AP G2 Mains Test 12 PDF

APPSC - Group-2 Mains - 2024 Test-12 (1-5-2024) Answers Q.1) Consider the following statements about the 1. The Commission for Scheduled Castes National Commission for Scheduled Castes: can requisition any public record fr...

APPSC - Group-2 Mains - 2024 Test-12 (1-5-2024) Answers Q.1) Consider the following statements about the 1. The Commission for Scheduled Castes National Commission for Scheduled Castes: can requisition any public record from 1. It is a constitutional body established any court or office. under Article 338. 2. The functions of the Commission also 2. The Commission also had responsibilities include advising on the socio-economic concerning the Other Backward Classes development of the Anglo-Indian (OBCs) until the 102nd Amendment Act Community. of 2018. Which of the statements given above is/are 3. It has the powers of a civil court while correct? investigating any matter or inquiring into A. 1 only any complaint. B. 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are C. Both 1 and 2 correct? D. Neither 1 nor 2 A. Only 1 Answer: A B. 1 and 2 only Explanation: C. 1 and 3 only  Statement 1 is correct as the Commission has D. All of the above the power to requisition any public record from Answer: D any court or office. Statement 2 is incorrect Explanation: because the Commission’s function concerning  Statement 1 is correct as the National the Anglo-Indian Community relates to Commission for Scheduled Castes is indeed a constitutional and other legal safeguards, not constitutional body as per Article 338. specifically advising on socio-economic  Statement 2 is also correct because it mentions development. that the Commission had responsibilities towards OBCs until the 102nd Amendment Act Q.3) Consider the following amendments with their in 2018 relieved it of these duties. impact on the National Commission for  Statement 3 is correct, detailing the Scheduled Castes: Commission's powers equivalent to those of a Amendment - Impact civil court in its investigative functions. 1. 65th - Bifurcation into two separate Commissions Q.2) Consider the following statements: 2. 89th - Establishment of a high-level Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 1 )  multi-member National Commission submits reports to the President, which are 3. 102nd - Relieved from responsibilities then placed before Parliament. concerning the OBCs  Statement 2 is incorrect as reports pertaining How many of the pairs given above is/are to a state are forwarded to the state's correct? governor, not directly to Parliament. A. Only one  Statement 3 is incorrect because the B. Only two Commission members are appointed by the C. Only three President, not the Prime Minister. D. None Answer: A Q.5) Consider the following statements: Explanation: Statement-I: The National Commission for  The 65th Amendment established the multi- Scheduled Castes has the power to issue member National Commission; hence the give summons for the examination of witnesses and first pair is incorrect. documents.  The 89th Amendment led to the bifurcation Statement-II: The Commission can investigate into two separate commissions for SCs and STs, any matter relating to the constitutional and hence the give second pair is incorrect. other legal safeguards for the Scheduled  The 102nd Amendment relieved the Castes. Commission from responsibilities concerning Which one of the following is correct in the OBCs, this is correct pair. respect of the above statements? A. Both Statement I and Statement-II are Q.4) Consider the following statements regarding correct and Statement II is the correct the National Commission for Scheduled explanation for Statement I Castes: B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 1. It is required to consult the Central and correct and Statement II is not the state governments on major policy correct explanation for Statement I matters affecting Scheduled Castes. C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is 2. The President forwards reports of the incorrect Commission pertaining to a state D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II government directly to Parliament. is correct 3. The Commission is appointed by the Answer: B Prime Minister. Explanation: 4. It submits reports to the President,  Statement I is accurate as the Commission has which are then placed before Parliament. the powers of a civil court to issue summons How many of the statements given above are for the examination of witnesses and correct? documents. A. Only one  Statement II is also correct as it states the B. Only two Commission's role in investigating matters C. Only three related to constitutional and other legal D. All four safeguards for SCs. However, Statement II does Answer: B not explain Statement I; they address different Explanation: aspects of the Commission's powers and  Statements 1 and 4 are correct. The functions. Commission must consult with government bodies on policy matters affecting SCs, and it Q.6) How does the Protection of Human Rights Act Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 2 )  of 1993 contribute to safeguarding civil rights? untouchability prohibition under Article 17 and A. It establishes National Human Rights reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha and Commission, State Human Rights legislative assemblies under Articles 330 and Commissions, and Human Rights Courts. 