Microbiology Test Questions PDF

MICROBIOLOGY TEST QUESTIONS 1. Enveloped viruses include: - a) all icosahedral viruses - b) all spherical viruses - c) all icosahedral and some spherical viruses - d) some icosahedral and some spherical viruses 2. Viruses are primarily classified into s...

MICROBIOLOGY TEST QUESTIONS 1. Enveloped viruses include: - a) all icosahedral viruses - b) all spherical viruses - c) all icosahedral and some spherical viruses - d) some icosahedral and some spherical viruses 2. Viruses are primarily classified into several large groups based on: - a) type of host - b) capsid symmetry - c) nucleic acid characteristics - d) virus diameter 3. Viruses can be purified based on their size and density using: - a) density gradient - b) differential centrifugation - c) precipitation - d) filtration 4. The most commonly used method of indirect virus counting is: - a) microscopy - b) hemagglutination test - c) colony counting - d) plaque counting 5. For virus isolation, embryos of the following are most commonly used: - a) mice - b) rats - c) cats - d) chickens 6. Adhesion of the influenza virus to the target cell surface is enabled by the presence of: - a) pili - b) fimbriae - c) neuraminidase - d) hemagglutinin 7. In an infected cell, viruses can do everything except: - a) inhibit DNA synthesis - b) degrade host cell DNA - c) inhibit protein synthesis - d) stimulate macromolecule synthesis 8. The "holes" formed in tissue culture due to virus replication are called: - a) colonies - b) plaques - c) patches - d) cracks 9. Which statement is not true: - a) viruses contain DNA - b) viruses contain RNA - c) viruses replicate extracellularly - d) viruses alter host metabolism 10. Conquistadors conquered the Aztec Empire with the help of an epidemic of: - a) influenza - b) smallpox - c) greatpox - d) rabies 11. Edward Jenner used material from which to vaccinate people against smallpox: - a) chickenpox - b) cowpox - c) swinepox - d) dogpox 12. For virus growth, it is necessary to have: - a) live cells - b) proteins - c) fats - d) plants 13. Obligate intracellular parasites include: - a) viruses - b) rickettsiae - c) chlamydiae - d) all of the mentioned microorganisms 14. Animal viruses can be cultured: - a) on nutrient media - b) in animal tissue cultures - c) in animal and plant tissue cultures - d) in animal and human tissue cultures 15. Agents causing neurodegenerative diseases are: - a) viruses - b) viroids - c) prions - d) prionids 16. Eating meat from cattle suffering from spongiform encephalitis can lead to the development of: - a) Kuru disease - b) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease - c) Alzheimer's disease - d) Fatal familial insomnia 17. Viruses: - a) have both DNA and RNA - b) have their own metabolism - c) have enzymes for replication - d) have a cell wall 18. Which virus is associated with the development of Kaposi's sarcoma: - a) human herpesvirus 8 - b) human immunodeficiency virus - c) human T-cell lymphotropic virus - d) human papillomavirus 19. Phenotypic masking of viruses is a special form of phenotypic mixing and represents: - a) incorporation of one virus genome into the envelope of another virus - b) mixing of two virus envelopes - c) recombination of viral nucleic acids - d) mixing of two virus capsids 20. Viral complementation is: - a) interaction of viral products - b) a form of viral recombination - c) a form of phenotypic mixing - d) trans-capsidation 21. DNA viruses do not include: - a) herpesviruses - b) orthomyxoviruses - c) hepadnaviruses - d) parvoviruses 22. Hepadnaviruses (hepatitis B) differ from other DNA viruses by replicating using: - a) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase - b) RNase H - c) reverse transcriptase - d) DNA ligase 23. Viral RNA replicates in the host's: - a) cytoplasm - b) nucleus - c) mitochondria - d) cell wall 24. Intracellular structures formed by viral replication are: - a) prokaryotes - b) inclusion bodies - c) cytocidal bodies - d) chromosomal replicons 25. Which of the mentioned viruses is always detectable after infection: - a) hepatitis B - b) herpes simplex - c) varicella-zoster - d) Epstein-Barr 26. Prokaryotic microorganisms include: - a) bacteria and fungi - b) viruses and algae - c) bacteria and cyanobacteria - d) bacteria and protozoa 27. Which statement is incorrect: - a) bacteria have a cell wall - b) bacteria are prokaryotic organisms - c) bacteria have a nucleus - d) bacteria have a cytoplasmic membrane 28. The main structural component of bacterial cell walls is: - a) chitin - b) cellulose - c) peptidoglycan - d) lignin 29. Bacterial cell walls are not found in: - a) Mycoplasma - b) Mycobacterium - c) Clostridium - d) Bacillus 30. Bacterial capsules are composed of: - a) lipids - b) proteins - c) polysaccharides - d) nucleic acids 31. A component of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria that acts as an endotoxin is: - a) lipopolysaccharide - b) peptidoglycan - c) teichoic acid - d) lipoteichoic acid 32. Bacterial flagella are responsible for: - a) adherence - b) motility - c) conjugation - d) sporulation 33. Plasmids are: - a) extrachromosomal DNA - b) linear DNA - c) involved in protein synthesis - d) present in all bacteria 34. The phase of bacterial growth where the population size doubles at regular intervals is: - a) lag phase - b) log phase - c) stationary phase - d) death phase 35. Which statement is correct for bacterial endospores: - a) they are a form of asexual reproduction - b) they are resistant to heat and desiccation - c) they are involved in binary fission - d) they are present in all bacteria 36. Transformation in bacteria refers to: - a) uptake of naked DNA - b) transfer of DNA via bacteriophage - c) transfer of DNA through pilus - d) mutation of DNA 37. Transduction in bacteria is mediated by: - a) plasmids - b) bacteriophages - c) pili - d) transposons 38. Conjugation in bacteria involves: - a) uptake of naked DNA - b) transfer of DNA via bacteriophage - c) cell-to-cell contact - d) mutation of DNA 39. Antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis include: - a) tetracyclines - b) aminoglycosides - c) beta-lactams - d) macrolides 40. An antibiotic that inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome is: - a) penicillin - b) tetracycline - c) vancomycin - d) ciprofloxacin 41. Antimicrobial resistance can be spread among bacteria via: - a) transformation - b) transduction - c) conjugation - d) all of the above 42. Which of the following is a Gram-positive bacterium: - a) Escherichia coli - b) Salmonella typhi - c) Staphylococcus aureus - d) Neisseria gonorrhoeae 43. Which of the following is a Gram-negative bacterium: - a) Bacillus anthracis - b) Clostridium botulinum - c) Streptococcus pneumoniae - d) Escherichia coli 44. Acid-fast bacteria include: - a) Mycobacterium - b) Streptococcus - c) Neisseria - d) Staphylococcus 45. Which of the following is not a characteristic of fungi: - a) they are eukaryotic - b) they have chitin in their cell walls - c) they can photosynthesize - d) they reproduce by spore formation 46. Fungal infections are called: - a) mycoses - b) bacterioses - c) viroses - d) protozooses 47. Candida albicans is a type of: - a) bacterium - b) virus - c) yeast - d) protozoan 48. The method of asexual reproduction in fungi where a bud forms and breaks off is called: - a) spore formation - b) binary fission - c) budding - d) conjugation 49. Protozoa are classified into groups based on their: - a) cell wall composition - b) mode of reproduction - c) mode of locomotion - d) habitat 50. Malaria is caused by a protozoan of the genus: - a) Plasmodium - b) Trypanosoma - c) Leishmania - d) Giardia 51. The marker of chronic active hepatitis is not: a) HbeAg b) Anti-HBc IgG c) Anti-HBc IgM d) HbsAg 52. Through blood, the following is not transmitted: a) HIV b) HBV c) HCV d) all of the offered answers are incorrect 53. Human T-lymphotropic virus is associated with: a) Burkitt's lymphoma b) Tropical spastic paresis c) Multiple sclerosis d) all of the offered answers are correct 54. HIV infection can lead to: a) Dementia b) Chronic diarrhea c) Esophageal candidiasis d) all of the offered answers are correct 55. Prognostic significance in HIV-positive individuals includes: a) Level of anti-gp120 antibodies b) Level of HIV-p19 antigen c) Level of viral RNA in plasma d) Level of viral DNA in CD4 lymphocytes 56. Gastroenteritis is caused by: a) Astroviruses b) Picornaviruses c) Rotaviruses d) the correct answers are a and c 57. Modification of standard PCR is not: a) Quantitative PCR b) Nested PCR c) Qualitative PCR d) RT-PCR 58. Laboratory diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis involves: a) Paul-Bunnell test b) Seroconversion of EBNA c) Detection of anti-VCA IgA d) Koh's test 59. Which virus does not cause latent infection of sensory ganglia: a) HSV type 1 b) Varicella-zoster c) Epstein-Barr virus d) Herpes simplex virus type 2 60. What is correct: a) Viruses are cultured only in cell cultures b) CPE