Lecture Midterm Exam PDF

1. Which of the following types of glucose catabolism is utilized in the winemaking industry? a. Aerobic respiration b. Anaerobic respiration c. Fermentation d. Oxidative phosphorylation e. All of the above 2. Which of the following is NOT an effective means of ster...

1. Which of the following types of glucose catabolism is utilized in the winemaking industry? a. Aerobic respiration b. Anaerobic respiration c. Fermentation d. Oxidative phosphorylation e. All of the above 2. Which of the following is NOT an effective means of sterilization? a. Gamma radiation b. Incineration c. Lyophilization d. Autoclaving e. Ultraviolet radiation 3. The organism that releases penicillin is amongst which of the following categories of microorganisms? a. Fungi b. Algae c. Viruses d. Bacteria e. Parasites 4. During which phase of the growth curve, bacteria are most susceptible to the action of penicillin. a. Stationary phase b. Lag phase c. Log phase d. Decline phase e. Both A and B 5. Which of the following represent the most commonly used autoclaving conditions in the lab? a. 121, 15 psi, 15 min b. 100, 15 psi, 15 min  c. 121, 20 psi, 15 min d. 100, 20 psi, 20 min e. 180, 15 psi, 30 min 6. Milk, which has been pasteurized by this method, has the longest shelf life; a. Batch method b. Ultra-high temperature c. Flash pasteurization d. Boiling method e. None of the above 7. Which of the following is commonly used to disinfect air? a. UV light b. Electron beams c. Gamma radiation d. Ethylene oxide e. Toxic gasses 8. Addition of a drop of hydrogen peroxide onto a colony of bacteria grown in petri plates resulted in generation of gas bubbles in the form of foam. Which enzyme of those bacteria generated the formation of the gas bubbles? a. Superoxide dismutase b. Catalase c. Peroxidase d. Protease e. Both A and B 9. Which of the following is the specific target molecule to which beta lactam drug (penicillin) binds to in the cell wall of bacteria? a. It binds to the cross-linked peptidoglycan b. It binds to peptides of peptidoglycan subunit c. It binds to newly synthesized peptidoglycan subunits d. It binds to newly synthesized lipopolysaccharide subunits e. It binds to the enzymes that cross-link peptidoglycan subunits 10. Select the incorrect statement about semisynthetic drugs a. They are unstable (deactivated) in acidic environments b. They are more readily absorbed  c. They are less susceptible to deactivation d. They are more effective against drug resistant bacteria e. They are prepared in the laboratory by scientists 11. Basic molecular structure of all of the following components is the same in prokaryotes and eukaryotes except for this structure, which is smaller in prokaryotes a. DNA b. RNA c. Ribosomes d. Nucleotide bases e. Cytoplasmic membrane 12. Select the correct statement regarding the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) a. It is technique to make RNA from DNA in vitro (outside of cell) b. It is a technique to insert genes into bacterial plasmids c. It is a technique to make specific cuts into DNA d. It is a technique to specifically kill cancer cells in patients e. It is a technique to make many copies of DNA in vitro using small amount of DNA sample 13. The process of fermentation would be considered as: a. Catabolic b. Exergonic c. Anabolic d. Endergonic e. Both A and B 14. Which of the following nucleotide base pairing within DNA or RNA is incorrect? a. Adenine-Guanine b. Adenine-Thymine c. Guanine-Cytosine d. Adenine-Uracil e. All of the above are correct base pairing 15. All of the following antibiotics are -cidal except: a. Vancomycin b. Erythromycin  c. Ciprofloxacin d. Polymyxin e. Cephalosporins 16. Site in bacteria where electron transport chain for synthesis of ATP is located: a. Outer membrane b. Cell wall c. Cytoplasmic membrane d. Ribosomes e. None of the above 17. Assuming that the random rate of mutation in bacteria is 1 in 10 million, what would the rate of mutation be, if bacteria are exposed to a mutagen that increases the rate of mutation by 1000 times? a. 1 in 1,000 b. 1 in 10,000 c. 1 in 100,000 d. 1 in 1000,000 e. 1 in 10,000,000 18. In genetic engineering, which of the following enzymes are used to cut DNA at specific sites? a. DNA ligase b. DNA polymerase