Nursing Exam Solutions 2022 - First Semester PDF

Ministry of Higher Education and Scientific Research Supervision and Scientific Evaluation Apparatus Evaluation Exam for Nursing Colleges Subject: Adult Nursing Final Course Exam/Second-semester Academic year: 2021...

Ministry of Higher Education and Scientific Research Supervision and Scientific Evaluation Apparatus Evaluation Exam for Nursing Colleges Subject: Adult Nursing Final Course Exam/Second-semester Academic year: 2021-2022 Time Allowed: 3 hours Date: 9/6/2022 Time: 9-12 AM ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Q. Choose the best answer for each of the following questions as required? (100 marks) 1. The nurse providing care for patients with a brain tumor has a nursing diagnosis of (self-care deficit), the nurse identifies this problem as mainly related to which of the following factors: A. Fear of dying and future. B. Anticipatory grief. C. Loss or impairment of motor ability. D. Cachexia due to treatment. E. Pressure on the respiratory center. 2. The nurse providing care for a patient with end-stage renal disease undergoing hemodialysis, and notes a weight gain of 6 kg over the past 48 hours. Which of the following nursing diagnosis is true to suggesting by this finding? A. Imbalanced nutrition B. Fluid volume excess. C. Sedentary lifestyle D. Adult failure to thrive E. Fluid volume deficit. 3. Glasgow coma scale used to evaluate the level of consciousness includes an eye-opening, verbal response, and …….? A. Motor response. B. Sensory-Motor responses. C. Sensory response. D. Cognitive response. E. Psychological Response. 4. Which of the following medical terms is referred to CSF escaping from the ears? A. Rhinorrhea B. Trichorrhea C. Pyorrhea D. Otorrhea E. Amenorrhea. 5. The nurse providing care for a 45-year-old diabetic man newly diagnosed with renal failure and is starting hemodialysis. Which of the following should be included in the teaching plan about hemodialysis? A. Hemodialysis is a treatment option that is usually required three times a week. B. Hemodialysis is a program that will require committing to daily treatment. C. Hemodialysis is a program that will require to transfuse of blood three times a week. D. This will require to have surgery and a catheter will need to be inserted into the abdomen. E. Hemodialysis is a treatment that is used for a few months until your kidney heals and starts to produce urine again. 6. One of the main indications of CABG is: A. Repairing the conduction system B. Stenosis of the coronary arteries C. Replacing heart valves D. Closing congenital heart defects E. Management of myocarditis 7. A patient suffering from head trauma is admitted to the emergency. The nurse should assess the patient’s levels of consciousness by using: A. Monro-Kellie hypothesis B. Glasgow Coma Scale C. Tuning fork. D. Cranial nerve function E. Mental status examination 8. The bacteria most commonly responsible for urinary tract infections are: A. Staphylococcus aureus. B. Mycobacterium bacilli C. Streptococcus Page BS (1-10)  D. Escherichia Coli. E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. 9. The main goal of Mannitol fluid infusion for patients after a head injury is: A. Management of cellular dehydration. B. Expanding fluid volume. C. Decrease intracranial pressure. D. Increase intracranial pressure. E. Restoring fluid volume. 10.Which of the following nursing intervention is a priority for a patient with renal failure? A. Obtaining vital signs B. Recording intake and output C. Checking skin turgor D. Checking bowel movements E. Monitoring the amount of food consumed 11. Abnormal flexion of upper extremities and extension of lower extremities is mainly called: A. Autoregulation B. Decerebration C. CPP calculation D. Decortication E. Ataxia. 12. Which term means unable to speak, write or/understand due to brain damage? A. Atelectasis B. Hypoxia C. Aphasia D. Ataxia E. Agnosia. 13. The patient with urinary tract infection suffering from nocturia, the nurse should identify this problem as: A. Awakening at night to urinate. B. Cloudy or bloody urine. C. Bed-wetting. D. Burning with urination. E. Foul-smelling urine. 14. Surgical opening in the skull to excise a tumor, evacuate blood clot, relieve Intra cranial pressure, or repair an aneurysm: A. Lobectomy B. Cranialactomy C. Meningactomy D. Laminectomy E. Craniotomy. 15. Which of the following should include in the teaching plan for renal failure patient with BUN is 32 mg/dl, serum creatinine is 4 mg/dl, and hematocrit is 38%. He is complaining of fatigue and edema: A. Low protein diet and increase in fiber B. High protein diet and potassium restriction C. Low protein diet and fluid restriction D. High protein diet and fluid restriction E. Low protein diet and increase fluid intake. 