332. B. It establishes National Human Rights  Statements B, C, and D are incorrect as they do Commission, State Human Rights not accurately represent the special provisions Commissions, and District Human Rights for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes as Courts. outlined in the given information. C. It establishes National Human Rights Commission, State Human Rights Q.8) Consider the following statements: Commissions, and Special Human Rights Statement-I: The National Commission for Courts. Scheduled Tribes has the power to receive D. It establishes International Human Rights evidence on affidavits. Commission, State Human Rights Statement-II: This power is a function of the Commissions, and Human Rights Courts. Commission's role to act as an advisory body to Answer: A the government. Explanation: Which one of the following is correct in  The Protection of Human Rights Act of 1993 respect of the above statements? establishes National Human Rights A. Both Statement I and Statement-II are Commission, State Human Rights Commissions, correct and Statement II is the correct and Human Rights Courts to ensure that civil explanation for Statement I rights are better protected. B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is not the Q.7) Which of the following statements regarding correct explanation for Statement I special provisions for Scheduled Castes and C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is Scheduled Tribes under the Indian incorrect Constitution are correct? D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II A. Article 17 prohibits untouchability; is correct Articles 330 and 332 reserve seats in Lok Answer: C Sabha and legislative assemblies for Explanation: these communities.  Statement I is correct as the Commission B. Protection of Human Rights Act of 1993 indeed has the power to receive evidence on establishes National Human Rights affidavits, part of its judicial powers akin to a Commission, State Commissions, and civil court Human Rights Courts.  Statement II is incorrect because this power is C. SCs and STs (Prevention of Atrocities) Act not merely advisory but part of its judicial and of 1989 prevents atrocities, sets up investigatory functions, crucial for the special courts, and offers relief and execution of its role in safeguarding tribal rehabilitation. rights. D. Article 332 reserves seats for STs in the legislative assemblies of specific states Q.9) Consider the following statements about the Answer: A National Commission for Scheduled Tribes Explanation: (STs):  Statement A is correct as it accurately 1. The National Commission for STs is a summarizes the provisions regarding constitutional body established directly Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 3 )  by Article 338-A of the Constitution.  Statement 2 is incorrect. The NCBC does have 2. The Commission was initially part of a the powers of a civil court while investigating combined body with the SCs under any matter or inquiring into any complaint Article 338, which was later bifurcated. regarding the deprivation of rights and 3. The Commission has the powers of a civil safeguards of the socially and educationally court in investigating matters or backward classes. inquiring into complaints. Which of the statements given above is/are Q.11) Consider the following statements about the correct? National Commission for Backward Classes: A. Only one 1. It was originally set up as a statutory B. Only two body in 1993 following the Supreme C. All three Court's directives. D. None 2. It became a constitutional body with the Answer: C enactment of the 102nd Amendment Act Explanation: in 2018.  The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes 3. The Commission’s members, including is indeed a constitutional body, established by the chairperson and vice-chairperson, Article 338-A, following the bifurcation from are appointed by the Prime Minister. the previously combined National Commission 4. The President forwards reports from the for SCs and STs under Article 338 due to the Commission pertaining to state 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003. governments to the respective state The Commission possesses all the powers of a legislatures. civil court for investigating and inquiring into Which of the statements above is/are complaints, making statement 3 also correct. incorrect? A. 1 and 2 only Q.10) Which statement about the National B. 3 only Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) is C. 3 and 4 only correct? D. 4 only 1. The NCBC was given constitutional status Answer: B by the 102nd Amendment Act of 2018. Explanation: 2. The NCBC lacks civil court powers in its  It was originally set up as a statutory body in investigations. 1993 following the Supreme Court's directives. Which of the statements given above is/are - This statement is correct. correct?  