JAR Databank Preparation PDF

JAR Databank Preparation 10.1.1.1 (1) An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighboring state. Which freedom of the Air will be exercised ? a) 2nd freedom b) 1st freedom c) 3rd freedom d) 4th freedom 10.1.1.1 (2) The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICA...

JAR Databank Preparation 10.1.1.1 (1) An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighboring state. Which freedom of the Air will be exercised ? a) 2nd freedom b) 1st freedom c) 3rd freedom d) 4th freedom 10.1.1.1 (2) The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes, a) standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states. b) aeronautical standards adopted by all states. c) proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes. d) standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention. 10.1.1.2 (3) The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the : a) Chicago convention 1944 b) Warzaw convention 1929 c) Geneva convention 1948 d) Geneva convention 1936 10.1.1.2 (4) The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was established by the international convention of : a) Chicago b) The Hague c) Warsaw d) Montreal 10.1.1.3 (5) One of the main objectives of ICAO is to : a) develop principles and techniqe for international aviation b) approve the ticket prices set by international airline companies c) approve new internationel airlines with jet aircraft d) approve new international airlines 10.1.1.4 (6) Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption ? a) the Air Navigation Commission b) the Assembly c) the Council d) the Regional Air Navigation meeting 10.1.1.4 (7) The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered: a) binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference b) advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states c) binding for all member states d) binding for all air line companies with international traffic 10.1.2.0 (8) Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO ? a) ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention b) ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections c) ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations d) ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses 10.1.2.0 (9) The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with: a) limitation of the operator¹s responsibility vis-á-vis passenger and goods transported b) the regulation of transportation of dangerous goods c) operator¹s licence for international scheduled aviation d) the security system at airports 10.1.2.0 (10) Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written notification to the depositary governments. The denounciation shall take effect : a) 6 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments b) 3 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments c) 2 months following the date ICAO is informed d) 4 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governements 10.1.2.0 (11) The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has commited or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offense against penal law a) may deliver such person to the competent authorities b) may request such person to disembark c) may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person d) may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members 10.1.2.0 (12) Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by notification addressed a) International Civile Aviation Organisation b) the other Contracting States 1 c) United Nations d) to all States Members of United Nations 10.1.2.0 (13) The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is : a) the convention of Tokyo b) the convention of Paris c) the convention of Rome d) the convention of Chicago 10.1.2.1 (14) ""Cabotage"" refers to: a) domestic air services , b) a national air carrier, c) a flight above territorial waters, d) crop spraying 10.1.2.1 (15) The second freedom of the air is the : a) right to land for a technical stop b) right to overfly without landing c) right to ""cabotage"" traffic, (trans-border traffic). d) right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states. 10.1.2.1 (16) The first freedom of the air is: a) The right to overfly without landing. b) The right to land for a technical stop. c) The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states. d) The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to an other state. 10.1.2.2 (17) The convention which deals with offences againts penal law, is a) the convention of Tokyo b) the convention of Warsaw c) the convention of Rome d) the convention of Madrid 10.1.2.2 (18) The convention of Tokyo applies to damage : a) caused in the territory of a contracting state or in a ship or aircraft registered there in , by an aircraft registered in the territory of another contraction state b) only caused in the territory of a contracting state by an aircraft registered in the territory of another contracting state c) caused in the territory of a contrating state by any aircraft regardless the registration d) the above convention does not deal with this item 10.1.2.4 (19) The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the : a) Warsaw Convention. b) Tokyo Convention. c) Hague Convention. d) Montreal Convention. 10.1.4.0 (20) The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with : a) Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface b) Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods c) Damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the surface d) offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft 10.1.4.0 (21) The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to endure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is : a) the Rome Convention b) the Warsaw Convention c) the Paris Convention d) the Tokyo Convention 10.1.4.0 (22) Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided by : a) the Rome Convention b) the Chicago Convention c) the Warsaw Convention d) the Montreal Convention 10.2.0.0 (23) When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the a) five letter combinations used in the international code of signals b) four letter combinations beginning with Q c) three letters combinations used in the international code of signals d) letters used for ICAO identification documents 