures
- Light microscopes enable the user to see living cells in action
- New strategies involving video cameras, polarized light, fluorescent dyes, and digitizing computers have improved contrast in light microscopy
- Prokaryotic microorganisms include Bacteria and Archaea, while Eukaryotic microorganisms include Fungi, Protozoa, and Algae
- Eukaryotic cells have a nucleus, cell organelles, and nucleic acid bounded by a nuclear membrane, while prokaryotic cells do not have a nucleus, have a cell wall, and nucleic acid not bounded by a nuclear membrane
- Eukaryotic cell division occurs by mitosis and meiosis, while prokaryotic cell division occurs by binary fission
- Eukaryotic cells have a fluid phospholipid bilayer containing sterols in the cytoplasmic membrane, while prokaryotic cells also have a fluid phospholipid bilayer in the cytoplasmic membrane
Test your knowledge on amino acids and protein biochemistry with this quiz. Learn about amino acid structure, classification based on side chain, protein synthesis, and protein structure. Perfect for students studying human nutrition or biochemistry.
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