c. Restriction endonuclease d. Reverse transcriptase RNA polymerase e. RNA polymerase 19. Round shaped bacteria that appear as purple clumps after gram staining are: a. Streptococci b. Staphylococci c. Diplococci d. Spirochetes e. Streptobacilli 20. Which of the following methods is the most effective in destroying bacterial endospores on surgical equipment? a. Soaking in detergents  b. Pasteurization c. Boiling d. Autoclaving e. All of the above 21. Which of the following prokaryotic cells possess an outer membrane? a. Gram-positive bacteria b. Gram-negative bacteria c. All bacteria d. Archaea e. All prokaryotes 22. Seven laboratory test tubes containing 1 ml of a nutrient broth were inoculated with the same amount of bacterial culture. After that, quantities of 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, 128 micrograms of Antibiotic X were placed in tubes 1 through 7 respectively. After 24 hours of incubation, tubes 1 through 4 showed bacterial growth, but tubes 5, 6, 7 had no bacterial growth. What is the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) of antibiotic X? a. 8 micrograms/ml b. 16 micrograms/ml c. 32 micrograms/ml d. 64 micrograms/ml e. 128 micrograms/ml 23. Using a microscope, you observe an amoeba moving toward a food source. This is an example of: a. Reproduction b. Adherence c. Chemotaxis d. Growth e. Metabolism 24. Presence of this structure in spiral shaped bacteria (spirochetes) gives them penetrating moving power into the tissues. a. Flagella b. Axial filament c. Fimbriae  d. Capsule e. Cell wall 25. Which of the following organelles is the site for production of most ATPs in eukaryotic cells? a. Lysosome b. Golgi body c. Mitochondria d. Smooth E.R. e. Nucleus 26. Which of the following bacterial cell structures plays an important role in the formation of biofilms? a. Flagella b. Peptidoglycan c. Axial filaments d. Capsule (slime layer) e. Pilus (fimbriae) 27. Which of the following represent mechanism(s) by which different species of bacteria exchange portions of their DNA? a. Transformation b. Conjugation c. Transduction d. Transposons e. All of the above 28. Which one of the following structures is NOT present in gram-positive bacteria? a. Peptidoglycan b. Cytoplasmic membrane c. Plasmids d. Lipopolysaccharide e. Ribosomes 29. From left to right, which of the following sequences of organisms are in the right order from the largest to the smallest size? a. Bacteria-virus-worm-protozoa b. Virus-bacteria-worm-protozoa c. Worm-protozoa-bacteria-virus  d. Protozoa-worm-bacteria-virus e. Worm-protozoa-virus-bacteria 30. How many nanometers (nm) is a microbe that is 2 micrometers long? a. 0.2 b. 20 c. 200 d. 2,000 e. 20,000 31. Reverse transcriptase enzyme inhibitor category of drugs which are used for treatment of HIV are safe to be used in human because: a. Reverse transcriptase in human cells are quite different than the one in virus b. Reverse transcriptase of human cells and viral cells are very similar c. Human cells do not have reverse transcriptase d. Viral cells use host cell’s reverse transcriptase e. None of the above are correct 32. Which of the following statements about the zone of inhibition is FALSE? a. It indicates the efficacy of an antibiotic against an organism b. The larger the zone, the more resistant the organism is c. It is a clearing zone with no growth d. It is a result of diffusion of the drug out of the paper disk e. It is measured as a diameter 33. The drug which inhibits the synthesis of ergosterol, is used for the treatment of fungal and some parasitic diseases in human a. Azoles b. Erythromycin c. Penicillin d. Vancomycin e. Polymyxin 34. Which of the following cell wall antibiotics is used exclusively for the treatment of Mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB) infections? a. Vancomycin  b. Methicillin c. Isoniazid d. Tetracycline e. Erythromycin 35. Which of the following scientists discovered penicillin? a. Paul Ehrlich b. Robert Koch c. Howard Florey d. Louis Pasteur e. Alexander Fleming 36. Which of the following groups of drugs can become incorporated into the bones and teeth of a developing fetus? a. Beta-lactams b. Aminoglycosides c. Quinolones d. Tetracyclines e. Sulfonamides 37. In which of the following categories of