42 Questions
What is Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) report?
It is a single automated reporting system within the DOD functioning as the central registry of all operational units of the US Armed Forces
What does the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) report indicate?
The unit's ability to undertake its full mission or particular mission
What is the purpose of the designed operational capability (DOC) statement?
It summarizes the unit's mission
How many category levels are there, and what are they?
C) Six, C-1, C-2, C-3, C-4, C-5, Overall C-level
What are the three major areas that medical units are required to report to their category levels (C-levels)?
Training, equipment and supplies, and personnel
How often should the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) report be completed and submitted?
Monthly, and NTL the 15th of each month; when there are changes to the category levels; within 24 hours of a change
What is the single source of readiness training data for medical personnel and unit task code; unit type code (UTC) appointment?
Medical Readiness Decision Support System (MRDSS-Unit Level Tracking and Reporting Application (ULTRA)
How often should you backup your data?
Every 30 days at a minimum
What suggested backup item(S) fall under Reportable Statistics?
Each report applicable to the unit
What information is provided in the Medical Resource Letter?
Unit Task Code; Unit Type Code (UTCs) currently appointed to the unit, UTCs the unit is projected to gain or lose over the next five years, whether assigned UTCs are manpower or equipment, AEF assignments for each UTC, UTC availability codes and additional information for equipment UTCs
What plan outlines local deployment processes, procedures, planning and execution guidance used to deploy whole units or a single Airman?
The Installation Deployment Plan
What is the objective of the In-garrison expeditionary site planning (IGESP)?
The IGESP identifies resources and capabilities of an installation by functional area, and is the focus of the expeditionary site survey process (ESSP)
What plan identifies procedures to prevent, protect against, respond to, recover from, and how to mitigate the effects of major accidents, natural disaster, attacks, and terrorist use of Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear and high-yield Explosives (CBRNE)?
The Comprehensive Emergency Management Plan
What do the disease-specific annexes in the disease containment plan identify?
Specific requirements based on disease characteristics, such as contagiousness and infectivity
What does the medical contingency response plan establish procedures for?
Wartime, humanitarian assistance, homeland security/defense, and disaster responsive contingencies
What does the body of the medical contingency response plan consist of?
Basic Plan, supporting plans and agencies, references, unit's mission, contributing organizations, execution, threat assessment, and Medical Contingency Response Plan; Medical Cost Recovery Program (MCRP) annexes
What are the four TRIAGE categories?
Minimal, immediate, delayed and expectant
What category do civilian agencies not recognize as a peacetime triage category?
Expectant
What are the minimum annexes covered in the Medical Contingency Response Plan; Medical Cost Recovery Program (MCRP)?
Annex A - Annex General Instructions Annex B- Medical treatment facility commander/medical control center Annex C-Field response team Annex D- Patient support and casualty management Annex E- Triage team Annex F-Laboratory team and laboratory biological defense team Annex G- Pharmacy team Annex H-Patient decontamination team Annex I- Patient administration team Annex J-Disaster mental health team Annex K-Public health Annex L-Bioenvironmental engineering team Annex M-Medical logistic team Annex N-Manpower and security team Annex O-Facility management team
Who chairs the medical readiness committee and approves the minutes?
The Military Treatment Facility (MTF) commander
Name three individuals that must be accounted for in the medical readiness committee meeting minutes?
Any of the following three: medical group commander (Chair), Medical Readiness Office (MRO), Medical Readiness Noncommissioned Officer (MRNCO) or MRM, Medical Group Executive Committee (Hospital Administrator, Squadron Commanders and Superintendents), Bioenvironmental engineer, Public Health Emergency Officer, Public Health Officer, Medical Logistics Officer, Medical Exercise Evaluation Team Chief, Education and Training Officer, other individuals designated by the committee chair
How often should the medical readiness committee meet?
At least every other month
What does the unit deployment manager brief during the meeting?
UTC Personnel assigned, highlights any shortages, vacancies, and hard to fill positions
Who provides an overview of the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) and Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) reporting tool (ART) status?
The Medical Readiness Office
How long should the Medical Readiness Office (MRO) keep meeting minutes for inspection and historical purposes?
Current year plus two previous years
What is the purpose of the installation deployment function?
Ensure command and control by pulling units together to accomplish the mission and deploy the UTCs
What does processing by exception mean?
With the exception of eligibility, orders, and immunizations, all other stations are as needed
When required, who activates the Medical Control Center (MCC)?
The MTF commander
Who attends the concept briefing?
The Unit Deployment Manager (UDM), Group commander, and Squadron commanders
If the Medical Control Center (MCC) is activated, what do they need to do?
Schedule MCC team members to ensure manning of the MCC for the duration of the contingency. Activate the deployment recall roster when directed by the MTF commander. Prepare and transmit reports as required (AEF reporting tool, MRDSS, etc)
Who matches personnel to the UTC position and ensures those personnel are trained and equipped appropriately to accomplish the mission of their respective UTC team?
Unit Deployment Manager
Whom is the Unit Deployment Manager (UDM) primary liaison to?
Unit training manager, flight and squadron leadership and wing training functions regarding deployment related issues
Who does the Unit Deployment Manager (UDM) work with to conduct analysis to determine the wartime readiness of functional areas?
Major Command (MAJCOM) Functional Area MAnager (FAMs)
Where should the Unit Deployment Manager (UDM) appointment letter be maintained?
In the UDM continuity binder
When updating training,, you go to Medical Readiness Decision Support System (MRDSS) Unit Level Tracking and Reporting Application (ULTRA) home screen and then what do you do next?
Select the unit from the dropdown box, then click the "Training" button in the header
From the training page, what button do you want select to update an individual record?
Select the "Find Individual Training Record" button
What training elements are displayed?
They are based on requirements generated by the AFSC, officer or enlisted, UTC, Disaster Team, and appointed positions to which an individual is assigned
What guidance directs the use of standardized readiness folders?
AFI 10-403, Deployment Planning and Execution
What part of the personnel readiness folder is the commander letter of selection for a deployment position filed?
Part 1, Table of Contents
When should you file the Identification (Dog) tags?
Within a plastic bag in Part 3, Deployment information
What three AF Forms should be filed in part three?
AF Form 245, Employment Locator and Processing Checklist; AF Form 94, Air Baggage Claim Check; and AF Form 522, USAF Ground Weapons Training Data C) Remove the member from MRDSS and give the member their mobility folder to take their new readiness office
What paperwork is filed in Part five and Part 6?
In part 5, the paperwork requirements are specific to the applicable level of authority and are provided by the respective authority authority. In part 6, the paperwork requirements are specific to the deployment location
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