10.2.0.0 (24) The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a continuing structural integrity program to ensure the airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific information concerning corrosion prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes : a) over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass b) over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass c) up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass d) up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass 2 10.2.0.0 (25) The loading limitations shall include : a) all limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loadings b) all limiting mass and centres of gravity c) all limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravity d) all limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor loadings 10.3.0.0 (26) The assigment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by : a) the International Civil Aviation Organisation b) the state of registry and accepted by the International Telecommunication Union c) the International Telecommunication Union d) the state of registry 10.3.0.0 (27) The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols included in the radio call signs allocated : a) to the International Civil Aviation Organisation by the International Telecommunication Union b) to the state of registry by the International Civil Aviation Organisation c) to the State of registry by the International Telecommunication Union d) to state of the operator 10.3.0.0 (28) The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by : a) the state of registry or common mark registering authority b) the state of registry only c) the International Civil Aviation Organisation d) the Internationnal Telecommunication Union 10.3.0.0 (29) When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example a) TTT b) FFF c) RCC d) LLL 10.3.0.0 (30) When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example a) PAN b) RCC c) LLL d) DDD 10.3.0.0 (31) When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example a) XXX b) DDD c) RCC d) LLL 10.3.0.0 (32) The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be a) at least 50 centimetres b) at least between 40 centimetres and 50 centimetres c) at least 60 centimetres d) at least 75 centimetres 10.3.0.0 (33) The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be a) at least 30 centimetres b) at least 40 centimetres c) at least 20 centimetres d) at least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres 10.4.0.0 (34) The profeciency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the previous profeciency check was the 30th of June. The period of the new profeciency check can be and can't exceed: a) 31th of December the same year b) 15th of October the same year c) 30th of October the same year d) 30th of April the following year 10.4.0.0 (35) The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating in an area distant from designated medical examination facilities may be deferred at the discretion of the licence authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed: a) A single period of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations. b) Two consecutive periods each of three month in the case a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations. c) A single period of three month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations. d) Two consecutive periods each of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations. 10.4.0.0 (36) When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state, the validity of the authorization: a) Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence. b) Depends on the regulations of the contracting sate which renders valid the licence. c) Shall not extend beyond one year for ATPL and PCL. d) Is only considered for PPL. 3 10.4.0.0 (37) Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for a crew licence to have international validity? a) Annex 1 b) Annex 2 c) Annex 3 d) Annex 4 a) After 21 days of consecutive ""illness"" b) as soon as possible if the illness is expected to last more than 21days c) after one calendar month of consecutive illness d) if still not fit to fly when his/her current medical certificate expires 10.4.0.0 (38) You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL a) With a theorical CPL examination plus flight instructor rating b) With an ATPL c) With a PPL plus flight instructor rating d) With a CPL 10.4.0.0 (44) The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than : a) 50 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence b) 40 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence c) 100 hours of flying time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence d) 60 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence 10.4.0.0 (39) The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is : a) 1 year b) 6 months c) 5 years d) 2 years 10.4.0.0 (45) The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be less than : a) 18 years of age b) 21 years of age c) 17 years of age d) 16 years of age 10.4.0.0 (40) The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is : a) 17 years b) 16 years c) 18 years d) 21 years 10.4.0.0 (46) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold a) a current class I medical assessment b) a current class II medical assessment c) a current class III medical assessment d) a current class medical assessment as prescribed by the state issuing the licence 10.4.0.0 (41) To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is : a) 21 and 59 years b) 16 and 60 years c) 17 and 59 years d) 18 and 60 years 10.4.0.0 (47) Multi-engine / inoperative or simulated inoperative. a) Land/inactive. b) Amphibious/inactive or simulated inactive. c) Single-engine/inactive. d) 1999-06-08 0:00 10.4.0.0 (42) The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the Authority of any illness which they are suffering which involves incapacity to undertake those functions to which the licence relates throughout a period of a certain number of days or more. The number of days is : a) 21 b) 30 c) 60 d) 90 10.4.0.0 (43) If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that licence due to illness, the authority must be informed : 10.4.0.0 (48) The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall be : a) to act as pilot-in command in any aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transportation b) to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane engaged in commercial air transportation c) to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane certificate for single pilot operation other than in commercial air transportation d) none of the answers are correct 10.4.0.0 (49) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less than ........ hours of cross country flight time as pilot in command including a cross country flight totalling not less than ........ km (-NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and distance 4 referred are : a) 20 hours and 540 km (300NM) b) 10 hours and 270 km (150 NM) c) 15 hours and 540 km (300NM) d) 20 hours and 270 km (150NM) 10.4.0.0 (50) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than : a) 20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM) b) 10 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM) c) 25 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM) d) 15 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM) 10.4.0.0 (51) An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours, either as pilot in command or made up by not less than ...... hours as pilot-in-command and the additional flight time as copilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and functions of a pilot in command provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated above hours are respectively : a) 250 hours and 100 hours b) 200 hours and 75 hours c) 200 hours and 100 hours d) 150 hours and 75 hours 10.4.0.0 (52) The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less than ...... hours shall be as pilot-in command or co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot in command, the duties and functions of a pilot in command, provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The state above hours are respectively : a) 200 hours and 100 hours b) 250 hours and 10 hours c) 150 hours and 75 hours d) 200 hours and 75 hours 10.4.0.0 (53) An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than : a) 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time. b) 100 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours of instrument ground time c) 150 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 75 hours of instrument ground time. d) 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20 hours of instrument ground time. 10.4.0.0 (54) An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than : a) 100 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot b) 100 hours of night flight only as pilot in command c) 75 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot d) 75 hours of night time only as pilot in command 10.4.0.0 (55) The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under instruction in a synthetic flight trainer which it has approved, is acceptable as part of the total flight time of 1 500 hours. Credit for such experience shall be limited to a maximum of : a) 100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer b) 100 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a basic instrument flight trainer c) 100 hours of which not more than 15 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer d) 75 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer 10.4.0.0 (56) An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane for the issue of an instrument rating, shall have completed ..... hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories acceptable to the licensing Authority, of which not less than ..... hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours, are respectively a) 50 hours and 10 hours b) 40 hours and 10 hours c) 40 hours and 15 hours d) 50 hours and 15 hours 10.4.0.0 (57) In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the licensing authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed : a) A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial operations. b) Two consecutive periods each of three months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial operations c) A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations. d) in the case of a private pilot, a single period of 12 months 10.4.0.0 (58) The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date : a) the medical assessment is issued b) the licence is issued or validated c) the licence is issued or renewed d) the licence is delivered to the pilot 5 10.4.0.0 (59) When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state the validity of the authorization a) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence b) shall not extend more than 15 days from the date of the licence c) the Contracting state rendering a licence valid may extend the date of the validity at its own discretion d) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence other than for use in private flights 10.4.0.0 (60) When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences aeroplane and helicopter have passed their 40th birthday the medical examination shall be reduced from : a) 12 months to 6 months b) 12 months to 3 months c) 24 months to 12 months d) none of the answers are correct 10.4.0.0 (61) Type ratings shall be established a) for any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority b) only aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots c) only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots and each type of helicopter d) all the answers are correct 10.4.0.0 (62) The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit : a) in full with his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence b) in full with his flight but not more than 300 hours towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence c) the flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence in accordance with the requirements of the licensing authority d) 50% of his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence 10.4.0.0 (63) For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night a) 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command b) 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings either as pilot in command or as co-pilot c) 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command d) 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command 10.4.0.0 (64) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than : a) 200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved training as a pilot of aeroplanes b) 200 hours of flight time and 80 hours as pilot in command c) 200 hours of flight time and 70 hours as pilot in command d) 150 hours of flight time and 100 hours as pilot in command 10.4.0.0 (65) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than : a) 10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time b) 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time. c) 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 10 hours may be instrument ground time d) 15 hours of instrument time of which not more than 5 hours as pilot in command 10.4.0.0 (66) The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is : a) Annex 1 b) Annex 2 c) Annex 11 d) Annex 12 10.4.0.0 (67) At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid. a) At the diiscretion of the Authority of the Member State concerned for a period not exceeding the period validity of basic licence b) At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year c) At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid. d) 1998-11-27 0:00 10.4.0.0 (68) More than 12 hours a) More than 12 days b) More than one week c) Any period d) 1998-11-30 0:00 10.4.0.0 (69) According to JAR-FCL, Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid for a) 60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 50, 12 months until age of 65 and 6 months thereafter b) 60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter c) 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter d) 24 months until age of 40, 12 months until age of 60 and 6 months thereafter 6 10.4.0.0 (70) According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed an completed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by a JAA Member State at least: a) 150 hours of flight time b) 200 hours of flight time c) 150 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time d) 200 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time 10.4.0.0 (71) According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for : a) one year b) two years c) The period of validity of the licence. d) Indefinitely 10.4.0.0 (72) According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL (A)including a night qualification or CPL(A) and shall have completed at least 50 hours : a) Cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes. b) Cross country flight time as pilot of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes. c) Instructional flight time as studen-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes. d) Instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes. 10.4.0.0 (73) According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for single pilots aeroplanes not requiring a type rating, including : a) All self.-sustaining gliders. b) All types of single-pilot, single-engine aeroplanes fitted with a turbojet engine. c) Microlights having fixed wings and moveable aerodynamic control surfaces acting in all three dimensions. d) Any other type of aeroplane if considered necessary. c) The application is received by the Authority. d) Of the last medical certificate 10.4.0.0 (76) According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for : a) Two years b) One year c) Two years up to age 40 years then one year thereafter. d) Five years after licence issuie. 10.5.0.0 (77) Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are CORRECT? a) Service provided : Traffic Information as far as practical, ATC Clearance : not required , b) Service provided : Air Traffic Control Service, ATC Clearance : required , c) Service provided : Traffic Information as far as practical, ATC Clearance : required , d) Service provided : Air Traffic Control Service, ATC Clearance : not required 10.5.1.0 (78) Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? a) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights b) Switching on and off three times the landing lights c) Switching on and off four times the landing lights d) Switching on and off four times the navigation lights 10.5.1.0 (79) If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing ? a) Descend b) Let down c) You land d) Descend for landing 10.4.0.0 (74) According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has : a) Handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training b) Handling characteristics that require the use of more than one crew member c) A certificate of airworthiness issued by a non-member state. d) A certificate of airworthiness issued by the manufacturer. 10.5.1.0 (80) If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions received ? a) CAN NOT b) CAN NOT COMPLY c) UNABLE TO COMPLY d) NOT POSSIBLE 10.4.0.0 (75) According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings will be one year from the date : a) Of issue b) Of the skill test 10.5.1.0 (81) A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means: a) The airport is unsafe, do not land b) The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling 7 c) Give way to other aircraft in emergency d) Continue circling and wait for further instructions 10.5.1.0 (82) On aerodromes aircraft taxying on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to: a) aircraft taking off or about to take off b) other vehicles and pedestrians c) other converging aircraft d) all vehicles moving on the apron except the ""follow me"" vehicle 10.5.1.0 (83) A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means: a) The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed. b) An area unit for the movement of aircraft. c) Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways. d) Need special precautions while approaching for landing. 