CSS 360- FinalExamSampleQuestions.pdf

CSS 360 - Potential Sample Questions for Final Exam NOTE: there are duplicate questions; however, the question format or verbiage might be different. I have done my best to organize the questions based on the lecture material; nevertheless, occasionally a question might be out of place. That does no...

CSS 360 - Potential Sample Questions for Final Exam NOTE: there are duplicate questions; however, the question format or verbiage might be different. I have done my best to organize the questions based on the lecture material; nevertheless, occasionally a question might be out of place. That does not make the question wrong. The correct answers are in bold. Please be advised that on the final exam the verbiage of both the questions and the answers might appear differently. Lecture – Software Architecture and Architectural Patterns 1) Which of the following is not true about software architecture? a) It is concerned with how each module or component interacts with each other and with the system as a whole. b) It is the set of principal design decisions about the system. c) It is often characterized by the system's structure (components & connectors). d) It means understanding how a system should be organized, and designing the overall structure of that system. The correct answers are in bold. 2) Which of the following architectural styles would you avoid if you are concerned about communication latencies between the distant components? a) Object-oriented b) Main program and subroutines c) Layered d) sense-compute-control e) None of the above 3) When is the Main Program and Subroutines architecture model primarily used? a) For large-scale applications. b) For sophisticated distributed systems. c) For systems with a close correspondence to the real world. d) For smaller applications. 4) Dynamic data structures are best represented by which architecture model? a) Layered b) Main Program and Subroutines c) Object-Oriented d) Repository 5) Which of the following is not an architectural pattern discussed? a) Model-View-Controller b) Real-time Systems c) Blackboard d) State-Logic-Display 1 Page 6) Which architectural pattern is event-driven?  a) Model-View-Controller b) Object-Oriented c) Sense-Compute-Control d) Client-Server 7) When to use Blackboard a) Want component to interact via changes to centralized data b) When there are real time systems c) In operating systems d) Dynamic data structures 8) What architectural pattern should be used for Operating Systems? a) Layered Architecture b) Graphical user interfaces c) Sense-compute-control d) Model-view-control 9) What is a caveat of repository SDLC model? a) If the data model changes, have to reflect the change to all the components b) Will not work well when you have a limited band width and there are many client connections c) Relatively inefficient for high performance applications d) If used in a distributed setting, will require extensive middleware 10) Model-view-control is the same as sense-compute-control a) False b) True 11) What is the communication part of a basic software architecture design? a) Connectors b) Links c) Interfaces d) Components 12) What architectural design would you typically use in today’s cars? a) Real-Time Systems b) Sense-Compute-Control c) Object-Oriented d) Layered 13) What is a caveat with main program and subroutines? a) Will not scale b) Limited bandwidth c) Increase in overhead d) Hardware malfunction may not be detected 2 Page 14) What is an advantage of software architecture?  a) Large-scale reuse b) Reduces production time c) Facilitates employee communication 15) What do interfaces expose? a) Entry and exit points b) Connectors c) Components d) Links 16) Which one is not a software architectural pattern? a) Agile b) MVC c) Client-server d) Repository Layered 17) Why is software architecture important? a) Because it affects the performance b) Function requirements depend on components c) Non-Functional requirements-largely depend on the system architecture d) All of the above 18) What levels of design are there in software design? a) High level and low level design b) Low level and medium level c) High level and medium level d) None of the above 19) What is middleware? a) Computer software that connects software components or applications. b) The project manager who deals with programmers and stakeholders c) The connections between a server and a computer d) The code that goes in the middle section of a program. 20) In a layered pattern, each layer only relies on the facilities and services of the layer immediately __________ it a) adjacent to b) above c) across from d) none of the above 21) What is the name for computer software that connects software components or applications? a) Shrink-wrapped b) Connector c) Middleware d) Repository 3 22) Why is it important to design software architecture? Page a) Because it affects the performance, robustness, and distributability of a system  b) Because it helps developer easily maintain the system c) Because it helps resolving bugs of a system without affecting other functionalities d) Because it helps developer examine any missing requirements of a system 23) When is object-oriented pattern used? a) Applications where developers want a close correspondence to the real world and dynamic data structures b) Small projects c) High performance applications d) Distributed