is the only way to detect viruses c) Neutralization test is the basic way to identify many viruses d) Most viruses can be isolated from blood 61. Standard PCR technique involves: a) Isolation of genomic DNA and hybridization b) Amplification of specific DNA segment c) Isolation of genomic DNA and electrophoresis d) Taq polymerase 62. Rapid diagnosis of cytomegalovirus infection involves: a) Virus cultivation b) Determination of CMV pp65 antigen in blood c) Rise in antibody titer d) Detection of CMV RNA in blood (PCR) 63. Respiratory infections are not caused by: a) Adenovirus b) Influenza virus c) RSV d) Rotavirus 64. Which statement regarding cytopathic effect (CPE) is incorrect: a) Paramyxoviruses in cell culture induce syncytium formation b) CPE of cytomegalovirus in cell culture occurs within 24-48 hours. c) CPE of viruses cannot be used for virus identification d) The time of appearance of CPE varies from virus to virus 65. Poliovirus typing is done using: a) Neutralization test b) Hemagglutination inhibition test c) Radial hemolysis d) DEAFF test 66. Immunofluorescence techniques are used to demonstrate: a) Chlamydia b) CMV c) Rabies virus d) All of the mentioned agents 67. Serological methods include: a) ELISA and PCR b) Complement fixation test and PCR c) Complement fixation test and Western blot d) Radial immunodiffusion and immunohistochemistry 68. Serological diagnosis of primary viral infections involves: a) Detection of anti-viral IgA b) Detection of anti-viral IgG c) Detection of anti-viral IgE d) Detection of anti-viral IgM 69. Molecular methods for virus detection include all except: a) Southern blot b) Western blot c) PCR d) Northern blot 70. Hemagglutination inhibition test: a) is not a quantitative test b) does not require the use of animal blood c) is usually more specific than complement fixation test d) is not used for rubella diagnosis 71. All viruses: a) have DNA b) have RNA c) have lipids d) have proteins 72. Oncogenic viruses include all except: a) EBV b) HSV-2 c) HCV d) HHV-8 73. Congenital infections are caused by: a) HSV-2, rubella virus, and measles virus b) HIV, HBV, and rubella virus c) HBV, HIV, and poliovirus d) CMV, rubella virus, and HSV-12 74. Reverse transcriptase is found in: a) HIV, HTLV-1, and HCV b) HIV, HCV, and HTLV-1 c) HIV, HTLV-1, and HBV d) HIV, CMV, and HBV 75. Segmented genomes are found in: a) Orthomyxoviruses and herpesviruses b) Paramyxoviruses and rotaviruses c) Orthomyxoviruses and rotaviruses d) Herpesviruses and paramyxoviruses 76. Envelopes are found in: a) Herpesviruses b) Adenoviruses c) Rotaviruses d) Parvoviruses 77. Replication occurs in the nucleus of: a) Herpesviruses and orthomyxoviruses b) Herpesviruses and paramyxoviruses c) All DNA viruses d) All RNA viruses 78. Rubella virus infection: a) is not dangerous in the first trimester of pregnancy b) is very dangerous in the third trimester of pregnancy c) can be asymptomatic d) is always clinically manifested 79. Which statement is true: a) Rubella virus cannot be cultured b) IgM antibodies can usually be detected shortly after rash appears c) Prenatal diagnosis of rubella fetus is very easy d) Immunohistochemistry is the method of choice for rubella virus identification 80. DNA viruses include: a) Influenza A and hepatitis B virus b) CMV and hepatitis B virus c) Rubella virus and hepatitis B virus d) Parvovirus and influenza A virus 81. Gastroenteritis is not caused by: a) Enteroviruses b) Adenoviruses c) Astroviruses d) Rotaviruses 82. Chronic carrier state does not persist after infection with: a) Hepatitis A and hepatitis E b) Hepatitis B and hepatitis C c) Hepatitis C and hepatitis D d) None of the provided answers is correct 83. Respiratory transmission occurs with: a) Rubella virus b) Hepatitis B virus c) Measles virus d) Correct answers are a and c 84. Viruses with negative RNA are: a) Picornaviruses and orthomyxoviruses b) Coronaviruses and rhabdoviruses c) Picornaviruses and rhabdoviruses d) Orthomyxoviruses and rhabdoviruses 85. Hepatitis C infection: a) Is often chronic b) Can lead to hepatocellular carcinoma c) Increases the level of C-reactive protein d) All of the provided answers are correct 86. Measles virus: a) Undergoes antigenic drift and antigenic shift b) Is sensitive to acyclovir c) Can cause encephalitis and pneumonia d) Correct answer is a 87. Viral zoonoses do not include: a) Lassa fever b) Japanese encephalitis c) Rubella d) Rabies 88. Hepatitis A: a) Can be prevented by giving immunoglobulin b) Causes relapses c) Causes cirrhosis d) Cannot be prevented by vaccination 89. Hepatitis B infection: a) Is often chronic b) Can lead to hepatocellular carcinoma c) Can lead to liver cirrhosis d) All of the provided answers are correct 90. Prions: a) Are easily inactivated at high temperatures b) Are strong antigens c) Are easily cultured d) Have a long incubation period 91. Diseases caused by "slow viruses" are: a) AIDS and T-cell leukemia b) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease and progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy c) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis and progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy d) AIDS and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 92. Herpes simplex labialis does not cause: a) Encephalitis b) Genital herpes c) Corneal ulcers d) Angular cheilitis 93. Vesicular rash is caused by: a) Rubella virus b) Measles virus c) Scarlet fever virus d) Varicella-zoster virus 94. Respiratory syncytial virus: a) Can cause latent infections b) Can be eradicated by vaccination c) Can cause bronchiolitis d) Causes infections in later years 95. During the incubation period of HIV infection: a) The number of viral particles in the blood is prognostically significant b) Anti-gp120 antibodies are not produced c) HIV virus does not replicate d) There is no immune system response GENERAL BACTERIOLOGY 96. The cytoplasmic membrane is: a) a single-layer membrane b) a double-layer membrane c) a triple-layer membrane d) not a separate membrane but part of the capsule 97. Projections on the bacterial cell are: a) flagella b) plasmids c) ribosomes d) hyphae 98. Gram-negative bacteria stain: a) yellow b) purple c) red d) green 99. Gram staining: a) indicates the composition of the cell wall b) is used to detect and identify acid-fast bacteria c) is used for staining bacterial endospores d) is a simple staining method 100. The method by which all living microorganisms are killed or removed is called: a) disinfection b) antisepsis c) sterilization d) thermocauterization 101. The following methods are not used for sterilization control: a) physical b) chemical c) biological d) ultrasonic 102. Antimicrobial agents are substances that: a) kill or prevent the multiplication of microorganisms in a living organism b) stimulate the growth and reproduction of microorganisms in a living organism c) do not affect the development and reproduction of microorganisms d) only affect growth if two or more agents are used simultaneously 103. The cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria is primarily composed of: a) lipoproteins b) phospholipids c) lipopolysaccharides d) peptidoglycan 104. The periplasmic space is located between: a) the capsule and the cell wall b) the nucleus and the cytoplasm c) the cell wall and the cytoplasmic membrane d) between the capsule and the cytoplasmic membrane 105. Gram-positive bacteria stain: a) yellow b) blue-purple c) red d) green 106. Capsules, which most bacteria produce when reproducing in natural conditions, are composed of: a) extracellular polysaccharide polymers b) poly-D-glutamic acid c) acetaldehyde d) monosaccharides 107. The composition of bacterial cell structure does not include: a) capsule b) cytoplasmic membrane c) ribosomes d) endoplasmic reticulum 108. The primary function of the capsule (as a bacterial cell envelope) is: a) it has no function b) protection of the bacterial cell c) carrier of genetic material d) it has a protective function only in Gram-positive bacteria 109. The method of testing the sensitivity of a microorganism to antimicrobial agents is: a) dilution b) dispersion c) fluorescence d) immersion 110. Bacteria are: a) metazoans b) protozoa c) prokaryotes d) eukaryotes 111. The method by which the number of live microorganisms is reduced by killing or removing them is called: a) disinfection b) asepsis c) sterilization d) thermocauterization 112. Mechanisms of resistance do not include: a) enzymatic destruction or inactivation of the drug b) modification of the target enzyme c) alteration of cell wall permeability d) retention of metabolic pathways 113. Bacteria: a) have a nucleus b) have a nucleolus c) have a nucleoid d) do not have a nucleus 114. Parasitism is a host-parasite relationship where: a) the parasite is metabolically dependent on the host b) the host and parasite are mutually metabolically dependent c) the host and parasite have a mutually beneficial relationship d) the host is metabolically dependent on the