16. Which of the following is contraindicated for given to the patients with urinary tract infection due to its irritants effect on the urinary tract: A. Coffee B. Skimmed milk C. Yogurt D. Distell water E. Orange juice 17. When preparing a client for discharge after surgery for a CABG. The nurse should teach the client that there will be: A. No further drainage from the incisions after hospitalizations B. A mild fever for several weeks after surgery C. Little incisional pain and tenderness after 3 to 4 weeks after surgery D. Gradual physical activity to improve heart and lung functions. E. An extreme fatigue for several weeks after surgery 18. Which of the following symptoms do you expect to see in a patient diagnosed with acute pyelonephritis? A. Jaundice and flank pain B. Costovertebral angle tenderness and chills C. Burning sensation on urination D. Polyuria and nocturia E. Epigastric pain 19. The most sensitive and specific laboratory test for renal injury is: A. Uric acid B. Creatinine C. Transaminases D. ESR E. WBCs 20. The instrument used to examine the ear is called: A. Otoscope B. Laparoscope C. laryngoscope D. Endoscope E. Ophthalmoscope Page BS (2-10) 21. Which of the following is the more appropriate nursing diagnosis for the client scheduled for cataract surgery? A. Anxiety B. Imbalanced nutrition C. Self-care deficit. D. Disturbed sensory perception. E. Risk for injury 22. A nurse is caring for a client with a brain tumor and increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which intervention should the nurse include in the care plan to reduce ICP? A. Encourage coughing and deep breathing. B. Administer stool softeners. C. Provide sensory stimulation. D. Avoid using stool softeners. E. Position the client with the head turned toward the side of the brain tumor. 23. Which of the following instructions would the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with glaucoma? A. Avoid overuse of the eyes B. Eye medications administered for two weeks’ post-operative. C. Decrease the amount of salt in the diet D. Decrease fluid intake to control the intraocular pressure E. Wearing a dark sunglasses 24. Which of the following medical terms is used to describe painful or difficult voiding? A. Micturition. B. Hematuria C. Dysuria. D. Polyuria. E. Pyuria. 25. The patient with an increased intracranial pressure complains of infective airway clearance. Which of the following nurse’s actions should be taken first? A. Administer oxygen B. Elevate the head of the bed. C. Promote good ventilation D. Discourage coughing and straining E. Secretions suction by sucker 26. Which of the following is determined as a clinical manifestation of renal calculi? A. Hematuria B. Oliguria and generalized edema C. Upper chest pain. D. Dysuria and hypotension E. Inability to dilute or concentrate urine 27. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 12. Within 20 minutes of arrival, the GCS is 8. What should the nurse do? A. Turn up the client's IV. B. Prepare the client for intubation. C. Repeat the client's blood pressure reading. D. Lower the head of the bed to 30 degrees. E. Give analgesic medication. 28. Urine output for less than 500 ml/day is commonly described as: A. Oliguria. B. Polyuria C. Anuria D. Hematuria E. Dysuria. 29. A client presents to the emergency department with a head injury. On admission, the client's Which of the following is wrong about the etiology of head injury? A. Gunshot B. Certain drugs (mainly NSAIDs). C. Explosions D. Road traffic accident E. Falling from high 30. The Pre-renal cause of renal failure means: A. Bilateral obstruction of urine outflow. B. Damage to the kidneys themselves. C. Any preexisting condition that contributed to renal dysfunction. D. Recurrent urinary tract infection. E. Conditions that diminish blood flow to the kidneys. 31. All of the following are types of fractures except: A. Open fracture. B. Diagonal fracture. C. Closed fracture. D. Comminuted fracture. E. Transverse fracture Page BS (3-10) 32. Which one of the following is not included in the nursing assessment for patients with renal failure? A. Daily weight B. Intake and output balance C. Thyroid gland function D. Skin turgor and presence of edema E. Blood pressure, pulse rate 33. The specific treatment for chronic osteomyelitis would be: A. Immobilization. B. Drainage of localized foci of infection. C. Radiotherapy D. Antibiotic therapy. E. Surgical removal of the sequestrum. 