setting 24) Which of the following is true? a) Architecture is high-level design b) Architecture is mid-level design c) Architecture is low-level design d) None of the above 25) Which of the following is not a basic software architecture element? a) Analysis b) Components c) Connectors d) Interfaces 26) The Sense-Compute-Control architectural pattern is typically used in: a) Real-time systems b) Graphical user interfaces c) Where centralized processing is needed d) In operating systems 27) Functional Requirements depend on: a) Components b) System architecture c) User specification d) Middleware Lecture – System models 28) What is not a consequence of a bad design? a) Lack of generality b) Lack of abstraction c) Lack of incrementality d) Lack of creativity 29) Why is it a good idea to design for generality? a) Increases reuse b) Limits the effects of system modifications. 4 c) Refines the interface of a module. Page d) Creates a clean separation of concerns. Lecture - Design patterns 30) What is true of external service components? a) They have both a "required" and "provided" interface. b) They require considerable support from programs using it. c) They are completely independent entities. 31) What does middleware help with? a) Communication between applications and operating systems b) Reusability of code c) Communication between components and code 32) Which of the following are interface of a component? (select all that apply) a) Provided b) Required c) Received d) Produce 33) Design pattern is.. a) A description of communicating objects and classes that are customized to solves a general design problem in a particular context b) A pattern to create a whole system c) A feature that needs to be implemented a certain way. d) All of the above 34) A whole UI is a) Provide design guidance for top-level structure and navigation throughout the entire interface b) Address the general organization of pages (for Websites) or distinct screen displays (for interactive apps) c) Consider a variety of design techniques for completing form-level input d) Provide design guidance for creating and manipulating tabular data of all kinds 35) What design pattern should be used to keep classes consistent with changes without making the objects tightly coupled? a) Adapter b) Observer c) Singleton d) Object-Oriented 36) Which of the following is the definition of abstraction? a) Allows work in isolation because interfaces guarantee that components will work toget b) Allows software to be developed with intermediate working results. c) Allows work in isolation because components are independent of each other. 5 d) Allows changes to be absorbed seamlessly Page 37) Which of the following is the cause of “code bloat”? a) Lack of generality b) Lack of time management c) Lack of incrementality d) Lack of anticipation of change 38) Why is generality useful? a) Increases reuse b) Helps refine the interface of a module c) Makes design elements more identifiable d) Can lead to a clean separation of change 39) What do modules consist of? a) Many components b) A single component c) Data d) Adapters 40) The design patterns focus is on what? a) Focus on a specific Problem and it’s solution. b) The grand picture c) Reusability at different levels d) None of the above 41) “anticipation of change”. What will it allow you to do? a) Allows changes to be absorbed seamlessly. b) Allows components to be reused through the system. c) Allows software to be developed w/ intermediate working results. d) Allows for software components to be recycled. 42) Which one is not a consequence of a bad design? a) Lack of reimplementation b) Lack of modularity c) Lack of abstraction d) Lack of anticipation of change 43) Which of these ensures that a class only has one access? a) Singleton b) Observer c) Adapter d) Dependent 44) Designing for generality increases _______ a) Separation of concerns b) applicability c) generality d) reuse 6 Page 45) A(n) ______ is a description of communicating objects and classes that are customized to solve a general problem in a particular context a) UI pattern b) workflow pattern c) architectural pattern d) design pattern 46) What purpose does an observer server? a) Allows an existing class cooperate with an unrelated or unforeseen class b) Allows different components to immediately respond to each state change c) Provides design guidance for the top-level structure and navigation throughout the interface d) Keeps track of the private data values in every component 47) The Singleton design pattern is used to: a) Ensure a class has only a single instance of an object and provide global access to it b) To observe object state changes c) To match an existing class to an interface that does not match d) Create objects based on the type needed 48) Which of the following is not a UI pattern? a) Observer b) Search c) Navigation d) E-Commerce Lecture – Software reuse 49) What is the relationship between component and module? a) The two terms are synonymous. b) A component can be composed in different ways with other components to form useful functionalities, whereas a module implies "plug-in" type functionality and can be replaced with having no effect on the system. c) A component consists of many modules. d) A module can be composed in different ways with other modules to form useful functionalities, whereas a component implies "plug-in" type functionality and can be replaced with having no effect on the system. 