parasite 115. The following is not significant for the development of an infection: a) infectivity of the microorganism b) pathogenic potential of the microorganism c) virulence of the microorganism d) type of microorganism 116. The primary sterile region is: a) blood b) digestive tract c) upper respiratory tract d) skin 117. Invasiveness is the ability of a microorganism to: a) attach to the cell b) penetrate through the subepithelial layer c) reproduce at the site of adherence d) detach from the cell 118. Material prepared by aseptic methods is: a) infectious b) sterile c) disinfected d) unusable 119. The minimum inhibitory concentration is: a) the minimum concentration of a drug sufficient to kill bacteria b) the minimum concentration sufficient to inhibit bacterial growth c) the minimum concentration that a patient can ingest d) the maximum concentration that a patient can ingest 120. Bactericidal action of an antibacterial drug involves: a) killing the target bacterial cell b) inhibiting the growth and reproduction of the bacterial cell c) stopping growth d) slowing down bacterial growth 121. Lipopolysaccharides are present in: a) all bacteria b) only Gram-negative bacteria c) only Gram-positive bacteria d) bacteria do not possess it at all 122. Flagella are: a) organelles for movement b) an integral part of the cell wall c) carriers of bacterial genetic material d) the "skeleton" of a bacterial cell – endoskeleton 123. Spores are: a) reproductive forms of bacteria b) vegetative forms of bacteria c) highly resistant forms of bacteria d) low-resistant forms of bacteria 124. Exotoxins are secreted by: a) both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria b) only Gram-positive bacteria c) only Gram-negative bacteria d) neither Gram-positive nor 125. Microscope magnification is calculated by multiplying: a) the magnification of the objective lens, the magnification of the eyepiece, and the magnification of the condenser b) the magnification of the objective lens and the magnification of the eyepiece c) the magnification of the condenser and the magnification of the eyepiece d) the magnification of the objective lens and the magnification of the condenser 126. Gram staining is: a) monochromatic b) metachromatic c) complex d) special 127. Bacteria have: a) 23 chromosomes b) 22 chromosomes c) 2 chromosomes d) 1 chromosome 128. Bacteremia is a condition that occurs after the invasion of: a) pathogenic microorganisms b) non-pathogenic microorganisms c) bacterial toxins d) viruses 129. Septicemia is the invasion of the blood by: a) pathogenic microorganisms b) non-pathogenic microorganisms c) bacterial toxins d) viruses 130. The sign of inflammation is not: a) rubor (redness) b) calor (heat) c) tremor (tremor) d) tumor (swelling) 131. Adherence occurs between: a) receptors on the surface of microorganisms and target tissue b) receptors on host cells and molecules on the surface of microorganisms c) two microorganisms d) two host cells 132. L-forms of bacteria: a) can only occur in vitro conditions b) can only occur after antibiotic treatment c) are not found in nature d) are significant in antibiotic resistance 133. Pathogenicity is: a) the ability of bacteria to damage tissue and cause disease b) the degree of virulence c) the ability of a microorganism to establish an initial site of infection d) the ability of a microorganism to proliferate once it has entered the body 134. Infectivity is: a) the ability of bacteria to produce toxins that damage tissue and cause disease b) the degree of virulence c) the ability of a microorganism to establish an initial site of infection d) the ability of a microorganism to be transmitted 135. Bacterial resistance to antibiotics: a) does not exist but is very possible b) exists but is not seen at all c) exists but is not seen here d) is a result of inadequate antibiotic use 136. Invasiveness is: a) the ability of bacteria to damage tissue and cause disease b) the degree of virulence c) the ability of a microorganism to establish an initial site of infection d) the ability of a microorganism to proliferate once it has entered the body and spread 137. Chemical compounds present only in bacterial cells are (choose correct answers): a) peptidoglycan b) bacterial polyhydroxy alcohols c) some L-amino acids d) ethyl alcohol 138. An antiphagocytic factor is not: a) capsule b) M protein c) protein A d) hyaluronidase 139. Endotoxins are (choose the correct answer): a) polypeptides and weakly toxic b) lipopolysaccharides and highly toxic c) lipopolysaccharides and weakly toxic d) polypeptides and highly toxic 140. Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria differ in terms of: a) the number of organelles b) composition and number of ribosomes c) presence and absence of the cell wall d) composition of the cell wall 141. All bacteria have a cell wall: a) yes b) no c) all except Mycoplasma d) only Gram-negative bacteria 142. Factors affecting the growth and reproduction of bacteria are: a) water b) concentration of H+ ions (pH) c) CO2 d) nitrogen monoxide 143. The cessation of growth in some bacteria leads to: a) bacterial cultivation b) sporulation c) doubling d) budding 144. Except for one known exception, the capsule of bacteria is composed of: a) lipopolysaccharides b) polysaccharides c) proteins d) peptidoglycan 145. Virulence is: a) the ability of bacteria to produce toxins that damage tissue and cause disease b) the degree of pathogenicity c) the ability of a microorganism to establish an initial site of infection d) the ability of a microorganism to proliferate and spread once it has entered the body 146. Endotoxins: a) are released into the cytoplasm b) are released into the external environment c) are found in the cell wall of bacteria d) are highly toxic 147. UV radiation is used in medicine: a) as a method of sterilization b) as a method of disinfection c) as a method of tanning 148. Pilus is not included in the adherence factors of microorganisms. a) pilus b) lipoteichoic acid c) surface proteins d) spore 149. Lysogenic strains of bacteria: a) do not exist b) are significant in bacterial typing c) exist, but have not been isolated d) arise after infection by bacteriophage 150. Flagella are not included in the invasiveness factors. a) flagella b) capsule c) sexual pili d) endotoxin 151. Sterilization in an autoclave is: a) a method of sterilization by dry heat b) a method of sterilization by moist heat c) a method of sterilization by radiation d) a method of sterilization by filtration 152. An antibiogram is used to examine: a) the harmfulness of antibiotics b) the sensitivity of bacteria to antibiotics c) the ability of bacteria to produce antibiotics d) the weight of antibiotics 153. Bacteria divide by: a) binary fission b) meiosis c) mitosis d) transduction 154. Symbiosis is: a) living together in a community of two or more different organisms b) a type of infection c) another term for carriers d) the separate life of two individuals 155. Bacteria are, clinically speaking: a) multicellular parasites b) intracellular parasites c) extracellular parasites d) not parasites at all Special Bacteriology 156. The appearance of symptoms caused by the action of endotoxins is a characteristic of the infection caused by: a) Staphylococcus aureus b) Neisseria meningitidis c) Streptococcus pyogenes d) Mycoplasma pneumoniae 157. After recovering from typhoid fever, a certain percentage of patients remain long-term carriers: in such individuals, Salmonellae occasionally reach the digestive tract from: a) blood b) stomach c) oral cavity d) gallbladder 158. Which of the following statements is not correct: a) some strains of E. coli produce enterotoxin and cause diarrhea b) cholera toxin stimulates adenylate cyclase c) diphtheria is caused by an exotoxin that inhibits protein synthesis by inactivating elongation factor d) botulism is caused by a toxin that hydrolyzes lecithin, leading to nerve destruction 159. Diarrhea is caused by the production of enterotoxins and activation of adenylate cyclase by: a) Escherichia coli b) Salmonella enteritidis c) Vibrio cholerae d) Staphylococcus aureus 160. Which statement regarding Klebsiella pneumoniae is correct: a) a skin test can be used to detect the infection caused by Klebsiella pneumoniae b) the polysaccharide capsule represents a virulence factor c) Klebsiella pneumoniae is not part of the normal bacterial flora of the intestines d) laboratory diagnosis is performed by conducting a biological assay 161. During the detection of M. tuberculosis, homogenized material is concentrated: a) to obtain a larger number of bacilli in a small volume b) due to the small number of mycobacteria in the total material c) to pile up bacilli for easier observation of "Cord" d) to destroy other microorganisms in the material 162. Three twelve-year-old boys were at a birthday party at their classmate's house, where they ate, among other things, Russian salad. Two hours later, they appeared for examination by a doctor, complaining of vomiting and diarrhea. Which of the following microorganisms is most likely the cause of their symptoms: a) Shigella flexneri b) Campylobacter jejuni c) Staphylococcus aureus d) Serratia marcescens 163. Acute glomerulonephritis and rheumatic fever are non-suppurative complications that may occur after an infection caused by: a) Streptococcus faecalis b) Streptococcus pyogenes c) Streptococcus pneumoniae d) Streptococcus agalactiae 164. The motility of intestinal bacteria depends on the possession of flagella; mark the non-motile enterobacterium: a) Proteus sp. b) Klebsiella sp. c) Salmonella sp. d) Yersinia enterocolitica. 