Environmental Studies Multiple Choice Questions PDF

Zeal Education Society’s ZEAL POLYTECHNIC, PUNE NARHE │PUNE -41 │ INDIA DEPARTMENT OF MECHANICAL ENGINEERING SECOND YEAR (SY) SCHEME: I SEMESTER: IV NAME OF SUBJECT: ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES Subject Code: 22445 UNIT WISE MULTIPLE CHOICE...

Zeal Education Society’s ZEAL POLYTECHNIC, PUNE NARHE │PUNE -41 │ INDIA DEPARTMENT OF MECHANICAL ENGINEERING SECOND YEAR (SY) SCHEME: I SEMESTER: IV NAME OF SUBJECT: ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES Subject Code: 22445 UNIT WISE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS BANK  ZEAL EDUCATION SOCIETY‟S ZEAL POLYTECHNIC,PUNE NARHE │PUNE -41 │ INDIA DEPARTMENT OF MECHANICAL ENGINEERING Question Bank for Multiple Choice Questions Program: Diploma in Mechanical engineering Program Code:- ME Scheme:-I Semester:- IV Course:- Environmental Studies Course Code:- 22447 01 – Environment Marks:-10 Content of Chapter:- 1.1 Definitions, Need of environmental studies 1.2 Segments of environment- Atmosphere,Hydrosphere,Lithosphere,Biosphere 1.3 Environmental issues- Green house effect,Climate change,Global warming,Acid Rain,Ozone layer depletion,nuclear accidents. 1.4 Concept of 4R( Reduce,Reuse,Recycle and Recover) 1.5 Public awareness about Environment. 1.Nuclear accidents _______ global temperature. a) Increase b) Decrease c) Multiply d) None Answer: - Option A Explanation:-Nuclear accidents causes decrease in temperature. 2.Environmental education is important only at a) Primary school stage b) Secondary school stage c) Collage stage d) All of the above Answer: - Option D Explanation:-Environmental education is important at all stage. 3.The 4Rs principle is applicable for… a) Public awareness b) Environmental protection c) Saving natural resources d) All of the above Answer: - Option D Explanation:-The 4Rs principle is applicable for Public awareness,Environmental protection and Saving natural resources 4.Ozone layer is found in.... a)Thermosphere b)Stratosphere c)Troposphere Page 1 of 95 d)Mesosphere Answer: - Option B Explanation:-Ozone layer is found in Stratosphere. 5.Which one of the following is an abiotic component of the ecosystem? a) Bacteria b) plants c) humus d) Fungi Answer: - Option C Explanation:-Humus is an abiotic component of the ecosystem 6.Major cause of increment in population growth is...… a) decrease in birth rate b) decrease in mortality rate c) Illiteracy d) none of the above Answer: - Option D Explanation:-decrease in mortality rate is a Major cause of increment in population growth. 7.Zone consisting air, water and soil is known as.... a) Atmosphere b) Hydrosphere c) Biosphere d) Lithosphere Answer: - Option C Explanation:-Zone consisting air, water and soil is known asBiosphere. 8.Abiotic environment does not include a) Air b)Water c)Soil d)Plants Answer: - Option D Explanation:-Abiotic environment means non-living things. 9. Physical environment is also called as… a) Abiotic environment b) Biotic environment c) Man made environment d) Psychological environment Answer: - Option A Explanation:-Physical environment is also called asAbiotic environment 10.The production of biogas from the waste is includes in...… a) Reduce b) Reuse c) Recycle d) Recover Answer: - Option D Page 2 of 95 Explanation:-The production of biogas from the waste is includes inRecover 11.___% of the Earth's surface is covered with water. a) 20 b) 80 c) 71 d) 100 Answer: - Option C Explanation:-71 % of the Earth's surface is covered with water. 12.Formation of Ozone is? a) Oxidation Reaction b) Reduction Reaction c) Photochemical Reaction d) None of the above Answer: - Option C Explanation:-Formation of Ozone isPhotochemical Reaction 13.The environment which has been modified by human a)Natural environment b)Anthropogenic environment c)Modern environment d)Urban environment Answer: - Option C Explanation:-The environment which has been modified by human is Anthropogenic environment 14.One of the following is not a type of environment. a)Physical environment b)Man made environment c)Social environment d)Hydrosphere Answer: - Option D Explanation:-Hydrosphere is not a type of environment. 15.O3 is known as… a)Atmosphere b)Ozone c)Oxygen d)All of these Answer: - Option B Explanation:-O3 is known as Ozone 16. Environmental education emphasises on _________ a)Air b) Water c) Environmental issues d) None Answer: - Option C Explanation:-Environmental education emphasises on Environmental issues Page 3 of 95 17.Our natural environment has _____ and ______ values. a)Qualitative and quantitative b)Preservation and conservation c)Utilization and recreation d)None of the above Answer: - Option A Explanation:-Our natural environment has Qualitative and quantitative values. 18.Land covers up only _____% of the earth‟s surface a) 10 b) 29 c) 40 d) 30 Answer: - Option B Explanation:-.Land covers up only 29 % of the earth‟s surface 19.The production of biogas from the waste is includes in...… a)Reduce b)Reuse c)Recycle d)Recover Answer: - Option D Explanation:-The production of biogas from the waste is includes inRecover 20.The 4Rs principle is applicable for… a)Public awareness b)Environmental protection c)Saving natural resources d)All of the above Answer: - Option D Explanation:-The 4Rs principle is applicable in all areas. 21.Ozone layer is found in.... a)Thermosphere b)Stratosphere c)Troposphere d)Mesosphere Answer: - Option B Explanation:-Ozone layer is found in Stratosphere. 22.Which one of the following is an abiotic component of the ecosystem? a) Bacteria b) plants c) humus d) Fungi Answer: - Option C Explanation:-Humus is an abiotic component of the ecosystem 23.Which of the following is the example of impact of development activities on Hydrosphere? a) Air Pollution Page 4 of 95 b) Soil Pollution c) Noise Pollution d) Water Pollution Answer: - Option D Explanation:-Water Pollution is impact of development activities on Hydrosphere 24.Nuclear accidents _______ global temperature. a)Increase b)Decrease c)Multiply d)None Answer: - Option A Explanation:--Nuclear accidents causes decrease in temperature. 25.The Environmental awareness starts with a)Country b)State c)Individual d)None of these Answer: - Option C Explanation:-The Environmental awareness starts with Individual 26.For sustainable development _____ R are followed a)5 b)2 c)4 d)3 Answer: - Option C Explanation:-For sustainable development 4 R are followed 27.The amount of solar radiation reaching the surface of the earth is called as a) Solar flux b)Reflected light c)Minerals d)solvents Answer: - Option B Explanation:-The amount of solar radiation reaching the surface of the earth is called asReflected light 28.Acid rain occurs due to dissolution of ______ in rain water a)Gases b)Particles c)Smoke d)Soot Answer: - Option A Explanation:-.Acid rain occurs due to dissolution of gases in rain water 29.Hydrosphere covers about _______ of the surface of earth a)70% b)90% c)60% Page 5 of 95 d)50% Answer: - Option A Explanation:-Hydrosphere covers about 70 % of the surface of earth 30.Color of ozone molecule is a)Pale Blue b)White c)Pale Yellow d)Pale Green Answer: - Option A Explanation:-Color of ozone molecule isPale Blue 31.Major cause of Ozone depletion is due to which chemical ? a)Chlorofluorocarbons b)Polyphenols c)Dioxins d)None of the above Answer: - Option A Explanation:-Major cause of Ozone depletion is due toChlorofluorocarbons 32. Acid rain contains..… a) Sulphuric acid b) Hydrochloric acid c) Oxalic acid d) Acetic acid Answer: - Option A Explanation:-Acid rain containsSulphuric acid 33.Biosphere is a) The solid shell of inorganic materials on the surface of the Earth b)The thin shell of organic matter on the surface of earth comprising of all the living things c)The sphere which occupies the maximum volume of all the spheres d)All of the above Answer: - Option B Explanation:-Biosphere isThe thin shell of organic matter on the surface of earth comprising of all the living things 34.The portion of the earth and its environment which can support life is known as a) Crust b) exosphere c) Biosphere d) Mesosphere Answer: - Option C Explanation:-The portion of the earth and its environment which can support life is known as Biosphere 35. How is the atmosphere, hydrosphere and lithosphere connected ? a) Hydrological cycle b) Nitrogen cycle Page 6 of 95 c) Oxygen cycle d) Carbon cycle Answer: - Option D Explanation:-By using Carbon cycleatmosphere, hydrosphere and lithosphere connected 36. Exchange of outgoing and incoming radiations that keep Earth warm is known as a) greenhouse effect b) radiation effect c) infrared effect d) ozone layer depletion Answer: - Option A Explanation:-Exchange of outgoing and incoming radiations that keep Earth warm is known asgreenhouse effect 37. Public awareness of environment creates ---------------------- a) Environment protection b) Environment degradation c) Environmental improvement d) Environmental cultivation Answer: - Option A Explanation:-Public awareness of environment createsEnvironment protection. 38. Biotic environment includes a) producers b) Consumers c) Decomposers d) All above Answer: - Option D Explanation:-Biotic environment includesproducers ,Consumers and Decomposers. 39. What type of radiation is trapped on the earth's surface by the green house effect? a) UV rays b) ? -rays c) X-rays d) IR rays Answer: - Option A Explanation:-UV radiation is trapped on the earth's surface by the green house effect 40. The 4Rs principle is applicable in… a)Agriculture areas b)Industrial areas c)Municipal areas d) All of the above Answer: - Option D Explanation:-The 4Rs principle is applicable in all areas. 41. DDT is a pesticide which is A. Not soluble in water B. More soluble in fat than water C. Less soluble in fat than water Page 7 of 95 D. Not soluble in fat Answer : B 42. National Science Day is celebrated on A.22 Feburary B.28 Feburary C.26 Feburary D.27 Feburary Answer : B 43. Environmental friendly products are given ISO certification called ISO. A.12000 B.13000 C.14000 D.15000 Answer : C 44. A sudden uncontrolled descent of a mass of earth under the force gravity is called A. soil erosion B. mining C. earth quake D. landslide Answer : D 45. Public awareness can be generated by A. Campaigns B. Posters C. Mass Media D. All of the above Answer : D 46. Along with government, _______ are also found effective to educate people regarding environment protection. A. Company B. School C. None of above D.NGOs Answer : D 47. The study of living organisms with the environment is known as ____________ A. Ecosystem B. Environment C. Community D. Ecology Answer : D 48. The word „Environment‟ is derived from A. Greek B. French C. Spanish Page 8 of 95 D. English Answer : B 49. WWF stands for A. World Wildlife fund for Nature B. World Wildlife found in Nature C. World Wide fund for Nature D. World Wide fund for Wildlife Answer : C 50. The collection of the same species within an area is called a population. A. True B. False Answer : A 51. World environment day is on A.5 May B.5 June C.18 July D.16 August Answer : B 52. Social awareness encourages people to use A. Biomass and solar energy B. Fossil fuel C. Both A & B D. Electricity Answer : A 53. Rain fall is measured in........ units A. Pounds B.mm/cms C. Kg/Tons D. Metres Answer : B 54. Conservation of forests by planting trees is A. Afforestation B. None of the abve C. Reforestation D. Deforestation Answer : A 55. Environmental Studies means A.is an interdisciplinary academic field B. includes the natural environment, built environment, and the sets of relationships between them C. methodically studies human interaction with the environment D. all of the above Answer : D Page 9 of 95 56. Environmental degradation is due to A. rapid industrialization B. deforestation C. growing urbanization D. all above Answer : D 57. Non-Governmental Organizations