50) At which design level is middleware used primarily? a) Code b) Low-level c) High-level d) Product 51) At what levels is “Reusability” encountered a) Product, High level design, low level design, code. b) When choosing components and architecture 7 c) All of the above Page d) None of the above 52) A(n) _____ is a container of interrelated classes and functions that provide a common service a) component b) module c) interface d) IVS 53) Which of the following is a generic structure that is extended to create a more specific subsystem or application? a) Framework b) Software reuse c) Object-oriented programming language d) None of the above 54) Where are components deployed? a) Middleware b) Framework c) System d) User interface 55) What to reuse at the code level? a) OO Templates and interfaces b) Common includes, imports c) Common function libraries d) All of the above 56) Reusability at the High-level design means: a) Product families, architectural patterns/styles, frameworks b) Middleware, components, web services, design patterns, object-oriented inheritance c) Shrink-wrapped products, commercial off-the-shelf d) Templates and interfaces, function libraries, common includes, code snippets, macros 57) Creating reusable components uses all the following practices, except: a) Object-oriented templates and interfaces b) Separate dependencies c) Clear naming conventions d) Interface kept general and well defined 58) What is the difference between a component and an external service as a component? a) Services are completely independent entities with no required interface. b) The service is purchased c) The component is owned by the team d) There is no difference functionally Lecture - Implementation 8 Page 59) Define branching.  a) An action where a new codeline is created from an existing codeline b) An action when a new node is added to a binary tree c) An action where two codelines are joined together d) An action that involves customers trying a new product and recommending it to others 60) One of the main concerns of the configuration management is: a) Keeping track of multiple versions of system components b) Implementation of the policies and processes of changing software systems c) The creation of an executable system version by compiling and linking the appropriate versions of the components and libraries making up the system. d) All of the above 61) What is configuration management? a) Keeping track of different versions b) Ensuring changes do not interfere with other changes c) Managing codelines and baselines d) Managing the distribution of correct version of software 62) Configuration Management is concerned with a) The way Middleware used for the software b) The way the software is interfaced c) Is concerned with polices, processes and tools for managing changing software d) The way the client wants there software structure to look like. 63) The creation of a new version of a software component by ________ separate versions in different codelines a) Branching b) Forking c) Knifing d) Merging 64) A software release is a) Meant for customer(s) b) Meant for testing c) Meant for acquiring data d) Meant for branching off 65) What is a private area containing the working copy of the code where software can be modified without affecting other developers who may be using or modifying that software? a) Virtual instance b) Workspace c) Sandbox d) Fork 66) When a developer retrieves the latest version of the Config. Mgmt. system and saves it to the local workspace, the developer is: a) Checking-out 9 b) Checking-in Page c) Committing  d) Pushing 67) What is staging? a) The process of creating deliverables. b) The process of releasing a stable build. c) Managing and using builds for use within different environments. d) The creation of a codeline that allows for parallel development. 68) What is not one of the factors to consider when deciding to release software? a) Quality of software b) Market c) Infrastructure d) Software is completely bug-free 69) What is the definition of branching? a) The creation of a code line that allows for parallel development b) The creation of a code line by combining two version lines c) When a developer gets the latest version from the CM system and saves it to the local workspace d) A private work area where software can be modified without affecting other developers who may be using or modifying that software 70) Which item in the list is not a benefit of a smoke test? a) Increases coding speed b) Reduces the introduction of new bugs in tested areas c) Demonstrates forward progress on development d) Forces integration early and often in the software process. 71) What is staging? a) A controlled set of deliverables appropriate for use with a given environment. b) A system to avoid overwriting each other’s changes c) Saving the local workspace d) A private work are where software can be modified. 