IMMUNOSEROLOGY SPECIAL MIDTERM EXAM
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Questions and Answers

What is the main consequence of alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency on lung health?

It can lead to premature emphysema due to continuous elastase release.

How does haptoglobin function in the context of hemolytic disorders?

Haptoglobin binds to free hemoglobin, preventing its loss in urine and indicating hemolytic activity.

What is Wilson’s disease and how is it related to ceruloplasmin?

Wilson's disease is a copper metabolism disorder causing copper accumulation, associated with low ceruloplasmin levels.

What are Kayser-Fleischer rings and what do they indicate?

<p>Kayser-Fleischer rings are copper deposits in the cornea, indicating Wilson’s disease.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the classical pathway of the complement system.

<p>The classical pathway is activated by antigen-antibody complexes, playing a key role in the immune response.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does C-reactive protein play in the body's response to inflammation?

<p>C-reactive protein functions in opsonization, complement activation, and as a marker for inflammation, particularly indicating pneumococcal infection.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Explain how serum amyloid A contributes to the healing process at the site of injury.

<p>Serum amyloid A removes cholesterol from macrophages, aiding in the resolution of inflammation by facilitating cholesterol clearance at the injury site.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Discuss the consequences of alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency in relation to the immune response.

<p>Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency can lead to uncontrolled inflammation and tissue damage in the respiratory tract, as white blood cells are no longer inhibited from releasing digestive enzymes.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Identify the cytokines associated with the production of acute phase reactants and their sources.

<p>Interleukin 1 beta, Interleukin 6, and Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF alpha) are key cytokines produced by monocytes and macrophages in response to inflammation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of a CRP level greater than 2 mg/dl in a clinical context?

<p>A CRP level greater than 2 mg/dl indicates a high cardiovascular risk, potentially signaling conditions like myocardial infarction or ischemic stroke.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What laboratory test results are indicative of drug-induced lupus?

<p>Laboratory results that indicate drug-induced lupus include leukopenia, anemia, and low complement levels.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antibodies are commonly associated with drug-induced systemic lupus erythematosus?

<p>Antihistone antibodies and Anti-DNP are commonly associated with drug-induced systemic lupus erythematosus.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibodies in relation to SLE?

<p>The presence of dsDNA antibodies is the most specific marker for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the pattern of staining differ for Anti-Sm antibodies compared to Anti-dsDNA antibodies?

<p>Anti-Sm antibodies exhibit a coarse speckled pattern, while Anti-dsDNA antibodies demonstrate a peripheral or homogeneous pattern.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might a patient with drug-induced lupus see symptoms resolve upon discontinuation of the offending drug?

<p>Symptoms typically resolve upon discontinuation of the drug because the underlying autoimmune response triggered by the medication ceases.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the relationship between self-tolerance and autoimmune diseases?

<p>Autoimmune diseases result from the loss of self-tolerance, where the immune system mistakenly targets self-antigens.</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the HLA-B27 allele relate to ankylosing spondylitis?

<p>The HLA-B27 allele is strongly associated with an increased risk of developing ankylosing spondylitis, a systemic autoimmune disease.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What impact do female hormones have on the prevalence of autoimmune diseases?

<p>Female hormones may increase the risk of developing autoimmune diseases, as women are 2.7 times more likely to acquire these conditions than men.</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can tissue trauma trigger an autoimmune response?

<p>Tissue trauma can release cryptic antigens that become accessible to lymphocytes, prompting an autoimmune response.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Explain the role of microbial infections in triggering autoimmunity.

<p>Microbial infections can induce autoimmunity through molecular mimicry, where pathogens' antigens closely resemble self-antigens.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What tumor marker is primarily associated with nonseminomatous testicular germ cell tumors?

<p>Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which tumor marker is specifically linked to ovarian adenocarcinoma?

<p>CA 125</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does the tumor marker HER2 play in the treatment of breast adenocarcinoma?

<p>HER2 is used to check the response to trastuzumab therapy.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Identify the tumor marker that reflects thyroid mass and injury.

<p>Thyroglobulin</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which tumor marker is used to monitor response in parathyroid carcinoma?

<p>PTH and Ca2+</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are tumor-specific antigens (TSAs) and how do they differ from tumor-associated antigens (TAAs)?

<p>Tumor-specific antigens (TSAs) are unique to an individual's tumor, while tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) are found in both normal and tumor cells and are abnormally expressed by the tumor cells.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristics should an ideal tumor marker possess to be clinically useful?

<p>An ideal tumor marker should be produced by the tumor or in response to it, be secreted into biological fluids for quantification, have a long enough half-life, be clinically significant at treatable levels, possess high sensitivity, and be absent in healthy individuals.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe two key capabilities of cancerous cells that allow them to evade the immune system.

<p>Cancerous cells can evade the immune system by avoiding destruction and reprogramming their metabolism to support malignancy.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does genomic instability play in tumor development?

<p>Genomic instability leads to mutations that can result in uncontrolled cell division and altered tumor antigens, contributing to malignancy.</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do inflammatory responses contribute to tumor growth?

<p>Inflammatory responses can promote tumor growth by providing a microenvironment that supports angiogenesis and immune evasion.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines a Type I hypersensitivity reaction and its key immunologic components?

<p>A Type I hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by an exaggerated response to harmless allergens, mainly mediated by IgE, and involves basophils, mast cells, and eosinophils.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the role of skin prick testing in diagnosing Type I hypersensitivity.