A. are located primarily in more developed countries B. have become a powerful aspect of environmental protection C. Work for a social change D. All of the above Answer : D 58.Addition of contaminants to atmosphere causing disturbance in natural condition __________ A. Polluter B. Polluting C. Pollution D. Pollutant Answer : C 59. The Unlimited exploitation of nature by human being has not resulted in A. Health Problem B. Decrease in biodiversity C. Tsumanis D. Environmental pollution Answer : C 60. Acid rain occurs due to dissolution of __________ in rain water A. Smoke B. Particles C. Gases D. Soot Answer : C. 61.The unlimited Exploitation of Nature by Human being resulted in.. A. Environmental pollution B. Health Problems C. decrease in biodiversity D. all the given Answer : D 62.The conservation of natural resources A. Was not encouraged in ancient India B. was encouraged in ancient india. C. Is recently being used in India D. None of these Answer : B 63.The Global Action plan adopted at Earth summit held at Rio de Janeiro in June 1972 is also known as Page 10 of 95 A. Agenda 20 B. Agenda 22 C. Agenda 23 D. Agenda 21 Answer : D 64.Environmental Issues are discussed and solved in subject A. Sociology B. Economics C.EVS D. None of the above Answer : C 65. As per the French word Environner means A. Atmosphere B. Earth & Sun C. Encircle & Surround D. Earth & Energy Answer : C 66. USCB is short form for A. United states Census Bureau B. United states Community Bureau C. United Society for Communist & Beaurocrates D. None of the above Answer : B 67. Earth Day is on A.Jan-22 B.Feb-22 C.Mar-22 D.Ape-22 Answer : D 68. Environmental Studies: A.is an interdisciplinary academic field B. methodically studies human interaction with the environment C. includes the natural environment, built environment, and the sets of relationship between them D. all of the above Answer : D 69. Environmental Studies does not involve: A. psychology B. demography C. ethics D. literature Answer : D 70. Which of the following global trend is of great concern for the future of our environment? A. degradation of fertile soils Page 11 of 95 B. change in the global atmosphere C. species extinction leading to the loss of biodiversity D. All of the above Answer : D 71. High level radioactive waste can be managed in which of the following ways? A. Open dumping B. Composting C. Incineration D. Dumping in sealed container Answer : D 72.The objective of environmental education is A.Raise consciousness about environmental education B. To teach environmentally appropriate behaviour C.Create an environmental ethic that fosters awareness about ecological inter-dependence of economics, social and political D.All of the above Answer : D 73.Which of the following is an example of impact of development activities on the Hydrosphere? A. Air pollution B. Noise pollution C.Soil erosion D.Water pollution Answer : D 74. Important abiotic factor in environment include which of the following? A. Temperature B. Wind C. Water D. All of the above Answer : D 75. Atmosphere may extents to a height of......km above the earth surface A) 80 B) 8000 C) 800 D) 8 Answer : C 76. Which of the following is the correct sequence of 4Rs principle in waste hierarchy? A.Reduce-Reuse-Recycle-Recover B. Recover-Recycle-Reuse-Reduce C. Recycle – Recover – Reuse- Reduce D. Reuse-Recover-Reduce - Recycle Answer : A 77.. Why carbon dioxide is called a greenhouse gas? a) Because they absorb heat Page 12 of 95 b) Because they absorb moisture c) Because they absorb oxygen d) Because they absorb hydrogen Answer: a Explanation: Carbon dioxide, water vapor, methane, ozone, nitrous oxide, and fluorinated gases are examples of greenhouse gases. Because they absorb heat, these molecules in our atmosphere are known as greenhouse gases. 78. Which of the following statements means water vapor? a) Water vapor is the gaseous phase of water b) Water vapor is the liquid phase of water c) Water vapor is the solid phase of water d) All of the mentioned Answer: a Explanation: Water vapor or aqueous vapor is the gaseous phase of water. It is one state of water within the hydrosphere. Water vapor can be produced from the evaporation or boiling of liquid water or from the sublimation of ice. Water vapor is transparent, like most constituents of the atmosphere. 79. Which of the following is a renewable source of energy? a) Ocean currents b) Solar energy c) Biomass d) All of the above Answer: d Explanation: Solar energy, wind, falling water, the earth‟s heat (geothermal), plant materials (biomass), waves, ocean currents, temperature differences in the oceans, and the energy of the tides are all renewable resources. 80. he size of the particles categorized as aerosols? a) Less than 0.01 micron b) Greater than 1 micron c) Less than 1 micron d) Between 0.01-1 micron Answer: d Explanation: Aerosol is made up of solid/fluid particles with sizes ranging from 0.01 to 1 micron. 81. Which of these is NOT a primary pollutant? a) Oxygen b) Ground-level ozone c) Carbon monoxide d) Carbon dioxide Answer: a Explanation: Ozone is not a primary pollutant since it is formed by the photo-chemical reaction of oxygen with the UV rays and not directly discharged into the atmosphere by a source. 82. Which gas is released when alum is added to water? a) Ca (OH)3 b) CO2 c) Al (OH)3 d) CaSO4 Page 13 of 95 Answer: b Explanation: Carbon dioxide gas is released when alum is added to water, which is corrosive to metals. 83. Which of the following plants is extremely sensitive towards sulphur dioxide? a) Tomato b) Onion c) Potato d) Corn Answer: a Explanation: Tomato is sensitive towards sulphur dioxide whereas onion, potato and corn are relatively tolerant. 84. Which of the following is not commonly used as a filter material in the treatment of water? a) Garnet sand b) Crushed rock c) Sand d) Anthracite Answer: b Explanation: Sand, Anthracite and Garnet sand are used as a filter material but crushed rock is not used in the treatment of water. 85. The value of specific gravity for Garnet sand is ____ a) 4.2 b) 5.1 c) 3.6 d) 2.1 Answer: a Explanation: Garnet sand is a dense material with a specific gravity of 4.2 and is used as a constituent in mixed media filter. It is a costlier filter material. 86. The process of decomposition of biodegradable solid waste by earthworms is called ___________ a) Composting b) Land fills c) Shredding d) Vermi-composting Answer: d Explanation: The process of decomposition of biodegradable solid waste by earthworms is called Vermi- composting. 87. What is the frequency of cleaning of a slow sand filter? a) 2-3 days b) 2-3 weeks c) 1-3 months d) 1 week Answer: c Explanation: The slow sand filter requires cleaning, depending upon the impurities present in water and normally it is done after 1-3 months. 88. Which type of filter is used in treating swimming pool water? a) Pressure filter Page 14 of 95 b) Dual media filter c) Slow sand filter d) Rapid sand filter Answer: a Explanation: The pressure filter is used for treating swimming pool water. It is also used for clarifying softened water at industrial plants. 89. Which of the following is a biodegradable waste? a) Paper b) Food waste c) Polythene bags d) Synthetic fiber Answer: b Explanation: Polythene bags, synthetic fiber and paper are non biodegradable wastes whereas food waste is a biodegradable waste. 90. Which water treatment process is done after filtration of water? a) Secondary sedimentation b) Flocculation c) Primary sedimentation d) Disinfection Answer: d Explanation: Disinfection is a process which is done to kill microorganism present in the water after the filtration process. 91. In the lower layers of atmosphere, what range of wavelengths of light is predominant? a) Between 100-300 nm b) Less than 100 nm c) Greater than 300 nm d) All wavelengths are equally present Answer: c Explanation: In the lower layers of atmosphere, light of wavelengths greater than 300nm are present and it is because of this reason, there is generally no ozone formation at the ground level. 92. What is the significance of the ionosphere? a) Regulates weather b) Aviation movements c) High frequency radio transmission d) All of the mentioned Answer: c Explanation: Ionosphere contains ionized atmospheric particles due to solar radiation and is useful in the propagation of radio waves. 93. Which of the following radiations of the sun do greenhouse gases trap? a) Infrared radiations b) UV radiations c) Visible radiations d) All the radiations Page 15 of 95 Answer: a Explanation: Greenhouse gases trap the infrared radiations from the sun and reflect it back to the Earth‟s surface thereby heating up the planet. 94. Below which of the following pH is rain regarded as „acid rain‟? a) 5.6 b) 7.4 c) 2.7 d) 8 Answer: a Explanation: Though the pH of neutral water is 7, rainwater is acidic due to mixing up with atmospheric carbon dioxide and is said to have a 5.6 pH. Hence acid rain has a pH less than 5.6. 95. Which of the following greenhouse gas is contributed by cattle farming? a) Carbon monoxide b) Nitrous oxide c) Methane d) All of the mentioned Answer: c Explanation: Methane is a gas released by the digestive processes of cattle and hence cattle farming also contributes to the greenhouse effect. 96. Organic contaminants are removed from the water by the process of ______ a) Adsorption b) Absorption c) Demineralization d) Water softening Answer: a Explanation: Organic contaminants are removed from the water by the attraction and accumulation of one substance on the surface of another. 97. Which of the following gases are main contributors to acid rain? a) Carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide b) Sulphur dioxide and carbon dioxide c) Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide d) Sulphur dioxide and nitrous oxide Answer: d Explanation: Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide have a high tendency to mix with water to form sulphurous/sulphuric acid and nitric acid. 98. Glass containers are generally not preferred for sampling rain water. Why? a) Glass containers are expensive b) Glass containers are not easy to maintain c) Glass containers affect the pH of the rain water d) All of the mentioned Answer: c Explanation: Glass containers can alter the pH of the rain water and hence not suitable to use for sampling rain water. Page 16 of 95 99. Who discovered the phenomenon of acid rain? a) George Brown b) James T. Stewart c) Robert Angus Smith d) Charles David Answer: c Explanation: The phenomenon of acid rain was discovered by Robert A. Smith during the industrial revolution. 100. What is the pH required for the survival of aquatic animals and plants? a) 7 b) 7.5 c) 6.5 d) 4.8 Answer: d Explanation: Aquatic organisms require a moderately acidic pH of 4.8 and if it goes below this level, it proves to be detrimental to their survival. Re-Verified By Prepared By Verified By Approved By. Module Coordinator HoD ME Academic Coordinator Page 17 of 95  ZEAL EDUCATION SOCIETY‟S ZEAL POLYTECHNIC,PUNE NARHE │PUNE -41 │ INDIA DEPARTMENT OF MECHANICAL ENGINEERING Question Bank for Multiple Choice Questions Program: Diploma in Mechanical engineering Program Code:- ME Scheme:-I Semester:- IV Course:- Environmental Studies Course Code:- 22447 02 –Energy Resources Marks:-16 Content of Chapter:- 2.1 Natural Resources - Forest Resources, Water Resources, Energy Resources, Land resources, Mineral resources. 2.2 Renewable, Non-renewable and Cyclic Resources. 2.3 Causes and effects of depletion of resources. 2.4 Energy forms (Conventional and non-conventional). 2.5 Present global energy use and future demands. 2.6 Energy conservation. 2.7 Over use of natural resources and its impacts on environment 1.Energy resources derived from natural organic materials are called ________. a) geothermal energy sources b) fossil fuels c) Biomass d) All of the above Answer:-D Explanation:-Energy resources derived from natural organic materials are called natural resources. 