72) What is a version? a) Incremental change from the baseline b) A major starting point for additional development c) Means of managing changing artifacts over the course of the software development cycle. d) A staged build 73) What is a smoke test? a) An interactive test 10 b) An automated test c) A test done at the very end of a project Page d) A test done very early on in a project 74) Benefits of smoke test: a) Forces integration early & often in the software process b) Reduces the introduction of new bugs in tested areas c) Provides a project build for internal usage, testing, and quality assurance d) Demonstrates forward progress on development e) All of the above 75) What is release management? a) Release management applies to each phase and the development effort as well as the deployed deliverables b) Releases are coordinated with the creation of setup and installation scripts or process c) Identifies and manages “stable” builds of deliverables for the “project” d) All of the above Lecture – Software testing I and II 76) Verification is: a) Are we building the product correctly? b) Are we building the correct product? c) Checking all the inputs and expected outputs d) Running a regression test suite against the latest build 77) Validation is: a) Are we building the correct product? b) Are we building the product correctly? c) Checking all the inputs and expected outputs d) Running a regression test suite against the latest build 78) This type of Verification and Validation does not require program execution or deliverables: a) Static b) Dynamic c) Whitebox d) Smoke testing 79) Identify the 2 types of Defect testing below. a) Integration testing and performance testing b) Regression testing and integration testing c) Regression testing and acceptability testing d) Acceptability testing and integration testing 80) When is the V model best used? a) Dealing with vital/critical systems b) Accommodating concurrent events c) Maneuvering around requirement amendments d) Planning risk analysis 11 81) Where are alpha tests conducted? Page a) On a developer’s controlled environment  b) On a user’s controlled environment c) On a user’s system, but controlled by the developers d) In a meeting with executives, developers, and team managers 82) When are acceptance tests conducted? a) At the end of the project, when all the parts of the system are complete b) After every component of the system has been completed c) After every module of the system has been completed d) At the end of a fixed period of time 83) What is Defect Testing in dynamic V&V analyses? a) Tests that allow technologies and solutions for a software system to be known b) Tests that stress the system and to determine what the limits of the software is c) Tests involving unit/model testing and integration testing to verify program identity & faults d) Tests that run a series of tests under various conditions while creating errors and performance logs 84) Software inspections do not require the attendance of: a) IT personnel, data analysts b) QA engineers, stakeholders c) Software developers d) Managers and customer 85) “Each loan must have a loan amount of at least $1000 but not more than $500,000. There are two types of loans: regular and jumbo. A regular loan is for any amount less than or equal to $275,000. A jumbo loan is for any amount over $275,000.” a) Testable b) Not Testable 86) “The format of the reports is at the discretion of the individual banks. The Loan Checker must be easily extensible, so that it can handle new file formats as necessary.” a) Testable b) Not Testable 87) Static Analysis Tools a) Check for common errors beyond the compiler b) Check common efficiency, design, and logic issues c) Make changes to errors in developer’s code d) A and B 88) There are these types of Dynamic V&V analysis a) Defect testing b) Statically testing c) Usability testing d) All the above 12 89) What is one approach for testing non-functional requirements? a) Deploy the system and see if the user can break it Page b) Restate the requirement as a functional requirement  c) Allocate more time than usual to test the requirement d) Non-functional requirements do not need to be tested 90) Static V&V: a) Is a form of blackbox testing. b) Is a form of whitebox testing. c) Requires user input. d) Doesn’t require program execution. 91) A Static Analysis Tool does not: a) Check for common errors beyond the compiler. b) Check for design and logic issues. c) Involve running the program. d) Generate metrics about source code. 92) Which of the following is also known as structural testing? a) Integration Testing b) White box testing c) Gray box testing d) Black box testing 93) What is the definition of coupling? a) The strength of relationship between different modules b) The strength of relationship between elements within a module c) The separation of unrelated code base as much as possible d) The process of keeping the related parts of a code base in a single place 94) White box testing is used to cover: a) Nodes b) Edges c) Flow Paths d) All of the above 95) Black Box test cases should include: a) Typical Values b) Boundary Cases c) Special Cases d) All of the above 96) Equivalence partitioning is: a) The process of combining overlapping tests. b) The process of being thorough c) The process of breaking up groups of input by characteristic. d) The process of selecting elements at boundaries. 13 97) The purpose of change management does not include: Page a) Ensuring that bugs and errors are fixed during the lifetime of a system.  b) Ensuring system evolution is managed; prioritize urgent changes. c) Allow for the stakeholders to change requirements. d) Analyzing the costs of changes. 