wound classification, and cysto procedures

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Questions and Answers

Why do we classify wounds

  • to determine perioperative antibiotics, wound management, prognosis and pain (correct)
  • to determine perioperative antibiotics, wound management, for fun and pain
  • to determine perioperative antibiotics, wound management, prognosis
  • to determine best anesthetic, wound management, prognosis and pain

What factors affect wound healing

host factors. wound charateristics, external factors

Match the wound classification to their general description:

dirty = infected contaminated = heavy contamination clean = minimal or no contamination clean-contaminated = minimal contamination which can be removed or reduced

Match the inflicted wound to its classification:

<p>Dirty wound = Old laceration, bite wounds Clean contaminated wound = Break in glove, perforation of digestive tract with no fluid leakage Contaminated wound = Major spillage from perforation of biliary tract Clean wound = Surgical incision</p> Signup and view all the answers

traumatic wounds can be classified as clean-contaminated after lavage and debridement

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Any oral wounds are considered contaminated wounds

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the four phases of wound healing in proper order

<p>Inflammation, debridement, repair, maturation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following wound healing phases with their characteristics:

<p>Repair = Fibroblasts invade and make collagen, capillaries form, epithelialization Inflammatory = Blood fills wound, clot forms, scab forms Debridement = WBC arrive to clean up mess, foreign material is removed Maturation = Collagen reaches adequate production, capillaries decrease, wound increases in strength</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of a scab

<p>to protect wound and prevent hemorrhage (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the phase of wound healing to the time in which it occurs:

<p>inflammation = immediately after injury debridement = 6 hours after injury repair = 3-5 days after injury maturation = 3 weeks to years after wound infliction</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of granulation tissue?

<p>Barrier to infection, provides surface for epithelization (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is the "golden period" for wound closure

<p>within 6-8 hours after injury (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the closure type to its description:

<p>Second intention = Wounds left open to heal by contraction and epithelialization Delayed primary closure = Closed 1-5 days after injury, granulation tissue has not formed Primary closure = Wounds closed right away with little to no contamination Secondary closure = Closed after 5 days, severely contaminated wounds, granulation tissue has formed</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why do geriatric patients have poor wound healing

<p>considered a debilitated state in which processes are slowed (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does malnourishment affect wound healing?

<p>Lack of protein affects the ability to manage wound healing (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

what are wound characteristics that could affect wound healing

<p>foreign material, type of incision, infection (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do corticosteroids affect wound healing?

<p>Depresses the physiological capability/reaction time of an animal to heal a wound (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following terms to their description:

<p>Mechanical debridement = Primary contact layer of bandage sticks to dead tissue and removes it as it is pulled off Passive drains = Use gravity to outflow fluid or gas Active drains = Create negative suction to suck out fluid or gas Surgical debridement = Cutting away of necrotic tissue</p> Signup and view all the answers

The steps of cleaning a wound in proper order are as follows: aseptically clip around the area, debride dead tissue, lavage the wound, culture the wound.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following urogenital surgeries to their definitions:

<p>urethrostomy = creation of new opening/urinary diversion urethrotomy = incision into the urethra cystotomy = surgical incision into the bladder to expose lumen or interior of bladder</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are reasons to complete a cystotomy

<p>bladder stones (A), neoplasia (B), repairing of ruptured bladder (D), congenital abnormalities (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

who is at higher risk of urinary blockage

<p>males (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following bladder stones with their characteristics:

<p>struvite = most common; UTI predisposes formation calcium oxalate = occurs with increased calcium urate = hepatic disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

what are the clinical signs of bladder stones

<p>hematuria, stranguria, dysuria</p> Signup and view all the answers

what are signs of obstruction

<p>bladder distension, abdminal pain, straining, incontinence, vommiting, pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

if you suspect a urinary blockage you should manually express the bladder to relive discomfort

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the retro-urohydropulsion procedure step by step.