2.Transfer of energy from source of plants through a series of organism is known as ______________ a) Food web b) Energy cycle c) Food chain d) Biological system Answer:-D Explanation:-Transfer of energy from source of plants through a series of organism is known as Biological system 3.Which of the following is a disadvantage of renewable energy? a) High pollution b) Available only in few places c) High running cost d) Unreliable supply Answer: d Explanation: Renewable energy often relies on the weather for its sources of power. Hydro generators Page 18 of 95 need rain to fill dams and thereby provide electricity. Wind turbines need wind to turn the blades. Solar collectors need clear skies and sunshine. 4.A Solar cell is an electrical device that converts the energy of light directly into electricity by the ____________ a) Photovoltaic effect b) Chemical effect c) Atmospheric effect d) Physical effect Answer: a Explanation: The photovoltaic effect was first discovered in 1839 by Edmond Becquerel. The hotovoltaic effect is a process that generates voltage or electric current in a photovoltaic cell when it is exposed to sunlight. 5.In hydroelectric power, what is necessary for the production of power throughout the year? a) Dams filled with water b) High amount of air c) High intense sunlight d) Nuclear power Answer: a Explanation: Dams are used for power generation. The reservoir water is stored at a higher level than the turbines, which are housed in a power station. The dam feed water directly to the turbines in the power station. 6.The main composition of biogas is _______________ a) Methane b) Carbon dioxide c) Nitrogen d) Hydrogen Answer: a Explanation: Biogas is one of the types of bio fuel that is produced from the decomposition of organic waste. Biogas is known as the environmentally-friendly energy source since it is converting organic waste into energy. The composition of biogas is as follows: – Methane 50-75%, Carbon dioxide 25-50%, Nitrogen 0-10%, Hydrogen 0-1%. 7.Which Ministry is mainly responsible for research and development in renewable energy sources such as wind power, small hydro, biogas and solar power? a) Human Resource Development b) Agriculture and Farmers Welfare c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy d) Health and Family Welfare Answer: c Explanation: Ministry of New and Renewable Energy is a ministry of the Government of India. The ministry is working to develop renewable energy for supplementing the energy requirements of India. It is headquartered in Lodhi Road, New Delhi. 8.Which among the following have a large amount of installed grid interactive renewable power capacity in India? a) Wind power b) Solar power Page 19 of 95 c) Biomass power d) Small Hydro power Answer: a Explanation: Wind power having capacity 29000 MW holds 56.8%, Solar power having capacity 9500 MW holds 18.5%, Biomass power having capacity 8200 MW holds 16%, Small Hydro power having capacity 4400 MW holds 8.5%. 9.The world‟s first 100% solar powered airport located at ____________ a) Cochin, Kerala b) Bengaluru, Karnataka c) Chennai, Tamil Nadu d) Mumbai, Maharashtra Answer: a Explanation: Cochin International airport, the fourth-largest airport in India in terms of international traffic, now runs entirely on solar power. Cochin International Airport became the world‟s first fully solar powered airport on 18 August 2015. 10.Which of the following is not under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy? a) Wind energy b) Solar energy c) Tidal energy d) Large hydro Answer: d Explanation: According to a recent survey large hydro installed capacity was 44.41 GW. The large hydro is administered separately by the Ministry of Power and not included in Ministry of New and Renewable Energy. 11.Where is the largest Wind Farm located in India? a) Jaisalmer Wind Park, Rajasthan b) Muppandal Wind Farm, Tamil Nadu c) Vaspet Wind Farm, Maharashtra d) Chakala Wind Farm, Maharashtra Answer: b Explanation: Muppandal Wind Farm produces 1500 MW of current capacity. Muppandal Wind Farm is the second largest onshore wind farm in the world. This Wind Farm supplies power to many regions in Tamil Nadu. 12.Which Indian enterprise has the Motto “ENERGY FOREVER”? a) Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency b) Indian Non-Renewable Energy Development c) Indian Agricultural Development d) Indian Biotechnology Development Answer:a Explanation: Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency established in 1987 as Non-Banking Financial Institution. It is engaged in promoting, developing and extending financial assistance for setting up projects which are relating to new and renewable sources of energy. 13.The primary composition of coal is _______________ a) Nitrogen b) Carbon Page 20 of 95 c) Oxygen d) Hydrogen Answer: b Explanation: Coal is a naturally found fossil fuel formed by the anaerobic decay of plant life taking place over millions of years. It is extracted from the underground by coal mining. The primary composition of coal is carbon while nitrogen, oxygen, and hydrogen comes under secondary composition. 14.Which Ministry is mainly responsible for refining, distribution, import, export of petroleum products and natural gas in India? a) Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas b) Ministry of Fossil Fuel c) Ministry of Non-Renewable Energy d) Ministry of Oil Answer: a Explanation: Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas is a ministry of the Government of India. The ministry is working to develop the exploration and exploitation of petroleum resources for supplementing the energy requirements of India. At present the ministry is headed by the Cabinet Minister Dharmendra Pradhan (2014-Incumbent). 15.Where is the first oil well drilled in Asia? a) Karachi, Pakistan b) Assam, India c) Tokyo, Japan d) Kandy, Sri Lanka Answer: b Explanation: Oil deposits were first discovered in Assam-Arrakan Basin at Digboi in 1889. In 1901, Asia‟s first oil refinery was set at Digboi in Assam. Digboi is the oldest oil well operating in India. In order to look after the oil business in this area, Assam Oil Company was formed in 1899. 16.The most abundantly available fossil fuel in India is _____________ a) Coal b) Natural Gas c) Petroleum d) Oil Answer: a Explanation: Coal is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India. There are different forms of coal available they are, 1) Peat: Peat is produced by the decaying of plants in swamps. 2) Bituminous: It derives its name after liquid called bitumen. 3) Lignite: This form is used to produce electricity. 4) Anthracite: It has more than 90% carbon content per kg and it is the best quality coal. 17.What is Palar pani? a) Spring b) Milk c) River water d) Rain water Answer: d Explanation: Palar Pani is the commonly used name for rain water. This term is mainly used in Rajasthan. In Rajasthan Palar Pani means “Meetha Panni” which mainly stored and used for household works like working and drinking. Page 21 of 95 18.Which of the following is the major source of fresh water which is available in India? a) Ocean water b) River water c) Pond water d) Ground water Answer: d Explanation: Ground water is the major source of fresh water in India. Ground water can‟t see or can‟t access easily. The important role of ground water sources play in the water cycle is that they are the primary sources for human consumption. 19.At what time usually rainfall is recorded in India? a) 4 P.M. b) 6 P.M. c) 8 P.M. d) 10 P.M. Answer: c Explanation: We can record the amount of rainfall by the device called as a rain gauge. The usual time of recording for rainfall is 8 A.M in Indian time. Different countries have different rainfall recording timings. The some total of all the measurements during the previous 24 hours is register at 8 A.M in the morning. 20.The total surface of water in the earth surface is_________________ a) 65% b) 69% c) 71% d) 75% Answer: c Explanation: The total surface of the water in the earth surface is 71%, while the other 29% consists of Continents and Islands. The oceans hold about 96.5% of all Earth‟s water. The remaining 3.5% of water is stored in other water bodies. 21.Which planet is also known as blue planet? a) Mercury b) Venus c) Earth d) Mars Answer: c Explanation: About 71% of the earth‟s surface is covered in water, which appears blue from space. Earth is known as blue planet because of its blue visibility when we see it from outer space. No other planet is having such a large amount of water this is also the reason for its blue color. 22.Ground water is accessed by______________ a) Drilling wells b) Drip irrigation c) Check bunds d) Constructing canals Answer: a Explanation: Ground water is commonly accessed either through a bore or well. A well is a vertical shaft which is dug into the ground. In order to drill a well we need to have a permission from the government. Government provide „take and use license‟ in most cases. Page 22 of 95 23. Which Indian state is the largest producer of gold? a) Karnataka b) Kerala c) Assam d) Goa Answer: a Explanation: Karnataka is the largest producer of gold in India. The Kolar Gold Fields which is located in Kolar which was one of the largest producers of gold in India was shut down. Presently there are two main gold mines located in Karnataka they are Hutti and Raichur gold mines which produce almost 84% of India‟s gold. 24. For the policy level guidelines for mineral sector, which policy is formed? a) National Resources Policy b) National Mineral Policy c) National Regulation Policy d) National Legislation Policy Answer: b Explanation: National Mineral Policy was started in 1993. The main aim of this policy is liberalization of the mining sector and to encouraging the flow of investment especially in private investment and mining. In the 2008 reform it address in the areas of mining sector. 25. Which state in India is the largest producer of diamond ores? a) Karnataka b) West Bengal c) Rajasthan d) Madhya Pradesh Answer: d Explanation: Madhya Pradesh is the only state in India which produce diamond. The unit used to measure diamond is Carats. Diamond is classified under non-metallic mineral. The largest project of diamond in India is the Bunder project which is located in Madhya Pradesh. 26. The copper production in India to that of world‟s production is about_________% a) 10% b) 2% c) 0.5% d) 0.2% Answer: d Explanation: Copper production in India is just about 0.2% in the world. But still, in the production rate it is still within the top 20 countries in the world. Copper mining production is about 0.2% but refined copper production is 4% of word‟s production. 27. The position of India in terms of production of Aluminium is________ a) 4th b) 3rd c) 2nd d) 1st Answer: a Explanation: India stands 4th position in the aluminium production in the world. China stands 1st position in the aluminium production in the world. Russia in 2nd place. Canada stands in 3rd place. The aluminium production in India is around 2750 tonnes. Page 23 of 95 28. Kudremukh hills which is known for iron ore deposit is situated in ____________ a) Kerala b) Karnataka c) Goa d) Tamil Nadu Answer: b Explanation: Kudremukh which is known as an iron ore mining town is located in Chikkamagaluru district in Karnataka state. The government runs an iron ore company known as Kudremukh Iron Ore Company Ltd(KIOCL). 29. continuous are of land surrounded by ocean is called__________________ a) Seashore b) Beach c) Landmass d) Wetland Answer: c Explanation: Landmass may be often written as one word to distinguish it from the usage „landmass‟ which means a measure of land. Landmass includes super continents, continents. Hence a land surrounded by oceans continuously is called as landmass. 