98) Which is true of static V&V? a) Commonly associated with people-oriented processes such as software inspection b) Involves unit/module testing and integration testing to verify program and identify faults c) Managers usually involved in software inspections d) Used at the end of the entire software process 99) Which of the following is an advantage of the Big Bang approach to integration testing? a) Very easy to trace the cause of failures because of late integration b) Everything is finished before integration testing starts c) It does not take very long to complete d) The Universe loves this method 100) Which of the following is a type of regression test? a) Big Bang b) Middle-out c) Slam-n-jam d) Sandwich 101) What are the goal of Verification and Validation? a) Ensuring that customer can receive an early prototype of product to showcase progress being made. b) Allowing for dynamic capabilities when developing software and being able to make changes easily within previous stages. c) Reduce impact of design faults and reduce potential faults in software. d) Facilitating an environment where software developers have easy communication with stakeholders when developing software 102) What is Static V&V? a) Tests that require program execution and checks deliverables such as user interfaces and code. b) Tests that don’t require program execution and checks deliverables such as models and code. c) Tests that ensure that a stable program can be delivered as soon as possible to act as a prototype. d) Tests that ensure that software can communicate with all parts of the system. 103) What is Dynamic V&V? a) Tests that require program execution and checks deliverables such as user interfaces and code. b) The ability to go back a previous stage in software development and make changes without upsetting the whole process. 14 c) Tests that don’t require program execution and checks deliverables such as models and code. d) Tests that ensure all known requirements for a system is known up front. Page 104) What is Defect Testing in dynamic V&V analyses? a) Tests that allow technologies and solutions for a software system to be known. b) Tests that stress the system and to determine what the limits of the software is. c) Tests that involve unit/model testing and integration testing to verify program identity and faults. d) Tests that run a series of tests under various conditions while creating errors and performance logs. 105) What is Statistical Testing in dynamic V&V analyses? a) Tests that validate and verify emergent properties of a system. b) Tests that start with unit testing and ends with acceptance testing. c) Tests that involve field tests to test the interface on the field or a fixed trial period. d) Tests that involve model and load testing to identify dependability and efficiency issues 106) What characterizes a beta test? a) Tests are conducted in controlled environment b) A third party firm conducts the tests on behalf of the client c) End users submit feedback after software is in production d) Customer records all problems and reports back to developers 107) Static V&V requires...? a) Program execution b) Program execution and checking models and code c) Checking models and code but not running code d) Not checking interfaces but running code 108) Regression testing is done...? a) Every time a major change is made b) When all modules are integrated c) Only when fixing code d) After code is deployed 109) Software inspections do not include: a) IT, data analyzers b) Customers c) Software developers d) Managers and customer 110) Top down integration is defined as answer: a) Replacing a stub with an actual component while keeping the main module untouched b) Replacing the main module with the newer up to date component c) Adding components on top of the module until integration is complete d) Replacing a stub with a component until the entire system is integrated. 15 111) What would you call that logical complexity of a program? a) Big(O) complexity Page b) Cyclomatic complexity  c) Recursive complexity d) edge/node complexity 112) Cyclomatic complexity: a) Defines the number of tests b) Measures the logical complexity of the program c) Provides the lower and upper number of edges d) Choose test cases that guarantee a wide range of coverage 113) Boundary value analysis is...? a) Groups of values with common characteristics are processed in the same way b) When you use testing specifications to derive test cases c) Done after every major change d) Selects input where software is more likely to fail and tests the result. 114) Which one of the following is a representation of top-down integration test? a) Construct and test groups of low-level components, and incrementally adding higher level components b) Usually involves the use of the system in a “real-world” environment c) Modules integrated by moving from the main control module to the subordinate modules d) Replace drivers and combine cluster 115) Name one White-box testing challenge: a) Measures the logical complexity of the program b) Build a graph model of the system c) A test suite that guarantees edge coverage also guarantees node coverage d) All of the above 116) Which one of the following is the accurate definition of a software failure? a) Invalid execution state, process, or data definition b) Inability of a system or component to perform its required function within the specified performance requirement c) human action that produces an incorrect result d) Incorrect process or step in a software program which