Aerospace Systems and Operations Quiz
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Questions and Answers

During an auto start or normal operation with the ignition switch set to _____, the PMU will energize and de-energize the igniters as required.

NORM

Ensure light has extinguished prior to _____.

flight

After initial power-up, the OBOGS FAIL annunciator will be inhibited for _____ during OBOGS monitor warm-up.

3 minutes

The canopy shall not be opened on the ground when the surface winds exceed ___ knots.

<p>40</p> Signup and view all the answers

The SCU will activate the red OIL PX annunciator if oil pressure falls below ___ psi when the engine is above ___ power.

<p>40, IDLE</p> Signup and view all the answers

Taxi over arresting cables at _____.

<p>as slow a speed as possible</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a fuel probe fails, _____ will continue to provide an accurate indication of minimum fuel level.

<p>the low fuel warning lights</p> Signup and view all the answers

Power for the start control (START) is provided by the _____ bus.

<p>battery</p> Signup and view all the answers

The SCU will activate the OIL PX annunciator if the oil pressure drops below ___ psi at idle power.

<p>15</p> Signup and view all the answers

Illumination of both the ___ and ___ annunciators indicates the system is in the manual mode.

<p>PMU FAIL, PMU STATUS</p> Signup and view all the answers

Increase takeoff speeds by ___% of the gust increment up to a maximum of 10 knots.

<p>50</p> Signup and view all the answers

Final turn speed for a no-flap landing is ___.

<p>120 KIAS</p> Signup and view all the answers

Engine starts are recommended with the PMU in the manual mode.

<p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

Controls neutral spin recoveries have been demonstrated and, generally, spin rotation will cease within ___ additional turns after neutralizing controls in each axis.

<p>2</p> Signup and view all the answers

Aircraft empty weight is ___ pounds and max takeoff gross weight is ___ pounds.

<p>5040, 6900</p> Signup and view all the answers

Oil system capacity

<p>18.5 quarts</p> Signup and view all the answers

Maximum airspeed in turbulence

<p>207 KIAS</p> Signup and view all the answers

On the ground, IDLE torque is ___ to ___%.

<p>1, 10</p> Signup and view all the answers

If cockpit pressure altitude rises above ___ feet, an amber ___ caution illuminates.

<p>19,000, CKPT ALT</p> Signup and view all the answers

When correcting a fuel imbalance, set the MANUAL FUEL BAL switch to the tank that is ___.

<p>low</p> Signup and view all the answers

With the landing gear down and flaps and speed brake retracted, best glide speed is ___ KIAS with a sink rate of ___ feet per minute.

<p>105, 1500</p> Signup and view all the answers

A PMU STATUS light in flight indicates:

<p>a fault in either of, or a mismatch between, the weight-on-wheels switches</p> Signup and view all the answers

When flying solo, failure to secure the rear seat oxygen regulator will result in the loss of ability to ___.

<p>deactivate OBOGS from the front seat</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the ground mode, the engine idle N1 is ___%, and in the flight mode, idle is normally ___%.

<p>60-61, 67</p> Signup and view all the answers

The PMU is normally powered by ___.

<p>permanent magnet alternator (PMA)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The engine has been flat-rated to produce ___ shaft horsepower.

<p>1100</p> Signup and view all the answers

Pulling the emergency landing gear extension handle will extend the gear AND flaps.

<p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

The ___ senses torque, altitude, airspeed, and pitch rate and computes a desired rudder trim tab position.

<p>rudder trim aid device (TAD)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The trim system control circuits give ___ priority if trim conflicts between cockpits.

<p>the rear cockpit</p> Signup and view all the answers

Do not touch the parking brake ___ when actuating or releasing the parking brake.

<p>handle shaft</p> Signup and view all the answers

Define 'land as soon as possible.'

<p>An emergency shall be declared and a landing accomplished at the nearest suitable landing area considering the severity of the emergency, weather conditions, field facilities, ambient lighting, and command guidance.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Define 'land as soon as practical.'

<p>Emergency conditions are less urgent and, although the mission is to be terminated, the degree of the emergency is such that an immediate landing may not be necessary.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Define 'suitable landing area.'

<p>A hard surface runway, taxiway, or under/overrun.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Any fault discovered during the ___ check is reason for a ground abort.

<p>overspeed governor</p> Signup and view all the answers

If the hydraulic pressure in the emergency accumulator drops below ___ psi, an amber EHYD PX LO annunciator will illuminate.

<p>2400 +/- 150</p> Signup and view all the answers

Maximum ___ speed is the maximum speed at which an abort may be started and the aircraft stopped within the remaining runway length.

<p>abort</p> Signup and view all the answers

During inverted flight, the inverted flight fuel pickup provides ___ of fuel supply and prevents air ingestion into the fuel system.

<p>60 seconds</p> Signup and view all the answers

The wheel brake system is affected by failure of the aircraft hydraulic system.

<p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

The chip detector is mounted in the ___ to detect metal contamination in the oil.

<p>reduction gear box (RGB)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Oil level must be serviced within ___ minutes of engine shutdown.

<p>30</p> Signup and view all the answers

If oil pressure remains between ___ and ___ psi at IDLE power for ___ seconds or more, both amber and red OIL PX lights will illuminate.

<p>15, 40, 5</p> Signup and view all the answers

Hydroplaning can occur above ___ knots for the nose tire and above ___ knots for the main tires when inflated to nominal tire pressures.

<p>85, 115</p> Signup and view all the answers

The auto fuel balance system keeps the indicated fuel level in the wing tanks within ___ pounds of each other.