165. Which of the listed bacteria does not cause urinary tract infections: a) Proteus sp. b) Staphylococcus epidermidis c) Pseudomonas sp. d) C. diphtheriae 166. For which of the following microorganisms is the human the only source of infection: a) Salmonella enteritidis b) Shigella sonei c) Campylobacter jejuni d) Salmonella typhi 167. Which of the following diseases is not transmitted by arthropods: a) Rocky Mountain spotted fever b) Q fever c) Epidemic typhus d) Typhoid fever 168. In the maternity ward of the gynecological clinic, an epidemic of sepsis caused by Staphylococcus aureus has occurred. When searching for the source of the epidemic, staphylococcal carriage in the personnel of the maternity ward could first be expected in the: a) large intestine b) nose c) throat d) vagina 169. Benzylpenicillin is the drug of choice for: a) typhoid fever b) malaria c) tularemia d) streptococcal angina 170. The type of streptococcus often present in the genital tract of pregnant women is: a) Streptococcus pyogenes b) Streptococcus agalactiae c) Streptococcus equisimilis d) Streptococcus bovis 171. The carrier of virulence and typical specificity of pneumococcus is: a) M protein b) capsular polysaccharide c) exotoxin of protein nature d) teichoic acid 172. E. coli ensures humans with which vitamin by its presence in the intestines: a) vitamin B6 b) vitamin E c) vitamin K d) vitamin C 173. Koch's phenomenon is: a) The ability of guinea pigs primarily immunized with tuberculin to prevent the occurrence of secondary infection b) The action of steam flowing over tubercle bacilli c) Primary inoculation of a virulent strain of TB sensitizes the guinea pig's body so that upon subsequent contact (reinoculation) with another virulent TB strain, it reacts with a mild local reaction at the site of reinoculation d) The ability of IgA to prevent the adherence of tubercle bacilli to sensitive cells 174. Anthrax or black pustule is transmitted: a) from human to human b) from animal to human c) from human to animal d) via vectors 175. The division cycle of M. tuberculosis lasts: a) about 20 minutes b) 210 minutes c) 10 hours d) 30 hours or more 176. Koch's phenomenon is conducted on: a) monkeys b) rabbits c) guinea pigs d) hamsters 177. Homogenization of patient material in which mycobacteria are sought is most commonly performed with: a) alcohol b) NaOH c) antibiotics d) nitric acid 178. BCG vaccine is administered immediately after birth because of: a) type IV hypersensitivity that is not transmitted from mother to fetus b) the environment being contaminated with tubercle bacilli, and the child needs immediate protection c) tuberculosis being an inherited disease, and BCG vaccine is used to prevent its spread d) activation of the humoral part of the immune system 179. Which of the listed Shigella does not cause bacillary dysentery: a) S. dysenteriae b) S. flexneri c) S. sonei d) S. boydii 180. Staphylococcus saprophyticus is the causative agent of: a) respiratory infections in children b) urinary tract infections that occur more frequently in women c) skin infections d) none of the above diseases, because S. saprophyticus is a saprophyte 181. Which of the following tests is used in the diagnosis of Lymphogranuloma venereum? a) Weil-Felix reaction b) Frei test c) Ascoli reaction d) VDRL test 182. After taking a sample for Chlamydia isolation, it is placed: a) in selenite broth b) in special dextrose broth c) on Mueller-Hinton agar d) in an appropriate transport medium 183. Mycoplasmas are bacteria that: a) stain well with Gram stain b) have a rigid cell wall c) are resistant to penicillin d) do not grow on solid nutrient media 184. L-forms are bacteria that have lost the ability to: a) move b) cultivate c) produce peptidoglycan in the cell wall d) cause diseases 185. "Clue" cells occur in: a) fungal infections b) Listeria monocytogenes infection c) Chlamydia trachomatis infection d) bacterial vaginosis caused by G. vaginalis 186. Diphtheria toxin consists of: a) one unit b) two subunits c) three subunits d) more than three subunits 187. Diphtheria toxin acts on cells by: a) interfering with protein synthesis b) inhibiting DNA replication c) disrupting ion pumps' function d) interfering with ribosome synthesis 188. For the isolation of Salmonella from stool, it is most important to: a) use nutrient media for enriching growth b) use transport media c) ensure heating of the sample during transport d) ensure adequate pH 189. Weil-Felix reaction is used in the diagnosis of: a) Q fever b) Lymphogranuloma venereum c) typhus fever d) diphtheria 190. In the family Rickettsiaceae, which species can only be cultivated in vitro on nutrient media? a) Rickettsia conorii b) Coxiella burnetii c) Rickettsia rickettsii d) Rochalimaea quintana 191. Chlamydia psittaci: a) is always transmitted by direct contact from human to human b) human infection with this bacterium occurs most commonly through the respiratory tract c) causes eye infections in newborns d) is a common cause of human urogenital infections 192. Chlamydia trachomatis cannot be isolated from: a) vaginal epithelial cells b) endocervical epithelial cells c) fallopian tube epithelial cells d) urethral epithelial cells 193. Media for isolating mycoplasmas must contain: a) V and X factors b) phenols c) silver nitrate d) sterols 194. Adherence of mycoplasmas to host cells is done via: a) flagella b) cell wall c) terminal structures d) spores 195. Which of the following microorganisms is least likely to be resistant to penicillin? a) Staphylococcus aureus b) Enterococcus faecalis c) Streptococcus pyogenes d) Neisseria gonorrhoeae 196. In a direct microscopic preparation prepared from patient material, pathogens are most commonly observed as: a) Gram-positive diplococci within epithelial cells b) Gram-negative diplococci intraleukocytically positioned c) Gram-negative cocci arranged in chains d) Gram-positive cocci scattered among polymorphonuclear cells 197. Common characteristics of intestinal bacteria include: a) all produce potent exotoxins b) all hydrolyze urea and ferment lactose c) they have endotoxin d) they are all pathogenic 198. Which of the following antigens determines the group belonging of Salmonella? a) flagellar (H) b) somatic (O) c) capsular (K) d) fimbrial (F) 199. The division into enteropathogenic, enterotoxigenic, enteroinvasive, and enteroadhesive is characteristic of: a) Shigella sp. b) Salmonella sp. c) Klebsiella sp. d) E. coli 200. Which of the following statements pertains to the Widal test: a) it is based on the agglutination of purified protein derivative from microorganisms b) in the first stage of typhus or paratyphus, the antibody titer is high, then declines c) both H and O antibodies are detected using different diagnostic tools d) it is not used for typhoid diagnosis 201. In a calcified tuberculous focus, lifelong persistence of tuberculosis bacilli occurs, which are called: a) commensals b) persistors c) inquilines d) pseudospores 202. The skin test in leprosy is called: a) Mitsuda b) Reit c) Castañeda d) Hansen 203. Chlamydia causes: a) typhoid fever b) angina c) tuberculosis d) psittacosis 204. The suspension of which bacteria is used in diagnosing rickettsioses: a) Pseudomonas OX-19 b) Proteus OX-19 c) Providencia OX-2 d) Pasteurella OX-K 205. For the isolation of Chlamydia, which of the following is not used: a) cell cultures b) nutrient media c) mice d) chicken embryos 206. Hayflick medium is used for the isolation of: a) Chlamydia b) Rickettsia c) Mycoplasma d) Staphylococcus 207. Meningococcus most commonly reaches the central nervous system through: a) blood b) auditory nerve c) lymphatic flow d) mosquito bite 208. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae is the causative agent of: a) erysipelas b) erysipeloid c) angina d) pneumonia 209. M. leprae can proliferate in: a) mice b) guinea pigs c) snakes d) armadillos 210. Rickettsiae are the causative agents of: a) typhoid fever b) typhus fever c) diphtheria d) tuberculosis 211. Which of the following statements about chlamydiae is incorrect? a) they have a cell wall b) they have both DNA and RNA c) they independently synthesize sufficient ATP d) they have ribosomes 212. Chlamydia trachomatis includes: a) one serotype b) 14 serotypes c) 18 serotypes d) over 80 serotypes 213. During Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection, which host defense function is significantly impaired? a) phagocytosis b) antibody production c) ciliary activity d) neutrophil chemotaxis 214. The family Mycoplasmataceae does not include: a) the genus Acholeplasma b) the genus Ureaplasma c) the genus Mycoplasma d) the genus Mycobacterium 215. Microscopically, B. anthracis appears as: a) bamboo stick b) Arabic letters c) clusters d) coffee beans 216. Gram-positive lancet-shaped or flame-shaped diplococci suggest a diagnosis of: a) Klebsiella pneumoniae b) Streptococcus pneumoniae c) Streptococcus pyogenes d) Acinetobacter sp. 217. Choose the correct sentence: a) Enterococcus faecalis possesses lipid A, which has a pyrogenic effect b) Immunoprophylaxis against diseases caused by Enterococcus faecalis is achieved through vaccination containing capsular polysaccharide c) An important criterion for diagnosing diseases caused by Enterococcus faecalis is a fourfold rise in complement-fixing antibody titer d) Enterococcus faecalis can successfully multiply in a medium containing NaCl at a significantly higher concentration than isotonic 218. Swarming on agar is a cultural characteristic significant for the identification of: a) E. coli b) Klebsiella sp. c) Proteus sp. d) Enterobacter sp. 219. Which of the following statements about typhoid fever is correct: a) the presence of Vi antibodies indicates the persistence of Salmonella typhi after the acute phase of the disease b) ampicillin is the only effective antibiotic in the treatment of typhoid fever c) after immunization with the TAB vaccine, the titer of O antibodies rises rapidly and remains elevated for several years d) during typhoid fever relapse, blood cultures are often positive 220. Cholera enterotoxin: a) is an adenylate cyclase enzyme b) causes the excretion of sodium and water into the intestinal lumen c) leads to the absorption of sodium and water in the intestines d) has a cytotoxic effect 221. The causative agents of bacterial vaginosis include all bacteria except: a) Chlamydia trachomatis b) Gardnerella vaginalis c) Mycoplasma hominis d) Mobiluncus sp. 222. The exotoxin of Corynebacterium diphtheriae is: a) antigenically identical for all toxic strains b) antigenically different and labeled with letters A, B, C, and D c) antigenically different and labeled with numbers 1 and 2 d) antigenically different and labeled with the symbol J 223. The presence of neutralizing antibodies to diphtheria toxin can be demonstrated by: a) Dick test b) Elek test c) Remer test d) Schick test 224. Which selective medium is used for the isolation of Corynebacterium diphtheriae? a) Tinsdale agar b) Loeffler agar c) blood agar d) chocolate agar 225. Clostridium tetani: a) forms terminal spores b) forms centrally located spores c) forms spores that deform the bacillus body d) forms spores that do not deform the appearance of the bacillus 226. Colonies of B. anthracis are described as: a) stellate b) medusa head c) round d) rod-shaped 227. Circle the Clostridium that can cause gas gangrene: a) C. tetani b) C. perfringens c) C. difficile d) C. botulinum 228. The vaccine against anthrax: a) exists b) has not been developed to date c) exists, but only for animals d) is in the experimental phase 229. BCG vaccine is administered: a) 3-6 months after birth b) immediately after birth c) is not part of mandatory vaccines d) before starting school 230. Revaccination with the BCG vaccine is performed: a) 4 to 6 weeks after the primary vaccination b) when the tuberculin test is negative c) it is not performed because the primary vaccination is sufficient d) 4 years after the primary vaccination 231. The BCG vaccine is obtained by attenuating: a) tuberculosis H37Rv b) M. bovis c) BCG d) M. microti 232. M. tuberculosis: a) never shows drug resistance b) is a slow-growing mycobacterium (3-6 weeks) c) contains a large percentage of lipids in the cell wall d) The correct answers are under b and c 233. Every statement is correct except: a) after staining with carbol fuchsin, tubercle bacilli are not decolorized by alcohol b) M. tuberculosis stains red in the Gram stain c) M. tuberculosis contains a lot of mycolic acid in the cell wall d) M. tuberculosis does not actually exist 234. Brill-Zinsser disease is a relapse of: a) typhoid fever b) typhus fever c) Lyme disease d) fever 235. Epidemic typhus is transmitted through: a) human body lice b) ticks c) rodents d) mice 236. Elementary bodies and reticulate bodies of chlamydia do not differ in: a) RNA/DNA ratio b) size c) structure of the main protein of the cell membrane d) infectivity for the host cell 237. Which of the following is NOT used for the isolation of mycoplasmas? a) Hayflick medium b) SS agar c) cell culture d) chorioallantoic membrane of chicken embryos 238. Tetanus toxin causes: a) spastic paralysis of skeletal muscles b) flaccid paralysis of skeletal muscles c) it does not cause paralysis but damages the cerebellum d) it damages the pituitary gland 239. Neonatal tetanus occurs: a) if the mother is not properly protected against tetanus b) by cutting the umbilical cord with non-sterile spores c) only if the mother has not had tetanus before d) if there has been intrauterine infection of the fetus 240. A typical tetanus-prone wound is: a) puncture wound b) abrasion c) incision d) any wound 241. Bacillus anthracis is: a) a spiral bacterium b) a sporogenic bacterium of spherical shape c) a bacterium that produces metachromatic granules d) a nonmotile bacterium 242. Secondary tuberculous infection usually occurs as a result of: a) exogenous infection b) endogenous reinfection c) generalized infection d) local infection 243. Can diphtheroids cause sepsis? a) yes b) no c) only at certain ages d) only in women 244. Due to the production of enterotoxin and activation of adenylate cyclase, diarrhea is caused by: a) Streptococcus pyogenes b) Salmonella enteritidis c) Vibrio cholerae d) Staphylococcus aureus 245. Virulence factors of intestinal bacteria include: (circle the incorrect answer) a) capsule b) endotoxin (lipid A) c) epidermolytic toxin d) adhesins 246. Which of the listed mechanisms of nonspecific resistance is significant in the prevention of bacillary dysentery: a) acidity of gastric juice b) enzymes in saliva c) normal bacterial flora d) mucous membrane of the esophagus 247. Disease similar to cholera is caused by: a) Clostridium botulinum b) Clostridium welchii c) Escherichia coli d) Staphylococcus aureus 248. Coagulase test is used to differentiate: a) Streptococcus pyogenes from Streptococcus faecalis b) Streptococcus pyogenes from Staphylococcus aureus c) Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis d) Staphylococcus epidermidis from Neisseria meningitidis 249. Rickettsiae are: a) Gram-negative bacteria b) Gram-positive bacteria c) acid-fast bacteria d) sporogenic bacteria 250. The causative agents of psittacosis are: a) viruses b) chlamydiae c) mycoplasmas d) rickettsiae 251. Which of the following statements about chlamydiae is true? a) they can be cultured on nutrient media b) they are transmitted by arthropods c) they are obligate intracellular parasites d) they possess either DNA or RNA, never both nucleic acids together 252. Pseudomembranous colitis caused by Clostridium difficile is associated with therapy. a) clindamycin b) erythromycin c) penicillin d) Bactrim 253. In addition to Ziehl-Neelsen staining, which of the following staining methods is used for staining acid-fast bacilli: a) Ljubinska b) Papanicolaou c) Macchiavello d) auramine and rhodamine 254. The optimal number of samples for the laboratory diagnosis of M. tuberculosis is: a) 1-3 b) 3-10 c) 15 d) 25 255. Concentration of homogenized material is done by: a) evaporation b) centrifugation c) lyophilization d) sterilization 256. Mycoplasmas differ from other bacteria in that they do not have: a) spores b) flagella c) capsules d) cell walls 257. By composition, the vaccine against diphtheria is: a) antitoxin b) anatoxin c) formalin-killed diphtheria bacilli d) attenuated strain of diphtheria bacilli 258. To prove that an animal has died of anthrax, we can do: a) Dick's test b) Gruber's reaction c) Ascoli's reaction d) Schick test 259. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae is transmitted to humans: a) from humans b) through vectors c) from domestic animals d) from wild animals 260. Neisser staining of Bacillus anthracis can reveal: a) Spores b) lipid vacuoles c) metachromatic granules d) mucopeptide granules 261. Tetanus toxin is: a) erythrogenic toxin b) neurotoxin c) enterotoxin d) hydrotokin 262. Clostridium perfringens: a) produces a powerful endotoxin b) secretes more exotoxins and enzymes c) does not secrete anything d) causes disease only by its presence. 