causes the program to perform incorrectly 117) What testing methodology matches: “Groups of inputs have common characteristics and should be processed the same way.” a) White box testing b) Boundary value analysis c) Equivalence partitioning d) Boundary value analysis 16 118) Which of these is a best practice of software testing? a) Only test the boundary values Page  b) Tests should be written at the end of the development cycle so that the developers can concentrate on writing quality code c) User acceptance tests are the only tests that can cause an implementation to be rejected for release d) Test for what the customer wants, not what the code can accomplish 119) A test Matrix should test the a) Error cases defined by the requirements b) Software’s ability to handle defaults c) Test cases and their expected outputs 120) What is another term for “bug”? a) Error b) Mistake c) Fault d) Failure 121) What is equivalence partitioning? a) Similar types of input that are processed in the same way b) Unique types of inputs that are processed in the same way c) Boundary cases that are processed differently than other types of input 122) Which of the following approaches to software testing are the most efficient for a tester? a) Gray box testing b) Black box testing c) White box testing d) Quick brown box testing 123) In software testing, an error is: a) Invalid execution state, process, or data definition b) Inability of a system or component to perform its required function within the specified performance requirement c) the difference between a computed, observed, or measured value or condition and the true, specified, or theoretically correct value or condition d) human action that produces an incorrect result 124) Test automation is important because it makes testing easier for both developers and testers-- allows developers to test during _____and ______process. a) Deployment, release b) Coding, debugging c) Design, Requirements 17 d) Design, coding Page 125) What is a baseline?  a) A controlled collection of component versions that make up a system b) A set of versions of software components and other configuration items on which that component depends c) An instance of a configuration item that’s different from other instances of that item d) The first version of a product 126) What is one purpose of version management? a) To make sure that developers’ changes don’t overlap with each other b) To ensure developers are completing their designated tasks on time c) To verify that the customer has updated their software d) To check if progress is being made 127) Version & release identification a) Assigns identifiers to managed versions when submitting to system b) Provides storage for management c) Allows for the tracking of changes d) Identifies the version and release date 128) One of the main concerns of the configuration management is: a) Keeping track of multiple versions of system components. b) Is concerned with the policies and processes of changing software systems c) The creation of an executable system version by compiling and linking the appropriate versions of the components and libraries making up the system. d) All of the above 129) A product line may be instantiated so that there are individual system versions for different customers. You may have to recreate the version delivered to a specific customer if that customer reports bugs in their system that have to be repaired is an example of: a) Software version b) Baseline c) Refactoring d) Code base 130) The four essential p’s do not include: a) People b) Process c) Provide d) Project 131) Change management definition: a) Keeps track of all minor changes made by an individual developer b) Allows proposals to be assessed to determine their cost and impact c) Keeps track of multiple versions of system components 18 d) a set of versions of a software component and other configuration items on which that component depends Page 132) A version is...? a) a set of versions of a software component and other configuration items on which that component depends b) a collection of component versions that make up a system. Baselines are controlled c) An instance of a configuration item that differs, in some way, from other instances of that item. Versions always have a unique identifier c) Anything associated with a software project (design, code, test data, document, etc.) that has been placed under configuration control 133) A baseline is...? a) a set of versions of a software component and other configuration items on which that component depends b) a collection of component versions that make up a system. Baselines are controlled c) An instance of a configuration item that differs, in some way, from other instances of that item. Versions always have a unique identifier d) Anything associated with a software project (design, code, test data, document, etc.) that has been placed under configuration control 134) White box testing is designed to test answer: a) The structure of the system b) The inputs and outputs of the system c) The clarity of the UI d) The response time of the system Lecture – Project Management & Cost estimation 135) What is the primary cost in producing software? a) Office space b) People c) Technology d) Caffeine 136) COCOMO measures the a) Estimated cost of a software using KLOC b) Function of a software being considered c) Feasibility of software being developed