It became a constitutional body with the A. 1 only enactment of the 102nd Amendment Act in B. 2 only 2018. - This statement is also correct. C. Both 1 and 2  The Commission’s members, including the D. Neither 1 nor 2 chairperson and vice-chairperson, are Answer: A appointed by the Prime Minister. - This Explanation: statement is incorrect. The members, including  Statement 1 is correct. The 102nd Amendment the chairperson and vice-chairperson of the Act of 2018 granted constitutional status to the NCBC, are appointed by the President of India, NCBC, placing it at the same level as the NCSC not the Prime Minister. and the NCST in terms of its status and the  The President forwards reports from the breadth of its mandate. Commission pertaining to state governments to Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 4 )  the respective state legislatures. - This classes. statement is correct. The reports concerning  Statement 5 indicating the powers of the NCBC state matters are forwarded by the President that are similar to those of a civil court, to the state governments, which then place including the ability to issue summons and these reports before their respective state examine witnesses. legislatures. Q.13) Consider the following statements about the Q.12) Match the following terms to their correct EWS quota in India: descriptions: 1. The EWS quota is an additional 10% Term Description reservation outside the existing 50% for 1. NCBC SCs, STs, and OBCs. - Has the powers of a civil court 2. It aims to uplift all economically weaker 2. 102nd Amendment sections, including those not previously - Gave constitutional status to NCBC covered by quotas. 3. Article 338-B 3. The Attorney-General argued that the - Added to constitution by the EWS quota does not affect the 102nd Amendment reservations for SCs, STs, and OBCs. 4. Functions of NCBC 4. Critics claim the EWS quota's criteria lack - Monitors safeguards for backward solid data and appear arbitrary. classes 5. Opponents argue that economic criteria 5. Powers of NCBC alone should not justify reservations, - Can issue summons, examine referencing the Indra Sawhney case. witnesses How many statements are correct? How many of the above pairs are correctly A. Only one matched? B. Only two A. Only 1 and 2 C. Only three B. Only 1, 2, and 3 D. All five C. All of the above Answer: D D. None of the above Explanation: Answer: C  Statement 1 explains the additional Explanation: reservation.  Statement 1 correct as the NCBC, like a civil  statement 2 describes the government's court, can summon individuals, require perspective on the role of the quota. document production, and receive evidence on  Statement 3 reflects the Attorney-General’s affidavits. defence of the quota, suggesting it does not  Statement 2 correct as the 102nd Amendment interfere with existing reservations for SCs, STs, Act of 2018 indeed conferred constitutional and OBCs. status to the NCBC.  Statement 4 and 5 introduce critical  Statement 3 is since Article 338-B, introduced perspectives on the quota's criteria and by the 102nd Amendment, officially assigns constitutional validity, including opposition constitutional status to the NCBC. views that challenge its alignment with  Statement 4 highlighting the NCBC's role in previous Supreme Court rulings and investigating and monitoring matters related to constitutional provisions, especially in the the constitutional and other legal safeguards context of economic criteria not traditionally for the socially and educationally backward being a sole basis for reservation. Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 5 )  2. Reservation Cap Q.14) Consider the following statements concerning B. Exceeds the 50% limit from the the EWS reservation quota in India: Indira Sawhney case 1. The EWS quota was introduced by the 3. Criteria Questioned 103rd Constitutional Amendment. C. SC concerns over the income limit 2. It targets educational and employment basis inequities for economically 4. EWS Quota Goal disadvantaged groups outside traditional D. Address educational and income quotas. inequality 3. The reservation is available in Select the correct answer using the code given educational institutions and government below. jobs. A. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D 4. Critics question the quota's B. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C implementation due to a lack of data on C. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B upper-caste representation in these D. 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A sectors. Answer: A 5. The EWS quota's legality is debated in Explanation: light of the Indra Sawhney ruling, which  1-A: The 103rd Constitution Amendment Act limits reservations to 50%. introduced the 10% EWS quota to provide 6. The government asserts that the EWS economic reservation. quota does not compromise the  2-B: This new quota exceeds the 50% total reservations for SCs, STs, and OBCs. reservation cap established by the Supreme How many statements are correct? Court in the Indira Sawhney case. A. Only one  3-C: The Supreme Court questioned the B. Only two government's methodology for setting the Rs. 8 C. Only three lakh income limits for EWS eligibility. D. All six  4-D: The main goal of the EWS quota is to help Answer: D reduce educational and income inequality Explanation: among economically weaker sections.  Statements 1 and 3 delineate the constitutional and practical scope of the quota. Q.16) Which of the following factors poses a  statement 2 highlights its social objectives. challenge to national integration in India due  statement 4 and 5 address concerns and legal to the creation of social divisions and debates surrounding its creation and basis. conflicts?  Statement 6 reflects the government’s position A. Uniform educational standards across all on the quota’s impact on other reservation states categories, emphasizing that it operates B. Nationwide economic growth that independently and therefore does not impinge benefits all regions equally on the rights or quotas of SCs, STs, and OBCs. C. Communalism fostering divisions based on religious identities Q.15) Match the key aspects of the 10% EWS quota D. Effective federal governance that with their descriptions: reduces regional disparities Provisions Descriptions Answer: C 1. 