<p>Skin prick testing is a preferred screening method that involves injecting small amounts of allergens under the skin to observe for a wheal-and-flare reaction as a positive indicator.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Contrast Type II hypersensitivity with Type I hypersensitivity in terms of antibody involvement.

<p>Type II hypersensitivity is mainly mediated by IgG and IgM antibodies against cell surface antigens, whereas Type I hypersensitivity is primarily mediated by IgE antibodies with an immediate response.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the immediate clinical manifestations associated with Type I hypersensitivity?

<p>Immediate clinical manifestations include wheal-and-flare skin reactions, allergic rhinitis, allergic asthma, and in severe cases, anaphylaxis.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of specific IgE testing, such as RAST, in the context of Type I hypersensitivity?

<p>Specific IgE testing like RAST measures allergen-specific IgE levels in patient serum, aiding in identifying the underlying allergens responsible for hypersensitivity reactions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines type II hypersensitivity reactions and provide two examples?

<p>Type II hypersensitivity involves IgG or IgM antibodies leading to cell destruction. Examples include autoimmune hemolytic anemia and drug reactions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the role of immune complexes in type III hypersensitivity reactions.

<p>In type III hypersensitivity, soluble antigens form immune complexes that can activate complement and recruit neutrophils. This leads to inflammation and tissue damage.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the main differences between type II and type III hypersensitivity reactions?

<p>Type II hypersensitivity involves cell surface antigens and is mediated by IgG or IgM, while type III involves soluble antigens forming complexes that activate complement. Timing and the mechanism of pathology also vary.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of complement involvement in both type II and type III hypersensitivity reactions?

<p>Complement involvement in both types contributes to inflammation and cell damage: type II leads to cell lysis, while type III forms complexes that can deposit in tissues. Both can cause significant tissue injury.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Explain how the Arthus reaction serves as an example of type III hypersensitivity.

<p>The Arthus reaction is characterized by localized immune complex formation in response to an antigen injected into previously sensitized individuals, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. It exemplifies complement activation and neutrophil recruitment.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Study Notes

Acute Phase Reactants

  • Proteins produced by the liver in response to inflammation, infection, or injury
  • Appear within 12-24 hours
  • Cytokines (e.g., IL-1β, IL-6, TNFα) trigger production. These are predominantly produced by monocytes and macrophages at the site of inflammation
  • Increased serum concentration of positive acute-phase proteins (APPs)
  • Decreased serum concentration of negative APPs

C-Reactive Protein (CRP)

  • Positive acute-phase reactant
  • Ring-shaped protein composed of five identical subunits
  • Functions include opsonization and complement activation
  • Inflammation marker, particularly in pneumococcal infections.
  • Precipitates with C-substance (from bacterial polysaccharide) in the blood

Serum Amyloid A

  • Apolipoprotein synthesized in the liver;
  • Associated with HDL cholesterol; removes cholesterol from macrophages at the site of injury
  • May reduce anti-inflammatory properties of HDL.

Alpha-1 Antitrypsin

  • Major acute-phase reactant; a protease inhibitor specific for elastase.
  • Elastase released by leukocytes during bacterial activity
  • Inhibits elastase to prevent damage to lung tissue and other organs, particularly lung tissue
  • Deficiency can lead to premature emphysema

Fibrinogen

  • Most abundant coagulation factor in plasma
  • Liver-produced substrate for clot formation;
  • Prevents bleeding disorders by transforming into fibrin

Haptoglobin

  • Prevents the loss of hemoglobin and iron into the urine.
  • Evaluates hemolytic transfusion reactions and hemolytic disease of the newborn
  • Hemoglobin has a nephrotoxic effect

Ceruloplasmin

  • Copper-binding protein with enzymatic activity
  • Imparts blue color to proteins
  • Marker for Wilson's disease (autosomal recessive disorder of copper metabolism)
  • Copper deposition in cornea, skin, liver, and brain

Complement C3

  • Most abundant complement in the serum
  • Three pathways for activation: classical, alternative, and lectin
  • Results in inflammation, opsonization, and cell lysis

Cytokines

  • Small soluble proteins regulating the immune system
  • Produced by stimulated cells
  • Involved in cell signaling and regulating immune responses
  • COVID-19 can cause a cytokine storm (excessive cytokine production) leading to serious illness

Interleukins (e.g., IL-1, IL-2, IL-6)

  • Regulate various immune responses (inflammatory, hematopoiesis etc.)
  • Function in signaling and communication within the immune system
  • IL-1 and IL-1 Receptor Antagonist (IL-1RA) are both involved in the inflammatory response.
  • IL-6 is associated with acute-phase proteins and B-cell differentiation

Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF)

  • Cytotoxic factors involved in cell signaling and immune response
  • Two forms: Membrane bound, and Soluble
  • TNF receptors cause cascade of events, resulting in inflammatory effects
  • Involved in cytotoxicity against tumors and infected cells
  • Can cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability.

Interferons

  • Viral replication-interfering substances
  • Protect against viruses (non-specific antiviral)
  • Produced by virally infected cells

Chemokines

  • Involved in WBC movement (motility and migration) to sites of inflammation and infection
  • Several groups: Alpha (CXC), Beta (CC), and Third (C/CX3C)

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Related Documents

Hypersensitivity Reactions PDF
Week 10 Autoimmunity PDF
Tumor Immunology PDF

Description

This quiz covers the main acute phase reactants such as C-Reactive Protein, Serum Amyloid A, and Alpha-1 Antitrypsin. You'll learn about their functions, production triggers, and significance in inflammation and infection. Understand the role cytokines play in the acute phase response.

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