30. How many major continuous landmass are there? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four Answer: d Explanation: On earth, there are four major continuous landmasses are there. They are, Afro-Rurasia, the Americans, Antarctica and Australia. A part from the above four major continuous landmasses there are many minor landmasses also present. 31. Land capable of being ploughed and used to grow crops is called as________________ a) Domestic land b) Arable land c) Un arable land d) Dry land Answer: b Explanation: Arable land is land that can be used for growing crops. Country with the most arable land in the world is United States having the share of 10.5% of the world‟s arable land. India stands in the second position with the production of 9.22%. 32. Out of the total land area, how many million hectares of land suffer from degradation? a) 150 b) 175 c) 200 d) 225 Answer: b Explanation: 175 million hectares of land area suffer from degradation. Land degradation is caused largely by soil erosion but also by water logging and excessive salinity. The high degree of degradation will affect the existing land resources. Page 24 of 95 33. Wearing away of a field‟s topsoil by the natural physical forces of water and wind is known as_____________ a) Wind erosion b) Soil erosion c) Water erosion d) Sand erosion Answer: b Explanation: Along with water and wind there is one more factor that determines the soil erosion and that is through forces associated with farming activities such as tillage, erosion, whether it is by water or wind. 34. Estimate of the ability of soils to resist erosion, based on the physical characteristics of each soil is known as__________________ a) Soil erodibility b) Soil erosion c) Soil potentiality d) Soil neutrality Answer: a Explanation: Texture is the principle characteristic affecting erodibility. Generally, soils with faster infiltration rates, higher levels of organic matter and improved soil structure have a greater resistance to erosion. 35. Low lying tract of land enclosed by dikes that forms an artificial hydrological entity is known as_________________ a) Polder b) Resign c) Derelict d) Catchment Answer: a Explanation: A polder has no connection with outside water other than through manually operated device used. There are three types of the polder. They are, Land reclaimed, flood plains and the last one is marshes. 36. Hydroponics is a technique of growing crops without__________________ a) Water b) Air c) Soil d) Sunlight Answer: c Explanation: Hydroponics is the technique of growing plants in a soil less medium, or an aquatic based environment. Hydroponics is a subset of hydro culture. Hydroponic growing uses mineral nutrient solutions to feed the plants. 37. The thin layer of grainy substance covering the surface of the earth is called as_______________ a) Mineral b) Soil c) Sand d) Chemical fertilizers Answer: b Explanation: Soil is the material found on the surface of the earth that is composed of organic and inorganic Page 25 of 95 material. Soil varies in its composition and the structure of its particles. Soil is a vital important to the sustainability of an ecosystem. 38. Process of conversion of productive land to arid or semi arid lands is known as________________ a) Deforestation b) Deformation c) Landform d) Desertification Answer: d Explanation: Desertification is classified into two types, moderate desertification in which 10 to 25% drop in productivity and one more is serious desertification in which there is more than a 50% drop in the productivity. This desertification leads to depletion of ground water. 39. In which forest we can see deforestation to large extent? a) Atlantic forest b) Amazon forest c) Borneo forest d) Sumatra forest Answer: b Explanation: According to World Wildlife report Amazon forest is the region where we can see more number of deforestation than any other region. Amazon forest which is the world‟s largest forest is also the site of the biggest projected loss due to deforestation. 40. The biggest driver of deforestation is_______________ a) Agriculture b) Forest fire c) Volcanic activities d) Soil erosion Answer: a Explanation: The biggest driver of deforestation is Agriculture. This is due to, farmers cut forests to provide more space for planting crops. The other reason is grazing livestock. The process of burning of trees by cutting them is known as slash agriculture. 41. Identify the uses of water a) Domestic b) Industrial c) Agricultural d) All the above Answer: d 42. Which metals are used for making Jewellery? a) Sodium, Potassium b) Zinc, Tungsten c) Iron, Copper, Aluminium d) Gold, silver, platinum Answer: d 43.Write example of Non-metallic minerals a)Lime b)Haematite Page 26 of 95 c)Cuprite d)Bauxite Answer: a 43. Resources that can be replenished naturally in the course of time are called ________ a) cyclic resources b) Renewable Resources. c) non-renewable Resources. d) None Answer: b 44.Solar energy is _________ form of energy a)conventional b)nonconventional c)both a and b d)none Answer: b 45.Productive functions of forest includesavailability of ____ a) Timber b) Bamboo c) Medicines d) all the above Answer: d 46.nuclear fission, nuclear decay and nuclear fusion are________ a) general processes b) special processes c) nuclear processes d) none Answer: c 47.Minerals such as Gasoline, Copper, and Zinc production are estimated to decline in the next _____years. a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 20 Answer: d 48.About _____% of the earth‟s water is strong saline. a) 50 b) 25 c) 97 d) 100 Answer: c 49. Private companies misuse __________ for getting more profit. a) Natural resources b) Money Page 27 of 95 c) Manpower d) None Answer: a 50. In 2018 the total world energy came from ___% fossil fuels a) 64 b) 60 c) 74 d) 70 Answer: a 51. Deregulation and privatization of energy sector is a _____strategyfor sustainability. a) Medium-term strategy b) Long – term strategy c) Immediate term strategy d) none Answer: b 52. Dams are constructed across the river is used for generating ____ a) Thermal power b) wind power c) tidal power d) Hydro electricity Answer: d 53. Which one among the following covers the highest percentage of forest area in the world? a) Temperate Coniferous forests b) Temperate Deciduous forest c) Tropical Monsoon forests d) Tropical Rain forests Answer: a 54. Plants get their nitrogen from– a) Rain b) Soil c) Air d) bed rock Answer: b 55.Forest is responsible for a)water shedprotection b)land erosion control c)providing economic and environmental benefits d)All of the above Answer: d 56.--- is the perpetual source of energy. a) nuclear reactor b) Hydropower c) solar energy Page 28 of 95 d) None of the above Answer: c 57.which of the following is not renewable resources? a) Coal b) wind power c) Geo thermal energy d) thermal energy Answer: a 58.The main causes of deforestation is a)overgrazing b)Agriculture industry and other developmental project c)Timber extraction d)all of the above Answer: d 59.water logging and soil salinity are the outcomes of… a) over- irrigation b) Mining c) soil erosion d) acid rain Answer: a 59. Wind energy is harnessed as ----------------- energy with the help of windmill. a) Mechanical b) Solar c) Electrical d) Heat Answer: a 60. Any material that can be transform into more valuable and useful product for all service is called as a) Resource b) Minerals c) Product d) None of the above Answer: a 61. Burning of fossil fuels a) decreases green house gases b) increases green house gases c) increase level of oxygen d) increase level of ethane Answer: b 63.All forms of water that comes down on Earth, including rain, show, hailetc. is a)precipitation b)Calcification c)Fixation d)None of the above Page 29 of 95 Answer: a 64.when the water is ejected from earth‟s interior in the form of hot water it is called a)Geyser b)hot springs c)both( a) and (b) d)None of the above Answer: b 65. Green revolution is associated with --------------- a) Sericulture b) Agriculture c) fish culture d) None of the above Answer: b 66. Which gas is likely to be reduced in the atmosphere by deforestation? a) Carbon dioxide b) Nitrogen c) Oxygen d) All of the above Answer: c 67. Which of the following enhances soil fertility ? a) Improved methods of agriculture b) crop rotation c) Using new seed verities d) Irrigation Answer: b 68.Forest is an example of a) Marine ecosystem b)Limnic ecosystem c) Artificial Ecosystem d)Terrestial Ecosystem Answer: d 69.The resources that can be replaced by natural ecological cycle is called a) renewable b) non renewable c) exhaustible d)natural Answer: a 70. The amount of oil that may become available foruse is called oil ________. a) Reserves b) Reservoir c) Resources d) Trap Answer: c Page 30 of 95 71. A coal deposit that is not economical to mine today would be considered part of our __________ a) coal reserves b) coal resources c) coal reservoir d) None of the above Answer: b 72. What is the leading source of energy used in the UnitedStates today? a) Coal b) oil resources c) natural gas d) nuclear power Answer: b 73. Energy resources derived from natural organic materials are called ________. a) geothermal energy sources b) fossil fuels c) Biomass d) All of the above Answer: b 74. All oil traps contain __________ a) an impermeable layer b) an anticline c) Fault d) All of the above Answer: a 75. The world has the least amount of which of the following fuel types. a)oil b)coal c)urenium d)there are roughly equal amounts of each of these fuels Answer: a 76. Burning of which of the following fuels produces the least amount of carbon dioxide per unit of energy? a) Coal b) Oil c) natural gas d) all of these produce the same amount of carbon dioxide. Answer: c 77. Nuclear energy is derived by ___________. a) combustion of atoms of U 235 b) fission of atoms of U 235 c) fusion of atoms of U 235 d) the breaking of U 235 bonds Answer: b Page 31 of 95 78. Solar energy stored in material such as wood, grain, sugar, and municipal waste is called __________. a) fossil fuels b) Biomass c) geothermal energy d) natural gas Answer: b 79. The most nuclear fuel used in the world is________________ a)Thorium – 232 b)Uranium – 238 c)Uranium – 235 d) Plutonium – 239 Answer: c 80. What type of energy is derived from heated groundwater? a) Solar b) Geothermal c) hydro electrical d) Nuclear Answer: b 81. The world faces an energy crisis because _________ a) world demand for energy will increase b) world oil production will peak and begin to decline c) shortages and the resulting escalation of prices can shock the economic and political order d) All of the above Answer: d 82. Fossil fuels are rich in carbon and a) Nitrogen b) Hydrogen c) Oxygen d) Nitrite Answer: b 83. Wind is beneficial resource of energy as it doesn't cause a) Pollution b) Echo c) Noise d) Sound Answer: a 84. Fossils fuel is an important source of energy for a) Transport b) Homes c) Industries d) all of them Answer: d 85. Energy is released from fossil fuels when they are___________________ Page 32 of 95 a) Pumped b) Cooled c) Burnt d) Pressurized Answer: c 86. Black painted panels which are hanged at roofs to trap heat and energy from sun, are a) solar cell b) solar heater c) solar furnace d) solar battery Answer: b 87. As per energy outlook 2019 world energy consumption will grow by nearly ____ between 2018 to 2050. a) 50 % b) 60 % c) 70 % d) 80 % Answer: a 88. What are necessary conditions for socio-economic change for sustainable world a) satisfaction of basic needs b) economic viability c) harmony with environment d) All of the above Answer: d 89. A tidal barrage is a barrier built over a_______ a) River bed b) River estuary c) River end d) River starting Answer: b 90. The blades in wind turbines are connected to________________ a) Nacelle b) Tower c) Foundation d) String Answer: a 91. In order to produce solar energy during