103rd Amendment Explanation: A. Introduced economic reservation  Communalism represents a significant Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 6 )  challenge to national integration in India by the involvement in Naxalite and Maoist fostering divisions based on religious identities. movements, which are driven by issues like This phenomenon often leads to communal marginalization and exploitation, leading to riots and conflicts, undermining national unity violence and disruption, further straining and creating an environment of distrust among national unity. different religious groups. Despite India being a secular nation that respects all religions, Q.18) Place the following developments in the communalism continues to exacerbate tensions correct chronological order regarding the and occasionally leads to violence, which can Inter-State Council and choose the correct result in tragic loss of life and property. answer from the codes given below: 1. Nomination of six ministers from the Q.17) Consider the following statements about Central Cabinet to the Inter-State Council challenges to national integration in India: by the Prime Minister 1. Communalism leads to division based on 2. The designation of the Prime Minister as religious affinity and has historically the Chairperson of the Inter-State resulted in riots that threaten national Council integrity. 3. Establishment of the Inter-State Council 2. Regionalism can promote separatism and 4. Formation of the Standing Committee of conflicts when regional movements the Inter-State Council prioritize local interests over national Which of the following are correctly arranged? unity. A. 3, 2, 1, 4 3. Extremist movements like Naxalism and B. 2, 3, 4, 1 Maoism involve youth participation due C. 3, 4, 1, 2 to political marginalization, posing risks D. 2, 1, 3, 4 to law and order and national Answer: A integration. Explanation: Which of the statements given above is/are The correct chronological order based on the correct? establishment and subsequent developments is: A. 1 only  Establishment of the Inter-State Council by the B. 1 and 2 only Janata Dal Government in 1990. C. 2 and 3 only  The designation of the Prime Minister as the D. All three Chairperson of the Inter-State Council, as part Answer: D of its initial setup. Explanation:  Nomination of six ministers from the Central  Statement 1 addresses communalism, which Cabinet to the Council by the Prime Minister, divides people based on religious identities and which is a standard procedure following its has been a recurrent source of conflict in India, establishment. particularly during significant periods like the  Formation of the Standing Committee of the struggle for independence. Inter-State Council in 1996 to facilitate  Statement 2 discusses regionalism, which has continuous consultation. sometimes led to demands for new states or greater autonomy, occasionally escalating to Q.19) Which one of the following best describes a separatism where regional interests significant challenge to national integration in overshadow national cohesion. India?  Statement 3 focuses on extremism, particularly A. India's successful economic policies have Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 7 )  bridged the gap between different social geopolitics, which complicate reaching a lasting strata. peace agreement. B. The uniformity of cultural practices  Statement 2 highlights the issues with law and across regions strengthens national order due to the activities of armed groups unity. who engage in extortion and run their own C. Linguistic diversity and the absence of a taxing systems, which disrupts normal common national language make governance and development. communication and unity challenging.  Statement 3 acknowledges the role of external D. Regional movements have led to the support from countries like China and Pakistan decline of provincialism in various states. at certain points, which has posed significant Answer: C security challenges for India by strengthening Explanation: the insurgency.  The absence of a common national language in India, due to the country's immense linguistic Q.21) Consider the following statements about diversity, poses a significant challenge to factors influencing North-East India's effective communication and unity. This insurgency: diversity often leads to linguistic loyalty that 1. Refugee influxes have shifted overshadows national identity, making it demographics, particularly in Assam, difficult to foster a sense of unity across fostering insurgency. different linguistic groups. 2. Geographic and political distance from New Delhi enhances regional isolation. Q.20) Consider the following statements concerning 3. Economic underdevelopment attracts the Naga insurgency in India: youth to insurgent groups. 1. The Naga insurgency remains unresolved 4. Ongoing internal displacement from due to its entanglement in sub- ethnic violence affects many locals. nationalism and regional geopolitics. 5. Historical external support, especially 2. Armed groups in the region exacerbate from China, has strengthened the law-and-order situation through a insurgencies. culture of extortion and parallel tax How many of the above statements are regimes. correct? 