10.5.1.0 (84) Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight can not enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than : a) 1 500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km b) 1 000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km c) 2 000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km d) 1 000 feet or visibility is less than 8 km 10.5.1.0 (85) The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is: a) The commander b) The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled airspace c) The aircraft owner d) The airliner operator 10.5.1.0 (86) Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land ? a) Emergency aircraft b) Military aircraft c) VIP (Head of state) aircraft d) Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention 10.5.1.0 (87) An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet MSL and 9 000 feet MSL outside controlled airspace under VFR, must remain on principle at least: a) 1 500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility. b) 1500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility. c) Clear of clouds and in sight of the surface, 8 km visibility. d) 2 000 feet horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility. 10.5.1.0 (88) The VMC minima for an airspace classified as ""B"" above 10 000 feet MSL are : a) clear of clouds, 8 km visibility b) 1 mile horizontaly and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds, 5 km visibility c) 2 000 metres horizontaly, 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds, 8 km visibility d) 1 nautical mile horizontaly and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds, 8 km visibility 10.5.1.0 (89) The VMC minima for an airspace classified as ""G"" above 10 000 feet MSL are : a) 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility. b) 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds, 5 km visibility c) 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility d) 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility 10.5.1.0 (90) A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus: a) 5% b) 3% c) 2% d) 10% 10.5.1.0 (91) An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the following code on mode ""A"" a) 7 700 b) 7 500 c) 7 600 d) 7 000 10.5.1.0 (92) An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies: a) 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz b) 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz c) 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz d) 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz 10.5.1.0 (93) Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft ""YOU MAY PROCEED"" ? a) Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft. b) Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft. c) Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern. d) Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights. 10.5.1.0 (94) Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by 8 an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace? a) 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated position of the aircraft b) 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of course c) 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course d) 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course 10.5.1.0 (100) A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means : a) Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being. b) Come back and land. c) Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit. d) Dangerous airfield. Do not land. 10.5.1.0 (95) Aircraft ""A"" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft ""B"" with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right of way? a) Aircraft ""B"" if ""A"" is on its left b) Aircraft ""A"" if ""B"" is on its right c) Aircraft ""A"" regardless of the direction which ""B"" is approaching d) Aircraft ""B"" regardless of the direction ""A"" is approaching 10.5.1.0 (101) Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic advisory service: a) Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes made thereto to the ATS unit providing that service. b) Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan but changes made thereto are not necessary to be notified. c) need to file a flight plan d) may file a flight plan under pilot's discretion. 10.5.1.0 (96) Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track? a) Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable b) Inform the ATC unit immediately c) If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions d) Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions 10.5.1.0 (97) While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken? a) The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances permit b) Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan c) Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours d) Squawk 7700 10.5.1.0 (98) A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals: a) Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body , then clench fist b) Arms down , palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards. c) Crossing arms extended above his head d) Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground 10.5.1.0 (99) An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radiocommunications. The procedure to be followed is: a) land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of landing b) adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination c) continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed flight plan. d) descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations 10.5.1.0 (102) When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flightplan, ATC has to be informed in case : a) the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flightplan. b) of an emergency. c) the estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes. d) it is a deviation from the track. 10.5.1.0 (103) Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight : a) at least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position b) at least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position c) at least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position d) at least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position 10.5.1.0 (104) An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light: a) on the ground when the engines are running b) outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed, c) while taxiing, but not when it is being towed, d) outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight-period this is not applicable, 10.5.1.0 (105) The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that : a) taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways , b) gliderflying is performed outside the landing area, c) landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only, d) this aerodrome is using parallel runways 