sunlight, where the energy is stored in the batteries? a) Nickel Sulfur b) Zinc Cadmium c) Nickel Cadmium d) Nickel Cadmium Answer: c 92. Trapped heat inside the earth is known as___ a) Heat energy Page 33 of 95 b) geo thermal energy c) kinetic energy d) thermal energy Answer: b 93. SI unit for energy is___ a) Joule b) Watt c) Kilogram d) Newton Answer: a 94. Common energy source in Indian villages is: a) Electricity b) Coal c) Sun d) Wood and animal dung Answer: d 95. Photovoltaic cell converts solar energy into a) heat energy b) mechanical energy c) electrical energy d) chemical energy Answer: c 96. Biomass can be converted to a) methane gas b) Ethanol c) Biodiesel d) All of the above Answer: d 97. In which of the following region winds are stronger and constant a) Deserts b) Offshore c) low altitudes site d) All of the above Answer: b 98. Which of the following is a disadvantage of renewable energy? a) High pollution b) Available only in few places c) High running cost d) Unreliable supply Answer: d 99. In hydroelectric power, what is necessary for the production of power throughout the year? a) Dams filled with water b) High amount of air Page 34 of 95 c) High intense sunlight d) Nuclear power Answer: a 100.Which Ministry is mainly responsible for research and development in renewable energy sources such as wind a) Human Resource Development b) Agriculture and Farmers Welfare c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy d) Health and Family Welfare Answer: c Re-Verified By Prepared By Verified By Approved By. Module Coordinator HoD ME Academic Coordinator Page 35 of 95  ZEAL EDUCATION SOCIETY‟S ZEAL POLYTECHNIC,PUNE NARHE │PUNE -41 │ INDIA DEPARTMENT OF MECHANICAL ENGINEERING Question Bank for Multiple Choice Questions Program: Diploma in Mechanical engineering Program Code:- ME Scheme:-I Semester:- IV Course:- Environmental Studies Course Code:- 22447 03 – Ecosystem and Biodiversity Marks:-12 Content of Chapter:- 3.1Ecosystem-Definition,Aspects of ecosystem, Division of ecosystem, General characteristics of ecosystem, Functions of ecosystem. 3.2 Biodiversity - Definitions,Levels,Value and loss of Biodiversity. 3.3 Biodiversity assessment initiatives in India. 3.4 Threats and Hotspot of biodiversity. 3.5 Conservation of biodiversity objects, various laws. 1. Which one of the following is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle in an ecosystem? a) Carbon cycle b) Phosphorous cycle c) Sulfur cycle d) Nitrogen cycle Answer: b Explanation: Phosphorous cycle is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle in an ecosystem. It is also a biogeochemical cycles but here atmosphere does not play a significant role in the movement of the phosphorous cycle. 2. Transfer of energy from source of plants through a series of organism is known as ________________ a) Food web b) Energy cycle c) Food chain d) Biological system Answer: c Explanation: Food chain is a pathway that represents the exchange of energy from one organism to another. Energy is transmitted all the way from Sun to the other organisms by passing from producers to the consumers. 3. The type of ecosystem with the highest mean plant productivity is _______________ a) Tundra b) Temperate grassland c) Desert d) Tropical rain forest Answer: d Explanation: A Tropical rain forest has more kinds of trees than any other area in the world. Seventy Page 36 of 95 percent of the plants in the rainforest are trees. There are many distinct layers of trees. These layers have been identified as the emergent upper, canopy, understory and forest floor. 4. An ecosystem which can be easily damaged but can recovered after some time if damaging effect stops will be having ____________________ a) High stability and high resilience b) High stability and low resilience c) Low stability and low resilience d) Low stability and high resilience Answer: d Explanation: In any ecosystem the condition of low stability and high resilience makes it to damage easily and after a certain amount of time they recover from damaging effects. Hence both stability and resilience play an important role in ecosystem. 5. In ecosystem standing crop refers to________________ a) All the green plants b) All the non living materials c) All living and dead animals d) All the living materials both animals and plants Answer: d Explanation: Standing crop is the amount of total biomass present in an ecosystem. This is the amount of total living matter. There is no circulation in standing crop. In standing crop continuous synthesis and consumption of biomass are going on. 6. Which ecosystem produce the highest annual net primary productivity? a) Tropical evergreen forest b) Tropical rain forest c) Tropical deciduous forest d) Temperate evergreen forest Answer: b Explanation: Tropical rain forest produce mean NPP of 2200(g/m2/yr) the world NPP is 37.4(109 tons/yr). Tropical rain forest produce mean biomass of 45(Kg/m2) and the world biomass is 763(109 tones). Hence tropical rain forest ecosystem produces the highest annual net primary productivity(NPP). 7. What flows through the ecosystem while matter cycles within them? a) Energy b) Force c) Pressure d) Wind Answer: a Explanation: Ecosystem maintains themselves by cycling energy and nutrients obtained from external sources. At the first tropic level, primary producers are solar energy to produce organic plant material through photosynthesis. 8.Total primary production in an ecosystem is known as____________________ a) Gross final production b) Gross primary production c) Gross middle production d) Net primary production Page 37 of 95 Answer: b Explanation: The total amount of productivity in a region is gross primary productivity. Primary productivity is the rate at which energy is converted by photosynthetic and chemosynthetic autotrophy to organic substances. 9. Which type of ecosystem accounts for most of the net primary productivity on earth even though it has a low average net primary productivity? a) Tropical rain forest b) Desert c) Tropical evergreen forest d) Oceans Answer: d Explanation: The open oceans account for most of the net primary productivity on the planet even though they have one of the lowest average net primary productivities which cover by far the most area on earth. 10. Generally ecosystem consists of how many basic components? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four Answer: b Explanation: Generally ecosystems consist of two basic components, they are abiotic and biotic components. Abiotic components include basic inorganic and organic compounds. Biotic components include producers, consumers and decomposers. 11. The three functional components interact with each other to form__________________ a) Environmental succession b) Environmental depression c) Environmental system d) Ecology Answer: c Explanation: The three functional components of an ecosystem which are inorganic constituents, organism and energy input forms environmental system. An ecosystem is a functional and life sustaining environmental system. 12. The dominant second tropic level in a lake ecosystem is_____________________ a) Phytoplankton b) Zooplankton c) Plankton d) Benthos Answer: b Explanation: Lake ecosystem includes both biotic and abiotic components. Zooplanktons are the organisms that have animal like traits. Most of them are heterotrophy in nature. Zooplankton is a vital component of fresh water food webs. 13. Consumer for food that feeds on producers are known as_____________________ a) Carnivores b) Consumers Page 38 of 95 c) Herbivores d) Producers Answer: c Explanation: Animals that eat only plants are called as herbivores. Plants are called producers because they are able to use light energy from the sun to produce food from carbon dioxide and water. Herbivores are also known as primary consumers. 14. The food chain from grass to hawk and again it comes back to grass with the help of fungi. In the above explain food chain, what is grass? a) Producers b) Consumers c) Decomposers d) Energy source Answer: a Explanation: Green is a producer. It is a self sustaining organism that obtains its energy directly from sun. In the process, grass introduces few new organic substances into the food chain and grass plays a key role for consumers. 15. The process in which green plants and few organisms use sunlight to synthesize nutrients is known_________________ a) Chemosynthesis b) Photosynthesis c) Food chain d) Food web Answer: b Explanation: Photoautotroph‟s are the organisms involves in photosynthesis. It uses energy from sun to convert water from the soil and carbon dioxide from the air into glucose. Glucose provides energy to plants and is used to make cellulose which is used to build cell walls. 16. The process of making food by certain microbes create energy by some chemical reactions is known as_______________________ a) Photosynthesis b) Food chain c) Chemosynthesis d) Hetrosynthesis Answer: c Explanation: Chemoautotrophy is the organism which produces chemosynthesis. It uses energy from chemical reactions to make food. The chemical reactions are usually between methane with oxygen. Carbon dioxide is the main source of carbon for chemoautotrophy. 17. The food chain level in autotrophy is_____________ a) Primary b) Secondary c) Tertiary d) Quaternary Answer: a Explanation: All food chains start with autotrophy which is a producer. Autotrophs are eaten by herbivores, organisms that consume plants. Herbivores are the second tropic level. Carnivores and omnivores are secondary consumers. Page 39 of 95 18. What makes plant producers? a) Plants produce their own food b) Plants depend on other organisms for food c) Plants are decomposers d) Plants do not require any energy Answer: a Explanation: Plants produce their own food. They do this by using light energy from the sun, carbon dioxide from the air and water from the soil to produce food in the form of glucose. The overall process is called as photosynthesis. 19. What does a primary consumer eat? a) Plants b) Decomposers c) Small animals d) Large animals Answer: a Explanation: Primary consumers are always herbivores, or organisms that only eat autotrophic plants. This primary consumer gets energy by eating plants. For example, rabbit which is a primary consumer eat grass and other herbivorous plants to get energy. 20. On what category consumers are classified into? a) Herbivore b) Carnivore c) Omnivore d) Herbivore, carnivore, omnivore and scavenger Answer: d Explanation: Consumers can be classified into herbivores, carnivores, omnivores and as well as a scavenger. Most of the primary consumer is herbivore, secondary and tertiary consumers are carnivore. Quaternary are omnivores. 21. What is called for an organism that feeds on other organisms? a) Insects b) Consumer c) Producer d) Herbivore Answer: b Explanation: Consumers feed on producers or other consumers to gain their energy. The consumers are the animals that receive energy from the producers. Consumers are who feed on the lower level in the food chain. 22. How many types of consumers are there? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four Answer: c Explanation: There are three types of consumers they are, primary followed by secondary and tertiary. Primary consumers consume primary producers. Secondary consumers eat primary consumers. Tertiary consumers are the top predators of an ecosystem. Page 40 of 95 23. From where does the decomposer receive energy? a) Producers b) Consumers c) Self generation d) Organic substrates Answer: a Explanation: Decomposers receive energy by using organic substrates to get their energy, nutrients for development and growth. Decomposers are organisms that break down dead and decaying organisms. Similar to herbivores and predators, decomposers are also heterotrophic. 24. How many major groups classified in decomposers? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four Answer: b Explanation: Decomposers can be classified into two group namely, fungi and detritivores. Fungi break down deceased organism. While detritivores are responsible for consuming large particles off the deceased organism. 25. What is called for an organism which breakdown dead or waste matter into simpler substances? a) Decomposers b) Producers c) Insects d) Consumers Answer: a Explanation: Decomposers breakdown dead plant and animals. Decomposers are very important for any ecosystem. If decomposers doesn‟t exist then the plants would not get essential nutrients and even dead and waste matter would pile up. 26. The primary decomposers of most dead plant material are____________________ a) Algae b) Bacteria c) Fungi d) Insects Answer: c Explanation: Fungi play a major role as decomposers and recycles in the wide variety of habitants in which they exist. They release nitrogen and phosphorous from decaying matter. In fungi we can see digestion precedes ingestion. 27. To which category shelf fungi classified? a) Producers b) Consumers c) Decomposers d) Insects Answer: c Explanation: Shelf fungi also called as bracket fungi that forms shelf like sporophores. They grow on trees in a stack. They attack and digest the trunk and branches of a tree. Few shelf fungi can parasitize living trees causing eventual death of the tree. Page 41 of 95 28. In order to form compost which of the following wastes cannot be decomposed by bacteria? a) Plant wastes b) Kitchen wastes c) Plastic and polythene wastes d) Bodies of dead animals Answer: c Explanation: Bacteria cannot convert plastic and polythene to compost. Composting is a way to treat solid waste so that microorganisms break down the organic material. The composting process requires organic waste such as leaves, fruits and vegetables scraps. 29. What is called for the process of breaking down food to yield energy? a) Oxidation b) Photosynthesis c) Cellular respiration d) Decomposition Answer: c Explanation: Catabolism is a metabolic process in cellular respiration that uses oxygen and energy to break down nutrients. It creates the waste through an oxidation process with free chemical energy, which is used to help create the waste. 30. What are called for an organisms which get energy by eating dead organisms? a) Decomposers b) Producers c) Consumers d) Herbivores Answer: a Explanation: Decomposers are an organism that break down chemicals from wastes and dead organisms. In return, it gives important materials to the soil and water. This is the last stop of the food chain. 31. Which among the following is a product of photosynthesis? a) Glucose b) Carbon c) Monoxide d) Nitrogen Answer: a Explanation: Photosynthesis is a process to harvest energy from light. The energy is converted to biomass. Photosynthesis takes in carbon dioxide and water combine them in the presence of energy from the sun to make food. 32. What is called for an organism that eats both plants and animals? a) Omnivore b) Carnivore c) Decomposers d) Herbivore Answer: a Explanation: Some animals eat both plants and animals they are called omnivores. Omnivores include mammals and birds. It is very easy for omnivore to find food because they eat both plants and animals. They are opportunistic eaters. Page 42 of 95 33. Why energy flow is linear in an ecosystem? a) Because it flows in air medium b) Because it is very particular c) Because ecosystem is linear d) Because energy flows from one trophic level to the next higher one Answer: d Explanation: Energy flow is unidirectional because energy flows from one trophic level to next higher one. One more reason is when there is energy flow some energy lost as heat at each step. This is according to 10% energy transfer law. 34. Why plants in forests do not make use of all the light energy available to them? a) Because plants do not require energy b) Because plants are grown only in the winter season c) Because of the absence of chlorophyll d) Because sunlight doesn‟t fall on the leaves fully Answer: d Explanation: All plants require light energy in order to obtain energy. This energy is providing by sun known as ultimate source of energy. When sun light falls on the plants in the dense forest due to its shady branches of big trees which forms canopy. 35. How many parts are there in the forest ecosystem? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four Answer: b Explanation: A forest ecosystem has two parts they are, abiotic and biotic. Abiotic type of forest depends on abiotic conditions at the site, they are also called non-living aspects of the forest. Biotic type of forest depends on plants and animals form communities that are specific to each forest type. 36. On which factor forest type is mainly dependent? a) Abiotic b) Size of the forest c) Shape of trees d) Products from the trees Answer: a Explanation: The forest type mainly depends on abiotic factors such as the climate and soil characteristics of a region. It also depends on the nature of the tree species whether they are evergreen forest, deciduous, xerophytes or mangroves. 37. In which of the following place we can find the cold deserts? a) Bangalore b) Chennai c) Himalaya d) Rajasthan Answer: c Explanation: Cold deserts are the deserts where we can find less vegetation and few organisms which is adopted to live in cold regions. Cold deserts covered with snow. We can also find this cold deserts in the high plateaus of the Himalayas. Page 43 of 95 38. How many types of aquatic ecosystems are there? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four Answer: b Explanation: There are two important aquatic ecosystems are there. One is fresh water ecosystem and one more is marine ecosystem. Again these two ecosystems are further divided into various categories. Marine includes sea whereas fresh water includes lakes, rivers and wetlands. 39. What made organisms to build their ecosystem in quatic? a) Curiosity b) Evolution c) Force from other organisms d) Increase in water level Answer: b Explanation: According to scientists Earth‟s first cellular life arose primordial in oceans. Later as evolution takes place many animals from aquatic ecosystem came to land and adopt themselves to live in the condition of land. 40. What is called for the benefits that nature provides to human beings? a) Ecosystem services b) Ecosystem conservation c) Ecosystem degradation d) Ecosystem pool Answer: a Explanation: Ecological services are the environmental benefits resulting from physical, chemical and biological functions of ecosystems. Ecological services include market goods produced from ecosystems and non material benefits. 41. What is an important reason for the conservation of natural resources? a) Disturb the ecological balance b) Preserve the biological diversity c) Disruption of quality of the environment d) Hampering the biological species Answer: b Explanation: The materials or substances occurring in nature that exist without the actions of humankind are known as natural resources. The conservation of natural resources is important for the preservation of natural, biological diversity. 42. For what reason is the conservation of natural resources important? a) Maintaining the ecological processes b) Disturbing the ecological balance c) Extinction of biological species d) Disruption of quality of the environment Answer: a Explanation: The materials or substances (biotic and abiotic) occurring naturally and without the actions of humankind are known as natural resources. The conservation of natural resources is important for the preservation of biological diversity and maintaining ecological processes. Page 44 of 95 43. What is the correct full form of IUCN? a) International Union for Conservation of Nuts b) International Union for Conservation of Nature c) International Union for Conservation of Natural habitat d) International Union for Conservation of Numbers Answer: b Explanation: International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) was founded on 5 October 1948 in France by Julian Huxley. It is working in the field of conservation of nature and sustainable use of natural resources. 44. What are the species called whose number of individuals is greatly reduced to a critical level? a) Indeterminate b) Rare c) Vulnerable d) Endangered Answer: d Explanation: Those species whose number of individuals is greatly reduced to a critical level and are at a high risk of extinction in the wild are known as endangered species. Some examples of endangered species are Brown spider monkey, Bengal tiger, Ganga river dolphin, Indian Rhino, Black buck, etc. 45. What are the species called whose number of individuals is greatly reduced recently and is decreasing continuously? a) Endangered b) Rare c) Vulnerable d) Indeterminate Answer: c Explanation: Those species whose number of individuals is greatly reduced recently and is decreasing continuously and are at a high risk of endangerment in the wild are known as vulnerable species. Some examples of vulnerable species are Barasingha, Nilgiri Langur, Yak, Olive Ridley Turtle, Sloth bear, etc. 46. What are the species called whose members are few and live in a small geographical area called? a) Endangered b) Rare c) Indeterminate d) Vulnerable Answer: b Explanation: Those species called whose members are few and live in a small geographical area and are very uncommon, scarce, or infrequently encountered are known as rare species. Some examples of rare species are Malabar Giant Squirrel, Gee‟s Golden Langur, Dugong, Indian Giant Flying Squirrel, etc. 47. What are the species called whose members are in danger of extinction but the reason is unknown called? a) Endangered b) Vulnerable c) Rare d) Indeterminate Answer: d Explanation: The species called whose members are in danger of extinction but the reason is unknown, no enough information is available to decide their true nature are called indeterminate species. Some Page 45 of 95 examples of intermediate species are Short-eared rabbit of Sumatra, Three-banded armadillo of Brazil, Rhinoceros, etc. 48. Which utilitarian states that humans derive countless direct economic benefits from nature? a) Big utilitarian b) Broadly utilitarian c) Narrowly utilitarian d) Small utilitarian Answer: c Explanation: The humans derive countless direct economic benefits from nature is stated by the narrowly utilitarian argument. All the world commercial things provided to us by forests are included in this. It usually deals with the benefit of humans. 49. How many species of plants contribute to the traditional medicines used by native peoples around the world? a) 2,500 b) 2,000 c) 5,000 d) 25,000 Answer: d Explanation: The species of plants contribute to the traditional medicines used by native peoples around the world are approximately 25,000. Some examples of traditional plants used for medicinal purposes are ginger, garlic, chamomile, tulsi, etc. 50. How many species of plants are used for the production of the drugs currently sold in the market worldwide? a) 2 % b) 35 % c) 25 % d) 5 % Answer: c Explanation: Almost 25 percent of plant species are used for the production of the drugs currently sold in the market worldwide. Some plants used for the production of drugs are camphor tree, coca plant, poppy, turmeric, etc. 51. Which utilitarian states that biodiversity is important for many ecosystem services that nature provides? a) Narrowly utilitarian b) Broadly utilitarian c) Big utilitarian d) Small utilitarian Answer: b Explanation: The biodiversity is important for many ecosystem services that nature provides is stated by the broadly utilitarian argument. It involves the conservation of biodiversity by humans because it is their moral responsibility and they derive many benefits from nature. 