microorganisms, transcription and translation are couples (occurs at the same time) a. Fungi b. Worms c. Protozoa d. Yeast e. Bacteria 38. Which of the following antibacterial drugs have the broadest spectrum of action: a. Penicillin b. Vancomycin c. Erythromycin d. Polymyxin e. Isoniazid 39. Which of the following infectious agents are most resistant to the action of antimicrobial disinfectants? a. Mycobacteria b. Protozoa cysts c. Prion proteins d. Bacterial endospores e. Fungal spores 40. Lowest temperature that kills all bacterial cells in a broth culture in 10 min is called a. Thermal death point b. Reduction temperature c. Decimal reduction point d. Thermal death time e. Bactericidal point 41. Streptococci growing on blood agar and causing complete hemolysis of the red blood cells are called: a. Alpha-hemolytic streptococci b. Beta-hemolytic streptococci c. Gamma-hemolytic streptococci d. Delta-hemolytic streptococci e. None of the above 42. A toxic form of the O2 molecule that has an extra electron on its shell is called a. Singlet oxygen b. Peroxide anion c. Hydroxyl radical d. Superoxide anion e. Hydrogen peroxide 43. Alcohols are used for a. Disinfection b. Sterilization c. Antisepsis d. Both A and C e. All of the above 44. Vials of penicillin are available in 2 milliliter suspensions of 100mg/ml. You are asked to inject 25 mg of penicillin to a patient intramuscularly. What volume of the suspension in the vial would you give to the patient? a. 0.125 ml b. 0.25 ml c. 0.5 ml d. 1 ml e. 2 ml 45. Inserting a human gene into bacteria, which produce of that gene, is an example of a. Etiology b. Recombinant DNA technology c. Molecular immunology d. Microbial genetics e. Gene therapy 46. The liquid part of the blood that contains fibrinogens is called: a. Plasma b. Serum c. Formed elements d. Buffy coat e. Lymph 47. Bacteria reproduce by the process of: a. Mitosis b. Meiosis c. Binary fission d. Conjugation e. Budding 48. Process of fermentation in bacteria may include generation of each of the following molecules except: a. ATP b. Alcohol c. Lactic acid d. Glucose e. Citric acid 49. Differences in quantity of which of the following components of bacterial cell wall contributes most to the differences in the gram reactivity following a gram stain? a. Outer membrane b. Teichoic acid c. Peptidoglycan d. Lipid A e. Both A and B 50. Which one of the following steps of the gram stain is called the differential step? a. Heat fix b. Crystal violet c. Gram’s iodine d. Decolorization e. Counter stain 51. In the science of bacteriology, the term growth usually refers to an increase in a. A microbe’s size b. The number of bacterial cells c. The amount of ATP produced d. The number and size of bacterial cells e. The number and size of bacterial cells and the amount of ATP produced 52. Which category of microbes grow in a jar of pickles the best a. Acidophiles b. Alkalinophiles c. Neutrophils d. Psychrophiles e. None of the above 53. Most pathogenic bacteria are: a. Mesophiles b. Neutrophils c. Thermophiles d. Psychrophiles e. Both A and B 54. Which of the following antibiotics is NOT appropriate for use as combination drug therapy along with penicillin? a. Vancomycin b. Erythromycin c. Ciprofloxacin d. Methicillin e. Polymyxin 55. Process by which a phage transfers some DNA of the host organism from one cell to another through a normal infection process a. Transformation b. Transduction c. Conjugation d. Transposition e. Recombination 56. Process of gene exchange between two live bacteria by way of sex pilus a. Transformation b. Transduction c. Conjugation d. Transposition e. Recombination 57. Process by which DNA is copied into RNA a. Replication b. Transcription c. Translation d. Transposition e. Reverse transcription 58. Process by which DNA gets copied into another strand of DNA a. Replication b. Transcription c. Translation d. Transposition e. Reverse transcription 59. This process is typically achieved by very hot steam under pressure, incineration or use of toxic gasses  a. Antisepsis b. Disinfection c. Degerming d. Sanitization e. Sterilization 60. For this process, which is safe for living tissues, Betadine, which has reduced germ killing strength is used a. Antisepsis b. Disinfection c. Degerming d. Sanitization e. Sterilization