10.5.1.0 (106) An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to 9 communicate with ATS shall try to: a) Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290 b) Fly the emergency triangle c) Declare an emergency d) As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimize the difference between cabin pressure and outside pressure 10.5.1.0 (107) An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than : a) 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter b) 50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter c) 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter d) 80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter 10.5.1.0 (108) VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are : a) 8 km visibility, and clear of clouds , b) 5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds , c) 8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds , d) No minima, VFR flights are not permitted 10.5.1.0 (109) During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will : a) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC , b) Select A7600 and continue according currenct flight plan to destination , c) Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight , d) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC 10.5.1.0 (110) Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraftThe signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC instructionsYou should : a) follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft. b) follow ATC instructions. c) request ATC for other instructions. d) select code A7500 on your transponder. ft margin above the following two levels: a) 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 000ft AGL. b) 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 500 ft AGL. c) FL 30 or 100 ft AGL. d) FL 30 or 1 500 ft AGL. 10.5.1.0 (113) An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to: a) Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290 b) Fly the emergency triangle c) Declare an emergency d) As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimize the difference between cabin pressure and outside pressure 10.5.1.0 (114) While taxying an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower : series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft : a) must vacate the landing area in use. b) must stop. c) must return to its point of departure. d) may continue to taxi to the take-off area. 10.5.1.0 (115) While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal : a series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft : a) may continue to taxy towards the take-off area. b) must stop. c) must return to its point of departure. d) is cleared for take-off. 10.5.1.0 (116) An aircraft manoeuvering in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must : a) not land because the airport is not available for landing. b) give way to another aircraft. c) return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course. d) not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions. 10.5.1.0 (111) Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft : a) must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time. b) is cleared to land. c) must land immediately and clear the landing area. d) must give way to another aircraft. 10.6.2.0 (117) What does the abbreviation OIS mean? a) Obstacle identification surface. b) Obstacle in surface. c) Obstacle identification slope. d) Obstruction in surface. 10.5.1.0 (112) Given:AGL = above ground levelAMSL = above mean sea levelFL = flight levelwithin uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500 10.6.2.0 (118) What does the abbreviation DER mean? a) Depature end of runway. 10 b) Distance end of route. c) Departure end of route. d) Distance end of runway. 10.6.2.0 (119) The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of : a) 25 NM b) 10 NM c) 15 NM d) 30 NM 10.6.3.0 (120) A four-engine aeroplane is about to take-off from an airport where poor weather conditions are prevailing. The closest accessible aerodrome is three flying hours away.The take-off minima to be observed at departure airfield are: a) ceiling greater or equal to DH/MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure b) VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing on the runway to be used c) ceiling greater or equal to DH or MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure to be envisaged with one engine out d) VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing, and ceiling greater or equal to ceiling required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure 10.6.3.0 (121) If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected: a) To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace. b) To request from ATC different heading for wind correction. c) To ignore the wind and proceed on an heading equal to the track. d) To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind correction. 10.6.3.0 (122) In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument departure procedure? a) The terrain surrounding the airport. b) ATC requirements. c) Navigation aids. d) Airspace restrictions. 10.6.3.0 (123) In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals: a) 0 ft. b) 3.3 % gradient. c) 35 ft. d) 0.8 % gradient. 10.6.3.0 (124) In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the aligment of the runway centre line within: a) 15°. b) 30°. c) 45°. d) 12.5°. 10.6.3.0 (125) Turning departures provide track guidance within : a) 10 Km b) 5 Km c) 15 Km d) 20 Km 10.6.3.0 (126) We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial departure track is within : a) 15° of the alignment of the runway centre-line b) 5° of the alignment of the runway centre-line c) 10° of the alignment of the runway centre-line d) 25° of the alignment of the runway centre-line 10.6.4.0 (127) Were an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure may include a dead reckoning segment from a fix to the localizer. The DR track will: a) Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 10 NM in length. b) Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 5 NM in length. c) Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 5 NM in length. d) Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 10 NM in length. 