52. What is exploring molecular, genetic, and species-level diversity for products of economic importance called? a) Biopiracy b) Biofuel Page 46 of 95 c) Bioprospecting d) Biodiversity Answer: c Explanation: Exploring molecular, genetic, and species-level diversity or the search for plant and animal species for products of economic importance such as medicinal drugs and other commercially valuable compounds is known as bioprospecting. The compounds explored are used in various fields such as academic, agriculture, bioremediation, pharmaceuticals, nanotechnology, industrial purposes, etc. 53. What percent of the total oxygen in the Earth‟s atmosphere is released by the Amazon forest? a) 50 % b) 20 % c) 40 % d) 2 % Answer: b Explanation: The Amazon rainforest is the world‟s largest tropical rainforest and is also known as the Amazon Jungle or Amazonia. Approximately 20 percent of the total oxygen in the Earth‟s atmosphere is released by the Amazon forest by the process of photosynthesis. 54. Which one of the following is an example of conservation? a) No use of natural resources b) The wise use of natural resources c) Excess use of natural resources d) Complete use of natural resources Answer: d Explanation: The materials or substances occurring in nature that exist without the actions of humankind are known as natural resources. These resources can be conserved by using them wisely. 55. How many plant and animal species have been discovered and described so far? a) 1.5 million b) 4.5 million c) 1.5 billion d) 4.5 billion Answer: a Explanation: The biosphere of Earth is heterogeneous in nature and shows immense diversity. There are more than slightly more than 1.5 million species known and still many species are yet to be discovered and described. 56. What is the global species diversity according to Robert May? a) 70 million b) 7 million c) 2 million d) 20 million Answer: b Explanation: Robert McCredie May is a theoretical ecologist and promoter of science. He estimated that there are almost 7 million species globally. 57. Out of the total species estimated, how many species are of animals? a) 2 % b) 50 % Page 47 of 95 c) 7 % d) 70 % Answer: d Explanation: Based on the currently available species inventories of Earth, out of all species recorded, more than 70 percent of species are of animals. Animals are the consumers that depend on producers for their energy requirements. 58. Of all the species recorded, what percent do plants comprise of? a) 10 % b) 50 % c) 22 % d) 2 % Answer: c Explanation: Based on the currently available species inventories of Earth, out of all species recorded, almost 22 percent of species are of plants. These include all the known species of (including algae, fungi, bryophytes, gymnosperms, and angiosperms. 59. Of all the animal species recorded, what percent do insects comprise of? a) 7 % b) 70 % c) 50 % d) 2 % Answer: b Explanation: Among animals, insects are said to be the most species-rich taxonomic group. Insects are hexapod invertebrates belonging to phylum Arthropoda. Out of all known animal species, 70 percent is comprised of insects. 60. Which is the most species-rich taxonomic group? a) Molluscs b) Crustaceans c) Echinoderms d) Insects Answer: d Explanation: Among animals, insects are said to be the most species-rich taxonomic group. Insects are hexapod invertebrates belonging to phylum Arthropoda. Out of all known animal species, 70 percent is comprised of insects. 61. Of all the vertebrate species recorded which class has the maximum number of species? a) Amphibians b) Mammals c) Fishes d) Reptiles Answer: c Explanation: Fishes are limbless cold-blooded vertebrate gill-bearing aquatic craniate animals. They commonly have fins and are covered with scales. Of all the vertebrate species recorded, fishes have the maximum number of species. 62. Of all the plant species recorded which class has the minimum number of species? a) Angiosperms b) Fungi Page 48 of 95 c) Algae d) Lichens Answer: d Explanation: The mutualistic relationship between a fungus and photosynthesizing algae is called lichens. Of all the plant species recorded, lichens have the minimum number of species. They are used in the food industry, making dyes and have medicinal use. 63. How much of the world‟s land area, India has? a) 1 percent b) 40 percent c) 2.4 percent d) 80 percent Answer: c Explanation: Of the entire world‟s land area, India has 2.4 percent. India with a total area of 3,287,263 square kilometers that is 1,269,219 square miles is said to be the seventh-largest country in the world. 64. Which of the following species is present in India? a) Koala b) Sloth bear c) Kangaroo d) Wombats Answer: b Explanation: Out of the total global species diversity, India contributes 8.1 percent. Out of this sloth bear is found in India, while rest others are marsupials that are mostly found in Australia. 65. Which of the following species is native of India? a) Rhodes grass b) Jackalberry tree c) Ebony tree d) Umbrella thorn acacia Answer: c Explanation: India is home to approximately 45,000 plant species. Ebony tree (Diospyros celibica) is the native of India. It is a threatened species found in Karnataka. 66. Considering May‟s global estimates, how many of the total species have been recorded? a) 1 percent b) 22 percent c) 10 percent d) 50 percent Answer: b Explanation: Robert McCredie May is a theoretical ecologist and promoter of science. He estimated that there are almost 7 million species globally. Considering May‟s global estimates, only 22 percent of the total species have been recorded. 67. Considering May‟s global estimates, how many of the plant species are yet to be discovered and described in India? a) 500 b) 100 c) 5,00,000 d) 1,00,000 Page 49 of 95 Answer: d Explanation: Robert McCredie May estimated that there are almost 7 million species globally. Considering May‟s global estimates and applying this proportion to India‟s diversity figures, we can say that there are more than 1,00,000 plant species yet to be discovered and described in India. 68. What does „The Evil Quartet‟ describes? a) An increase in the number of species b) The decrease in the number of species c) Mass extinction d) Formation of the universe Answer: b Explanation: „The Evil Quartet‟ is the sobriquet used to describe the reasons for the decline in the number of species. The four reasons include Loss of habitat and fragmentation, Over-exploitation of species, Invasion of alien (new) species and Co-extinctions. 69. Which one of the following is said to be the most important cause or reason for the extinction of animals and plants? a) Loss of habitat and fragmentation b) Over-exploitation of species c) Invasion of alien species d) Co-extinctions Answer: a Explanation: The most important reason for the extinction of animals and plants is the loss of habitat and fragmentation. Habitat loss due to destruction, fragmentation, or degradation of habitat makes natural habitat incapable of supporting its native species. 70. Previously how much of the Earth‟s land surface was covered by the tropical rain forests? a) 50 % b) 14 % c) 24 % d) 35 % Answer: b Explanation: The forests occurring in tropical areas of heavy rainfall are known as tropical rain forests. It has abundant species of wildlife and vegetation. Previously 14 percent of the Earth‟s land surface was covered by the tropical rain forests. 71.The initiative of biodiversity assessment focuses on which ecosystem types: a) Forest b) wetland c) Marine d) All of the above Answer: d 72.Which of the following is not a Causes of biodiversity losses? a) Over exploitation b) Eco-friendly c) Co-extinction d) Habitat loss and fragmentation Answer: b Page 50 of 95 73. marketable products such as animal skins, ivory, medicinal plants, honey, etc comes under_______. a) Productive value b) Consumptive value c) Aesthetic value d) Social value Answer: a 74. _______called the „lungs of the planet‟. a) Sahyadry rain forest b) Konkan rain forest c) Amazon rain forest d) South Africa rain forest Answer: c 75. Which leads to over- exploitation of natural resources? a) Greed b) Eco-friendly c) Need d) All of the above Answer: a 76. What flows through the ecosystem while matter cycles within them? a) Energy b) Force c) Pressure d) Wind Answer: a 77. Currently, how much area of the Earth‟s land surface is covered by the tropical rain forests? a) 90 % b) 50 % c) 1 % d) 6 % Answer: d Explanation: The forests occurring in tropical areas of heavy rainfall are known as tropical rain forests. It has abundant species of wildlife and vegetation. Currently, 6 percent area of the Earth‟s land surface is covered by the tropical rain forests. 78. Which animals are badly affected when a large habitat is broken up into small fragments due to various human activities? a) Extinct species b) Migratory species c) Non-migratory species d) Humans Answer: b Explanation: When a large habitat is broken up into small fragments due to various human activities, the migratory species are badly affected. These areas are fragmented by humans for agriculture and urban development. Page 51 of 95 79. What are the excess and the unsustainable use of resources called? a) Loss of habitat and fragmentation b) Co-extinctions c) Invasion of alien species d) Over-exploitation Answer: d Explanation: The excess and unsustainable use of resources is known as over-exploitation. It is also known as overharvesting. Overexploitation of any kind of resource leads to rapid decline and destruction of that resource that may cause serious damage to the ecosystem. 80. What was the reason for the exploitation of the Steller‟s sea cow and the passenger pigeon? a) Competition b) Loss of habitat c) Human activities d) Mutualistic relationships Answer: c Explanation: The excess and unsustainable use of resources is known as over-exploitation. Many species such as the Steller‟s sea cow and the passenger pigeon are lost in last 500 years due to human activities such as poaching. 81. What happens when alien species are introduced unintentionally or deliberately? a) Decrease of alien species b) Increase in habitat c) They turn invasive and cause increase species d) They turn invasive and cause decline or extinction of indigenous species Answer: d Explanation: The unintentional or deliberate introduction of alien (new) species into a habitat cause the aliens to turn invasive and thus causing the decline or extinction of indigenous species. They can affect all types of organisms (animals, plants, fungi, and microorganisms) and ecosystems. 82. What happened when the Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria in east Africa? a) Extinction of trees b) Increase in the number of trees c) Extinction of cichlid fish d) Increase in the number of cichlid fish Answer: c Explanation: The cichlid fish, native of Lake Victoria in east Africa were extinct due to the introduction of alien species that is the Nile perch. It destroyed nearly 200 species of cichlid fish through predation and competition for food. 83. Which of the following contains chemicals like parthenin, is toxic to cattle and cause pollen allergy in humans? a) Nile perch b) The carrot grass c) Rose d) Wheat Answer: b Explanation: The carrot grass also known as Parthenium is an erect and annual herb. It is responsible for environmental, medical, and agricultural hazards. It contains chemicals like parthenin, is toxic to cattle and causes pollen allergy in humans. Page 52 of 95 84. What is Eicchornia called? a) The carrot grass b) Nile perch c) Water hyacinth d) Water lily Answer: c Explanation: Eichhornia crassipes also known as water hyacinth. It was first introduced from South America into China that later on became a serious environmental problem. It reduces the sunlight penetration and lowers the oxygen content in the water that hampers the water ecosystem. 