34. In rheumatic arthritis patients, at an early stage, the active inflammation in the joint occurs as: A. Lymph node enlargement B. Limitation in function C. Deformity of joints D. Immobilization of extremity E. Muscle atrophy 35.The most common early sign of kidney disease is: A. Sodium retention B. Elevated BUN level C. GFR 100 ml/minute D. Development of metabolic acidosis E. Inability to dilute or concentrate urine. 36. What is the priority nursing intervention for patients with osteomyelitis? A. Dietary restriction B. Improving physical mobility C. Maintaining the airway D. Decrease fluid intake E. Appropriate Safety measures. 37. When assessing the intensity of the joint pain, the nurse should: A. Ask about what precipitates the pain B. Question the client about the location of the pain C. Offer the client a pain scale to objectify the information D. Use open-ended questions to find out about the sensation E. Ask the relatives about the patient's concerns 38. Which one of the following conditions is a potential cause of mitral regurgitation? A. Exertional dyspnea B. Atrial fibrillation C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Rheumatic heart disease E. Ventricular fibrillation 39. Which of the following would be the most significant early symptoms that should be assessed by the nurse when a patient reports the onset of symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis? A. Limited motion of joint. B. Deformed joints of the hand. C. Early morning stiffness. D. Rheumatoid nodule. E. Muscle cramps. 40. After an assessment of the patient with mitral stenosis, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis (decreased cardiac output related to valve stenosis). Which of the following is the best nursing intervention for this nursing diagnosis? A. Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees B. Elevate the head of the bed 40 degrees C. Elevate the head of the bed 45 degrees D. Elevate the head of the bed 15 degrees E. Elevate the head of the bed 50 degrees 41. All of the following are causes of dermatitis except: A. Allergies. B. Skin lesions C. Genetic factors. D. Physical and mental stressors. E.Irritants 42. The nurse is caring for a patient with a systolic heart murmur. Which of these valve disorders are associated with a systolic murmur? A. Pulmonic regurgitation and tricuspid stenosis. B. Pulmonic and mitral regurgitation. C. Aortic stenosis and mitral regurgitation. D. Aortic and tricuspid stenosis. E. Tricuspid stenosis and pulmonic regurgitation. Page BS (4-10) 43. The nursing diagnosis for a patient with dermatitis is impaired skin integrity related to: A. Burning B. Erythema C. Pain D. Scratching E. Pruritus 44. The nurse is preparing to assist with a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG), she/he knows that the vessel most commonly used as source for a CABG is? A. Brachial artery B. Brachial vein C. Femoral artery D. Greater saphenous vein E. Radial artery 45. Atopic dermatitis is also called: A. Acne B. Eczema C. Psoriasis D. Pimples E. Tinea 46. Following electrohydraulic lithotripsy for treatment of renal calculi, the patient has a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection related to the introduction of bacteria following manipulation of the urinary tract. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention for this patient? A. Monitor for hematuria. B. Apply moist heat to the flank area. C. Encourage fluid intake of 3 L/day. D. Inserting of a urinary catheter. E. Strain all urine through gauze or a special strainer. 47. When performing physical assessment of patient with dermatitis, what should the nurse do first? A. Palpate the temperature of the skin with the fingertips. B. Assess the degree of turgor by pinching the skin on the forearm. C. Inspect specific lesions before performing a general examination of the skin. D. Ask the patient to undress completely so all areas of the skin can be inspected. E. Percuss the temperature of the skin with the fingertips 48. On the assessment of the patient with a renal calculus passing down the ureter, what should the nurse expect the patient to report? A. A history of chronic UTIs B. Severe, colicky back pain radiating to the groin C. Dull, costovertebral flank pain D. Mild, right lower quadrant abdominal pain E. A feeling of bladder fullness with urgency and frequency 49. A patient with a contact dermatitis is treated with calamine lotion. What is the rationale for using this base for a topical preparation? A. A suspension of oil and water to lubricate and prevent drying B. An emulsion of oil and water used for lubrication and