<p>The retro-urohydropulsion procedure typically involves first placing the patient in a suitable position, then using a cystoscope to visualize the urinary tract, followed by inserting a catheter to administer a flushing solution backward into the bladder, and finally using a pulsatile irrigation to dislodge any obstructions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

in what position should an animal be in for cysto surgeries

<p>dorsal (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

how does the veterinary keep the bladder lifted out of the abdomen

<p>stay sutures (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

what can the vet do to ensure erethra patency and proper bladder closure

<p>pass a urinary catheter and perform a leak test (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

why is important to keep animal who has undergone a cystostomy on IV fluids

<p>it promotes diuresis and flushing of bladder</p> Signup and view all the answers

why is it important to know what type of stone the patient has (2 answers)

<p>it allows us to make diet recommendation (B), It guides us on the proper treatment plan (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

what is a perineal urethrostomy

<p>creation of new urinary opening through the space between scrotumn and anus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

in what position is the patient placed for a perineal urethrostomy

<p>sternal with tail taped forward (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

what type of litter should be used for post op-cysto patient

<p>paper litter (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

urethral prolapse often presents as a red pea at end of penis

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

urethra prolapse can be idiopathic or caused by sexual arousal

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

what is a volvoplasty

<p>removal of excess folds of vulva (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following terms related to pyometra with their descriptions:

<p>accumulation of pus = pyometra closed pyometra = cervix is closed open pyometra = cervix is open</p> Signup and view all the answers

pyometra is more common in cats then in dogs

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the pathogenesis of pyometra in dogs

<p>pseudopregnancy, abnormal heat cycle, corpora lutea remains active during diestrus, progesterone is secreted stimulating growth and secretion of endometrial glands, uterus muscle activity decreases, glands secret fluid, fluid accumulates</p> Signup and view all the answers

E-coli is the most common bacterial invader of the uterus in poymetra

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

what are three reasons to preform a caesarean section

<p>relieve dystocia, prevent dystocia, remove dead fetuses</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the stages of labour to their description:

<p>Nesting = Uterine contraction begins, mother will be restless Pushing = Cervix dilates, first puppy descends into vaginal canal Delivery of placenta = Delivery of placenta</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an onychectomy

<p>removal or the 3rd digital phalanx (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

where is the tournequate placed for a onyetomy

<p>distal to the elbow (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

onychetomy is best done on patients under 12 months of age due to faster healing and fewer complications

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following declaw methods with the appropriate cutting tool:

<p>rescoe technique = guillotine type nail clipper blade technique = small scalpel blade</p> Signup and view all the answers

if using a laser to complete a surgery you must prep the patient with alcohol

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the complication of a declaw with its cause:

<p>Ischemic necrosis of paw = Tight bandage Claw regrowth = Incomplete removal of P3 Neurapraxia, tissue necrosis = Improper tourniquet placement Chronic pain = Lameness</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is endoscopy?

<p>Technique used to examine internal structures with a camera (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following endoscopic procedures with the structures they view:

<p>esophagostomy = to visualize the esophagus cystoscopy = to examine the bladder and lower urinary tract gastroscopy = to examine the stomach and upper intestinal tract rhinoscopy = to visualize nasal passage through the nares</p> Signup and view all the answers

match the following endoscopic procedure with the structures it views

<p>tracheobronchoscopy = to evaluate trachea and bronchi by way of mouth laparoscopry = to examine organs in the abdomen arthroscopy = to examine the joint thoracoscopy = to examine inside the thoracic cavity</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are flexible endoscopes primarily used for?

<p>Visualizing the colon (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

what is a rigid endoscope NOT used for

<p>deuodenum (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

endoscopes can be used to get histology samples or remove debris

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason to fully dry the endoscope

<p>prevent bacterial and fungal growth (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

what does a suction machine remove

<p>both a and b (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

what is the function of the float or safety valve on a suction machine

<p>prevents fluid from entering the motor (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the suction tip with its purpose:

<p>Poole = Remove large volumes of fluids Frazier/Adson = Remove small more controlled amounts of fluids or air Yankauer = General purpose</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the suction tip with its physical appearance:

<p>Frazier/Adson = A single tube with small opening and a thumb hole to control vacuum power Poole = 2 piece instrument with an outer basket that has many holes for faster suction Yankauer = A single tube with a moderate sized opening</p> Signup and view all the answers

in a monopolar electrosurgery unit, the function of the ground plate is to

<p>divert electrical current away from the patient (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

what two ways can a monopolar electrosurgery unit be used

<p>placing against a hemostate and allowing current to heat up instrument to cauterize wound (A), place active tip directly across a point to cauterize (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

what type of tip does a bipolar electrosurgery unit utilize

<p>forcep style tips (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

what are 5 indications for a splenectomy

<p>hemoabdomen, neoplasia, trauma, infection, immune-mediated disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Capital of France (example flashcard)

Paris

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