10.6.4.0 (128) Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach procedure? a) 150m (492 ft). b) 300m (984 ft). c) 450m (1476 ft). d) 600m (1968 ft). 10.6.4.0 (129) In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called: a) Final approach segment. b) Initial approach segment. c) Intermediate approach segment. d) Arrival segment. 10.6.4.0 (130) In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the: a) FAP. b) FAF. 11 c) MAP. d) IF. 10.6.4.0 (131) The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with the assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of: a) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure, approach or missed approach instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight tracks). b) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, as well as circle-to-land, and 15° for missed approach procedures. c) The bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate for all procedures with airspeed limitation related to aeroplane categories. d) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, 25° for circling-to-land with prescribed flight tracks and 15° for missed approach procedures. 10.6.4.0 (132) Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA? a) When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight b) When the aircraft has the control tower in sight c) When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet d) When seems possible to land 10.6.4.0 (133) A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a: a) Base turn b) Procedure turn c) Reversal procedure d) Race track 10.6.4.0 (134) If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descend shall be made so as to : a) pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude. b) follow approximately 50 feet above the nominal glide path. c) pass the fix at the rate of descent of 500 feet/min, which is obligatory. d) leave the intermediate approach altitude, step by step until reaching the MAPt. 10.6.4.0 (135) In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to: a) Mean sea level. b) Aeredrome reference point. c) Relevant runway threshold. d) Aerodrome elevation. 10.6.4.0 (136) A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a : a) Procedure turn. b) Base turn. c) Race track. d) Reversal track. 10.6.4.0 (137) You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not be made until :1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight2. visual reference has been established and can be maintained 3. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be madeThe combination regrouping all the correct answers is : a) 1, 2, 3. b) 1, 2. c) 2, 3. d) 1, 3. 10.6.4.0 (138) During circling-to-land ( with or without prescribed flight tracks), the maximum allowed airspeed for a Cat B aeroplane, in order to remain within the protection envelope, is: a) 135 kt b) 120 kt c) 125 kt d) 150 kt 10.6.4.0 (139) In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to: a) 1 minute 30 seconds. b) 1 minute. c) 2 minutes. d) 3 minutes. 10.6.4.0 (140) How many separate segments has an instrument approach procedure. a) Up to 5. b) 3. c) 4. d) Up to 4. 10.6.4.0 (141) Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure commence? a) At the IAF. b) At the IF. c) At the FAF. d) At the final en-route fix. 12 10.6.4.0 (142) Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure? a) At least 300m (984 ft). b) 150m (492 ft). c) 300m (984 ft). d) At least 150m (492 ft). 10.6.4.0 (143) In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of turn for categories A and B aircraft for: a) 1 minute. b) 1 minute 15 seconds. c) 1minute 30 seconds. d) 2 minutes. 10.6.4.0 (144) In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of the turn for categories C, D, E aircraft for: a) 1 minute 15 seconds. b) 1 minute. c) 1 minute 30 seconds. d) 2 minutes. 10.6.4.0 (145) In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is called: a) Shuttle. b) Based turn. c) Racetrack pattern. d) Procedure turn. 10.6.4.0 (146) In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from: a) 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft). b) 300m (984 ft) to 600m (1968 ft). c) 150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft). d) 150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft). 10.6.4.0 (147) In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centreline, after being established on track, more than: a) Half a scale deflection. b) One scale deflection. c) A quarter of scale deflection. d) One and a half of scale deflection. 10.6.4.0 (148) In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values are based among other standard conditions, on a vertical distance between the flight paths of the wheels and glide path antenna, not greater than: a) 6m. b) 3m. c) 9m. d) 12m. 10.6.4.0 (149) Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure? a) Initial, intermediate and final. b) Arrival, initial, intermediate and final. c) Arrival, intermediate and final. d) Initial and final. 10.6.4.0 (150) Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of: a) 2.5%. b) 0.8%. c) 3.3%. d) 5%. 10.6.4.0 (151) Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end? a) At the point where the climb is established. b) At the missed approach point. c) At the first point where 50m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained. d) At the point where a new approach, holding or return to en-route flight is initiated. 10.6.4.0 (152) The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is: a) Visual manoeuvring (circling). b) Visual approach. c) Contact approach. d) Aerodrome traffic pattern. 10.6.4.0 (153) It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final approach and missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the published procedure: a) Prohibits circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists. b) Permits circling only in VMC. c) Recommends not to perform circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists. d) Prohibits the circling approach to the affected runway. 10.6.4.0 (154) When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined: 13 a) For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them. b) Only for categories A and B aircraft. c) Only for categories C, D and E aircraft. d) For all categories of aircraft, and it is the same for all of them. c) the pilot-in-command , d) the ""flight-operations"" of the company 10.6.4.0 (155) A circling approach is: a) A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight. b) A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC. c) A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring. d) A contact flight manoeuvre. 