protection C. Insoluble powders suspended in water that leave a residual powder on the skin D. A mixture of a powder and ointment that causes drying when moisture is absorbed E. A mixture of oil and ointment that causes drying when moisture is absorbed 50. Which of the following sites, the nurse should palpate when assessing the frontal sinus? A. The forehead. B. Below the cheekbones. C. Over the temporal areas. D. Over the preauricular areas. E. Occipital area 51. What is the most severe complication of sinusitis? A. Encephalitis B. Bronchitis C. Myocarditis D. Pericarditis E. Meningitis 52. Which of the following is the reason for encouraging the patients to take cold fluids after tonsillectomy surgery? A. Reduce pain and bleeding. B. Reduce loss of appetite C. Reduce anxiety D. Reduce headache. E. To keep the skin moisturized. 53. Which of the following statement is true regarding the visual changes associated with cataracts? A. Abnormal discharge from Both eyes. B. Painless loss of vision. C. Sudden blindness D. A painful, sudden blurring of vision. Page BS (5-10)  E. Recurrent eye infection 54. Which of the following tests should be done to confirm the diagnosis of contact dermatitis? A. Patch testing B. Prick skin testing C. Skin biopsy testing D. Skin allergic test E. No testing is necessary 55. The most common cause of bacterial tonsillitis: A. Streptococcus pyogenes. B. Pseudomonas C. Salmonella typhi. D. Clostridium tetani. E. Staphylococcus aureus 56. Cataract affects which part of the eye: A. Retina B. Lens C. Cornea D. Eyeball E. Sclera 57. Which of the following is the most common client complaint associated with a disorder involving the inner ear? A. Hearing loss B. Pruritus C. Tinnitus D. Burning of the ear. E. Night blindness. 58. A Patient undergoing Mastoidectomy. Which of the following is the appropriate postoperative instructions for the first week after surgery? A. Avoid changing the cotton ball in the ear B. Blow the nose gently one side at a time C. Crackles in the operated ear is abnormal D. Sneeze and cough with the mouth closed E. Patient can take shower without cotton ball in ear 59.The nurse providing care for the patient after tonsillectomy, which of the following is the reason to advise the patients to avoid red-colored drinks? A. To keep the skin moisturized. B. To keep the skin dry. C. Because it is interfering with the healing process. D. Because it is interfering with the topical medications E.Because it is interfering with the observation for bleeding 60. What characteristics describe the care of a patient with chronic otitis media? A. It is most commonly treated with antibiotics. B. It is an infection in the inner ear that may lead to headaches. C. Impairment of the Eustachian tube is most commonly associated with effusion. D. Formation of an acoustic neuroma may destroy the structures of the middle ear or invade the dura of the brain. E. The patient who has had a myringotomy with placement of a tympanostomy tube should be instructed to use getting water in the ear. 61. Which of the following positions is the most appropriate for a patient following a craniotomy? A. Supine Position. B. Semi-Fowler position. E. Prone position. D. Trendelenburg position. E. Lateral position. 62. The nurse should inform the client with glaucoma that his vision after surgery will: A. Temporary loss. B. Some vision has been lost and cannot be restored partially. C. Never return to normal (irreversible) D. Return partially as soon as the medications begin to work. E. Return immediately 63. For which side, the nurse should pull the superior posterior auricle of the ear for an adult patient with otitis media to apply ear drops. A. Up and back. B. Up and forward. C. Down and back. Page BS (6-10)  D. Down and forward. E. Upward only 64. Which one of the following is a correct nursing diagnosis for patients with tonsillitis? A. Fluid volume deficit B. Impaired swallowing C. Risk for infection D. Fluid volume excess E. Electrolyte disturbance 65. The patient with arthritis asks the nurse about the reason of chronic pain, which of the following is the best answer? A. Result from impaired physical mobility. B. Result from disturbed body image. C. Result from activity intolerance. D. Result from chronic inflammation. E. Result from imbalance nutrition. 