3. External support from adversarial A. Only one nations has historically amplified the B. Only two challenges posed by the Naga insurgency C. Three to India's internal security. D. All five Which of the statements given above is/are Answer: D correct? Explanation: A. 1 only  Statement 1 covers demographic impacts of B. 1 and 2 only refugee flows. C. 2 and 3 only  Statement 2 addresses the implications of D. All three geographical and political remoteness. Answer: D  Statement 3 links lack of economic Explanation: opportunities to insurgent recruitment.  Statement 1 correctly identifies the root causes  Statement 4 highlights the destabilizing effect of the Naga insurgency, including the influence of internal displacement. of sub-nationalism and the complex regional  Statement 5 details the influence of external Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 8 )  support on the insurgencies. 5. Methods used by insurgents often Q.22) Consider the following statements regarding include guerrilla warfare tactics to insurgency in North-East India: engage government forces effectively. 1. Insurgent funding mainly comes from 6. Insurgencies have historically emerged as extortion, arms, and drug smuggling. significant movements during situations 2. Ethnic diversity and distinct tribal like the Iranian Revolution and colonial identities hinder regional integration. independence struggles. 3. The AFSPA is seen as oppressive, Which of the statements given above is/are increasing local resentment. correct? 4. Proximity to the Golden Triangle A. 1, 2, and 3 only supports insurgency funding through B. 4, 5, and 6 only drug trafficking. C. 1, 3, and 5 only Which of the statements given above is/are D. All six correct? Answer: D A. 1 and 2 only Explanation: B. 3 and 4 only  Statement 1 defines insurgency as an organized C. 1, 2, and 3 only challenge to overthrow existing authority, D. All four aiming to take control. Answer: D  Statement 2 notes the broad spectrum of Explanation: activities that can constitute an insurgency,  Statement 1 outlines key funding sources for from peaceful protests to violent rebellion. insurgencies.  Statement 3 clarifies that unlike terrorists,  Statement 2 emphasizes the role of ethnic insurgents often seek to justify their actions to diversity in resistance to integration. the public based on ideological grounds.  Statement 3 discusses local perceptions of the  Statement 4 points out that insurgent activities AFSPA. are strategic and targeted, rather than random,  Statement 4 connects geographic location to reflecting a response to specific state actions. insurgency financing through drugs.  Statement 5 describes common tactics like guerrilla warfare, which are typically used by Q.23) Consider the following statements about the insurgents to fight against government forces. nature and strategies of insurgencies:  Statement 6 provides examples of historical 1. Insurgency is a refusal to accept the insurgencies that have had profound impacts, authority of existing governance like the movement to overthrow the Shah of structures and is organized to take Iran and various movements for independence control from such authorities. from colonial rule. 2. Insurgencies can range from non-violent civil disobedience to violent efforts to Q.24) Consider the following statements: overthrow government or leadership. Statement-I: Border disputes in India are 3. Insurgents communicate with the public complex due to the multi-linguistic nature of to provide ideological justifications for border areas, complicating boundary their actions, differentiating them from delineation based on language. terrorists. Statement-II: India's federal system includes 4. Insurgent actions are typically calculated special provisions for certain states due to their responses to particular state actions, unique historical and social circumstances. avoiding sporadic or random violence. Which one of the following is correct Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 9 )  regarding the above statements? 1956 enables the formation of tribunals A. Both Statement I and Statement-II are if states cannot resolve their disputes correct and Statement II explains through consultation. Statement I 7. Amendments to the Inter-State Water B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Dispute Act in 2002 set specific time correct but Statement II does not explain frames for establishing tribunals and Statement I delivering decisions. C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect correct? D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II A. 1, 2, and 3 only is correct B. 4, 5, and 6 only Answer: B C. 1, 3, and 7 only Explanation: D. All seven  Statement I accurately describe the complexity Answer: D of border disputes in India, where multiple Explanation: languages spoken in border areas make it  Statement 1 is correct as it outlines the challenging to establish boundaries based responsibilities of states under Entry 17 of the solely on linguistic majorities. State List concerning local water resources.  Statement II is correct as it highlights the  Statement 2 correctly states that Entry 56 of unique feature of India's federal arrangement, the Union List provides the Union government where certain states receive special with the power to manage and develop inter- constitutional provisions due to their distinct state rivers as deemed necessary for the public circumstances. interest.  