10.6.4.0 (161) On a non-precision approach a so-called ""straight-in-approach"" is considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is : a) 30 degrees or less b) 40 degrees or less c) 20 degrees or less d) 10 degrees or less 10.6.4.0 (156) If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the: a) Landing runway. b) MAP. c) FAF. d) Final missed approach track. 10.6.4.0 (162) Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance, is : a) 6,5%. b) 5%. c) 7%. d) 8%. 10.6.4.0 (157) If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg of a circling manoeuvre, what actions should be taken ? a) Initiate a missed approach b) Turn 90 degrees towards the runway and wait for visual conctact c) If you have other visual cues, continue with ground contact d) Turn towards the inner marker for the runway in use, maintaining circling alitude 10.6.4.0 (163) The primary area of an instrument approach segment is : a) A defined are symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which full obstacle clearance is provided. b) the most critical part of the segment where the minimum altitude should be kept very carefully, c) the first part of the segment , d) the outside part of the segment where the obstacle clearance increases from o ft to the appropriate minimum 10.6.4.0 (158) What action should be taken if contact is los with the aerodrome on the down wind leg ? a) Initiate a missed approach b) Descend to OCL/ACH and in the hope that the visibility is better at a lower altitude c) Maintain your circling altitude and turn towards the aerodrome d) Request an amended clearance 10.6.4.0 (159) Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the centre line more than : a) half scale deflection of the localizer indicator. b) full scale deflection of the localizer indicator. c) half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator and horizontal 35 ° off the centerline. d) full scale deflection of the localizer indicator and half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator. 10.6.4.0 (160) Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approavh procedure? a) the state b) the operator 10.6.4.0 (164) In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial approach segment provides at least : a) 984 ft b) 1476 ft c) 492 ft d) decreasing from 984 to 492 ft 10.6.4.0 (165) During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) of the initial approach segment primary area is equal to : a) 150 m (492 ft) b) 300 m (984 ft) c) 210 m (690 ft) d) 120 m (394 ft) 10.6.4.0 (166) During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is : a) 30 m (98 ft) b) 50 m (164 ft) 14 c) 90 m (295 ft) d) 120 m (384 ft) 10.6.4.0 (167) During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is : a) 30 m (98 ft) b) 50 m (164 ft) c) 90 m (295 ft) d) 120 m (384 ft) 10.6.4.0 (168) During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the final phase of this missed approach is : a) 50 m (164 ft) b) 30 m (98 ft) c) 90 m (295 ft) d) 120 m (384 ft) 10.6.4.0 (169) Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of: a) 25 NM b) 20 NM c) 10 NM d) 5 NM 10.6.4.0 (170) The width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is : a) ± 5 NM b) ± 10 NM c) ± 12.5 NM d) ± 2.5 NM 10.6.4.0 (171) In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below: a) the OCH b) 200 ft c) 350 ft d) 400 ft 10.6.4.0 (172) For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than : a) 200 ft b) 250 ft c) 150 ft d) 100 ft 10.6.4.0 (173) A ""precision approach"" is a direct instrument approach... a) using bearing, elevation and distance information. b) using at least one source of bearing information and one source of elevation or distance information. c) using bearing, elevation and distance information, providing the pilot uses a flight director or an autopilot certified to a height below 200 ft. d) carried out by a crew of at least two pilots trained with a specific working method. 10.6.4.0 (174) Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC charts are based on a minimum climb gradient of: a) 2.5% b) 2% c) 5% d) 3.3% 10.6.5.0 (175) What will be your action if you can not comply with a standard holding pattern? a) inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance. b) a non-standard holding pattern is permitted. c) it is permitted to deviate from the prescribed holding pattern at pilots discretion. d) Follow the radio communication failure procedure. 10.6.5.0 (176) In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a : a) rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser bank. b) rate of 3°per second. c) maximum bank angle of 25°. d) rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 20°, which ever requires the lesser bank. 10.6.5.0 (177) Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum speed ? a) 230 kt IAS. b) 230 kt TAS. c) 240 kt IAS. d) 240 kt TAS. 10.6.5.0 (178) Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be made into which direction? a) To the right. b) To the left. c) First right and then to the left. d) Teardrop to the left and then to the right. 10.6.5.0 (179) What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140? a) 1 minute b) 2 minutes 15 c) 1,5 minutes d) 30 secondes 10.6.5.0 (180) You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published holding procedure is: all turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound MC 052°. You are approaching the fix on an inbound Magnetic Track 232°. Select the available entry procedure. a) Either ""off set"" or ""parallel"". b) Off set. c) Parallel. d) Direct. 10.6.5.0 (181) What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140? a) 1 minute 30 seconds. b) 1 minute. c) 2 minutes. d) 2 minutes 30 seconds. 10.6.5.0 (182) In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to: a) Heading. b) Course. c) Bearing. d) Track. 10.6.5.0 (183) Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries of: a) 5°. b) 10°. c) 15°. d) 20°. 10.6.5.0 (184) How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the buffer area? a) 5 NM. b) 3 NM. c) 5 km. d) 3 km. 10.6.5.0 (185) In a standard holding pattern turns are made :