d) Cost of effort based on developing software from scratch 137) What costs the most? a) People b) Planning c) Power 19 d) Risk analysis Page 138) Which of the following is NOT a way to monitor a project? a) Funnel Chart b) Pert Chart c) Work Breakdown Structure d) Gantt Chart 139) What are capability maturity models used to assess? a) Whether there are the right resources in place for the project to be completed b) If the developers have the expertise to complete the project c) To see if an organization is organized in their software development d) All of the above 140) Which of the following is a way to track progress in cost estimation? a) Task boards b) Gantt Charts c) Excel spreadsheet d) Release receipt 141) Scrum project teams are a) Multi-disciplinary b) Include experts from external companies c) Non-functional d) A and B 142) COCOMO measures the a) Effort based on developing all the lines of code b) Estimated cost of a software c) Function of a software d) Feasibility of software 143) A pert chart a) Forces and manages plan b) Allows for the CEO to control the project c) Exposes parallelism in activates d) A and C 144) Examples of metrics do not include: a) KLOC b) Function points c) Faults/KLOC d) Employees 20 145) What are the 4 Essential P’s of project management? Page a) Process, Productivity, People, Payment  b) Payment, Product, Process, People c) People, Project, Process, Product d) Productivity, People, Project, Process 146) Which of these is not an example of metrics measurement estimating cost? a) Function points b) Percentage of positive reviews from end users c) KLOC d) Faults per hour of runtime 147) Which of these is not a common technique for monitoring project progress? a) Work Breakdown Structure b) Sprint Task Boards c) Gantt Chart d) Pert Chart 148) Cost estimation in agile planning is done by: a) Number of hours b) Dollars c) Story points d) Past experiences. 149) Why planning poker is a good way of estimating cost in agile management: a) Combining of individual estimates through group discussion leads to better estimates b) Emphasizes relative rather than absolute estimating c) Estimators are constrained to a set of values without wasting time in meaningless arguments d) All of the above 150) A good way to keep track of the process improvement in agile is: a) Grant chart b) Pareto chart c) Release Burndown chart d) Fibonaccii chart 151) What are the 4 essential parts of project management? a) People, product, process, managers b) People, product, organizing, planning c) People, process, organizing, project d) People, product, process, project 152) Constructive cost model...? a) Measures effort based on developing all software from scratch b) Uses relative points assigned by team members c) Provides reference model for assessing quality-oriented process improvement of an organization d) Forces and helps managers to plan 21 Page 153) Burndown charts are used to...?  a) Track progress as a product moves towards release. b) Make projections for future projects c) Assign tasks to developers d) Identify all tasks that a project may undertake 154) Which is a benefit of process improvement answer: a) Not improvising with every new challenge b) Quicker success c) Faster processes d) Save money 155) What is the final level of maturity: a) Repeatable b) Defined c) Optimizing d) Managed Lecture – Distributed Systems 156) Characteristics of Distributed Systems do not include: a) Resource Sharing b) Concurrency c) Fault Tolerance d) Simplicity 157) Design issues of Distributed Systems do not include: a) Transparency. b) Service Orientation. c) Security. d) Failure management 158) What is the difference between procedural interaction and message-based interaction? a) Procedural requires a response from a computer to initiate a conversation, while message- based does not b) Message-based requires a response from a computer to initiate a conversation, while procedural does not c) Procedural requires a list of actions for one computer to do independently, while message- based requires the computer to interact with others around it d) They are the same and can be used interchangeably 159) Where is middleware used? a) In between two components that can’t interact with each other but need to b) By companies who cannot afford new hardware, but need more computing power than their outdated equipment 22 c) While transferring the project to the customer Page 160) What kind of attacks do distributed systems defend against? a) Interception b) Interruption c) Middleman d) A and B 161) A thin client means the data is processed by the client a) True b) False 162) Which of these is not a common attack on distributed systems? a) Modification b) Interruption c) Injection d) Fabrication 163) Which of these is a good metaphor for procedural interaction? a) Ordering an Uber b) Hailing an air traffic controller from an airplane c) Telling Santa your wish list for Xmas d) Mailing wedding invitations 164) Which of these is not an accurate description of design issues in distributed systems? a) Designing a system to be purpose-specific b) Creating and implementing usable security policies c) Meeting user requirements for accessibility and throughput d) Ensuring the system behaves as a cohesive unit from the user’s perspective 165) Scaling up is: a) Involving more instances b) Involving more employees c) Involving more powerful systems