Statement 3 accurately reflects the provision in Q.25) Consider the following statements regarding Article 262 for Parliament to legislate on the the resolution of Inter-State River Water adjudication of inter-state water disputes. Disputes in India:  Statement 4 is correct, noting that Article 262 1. Entry 17 of the State List covers water also permits Parliament to limit the jurisdiction supply, irrigation, and hydro power of the Supreme Court and other courts over within individual states. these disputes. 2. Entry 56 of the Union List gives the Union  Statement 5 is true, noting the provision under government the authority to regulate the River Board Act, 1956, for the inter-state rivers and river valleys. establishment of river boards, which, however, 3. Article 262 allows Parliament to legislate have not been implemented. for the adjudication of disputes  Statement 6 describes the process under the concerning inter-state river waters. Inter-State Water Dispute Act of 1956 for 4. According to Article 262, Parliament can constituting tribunals when states' restrict the jurisdiction of the Supreme consultations fail. Court and other courts over water  Statement 7 reflects the amendments made in disputes. 2002 that impose time constraints on setting 5. The River Board Act, 1956, allows for the up tribunals and making decisions to expedite creation of boards to manage interstate dispute resolution. rivers, though none have been established. Q.26) Consider the following pairs related to Inter- 6. The Inter-State Water Dispute Act of State River Water Disputes and identify which Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 10 )  of the pairs is/are incorrectly matched: and surface water is proposed as a measure 1. Mahanadi Water Disputes Tribunal - but has not been implemented; thus, it is not Resolves disputes between Odisha and an existing feature of dispute resolution but a Chhattisgarh over water allocation. recommendation. 2. Entry 56 of the Union List - Allows state governments to regulate interstate rivers Q.27) Which of the following statements accurately and river valleys. describes the role of the Inter-State Council in 3. River Board Act, 1956 - Established River India? boards for managing interstate river A. The Inter-State Council is a statutory water disputes, with several boards body created by the Parliament to currently active. resolve economic disputes among states. 4. Inter-State Water Dispute Act, 1956 - B. The Inter-State Council, established Tribunals can be formed only if states fail under Article 263 of the Constitution, to resolve their disputes through functions to facilitate coordination consultations. between the central and state 5. Measures to resolve water disputes - governments. Include forming a single water C. The Inter-State Council is a temporary management agency for ground and advisory body set up by the central surface water. government to handle only financial Which of the above pairs are wrongly disputes between states. matched? D. The Inter-State Council acts A. 1 and 2 only independently of the central government B. 2 and 3 only to enforce legal judgments on interstate C. 3 and 5 only disputes. D. 2, 3, and 5 only Answer: B Answer: D Explanation: Explanation:  The Inter-State Council is a constitutional body  Pair 1 is correctly matched as the Mahanadi established under Article 263 of the Water Disputes Tribunal indeed addresses Constitution of India. Its primary role is to disputes between Odisha and Chhattisgarh. facilitate coordination and cooperation  Pair 2 is wrongly matched because Entry 56 of between the central and state governments. the Union List empowers the Union This involves inquiring into and advising upon Government, not state governments, to disputes between states, investigating subjects regulate interstate rivers and river valleys. of common interest between the union and  Pair 3 is wrongly matched because although states or among states, and making the River Board Act, 1956, was meant to recommendations for better policy and action establish boards for managing interstate river coordination. water disputes, no river boards have been created to date. Q.28) Consider the following statements and choose  Pair 4 is correctly matched as it describes the the correct option: correct procedure under the Inter-State Water Assertion (A): Zonal councils are established to Dispute Act, 1956, for the formation of facilitate cooperation and coordination tribunals. between states in their respective zones.  Pair 5 is wrongly matched because forming a Reason (R): Zonal councils are statutory bodies single water management agency for ground created by the States Reorganisation Act of Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 11 )  1956. Explanation: Choose the correct option:  Pair 1 is correctly matched as Article 14 of the A. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Indian Constitution does ensure equal rights Reason is the correct explanation of and opportunities for men and women in Assertion. political, economic, and social spheres. B. Both Assertion and Reason are true, but  Pair 2 is incorrectly matched because Article Reason is not the correct explanation of 15(3) enables the State to make special Assertion. provisions for women and children, not just C. Assertion is true, but Reason is false. children. D. Assertion is false, but Reason is true.  