66. The nurse provides care for patients with irritant contact dermatitis. What action should the nurse prioritize in the patients’ care? A. Teach the patient to safely and effectively administer immunosuppressants B. Help the patient identify and avoid the offending agent C. Teach the patient how to maintain meticulous skin hygiene D. Help the patient perform wound care in the home environment E. Teach the patient to wash hands with plain soap every few 30 minute 67. An early sign that indicates the patient is developing compartment syndrome after a leg fracture is: A. Absence of peripheral pulses B. Loss of sensation C. Unrelieved pain by analgesics D. Loss of motion E. Skin discoloration and bleeding 68.The nurse provides care for patient undergoing CABG surgery. The patients ask the nurse, what is the main purpose of this surgical procedure, the best answer by the nurse should be: A. To increase cardiac output. B. To repair heart valves. C. To increase peripheral tissue perfusion. D. To restore vascularization of the myocardium. E. To enhance myocardium contractility. 69. The nurse provides a self-care teaching plan for the patient after mitral valve replacement surgery before discharge. Which statement by the patient indicates the teaching plan was effective? A. I shall be able to lead a normal life and forget that I ever had heart disease. B. I shall need to take warfarin lifelong. C. I shall need to take anticonvulsant medication lifelong. D. I shall need to take ecosprin daily. E. I shall need to get my blood examined for Hb% every month. 70. The patient after CABG taking Furosemide (Lasix), should be strictly monitored for: A. Pitting edema B. Potassium level C. Pulmonary edema D. Creatinine level E. Dehydration 71. The normal urine color is: A. Pale yellow to amber B. Dark-amber urine C. Yellow to green D. Nearly colorless urine E. Brown to green 72. During assessment of the patient with valvular heart disease, the nurse noted that the patient had orthopnea, what is the main feature of orthopnea? A. The need to assume a more supine position to breathe B. The need to assume a more upright position to breathe C. The need to assume a prone position to breathe D. The need to assume Sim's position to breathe Page BS (7-10)  E. The need to assume lateral position to breathe 73. Hands and feet deformities of patients with rheumatoid arthritis are common resulting from: A. Pain B. Limited movement C. Joint swelling D. Fatigue E. Numbness 74. Arthritis initially begins in which of the following joints? A. Elbow B. Hips C. Shoulder D. Knee E. Finger 75. The nurse helps the patient with chronic renal failure develop a home diet plan with the goal of helping the patient maintain adequate nutritional intake. Which of the following diets would be most appropriate for a patient with chronic renal failure? A. High carbohydrate, high protein B. High calcium, high potassium, high protein C. Low protein, high potassium D. Low protein, low sodium, low potassium E. Low sodium, high potassium 76. The nurse Instruct the patient regarding the proper methods to control edema and pain after closed upper limbs fracture A. Elevate extremity to heart level B. Elevate the extremity below the heart level C. Decrease the fluid intake D. Increase the fluid intake E. Put the patient in a lateral position 77. Which of the following measures helps the nurse to check the patency of the arteriovenous fistula for patients on maintenance hemodialysis? A. Pinch the fistula and note the speed of filling on release B. Use a needle and syringe to aspirate blood from the fistula C. Check for a capillary refill of the nail beds on that extremity D. Palpate the arteriovenous fistula to assess for a thrill E. Auscultate the arteriovenous fistula to assess for a thrill. 78.Which of the following is a symptom of tonsillitis? A.Bad breath B.Sore throat C.Vomiting D.Swollen lymph nodes in the neck E.Nausea 79. Which one of the following is the most common cause of renal failure? A. Duodenal ulcer B. Asthma. C. Colitis D. Diabetes. E. Irritable bowel syndrome 80. All of the following cause increased intracranial pressure except: A. Intracranial hemorrhage. B. Meningitis. C Abdominal surgery. D. Increased brain tissue volume. E. Abscess or inflammation. 81. Which of the following is determined as a clinical manifestation of increased intracranial pressure? A. Nausea without vomiting. B. Dyspnea with cyanosis. C. Dyspnea without cyanosis. D. Vomiting with nausea. E. Vomiting without nausea. 82. In chronic renal failure, which of the following acid-base imbalance can be expected? A. Respiratory acidosis B. Respiratory alkalosis C. Metabolic acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis E. Normal blood ph. 83. The nurse providing care for a patient with an altered level of consciousness. Which of the following nursing intervention takes the highest priority? A. Maintaining accurate records of intake and output. B. Inserting a nasogastric tube. C. Performing range of motion exercise. D. Maintaining a patent airway. E. Providing appropriate pain control. 