85. Why was the African catfish Clarias gariepinus introduced? a) Horticulture b) Aquaculture c) Sericulture d) Poultry Answer: b Explanation: The African catfish Clarias gariepinus was introduced for aquaculture purposes. The introduction was illegal and posed a threat to the indigenous catfishes in our rivers due to disease introduction, competition, and environmental modification. 86. Which phenomenon explains that „When a species becomes extinct, the plant and animal species also become extinct that are obligatorily associated with the host species‟? a) Aquaculture b) Fragmentation c) Invasion d) Co-extinction Answer: d Explanation: Co-extinction is the phenomenon that tells, when a species becomes extinct, the plant and animal species also become extinct that are obligatorily associated with the host species. If a host is extinct the parasite associated with it is also extinct. 87. Which phenomenon does the coevolved plant-pollinator mutualism explain? a) Co-extinction b) Fragmentation c) Invasion d) Loss of habitat Answer: a Explanation: The coevolved plant-pollinator mutualism explains the phenomenon of co-extinction. Co- extinction is the phenomenon that tells, when a species becomes extinct, the plant and animal species also become extinct that are obligatorily associated with the host species. 88. The Earth consists of how many ant species? a) 100,000 b) 20,000 c) 200,000 d) 2000 Answer: b Explanation: Ants are eusocial (highly social) insects. They live together in organized colonies. There are approximately 20,000 species of ants on the Earth. Page 53 of 95 89. How many species of beetles are present on the Earth? a) 3,00,000 b) 30,000 c) 3,000 d) 300 Answer: a Explanation: Beetles are a group of winged insects and eat almost everything. They are prominent decomposers, and there are approximately 3,00,000 species of beetles on the Earth. 90. How many species of fishes are present on Earth? a) 28,00,000 b) 28,000 c) 280 d) 28 Answer: b Explanation: Fishes are limbless cold-blooded vertebrate gill-bearing aquatic craniate animals. They commonly have fins and are covered with scales. There are approximately 28,000 species of fishes on Earth. 91. Which of the following statements is true? a) Diversity exists only at the species level b) Diversity exists only at the macromolecular level c) Diversity exists at all levels of biological organization d) Diversity exists at the genetic level only Answer: c Explanation: Biodiversity is the variety and variability of all the levels of biological organization (plant and animal life) on Earth. The diversity exists not only at the genetic level but at all levels of biological organization 92. Who popularized the term biodiversity? a) Rudolf Virchow b) Edward Wilson c) Gregor Mendel d) Robert Koch Answer: b Explanation: Edward Wilson popularized the term biodiversity. Biodiversity is the variety and variability of all the levels of biological organization (plant and animal life) on Earth. 93. What can a single species show? a) No variation at the genetic level b) No diversity at the genetic level c) Low diversity at the genetic level d) High diversity at the genetic level Answer: d Explanation: Genetic diversity is important among various levels of biodiversity. High genetic diversity can be seen only in a single species. 94. What is the feature of the biosphere? a) No diversity Page 54 of 95 b) Homogeneity c) Heterogeneity d) Negligible diversity Answer: c Explanation: Biosphere is the total surface and atmosphere integrating all living beings and their relationships of the Earth. The biosphere is heterogeneous in nature and shows immense diversity. Thus heterogeneity is a feature of the biosphere. 95. How many strains of rice does India have? a) 50 b) 500 c) 5,000 d) 50,000 Answer: d Explanation: India consists of approximately 50,000 strains of rice. Rice is an edible starchy cereal grain, seed of the grass species Oryza. Rice is said to be the most widely consumed staple food. 96. How many varieties of mango does India have? a) 2 b) 10 c) 1,000 d) 20 Answer: c Explanation: Mango is an edible stone fruit (drupe) belonging to the flowering plant genus Mangifera. They grow mostly in tropical areas. India consists of approximately more than 1,000 varieties of mango. 97. Which organism‟s species have greater diversity in the Western Ghats than the Eastern Ghats? a) Reptiles b) Fishes c) Amphibians d) Mammals Answer: c Explanation: Amphibians have more species diversity in the Western Ghats than the Eastern Ghats. A chain of mountains running parallel to India‟s western coast (Sahyadri) and the mountain ranges run parallel to the Bay of Bengal are the western and eastern ghats respectively. 98. How many years did evolution required? a) Tens b) Hundreds c) Trillions d) Millions Answer: d Explanation: Evolution is the result of the process of slow and gradual changes in millions of years. As evolution proceeds, organisms become more and more complex. The complexity of organisms can be given by studying various processes of biological organization. 99. Photosynthesis is the basis of life on earth because ______ a) It is the main source of all food on earth b) It helps in the release of CO2 into the atmosphere Page 55 of 95 c) It produces new offsprings d) It gives no energy to plants Answer: a Explanation: Photosynthesis is the basis of life on earth because it is the main source of all food on earth. It is also responsible for the release of oxygen into the atmosphere. It does not produce new offsprings but gives energy or glucose to the plants in the form of starch. 100.Other than CO2 and light, which is used as the raw material for photosynthesis? a) O2 b) CO2 c) H2O d) MnO2 Answer: c Explanation: The raw materials of photosynthesis are carbon dioxide and water in the presence of sunlight. And its final products are glucose, water, and oxygen. These substances are the most abundant materials on earth and provide equivalent oxygen to atmosphere. 101.Among the following, which compound does not play an important role in photosynthesis? a) Xanthophyll b) Anthocyanin c) Chlorophyll d) Phycoerythrin Answer: b Explanation: Anthocyanin does not play an important role in photosynthesis whereas the others have an important role. Anthocyanin main role is to provide blue, red and purple color to the plants. It also protects the plants from high temperatures and abiotic stresses. Re-Verified By Prepared By Verified By Approved By. Module Coordinator HoD ME Academic Coordinator Page 56 of 95  ZEAL EDUCATION SOCIETY‟S ZEAL POLYTECHNIC,PUNE NARHE │PUNE -41 │ INDIA DEPARTMENT OF MECHANICAL ENGINEERING Question Bank for Multiple Choice Questions Program: Diploma in Mechanical engineering Program Code:- ME Scheme:-I Semester:- IV Course:- Environmental Studies Course Code:- 22447 04– Environmental pollution Marks:-20 Content of Chapter:- 4.1 Definition of pollution, types- Natural & Artificial (Man- made). 4.2 Soil/Land Pollution-Causes and effects on environment and lives , preventive measures. 4.3 Water Pollution - Sources of water(surface and sub surface),sources of water pollution,Effect on environment and lives,preventive measures,BIS Water quality standard,flow diagram of water treatment plant,water conservation. 4.4 Wastewater - Generation(domestic and industrial), Impacts, flow diagram of sewage treatment plant, CPCB norms of sewage discharge. 4.5 Air pollution-Causes, effects,prevention,Ambient air quality standards. 4.6 Noise pollution-Sources,effects,prevention,noise levels at various zones of the city. 4.7 Municipal solid waste Bio-medical waste and E-waste-Sources,generation,characteristics,effects,and methods to manage. 1. When did the air pollution on earth happened first time? a) When humans started using tools b) When humans started using firewood c) When humans started using clothes d) When humans started using wheels Answer: b Explanation: The origin of air pollution on earth can be traced when humans started using firewood as a means of cooking and heating food items. Back in 400 BC itself, Hippocrates mentioned air pollution. As the years passed air pollution keeps on increasing. 2. What are secondary pollutants? a) Pollutants due to fire b) Pollutants due to emission c) Pollutants due to a chemical reaction d) Pollutants due to oxidation Answer: c Explanation: The pollutants produced in the atmosphere when certain chemicals reactions take place among the primary pollutants are called secondary pollutants. Some of the examples of secondary pollutants are sulphuric acid, nitric acid and carbonic acid. 3. Which is the colorless, odorless and toxic gas which produced when organic materials incompletely burn? a) Sulphur oxide Page 57 of 95 b) Carbon monoxide c) Oxygen d) Particulates Answer: b Explanation: Vehicular exhausts are the largest single source of carbon monoxide. It is a colorless, odorless and toxic gas produced when organic materials like natural gas or wood are incompletely burnt. 4. Which of the following cause soot in the environment? a) Hydrocarbons b) Nitrogen oxide c) Sulphur oxide d) Particulates Answer: d Explanation: Particulates are small pieces of solid material like dust particles and ash from industries which dispersed into the atmosphere. Repeated exposure to particulates causes them to accumulate in the lungs and cause severe problems. 5. What is aerosol? a) General term for particles in air b) General term for particles in soil c) General term for particles in water d) General term for particles inside humans Answer: a Explanation: Aerosol is a general term which is used to express the meaning for the particles which are suspended in air. This aerosol contributes to air pollutants as they join other materials in the atmosphere. Sprays from pressurized cans are an example of aerosol. 6. What is smog? a) Mixture of smoke and particulates b) Mixture of smoke and oxygen c) Mixture of smoke and fog d) Mixture of soot and fog Answer: c Explanation: Aerosol is a general term for particles suspended in air. Those aerosols when came into contact with water droplets they constitute fog. So smog is a term used to describe a mixture of smoke and fog. 7. Aerosol + solid particles + liquid particles results in____________________ a) Dust b) Mist c) Smog d) Smoke Answer: d Explanation: Aerosol consisting of solid particles or a mixture of solid and liquid particles produced by chemical reactions such as fire is known as smoke. Smoke from the burning forest, cigarette smoke, smoke by chimneys is some of the examples of smoke. 8. Which is responsible for the greatest exposure to carbon dioxide for living organisms? a) Hurricanes b) Soil erosion Page 58 of 95 c) Vehicles emission d) Cigarette smoking Answer: d Explanation: Cigarette smoking is responsible for the greatest exposure to carbon monoxide. Exposure to air containing even 0.001% of carbon monoxide for few hours can cause collapse, coma and even death in the worst case. 9. How excessive water loss takes place in plants? a) Due to soil pollution b) Due to mutation c) Due to air pollution d) Due to improper seed Answer: c Explanation: The leaves of plants are damaged when some gaseous pollutants enter the pores of the leaf. Chronic exposure of the leaves to air pollutants can break down the waxy coating that helps prevent excessive water loss in plants. 10. How does asthma cause to human beings? a) Because of excessive diet b) Because of water pollution c) Because of air pollution d) Because of soil pollution Answer: c Explanation: Asthma is one of the health impacts that are caused due to air pollution. There are many health impacts especially respiratory impacts on human beings. Asthma is caused due to excessive inhale of sulphur dioxide and smoking. 11. What is the reason for reduced in the plant growth? a) Excessive exposure to sunlight b) Excessive exposure to wind c) Excessive exposure to water pollution d) Excessive exposure to air pollution Answer: d Explanation: Reduced in the plant growth is due to the chronic exposure of air pollution on the plants.