d) Involving more web services 166) In procedural interactions: a) There is no need to wait for a response. b) One computer calls on a known service offered by another computer. c) A component calls another component as if it were local d) Is also known as RPC. 167) Scalability is: a) Increased throughput by adding new resources b) The ability to continue in operation after a fault has occurred c) Use of equipment and software from different vendors d) Sharing of hardware and software resources 23 168) What does interception mean from an attack perspective? Page a) System services are attacked and cannot be delivered as expected  b) Data or services in the system are changed by an attacker c) Communications between parts of the system are intercepted by an attacker causing a loss of confidentiality d) Attacker generates information that should not exist & uses this to gain some privileges 169) Which of the following is a model of interaction in distributed systems? a) computer interaction b) system interactions c) Process interaction d) Message-based interaction 170) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a distributed software system? a) Openness b) Stability c) Transparency d) Scalability 171) Scaling-out means a more powerful system. a) True b) False 172) Sharing of hardware and software describes? a) Resource sharing b) Openness c) Concurrency d) Scalability e) Fault tolerance 173) What kind of attacks do distributed systems, have to defend against a) Interception, interruption, modification, fault injections b) Interception, power failure, modification, fault injections c) Interception, interruption, modification, fabrication d) Interception, power failure, modification, fabrications 174) In a distributed system, transparency means that...? a) Users should not be aware that a system is distributed as much as possible. b) Systems should be built according to a generally accepted standard c) Systems should be made of components that are known to every user d) Documentation should be publicly available. 175) Procedural calls are... a) Message based interactions where the sender does not wait for a response. b) Message based interactions where the sender waits for a response c) Passed to middleware without the sender knowing what the receiver needs to understand the message. 24 d) A type of communication between components where neither components need to have information about the other Page 176) Module A calls Module B to compute statistics on network traffic that A then displays to a user. Which of the following best illustrates the relationship between the required and provided interfaces of the two modules? Answer A is correct 177) Definition of a distributed system a) A collection of independent computers that appears to the user as a single coherent system b) A system whose components have been distributed to multiple clients. c) A system that has been released on the public market d) A collection of coupled modules that work within a single computer. 178) Which is not a characteristic of a distributed system? a) Resource sharing b) Scalability c) Openness d) Speed 179) What is transparency in a distributed system? a) The ability for the user to see everything in the system b) How large the system appears to the client c) How abstract the system is to the point it appears as one distribution. d) Making the source code available to the client 180) What does RPC stand for? a) Remote personal call b) Remote procedure call c) Repeating procedure call d) Rapid procedure call 181) What is an issue with Distributed Systems? a) Too much top down control within the system. b) Different parts of the system work cohesively. c) More complex than systems that run on a single processor. d) Concurrent processing decreases performance. 182) How can a distributed system achieve transparency? a) Resources abstracted and addressed logically than physically. b) Users should not be aware that the system is distributed. c) Allowing components from any supplier to be integrated within the system. d) Having the system reflect its ability to deliver high quality services as demands increase. 25 183) What are some attacks that distributed systems must defend against? Page a) Memory leak, fault, mistake.  b) Investigation, malfunction, direct attack. c) Sabotage, fabrication, openness. d) Interception, Interruption, Modification. 184) What is a disadvantage of distributed component architecture? a) They are too simple to design than client-server system. b) Too much middleware accepted by the community. c) Difficult for people to visualize and understand. d) Different vendors have developed compatible middleware. 185) Procedural calls are… a) Message based interactions where the sender does not wait for a response. b) Message based interactions where the sender waits for a response c) Passed to middleware without the sender knowing what the receiver needs to understand about the message d) A type of communication between components where neither components needs to have information about the other 186) What is the definition of a distributed system? a) A collection of independent computers that appears to the user as a single coherent system b) A system whose components have been distributed to multiple clients c) A system that has been released on the public market d) A collection of coupled modules that work within a single computer 26 Page