84. Headache which is most common with an increased intracranial pressure usually occurs at: A. Early evening B. Early morning C. Afternoon D. Midday E. Midnight Page BS (8-10) 85. Which of the following is the reason for dexamethasone administration for patients with expanding brain tumors? A. To reduce swelling of the brain B. To monitor for blood sugar C. To maintain weight D. To delay tumor growth E. To increase appetite 86. Loss of the ability to recognize objects through a particular sensory system, may be visual, auditory, or tactile is called? A. Dysphagia B. Amnesia C. Ataxia D. Diplopia E. Agnosia. 87. Which of the following diagnostic studies does not use for patients with severe renal colic? A. CT scan B. Urinalysis C. Ureteroscopy D. Abdominal ultrasound E. KUB 88. Which of the following dietary instructions would the nurse specifically include for a patient with a calcium oxalate urinary stones? A. Increase intake of meat, fish, and cranberries. B. Avoid citrus fruits and citrus juices. C. Avoid green, leafy vegetables such as spinach. D. Increase intake of dairy products. E. Avoid spicy food and fiber intake. 89. Glaucoma is one of the eye disease caused by: A. Optic nerve damage B. Blurred vision C. Vision disturbance D. Smoking E. Drinking alcohol 90. Which of the following is the main factor that contributes to the development of calculi among patients with paraplegia and the elderly? A. Heart disease B. Decreased calcium intake. C. Renal dysfunction D. Increase fluid intake E. Immobilization 91. A break in the continuity of the bone is A. Fracture. B. Osteomyelitis C. Osteoporosis D. Bone tumor E. Osteoarthritis 92. Which one of the following is a local clinical manifestation of fractures? A. Hard lumps around the joint B. Anemia C. Ecchymosis D. Cold over the injured area E. Erythema 93.The infection of the bone called: A. Osteoporosis. B. Osteomyelitis C. Bone marrow aspiration D. Fracture E. Synovitis 94. Which one of the following conditions is wrong about the clinical manifestation of head injury? A. Bradycardia B. Sensitivity to light C. Amnesia D. Hemiparesis E. Confusion 95. Osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone, that is commonly caused by: A. Staphylococcus aureus bacteria B. Streptococcus bacteria. C. Escherichia Coli. D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. E. Pneumococcal bacteria 96. Which one of the following is the priority nursing diagnosis for patients with fractures? A. Ensure proper positioning B. Provide analgesics C. Apply ice as ordered D. Impaired physical mobility E. Maintaining a patent airway 97. After bone scanning, the nurse encourages the patient to drink plenty of fluid to: A. Prevent dehydration B. Eliminate isotope C. Keep healthy joints D. Reduce discomfort E. Prevent fluid imbalance 98. Which of the following is NOT a function of skin? A. Contracts and relaxes muscles B. Remove body wastes C. Prevent dehydration Page BS (9-10)  D. Helps prevent infection E. Helps regulate body temperature 99. Is the inflammation of the mucosa of one or more sinuses? A. Tonsillitis B. Otitis media C. Sinusitis D. Dermatitis E. Stomatitis 100. The most common cause of sinusitis is: A. Stomatitis B. Allergy C. Common cold D. Cholesteatoma E. External otitis 101. Expected patient outcomes for a patient with osteomyelitis include: A. Bone abscess formation B. Inflammation and edema C. Impaired physical mobility. D. Decreased pain at rest E. Increased pain at rest 102. The systemic inflammatory disease that affects the synovial lining of the joints is: A. Osteomyelitis B. Fracture C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Traction E. Osteoporosis 103. The most common causes of mitral stenosis is ? A. Rheumatic heart disease B. Liver disease C. Smoking D. Age-related changes E. Trauma 104. The nurse is providing postoperative care to a client who had a craniotomy to remove a brain tumor. The nurse evaluates which clinical finding as indicative of an increase in intracranial pressure? A. Weak, thread, pulse pattern B. Widening of the pulse pressure of 70 mmHg C. Altered level of consciousness D. Shallow breaths with a respiratory rate of 10 bpm E. Mean arterial pressure of 80 mmHg 105. Gradual increase in urine output signaling beginning of glomerular filtration recovery, this stage of renal failure called: A. Initiation period B. Diuresis period C. Oliguric period D. Recovery period E. Prodromal period Solved by: Esra'a Good Luck Page BS (10-10)