263. Pneumococcal capsule contributes to virulence by: a) reducing the efficiency of phagocytosis b) inhibiting the chemotaxis of polymorphonuclear leukocytes c) acting like a collagenase enzyme, accelerating the invasion of deeper layers of tissue d) creating anaerobic conditions around the bacterium 264. Enterococci are part of the normal flora of: a) skin b) urogenital tract c) digestive tract d) respiratory tract 265. Meningococcal carriage refers to the presence of N. meningitidis: a) in the blood b) on the mucous membrane of the nasopharynx c) in stool d) on the conjunctival mucosa 266. Which of the following bacteria does not cause gastroenteritis: a) Escherichia coli b) Proteus sp. c) Yersinia enterocolitica d) Klebsiella sp. 267. Helicobacter pylori: a) is a common cause of diarrhea b) plays a role in the development of gastritis and duodenal ulcers c) can be easily eradicated by antibiotic therapy d) causes skin infections 268. Epidemic typhus is transmitted through: a) mites b) rodents c) human body lice d) ticks 269. Glycogen is found in inclusions in: a) Chlamydia trachomatis b) Chlamydia psittaci c) Chlamydia pneumoniae d) not found at all in Chlamydia 270. Tuberculin-positive individuals are (circle the incorrect answer): a) susceptible to tuberculosis infection b) resistant to tuberculosis infection c) individuals who have been vaccinated d) individuals who have had primary tuberculosis infection 271. Chlamydia psittaci and Chlamydia trachomatis can be distinguished by: a) replication cycle b) differences in the structure of lipopolysaccharide antigen c) glycogen content within inclusions d) there is no difference 272. Prevention of botulism is carried out by: a) vaccination b) thermal processing of food c) administration of hyperimmune gamma globulin d) penicillin 273. Clostridium difficile causes: a) gastritis b) pseudomembranous colitis c) urethritis d) cholecystitis 274. The basic characteristic of mycobacteria is not: a) Gram-positive b) they do not stain easily with Gram c) slow growth d) acid-alcohol resistance 275. Mycobacteria are stained with special staining by: a) Olt's method b) Ziehl-Neelsen stain c) Neisser's method d) Gram stain 276. Mycobacteria are cultured on: a) blood agar b) Endo agar c) Lowenstein-Jensen medium d) Tinsdale medium 277. Your patient has bacterial endocarditis caused by alpha-hemolytic streptococci of the "viridans" group. What is the most likely site of infection: a) skin b) colon c) oral cavity d) urethra 278. E. coli, Enterobacter sp., and Proteus sp. are: a) normal bacterial flora of the digestive tract b) normal bacterial flora of the urinary tract c) normal bacterial flora of the digestive and urinary tract d) not part of the normal flora 279. Endotoxin is released during: a) exponential growth phase of all bacteria b) exponential growth phase of Gram-positive sporogenic bacteria c) stationary growth phase of all bacteria d) lysis of Gram-negative bacteria 280. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a bacterium that causes: a) AIDS b) gonorrhea c) syphilis d) chancroid 281. Gonococcal infection elicits a more severe clinical reaction: a) in women b) in men c) gender does not affect the manifestation of clinical symptoms d) depending on the skin color 282. The evasion phenomenon is described in gonococci and represents: a) evasion of gonococci from polymorphonuclear leukocytes during phagocytosis b) the ability of gonococci to adhere to receptor sites of the epithelial mucosa of target organs c) refers to staining of gonococci d) refers to reproduction 283. In a direct Gram stain preparation, meningococci and gonococci: a) can be differentiated b) cannot be differentiated c) do not stain with Gram stain at all d) meningococci are seen in clusters, and gonococci in the shape of bamboo sticks 284. M. tuberculosis forms visible colonies on solid nutrient medium for approximately 3 weeks, and a negative result is issued after: a) 24 hours b) 2-3 weeks c) 6-8 weeks d) 10-12 weeks 285. Koch's bacillus can survive in dust for: a) about 20 days b) 4 months c) several years d) 36 hours 286. Which of the following exoproducts is considered a virulence factor of Staphylococcus aureus: a) Coagulase b) Penicillinase c) Enterotoxin d) Collagenase 287. Staphylococcus epidermidis is: a) strictly pathogenic bacterial species b) conditionally pathogenic bacterial species c) saprophytic species of virus d) none of the above 288. E. coli most commonly causes pyogenic infections localized in the: a) upper respiratory tract b) lower respiratory tract c) urinary tract d) gallbladder 289. Choose the correct sentence: a) the main reservoir of group B streptococcus (Streptococcus agalactiae) is the vaginal mucosa b) Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci (Streptococcus pyogenes) have a polysaccharide antigen in the cell wall that antigenically differs from the polysaccharide of group B (Streptococcus agalactiae) c) streptococci are catalase-positive cocci d) M protein is a virulence factor of Streptococcus pneumoniae 290. S. typhi reproduces in macrophages: a) no, because it only infects enterocytes b) yes, by inhibiting the formation of phagolysosomes and oxidative bursts c) yes, because macrophages cannot kill viruses d) can be yes or no 291. Typhus is: a) a generalized infection accompanied by high fever and intoxication b) gastroenteritis c) gastroenteritis accompanied by the formation of submucosal abscesses in the submucosa of the intestine d) localized infection of the urogenital tract 292. Infections with S. Arizonae are common in: a) cowboys b) Yuma Indian tribes c) patients with AIDS and malignancies d) patients treated in Arizona 293. In the pathogenesis of cholera, the key role is played by exotoxin: a) Yes b) No c) yes, only in the case when V. cholerae multiplies in enterocytes d) only if the body temperature is above 39ºC 294. Cholera toxin is an AB toxin that: a) inhibits protein synthesis b) activates adenylate cyclase c) inhibits mRNA d) activates the respiratory chain 295. In the pathogenesis of bacillary dysentery, the key role is played by enterotoxin (Shiga toxin): a) yes b) no c) yes, only in the case of intoxication d) depends on gender 296. The infectivity of S. dysenteriae is: a) low, the infectious dose is less than 200 bacteria b) low, the infectious dose is more than 100,000 bacteria c) high, the infectious dose is less than 200 bacteria d) high, the infectious dose is more than 100,000 bacteria 297. Shigellae move through enterocytes using: a) Flagella b) "comet tail" c) saws d) pseudopods 298. Shigellae cause: a) typhoid fever b) amoebic dysentery c) bacillary dysentery d) bacteremia 299. Based on group O and type H antigens, salmonellae are divided into: a) four serotypes b) twelve serotypes c) seventy serotypes d) more than 2000 serotypes 300. Gastroenteritis caused by salmonellae is transmitted by: a) dirty hands b) contaminated water c) the same as hepatitis A d) infected animal products 301. Salmonella gastroenteritis is always accompanied by bacteremia: a) always b) sometimes c) never d) I don't know IMMUNOLOGY 302. The cells responsible for releasing histamine in allergic conditions are: a) mast cells b) lymphocytes c) eosinophils d) hepatocytes 303. The term referring to the movement of leukocytes toward bacteria is: a) ptosis b) chemotaxis c) phagocytosis d) phototaxis 304. The process by which macrophages and granulocytes ingest microorganisms is called: a) chikungunya b) chemotaxis c) botulism d) phagocytosis 305. The reverse transcriptase of the HIV virus performs the following function: a) transcribes viral DNA into RNA b) transcribes viral RNA into DNA c) converts cellular proteins into viral RNA d) none of the above 306. The following products of the immune system are opsonins: a) Class II MHC products b) Class I MHC products c) IgG d) TCR 307. Which of the following mechanisms do leukocytes use to kill pathogenic organisms: a) oxidative activity b) asphyxiation c) tolerance d) glycolysis 308. Which viral enzymes assist in the integration of the HIV provirus into the cellular genome: a) proteases b) integrases c) ligases d) transcriptases 309. The C3b component of complement is an opsonin because: a) it can lyse bacterial cells b) phagocytes recognize it with their receptors c) it enhances the function of lysosomes d) it enhances the function of the thymus 310. Which of the following cells does NOT belong to the family of macrophages: a) microglial cells b) NK cells c) osteoclasts d) Kupffer cells 311. Which of the following statements about interferons is NOT true: a) they are synthesized in response to viruses b) they inhibit viral replication c) they activate complement d) they stimulate macrophage functions 312. B lymphocytes in humans mature in the: a) bone marrow b) tonsils c) spleen d) synovium of the joint 313. T lymphocytes mature in the: a) posterior cranial fossa b) testes c) thymus d) spleen 314. Which of the following statements about the thymus is NOT true: a) it is located in the mediastinum b) it produces sex hormones c) it is the organ where T lymphocytes mature d) it belongs to the central immune organs 315. In the primary immune response, IgM appears before IgG because: a) their production does not require antigen b) IgG synthesis requires further genomic rearrangement c) IgG synthesis