<p>20</p> Signup and view all the answers

The top latch mechanism on the ejection seat shall be checked on preflight.

<p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

A normal gear extension/retraction sequence takes approximately ___ seconds.

<p>6</p> Signup and view all the answers

The ___ and the ___ automatically control the propeller blade angle (pitch) and propeller speed (Np).

<p>PMU, PIU</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a successful airstart, the PCL should be advanced as required after N1 reaches ___.

<p>IDLE RPM (approximately 67% N1)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Auxiliary power is supplied by a ___ auxiliary battery, located in the left avionics compartment.

<p>24 volt, 5 amp</p> Signup and view all the answers

The propeller system is designed to maintain a constant speed of ___ RPM (100% Np) during most flight conditions.

<p>2000</p> Signup and view all the answers

Using external power during engine starts provides for lower ___ during engine starts and preserves ___.

<p>ITT, battery life</p> Signup and view all the answers

Above ___% torque, full right rudder and full right aileron may not prevent a left roll-off at stall.

<p>60</p> Signup and view all the answers

When checking the brake wear indicators, if an indicator reads low, ___ and re-check.

<p>reset the parking brake</p> Signup and view all the answers

The incipient spin phase of the aircraft lasts approximately ___ turns.

<p>2</p> Signup and view all the answers

The firewall shutoff handle mechanically operates cables that:

<p>close valves at the firewall (cutting off fuel and hydraulic fluid to the engine as well as cutting off bleed air from the engine)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The cockpit will depressurize when power to the battery bus is lost.

<p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a spin, oil pressure may decrease below ___ psi with idle power.

<p>40</p> Signup and view all the answers

Engine start should be aborted manually if:

<p>ITT rate of increase appears likely to exceed 1000 °C (hot start); ITT appears likely to remain between 871-1000 °C for &gt; 5 seconds; normal N1 increase is halted (hung start); no rise of ITT is evident within 10 seconds after fuel flow indications (no start); red BATT BUS warning message illuminates during the start sequence. BATT BUS warning may illuminate prior to MFD failure at 12.88 volts. MFD failure and the inability to monitor the start is imminent; PCL is moved or the ST READY green advisory message extinguishes during the start sequence.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Study Notes

Auto Start and Ignition

  • PMU energizes/de-energizes igniters with ignition switch set to NORM.
  • EYD PX LO caution remains lit until system pressurizes if the emergency accumulator is discharged; ensure light is off prior to flight.

OBOGS and Fuel Systems

  • OBOGS FAIL annunciator is inhibited for 3 minutes after initial power-up during warm-up.
  • Low fuel warning lights provide minimum fuel level indication even if a fuel probe fails.
  • Auto fuel balance system keeps wing tank fuel levels within 20 pounds of each other.

Canopy and Operating Limits

  • Canopy must not be opened on the ground with surface winds exceeding 40 knots.
  • Maximum airspeed in turbulence is 207 KIAS.

Engine and Oil Systems

  • SCU activates red OIL PX light if oil pressure falls below 40 psi at higher power, and below 15 psi at idle.
  • Total oil system capacity is 18.5 quarts; oil level should be checked 15 to 20 minutes after shutdown for accuracy.

Emergency Procedures and Landing

  • A thrust and weight-on-wheels switch fault triggers PMU STATUS light in flight.
  • During emergency conditions, "land as soon as possible" requires immediate landing at the nearest suitable site; "land as soon as practical" indicates less urgent emergency without immediate landing necessity.

Spin Recovery

  • Neutral spin recoveries demonstrated to cease spin within 2 additional turns after control neutralization.
  • Incipient spin phase lasts approximately 2 turns.

Weight and Dimension Specifications

  • Aircraft empty weight is 5040 pounds, while maximum takeoff gross weight is 6900 pounds.

Aircraft Systems and Performance

  • Best glide speed while landing gear down and flaps retracted is 105 KIAS with a 1500 feet per minute sink rate.
  • Engine is flat-rated to produce 1100 shaft horsepower; propeller system maintains 2000 RPM under most flight conditions.

Operational Guidelines

  • Do not touch the parking brake handle shaft during actuation/release to avoid injury.
  • Controls in the rear cockpit take priority in trim conflicts.

Miscellaneous

  • During inverted flight, the inverted fuel pickup provides 60 seconds of fuel supply.
  • The chip detector is located in the reduction gear box to monitor oil contamination.
  • Above 60% torque, full right rudder and aileron may not stop left roll-off during stall.

Maintenance Alerts

  • If the hydraulic pressure in the emergency accumulator drops below 2400 psi, EHYD PX LO light activates.
  • Any fault during overspeed governor check necessitates a ground abort.

Comparison of Flight Modes

  • IDLE torque ranges from 1 to 10% on the ground; in flight mode, idle torque is typically around 67%.

Safety and Inspection

  • Top latch mechanism of the ejection seat should be checked during preflight; gear extension/retraction sequence takes approximately 6 seconds.
  • Be cautious of brake wear indicators; reset the parking brake if an indicator reads low and re-check.

Emergency Equipment and Battery

  • Auxiliary power supplied by a 24 volt, 5 amp auxiliary battery in the left avionics compartment; external power during engine starts minimizes ITT and extends battery life.

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Description

Test your knowledge on critical aerospace systems including ignition processes, fuel systems, canopy operations, and engine oil management. This quiz covers key operational limits and safety procedures essential for flight readiness. Ensure you understand the implications of different system warnings and recommendations outlined.

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