requires a higher concentration of antigen d) IgG antibodies diffuse more slowly into the circulation 316. Which of the following statements is NOT true: a) in the secondary response, antibody production begins earlier b) IgM is the dominant antibody in the primary immune response c) in the secondary immune response, antibody concentrations are higher d) IgD antibodies predominate in the secondary immune response 317. Cell-mediated immunity can be transferred to a non-immune individual by the transfer of: a) immunoglobulins b) T lymphocytes c) B lymphocytes d) complement 318. Patients with DiGeorge syndrome lack a thymus and therefore suffer from: a) hormonal disorders b) IgM deficiency c) anemia d) viral infections 319. T lymphocytes responsible for killing virus-infected cells are called: a) cytolytic T lymphocytes b) cytotoxic T lymphocytes c) regulatory T lymphocytes d) migrating T lymphocytes 320. Which of the following proteins is NOT encoded by genes of the human MHC complex: a) HLA-A b) HLA-C c) hemoglobin d) HLA-DR 321. Which of the following cells expresses Class II MHC products: a) erythrocyte b) hepatocyte c) macrophage d) enterocyte 322. In Myasthenia gravis, there are autoantibodies specific for: a) thyroglobulin b) double-stranded DNA c) vitamin D d) acetylcholine receptor 323. The presence of the HLA-B27 allele does NOT represent an increased risk for the development of one of the following diseases: a) type I insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus b) ankylosing spondylitis c) juvenile rheumatoid arthritis d) Reiter's syndrome 324. Which of the following bonds is NOT involved in the antibody-antigen reaction: a) hydrogen bond b) Van der Waals bond c) covalent bond d) electrostatic bond 325. Phagocytic function is possessed only by: a) T lymphocyte b) B lymphocyte c) hepatocyte d) monocyte 326. Macrophages possess a receptor for the Fc fragment of: a) IgA b) IgE c) IgM d) IgG 327. Mast cells express a receptor for the Fc fragment of: a) IgA b) IgF c) IgC d) IgE 328. The maturation of eosinophils depends on: a) TNF b) IL-7 c) IL-5 d) IL-2 329. Which of the following diseases is not mediated by class E antibodies: a) hay fever b) asthma c) eczema d) contact dermatitis 330. Which antibodies are present in Rh incompatibility: a) antinuclear b) antiphospholipid c) anti-D d) anti-CD3 331. The best antigen among the following is: a) bovine serum albumin b) polysaccharide c) lipid d) nucleic acid 332. The class of antibodies is determined by: a) molecular weight of polypeptide chains b) amino acid sequence in the constant region of the heavy chain c) amino acid sequence in the variable region of the heavy chain d) appearance of the active site 333. The first immunoglobulin chain synthesized during B lymphocyte maturation is: a) κ light chain b) λ light chain c) γ heavy chain d) μ heavy chain 334. Human Class II MHC products include: a) HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C b) H-2K, H-2D c) HLA-DR, HLA-DP, HLA-DQ d) C2, C4 335. Antigen processing is possible in: a) plasma cells b) erythrocytes c) macrophages d) eosinophils 336. Through the process of negative selection in the thymus, the following are eliminated: a) suppressor T lymphocytes b) NK cells c) B lymphocytes d) clones of autoreactive T lymphocytes 337. Coreceptor molecules on the membrane of T lymphocytes are: a) immunoglobulins b) CD4 and CD8 molecules c) Fab fragments of immunoglobulins d) Fc fragments of immunoglobulins 338. Which of the following groups of molecules are not products of T lymphocytes: a) growth factors b) differentiation factors c) chemokines d) immunoglobulins 339. The activation of the complement system via the alternative pathway does NOT involve: a) C1, C2, C4 b) C5, C6, C7 c) C3 d) C8, C9 340. If autoreactive cells are not eliminated by negative selection in the thymus, it will lead to: a) allergic reactions b) autoimmune diseases c) self-tolerance d) serum sickness 341. The Fab fragment of an antibody does NOT include: a) entire light chain b) N-terminus of the light chain c) N-terminus of the heavy chain d) C-terminus of the heavy chain 342. The primary functions of the Fc fragment of an antibody include all EXCEPT: a) passage of antibodies through the placenta b) binding to mast cells and basophils c) antigen recognition d) complement activation 343. The function of B lymphocytes is NOT: a) cytotoxicity b) antibody synthesis c) antigen presentation d) memory 344. Antigen processing is a function of one of the following cells: a) plasma cells b) hepatocytes c) interdigitating dendritic cells d) megakaryocytes 345. HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C are: a) Class II MHC products b) Class I MHC products c) nothing d) antibodies 346. HLA-DP, HLA-DQ, HLA-DR are: a) Class II MHC products b) Class I MHC products c) nothing d) antibodies 347. CD8+ lymphocytes recognize the immunogenic peptide presented within: a) Class II MHC products b) Class I MHC products c) cytokine receptors d) thyroxine receptors 348. CD4+ lymphocytes recognize the immunogenic peptide presented within: a) Class II MHC products b) Class I MHC products c) cytokine receptors d) thyroxine receptors 349. CD4+ lymphocytes are: a) B lymphocytes b) T helper lymphocytes c) T cytotoxic lymphocytes d) NK cells 350. CD8+ lymphocytes are: a) B lymphocytes b) T helper lymphocytes c) T cytotoxic lymphocytes d) NK cells 351. Lifespan is measured in years for: a) neutrophils b) basophils c) B lymphocytes d) T lymphocytes 352. IgE binds to mast cells via: a) paratope b) epitope c) Fc fragment d) C3 complement component 353. Passes through the placenta: a) IgA b) IgM c) IgD d) IgG 354. Thymus-independent antigens: a) induce IgM production b) reach the thymus c) are proteins d) activate neurons 355. Thymus-dependent antigens: a) induce IgM production b) reach the thymus c) are lipids d) induce the formation of memory B lymphocytes 356. The antigen receptor on the T lymphocyte membrane is: a) sIg b) TCR c) C3b d) LT 357. Phagocytic function is performed by: a. B lymphocyte b. T lymphocyte c. NK cell d. neutrophil 358. CD4+ Th1 subset lymphocytes produce: a. IL-2, IFNγ, IL-12 b. IL-1, IL-7 c. IL-4, IL-5, IL-10 d. TNF, LT, C3a 359. CD4+ Th2 subset lymphocytes produce: a. IL-2, IFNγ, IL-12 b. IL-1, IL-7 c. IL-4, IL-5, IL-10, IL-13 d. antibodies 360. Immunosuppressive therapy is applied in: a. anthrax b. autoimmune diseases c. viral diseases d. HIV infection 361. C1q molecule participates in: a. phagocytosis b. B lymphocyte proliferation c. complement activation d. antigen presentation 362. Characteristics of nonspecific immunity include all of the following EXCEPT: a. absence of memory b. nonspecificity c. absence of discrimination d. selectivity 363. B lymphocytes in humans originate in: a. liver b. tonsils c. bone marrow d. spleen 364. Faster rise and higher concentrations of higher-affinity antibodies are characteristics of: a. complement activation b. MHC synthesis c. autoimmune diseases d. secondary immune response 365. B lymphocyte membrane markers are: a) CD3 and CD8 b) CD5 and CD78 c) sIg d) IgE 366. Positive selection in the thymus eliminates: a) T lymphocytes that do not recognize self-MHC products b) auto-reactive clones of T lymphocytes c) CD56+ cells d) macrophages 367. NK cells kill virus-infected cells: a) with the help of T lymphocytes b) in collaboration with complement c) by activating neutrophils d) directly 368. The secretory component of antibodies is a product of: a) plasma cells b) macrophages c) T lymphocytes d) epithelial cells 369. Carriers of specific immunity are: a) NK cells b) neutrophils c) T and B lymphocytes d) all of the above 370. The site on an antibody that binds to an antigen is called: a) epitope b) paratope c) top d) alloantigen 371. The size of the mononuclear infiltrate in tumor tissue is positively correlated with the prognosis of malignant disease: a) yes b) it's irrelevant c) no d) not always 372. The most numerous cells in lymphoreticular infiltrates of tumors are: a) neutrophils b) NK cells c) lymphocytes d) mast cells 373. Which of the following products of malignant cells does NOT modulate the immune response: a) GM-CSF b) M-CSF c) TGF-β d) CO2 374. Which of the following mechanisms does NOT enable tumor cells to evade the immune response: a) absence and/or reduced expression of MHC products b) inadequate presentation of tumor antigens c) synthesis of glucagon d) tolerance to tumor antigens 375. Co-stimulatory molecules include: a) CD4 b) CD3 c) C5a d) CD40 376. Apoptosis of malignant cells can be induced by: a) T lymphocyte b) NK cell c) Antibody d) mononuclear phagocyte 377. TNF (mark the correct answer): a) is a product of Gram-negative bacteria b) is a cytokine c) is a hormone d) never enters circulation 378. Which interleukin modulates the activity of NK cells: a) IL-2 b) IL-5 c) IL-3 d) IL-7 379. Mark the correct statement: a) LAK cells are activated NK cells b) LAK cells are activated macrophages c) LAK cells are activated K cells d) LAK cells are not used in adoptive immunotherapy of malignant diseases 380. LAK cells are generated: a) in vitro, by high doses of IL-2 acting on NK cells b) in vivo, by lymphocyte proliferation c) in vivo, by activation and proliferation of intratumoral NK cells d) in the elderly organism 381. Tumor antigens encoded by viral genomes: a) are specific to the original tumor b) are not specific to just one tumor c) do not exist d) are specific to the virus 382. Cytotoxic CD8+ T lymphocytes: a) recognize tumor antigens in the context of Class II MHC molecules b) recognize specific hydrocarbon tumor antigens c) recognize tumor antigens in the context of Class I MHC molecules d) do not recognize tumor cells 383. The membrane marker of cytotoxic T lymphocytes is: a) CD4 b) CD8 c) sIg d) CD16 384. The mechanism of cytotoxic action of CD8+ T lymphocytes includes: a) nitric oxide b) oxygen free radicals c) IFN-γ d) perforin 385. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes can induce apoptosis of malignant cells: a) yes b) no c) sometimes d) only in metastases 386. Citotoxic T lymphocytes induce apoptosis of malignant cells via: a) IFN-α b) Fas ligand c) nitric oxide d) antibodies 387. Differentiation of pre-cytotoxic into cytotoxic T lymphocytes requires: a) IL-2 b) IL-3 c) accessory action of nurse cells of the thymus d) thymosin, thymopoietin, thymulin 388. IL-12 is significant for the activation of macrophages. a) IL-2 b) IL-12 c) IFN-γ d) PGE2 389. Macrophages express: a) Class I MHC molecules b) Class II MHC molecules c) TCR d) IgG 390. Macrophages can kill tumor cells by: a) TNF-α b) CD28 c) perforin d) granzymes 391. Macrophages recognize tumor antigens: a) in the context of Class I MHC molecules b) in the context of Class II MHC molecules c) via lectin, thrombospondin, and phosphatidylserine receptors d) accidentally 392. Macrophages can phagocytose neoplastic cells: a) no b) it doesn't matter c) only when the malignant cell is tagged with antibodies (ADCC) d) yes 393. Mark the correct statement: a) TAMs are tumor-activated macrophages b) TAMs express high levels of Class II MHC molecules c) TAMs cannot present tumor antigens d) TAMs are hepatocytes 394. TAMs can induce tumor neovascularization: a) no b) yes c) only in secondary foci d) only on Thursdays 395. Non-specific immunotherapy of tumors includes: a) "vaccination" with irradiated tumor cells b) LAK cell therapy c) therapy with activated macrophages d) vaccination with attenuated BCG and Corynebacterium parvum Parasitology 396. Amebic dysentery is: a) a disease of dirty hands b) a heart rhythm disorder c) a complication of syphilis d) an inherited disease 397. The causative agent of amebic dysentery is: a) Shigella b) Entamoeba dysenteriae c) Trypanosoma d) Giardia lamblia 398. Entamoeba dysenteriae is: a) a protozoan b) a bacterium c) a helminth d) a virus 399. Leishmania Donovani is the causative agent of: a) sleeping sickness b) Parkinson's disease c) visceral leishmaniasis d) polio 400. The vector for Leishmania Donovani is: a) Glossina palpalis b) Glossina morsitans c) Triatoma megista d) Phlebotomus 401. Leishmania tropica is the causative agent of: a) cutaneous leishmaniasis b) visceral leishmaniasis c) epilepsy d) syphilis 402. Leishmania is cultured on: a) NNN agar b) blood agar c) endo agar d) tissue culture 403. The vector for Leishmania brasiliensis is: a) Triatoma megista b) Phlebotomus c) Lucilia sericata d) Formica fusca 404. Trypanosoma Gambiense Duton causes: a) sleeping sickness b) scabies c) kala-azar d) uncertainty 405. The vector for Trypanosome Gambiense Duton is: a) Glossina palpalis b) Glossina morsitans c) Triatoma megista d) Phlebotomus 406. The vector for Trypanosome Rhodesiense is: a) Glossina palpalis b) Triatoma megista c) Phlebotomus d) Glossina morsitans 407. The vector for Trypanosome Cruzi is: a) Triatoma megista b) Phlebotomus c) Lucilia sericata d) Formica fusca 408. Trichomoniasis is transmitted by: a) vectors b) coitus c) dirty hands d) kissing 409. Trichomonas vaginalis is cultured on: a) NNN agar b) blood agar c) endo agar d) Löffler's medium 410. Giardia Lamblia can cause: a. hepatitis b. osteoporosis c. psychosis d. pregnancy 411. Plasmodium vivax causes the disease: a. Tertian malaria b. Quartan malaria c. Tropical malaria d. Trypanosomiasis 412. Plasmodium malariae causes the disease: a. Tertian malaria b. Trypanosomiasis c. Tropical malaria d. Quartan malaria 413. Plasmodium falciparum causes the disease: a. Tertian malaria b. Trichomoniasis c. Tropical malaria d. Quartan malaria 414. Malaria is transmitted by mosquitoes of the genus: a. Anopheles b. Phlebotomus c. Culex d. Aedes 415. During tropical malaria, sudden spikes in temperature occur every: a. 24-48 hours b. 72 hours c. 48 hours d. 12 hours 416. During tertian malaria, sudden spikes in temperature occur every: a. 24-48 hours b. 12 hours c. 72 hours d. 48 hours 417. During quartan malaria, sudden spikes in temperature occur every: a. 24-48 hours b. 48 hours c. 72 hours d. 12 hours 418. Malaria diagnosis is made by: a. X-rays b. γ camera c. schizontometry d. detecting parasites in the blood 419. Toxoplasma gondii is: a. a bacterium b. a protozoan c. a helminth d. a virus 420. Diagnosis of toxoplasmosis is made by: a. detecting eggs in stool b. coercion to confess c. ELISA test d. ultrasound 421. Toxoplasma gondii has an affinity for: a. spermatozoa b. erythrocytes c. embryonic cells d. bile ducts 422. Dicrocoelium lanceolatum is: a. a small fluke b. a large fluke c. a medical instrument d. a protozoan 423. Dicrocoelium lanceolatum parasitizes in: a. liver and bile ducts b. prostate c. cerebellum d. a big misconception 424. Fasciola hepatica is: a. a small fluke b. a large fluke c. a place in Brazil d. a protozoan 425. Schistosoma haematobium belongs to: a. cestodes b. trematodes c. protosoa d. nematodes 426. Schistosoma haematobium is a parasite of: a. abdominal vein b. bile ducts c. spinal cord d. cardiac muscle 427. Schistosoma mansoni is a parasite of: a. abdominal vein b. bile ducts c. colon vein d. cardiac muscle 428. Humans are infected with Schistosoma mansoni by: a. dirty hands b. mosquito bite c. larval penetration through the skin d. petting a sick dog 429. Schistosoma japonicum is a parasite of: a. abdominal vein b. bile ducts c. colon vein d. portal vein system 430. Diphyllobothrium latum is: a. a fish tapeworm b. a dog tapeworm c. a pig tapeworm d. not a tapeworm 431. Diphyllobothrium latum is large: a. 10-12 meters b. 18-20 centimeters c. 320-380 millimeters d. 3-5 meters 432. Hymenolepis nana is: a. a fish tapeworm b. a dog tapeworm c. a pig tapeworm d. a child tapeworm 433. Hymenolepis nana is large: a. 18-20 centimeters b. 320-380 millimeters c. 5-8 centimeters d. 3-5 centimeters 434. The intermediate host for Hymenolepis nana is: a. water flea b. black ant c. sheep d. there is no intermediate host 435. Taenia solium is: a. a fish tapeworm b. a dog tapeworm c. a pig tapeworm d. a child tapeworm 436. Taenia solium is large: a) 18-20 centimeters b) 2-8 meters c) 5-8 centimeters d) 3-5 centimeters 437. The intermediate host for Taenia solium is: a) water flea b) black ant c) pig d) cattle 438. The larval form of Taenia solium is: a) Cysticercus cellulosae b) Vesicula proligera c) Cysticercus bovis d) There is no larval form 439. Taenia saginata is: a. a fish tapeworm b. a dog tapeworm c. a beef tapeworm d. a child tapeworm 440. Taenia saginata is large: a) 18-20 centimeters b) 2-8 meters c) 5-8 centimeters d) 4-10 meters 441. The intermediate host for Taenia saginata is: a) water flea b) black ant c) pig d) calf 442. The larval form of Taenia saginata is: a) cysticercus cellulosae b) vesicula proligera c) cysticercus bovis d) There is no larval form 443. Taenia echinococcus is: a) a fish tapeworm b) a dog tapeworm c) a beef tapeworm d) a child tapeworm 444. Taenia echinococcus is large: a) 3-6 millimeters b) 2-8 meters c) 5-8 centimeters d) 4-10 meters 445. The intermediate host for Taenia echinococcus is: a) human b) dog c) pig d) cattle 446. The definitive host for Taenia echinococcus is: a) human b) dog c) pig d) cattle 447. The larval form of Taenia echinococcus is: a) cysticercus cellulosae b) hydatid cyst c) cysticercus bovis d) There is no larval form 448. Ascaris lumbricoides is: a) a fish tapeworm b) a small child worm c) a child worm d) a child tapeworm 449. Enterobius vermicularis is: a) a fish tapeworm b) a small child worm c) a child worm d) a child tapeworm 450. The common name for Enterobius vermicularis is: a) franga b) pundravac c) metilj d) vermox 451. Sarcoptes scabiei hominis is the causative agent of: a) scabies b) chickenpox c) dysentery d) scabies 452. Pediculus capitis is: a) head louse b) pubic louse c) body louse d) not a louse 453. Pediculus vestimenti is: a) head louse b) body louse c) pubic louse d) not a louse 454. Pediculus pubis is: a) head louse b) pubic louse c) body louse d) not a louse 455. Malassezia furfur causes the condition: a) pityriasis versicolor b) trichophyton c) scabies d) measles