Pair 3 is correctly matched, as Article 16 Answer: A provides for equality of opportunity in matters Explanation: of public employment for all citizens, regardless  Assertion (A) is true as Zonal councils are of their background. indeed designed to facilitate cooperation and  Pair 4 is correctly matched, as Article 39(d) of coordination among states within specified the Constitution specifically calls for equal pay geographic zones. for equal work for both men and women.  Reason (R) is also true and provides the correct  Pair 5 is incorrectly matched because Article explanation for the assertion, as these councils 51(A)(e) actually requires citizens to renounce were specifically established as statutory practices derogatory to the dignity of women, bodies by the States Reorganisation Act of 1956 not specifically to uphold and protect to achieve the purpose of enhancing regional sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India. cooperation. Q.30) Arrange the following Water Disputes Q.29)Consider the following pairs of constitutional Tribunals according to the year they were provisions and their descriptions. Identify established and select the correct answer which of the pairs is/are incorrectly matched: from the codes given below: 1. Article 14 - Men and women have equal 1. Ravi and Beas Water Disputes Tribunal rights and opportunities in all spheres. 2. Mahanadi Water Disputes Tribunal 2. Article 15(3) - Allows the State to make 3. Vamsadhara Water Disputes Tribunal special provisions for children. 4. Godavari Water Disputes Tribunal 3. Article 16 - Ensures equality of Which of the following are correctly arranged? opportunities in public appointments for A. 4, 1, 3, 2 all citizens. B. 4, 3, 1, 2 4. Article 39(d) - Mandates equal pay for C. 1, 4, 3, 2 equal work for men and women. D. 1, 3, 4, 2 5. Article 51(A)(e) - Obliges citizens to Answer: A uphold and protect the sovereignty, Explanation: unity, and integrity of India. The correct chronological order based on the year of Which of the above pairs are incorrectly establishment is: matched?  Godavari Water Disputes Tribunal (1969) A. Only 2  Ravi and Beas Water Disputes Tribunal (1986) B. Only 3  Vamsadhara Water Disputes Tribunal (2010) C. Only 4  Mahanadi Water Disputes Tribunal (2018) D. All Answer: B Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 12 ) Q.31) Consider the following statements regarding acts. the Regulating Act of 1773: 2. Revenue-related matters were under the 1. This act designated the Governor of Supreme Court's jurisdiction according to Bengal as the 'Governor-General of the Act. Bengal'. 3. The Supreme Court had jurisdiction over 2. The Bombay and Madras presidencies all Calcutta inhabitants, applying retained their independent status. personal laws relevant to their religion. 3. The Act led to the creation of the 4. Appeals from Provincial Courts were to Supreme Court in Calcutta. be made to the Governor-General-in- 4. It prohibited Company employees from Council, not the Supreme Court. engaging in private trade. How many of the statements given above How many of the statements given above is/are correct? is/are correct? A. Only one A. Only one B. Only two B. Only two C. Only three C. Only three D. All four D. All four Answer: C Answer: C Explanation: Explanation:  Statement 1 is correct. This provision legally  Statement 1 is correct. This change centralized insulated the Governor-General, Council, and administrative control by creating the position Company servants from being tried by the of Governor-General of Bengal, significantly Supreme Court for actions conducted in their altering the governance structure of the British official capacity. East India Company in India.  Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act specifically  Statement 2 is incorrect. Contrary to removed revenue-related matters from the maintaining independence, the Bombay and jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, thereby Madras presidencies were made subordinate to limiting its oversight over financial disputes. the Governor-General of Bengal, illustrating a  Statement 3 is correct. The Act ensured that centralization of authority. the Supreme Court had jurisdiction over all  Statement 3 is correct. The establishment of inhabitants of Calcutta and mandated that the Supreme Court at Calcutta was a personal laws (such as Hindu law and foundational step towards instituting a formal Mohammedan law) were applied, reflecting the judiciary in British-controlled territories in diverse legal traditions of the population. India.  Statement 4 is correct. By directing appeals  Statement 4 is correct. The Act sought to from Provincial Courts to the Governor- reduce corruption by strictly prohibiting General-in-Council, the Act centralized Company servants from engaging in private administrative and judicial oversight, reducing trade and accepting bribes, aiming to enforce the Supreme Court's role in the appellate ethical conduct. process. Q.32) Consider the following statements about the Q.33) Consider the following statements with Amending Act of 1781, reference to Pitt's India Act of 1784 1. The Act exempted the Governor-General, i) Pitt’s India Act differentiated the East India Council, and Company servants from Company’s commercial roles from its Supreme Court jurisdiction for official political functions. Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 13 )  ii) The Board of Control, established by the demand for the authority to override decisions Act, was tasked with overseeing the of his council in special cases. This provision Company's political affairs. granted him greater control and autonomy in iii) The Act officially designated Company governing the Bengal Presidency. territories in India as ‘British possessions’. How many of the above statements are Q.35) With reference to Charter Act of 1793, correct? Consider the following statements A. Only one 1. It granted future Governor-Generals the B. Only two same extensive powers as those initially C. All three given to Lord Cornwallis. D. None 2. It centralized authority by enhancing the Answer: C Governor-General's control over Bombay Explanation: and Madras Presidencies.  Statement 1 is correct: The Act effectively 3. It discontinued the East India Company’s separated the commercial and political trade monopoly in India. responsibilities of the East India Company, How many of the above statements are establishing a structured approach to correct? governance that aimed to reduce conflicts of A. Only one interest and increase administrative efficiency. B. Only two  Statement 2 is correct: The Board of Control C. All three was indeed created to manage and direct the D. None political affairs of the East India Company, Answer: B marking a significant shift towards greater Explanation: governmental oversight and control over the  Statement 1 is correct: The Charter Act of 1793 civil and military matters in India. institutionalized the expansive powers first  Statement 3 is correct: For the first time, granted to Lord Cornwallis, extending them to territories under the Company’s control were all future Governor-Generals, thereby ensuring officially referred to as ‘British possessions in a more centralized and powerful governance India’. This terminology underscored the British model. government’s sovereign claim over these areas  Statement 2 is correct: By enhancing the and its ultimate control over their governance. Governor-General's oversight and control over the Bombay and Madras Presidencies, the Act Q.34) Which significant demand of Lord Cornwallis aimed to unify and strengthen British was addressed by the Act of 1786? administration across these regions, promoting A. Granting autonomy to the Bengal a more cohesive policy application and Presidency. governance. B. Establishing a system of checks and  Statement 3 is incorrect: Contrary to the balances in the government. statement, the Charter Act of 1793 did not end C. Giving the Governor-General the power the East India Company's monopoly on trade. to override decisions of his council. Instead, it extended this monopoly for an D. Introducing electoral reforms in the additional twenty years, maintaining the Bengal region. Company's commercial privileges in India. Answer: C Explanation: Q.36) Consider the following statements with  The Act of 1786 addressed Lord Cornwallis's reference to Charter Act of 1813 Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 14 )  1. The Act completely ended the East India 3. It changed the East India Company from Company's trade monopoly China. a trading company to a government 2. It legally affirmed the sovereignty of the administration. British Crown over the Company’s 4. It introduced an open competition territories in India. system for the selection of civil servants 3. The Act permitted Christian missionaries 5. It formed a single law-making group for to promote religious and educational the whole of British India. activities in India Choose the correct answer using the code give How many of the above statements are below correct? A. 1,2 and 3 Only A. Only one B. 1,2,3 and 4 Only B. Only two C. 2,3,4 and 5 Only C. All three D. All of the above D. None Answer: A Answer: B Explanation: Explanation:  Statement 1 is correct: This act centralized  Statement 1 is incorrect: While the Charter Act administrative authority by designating the of 1813 did abolish the East India Company's Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor- trade monopoly in India, it notably retained the General of India, with Lord William Bentick Company's monopoly over the tea trade and all becoming the first to hold this position. trade with China. Thus, it did not completely  Statement 2 is correct: The Charter Act of 1833 end the monopoly. deprived the Governors of Bombay and Madras  Statement 2 is correct: One significant aspect of their legislative powers, centralizing of the Charter Act of 1813 was that it asserted legislative authority with the Governor-General the sovereignty of the British Crown over the of India. territories controlled by the Company in India.  Statement 3 is correct: The Act ended the This move was aimed at solidifying British commercial activities of the East India governmental control over these territories, Company, which then continued solely as an indicating a transition towards direct rule. administrative body managing Indian  Statement 3 is correct: The Act permitted territories. Christian missionaries to come to India, which  Statement 4 is incorrect: Although the Act marked a significant policy shift. This was proposed an open competition system for civil intended to facilitate not only religious services and declared that Indians should not enlightenment but also the spread of Western be barred from employment under the education among Indians, aligning with broader Company, this provision was effectively British cultural and educational objectives in nullified following opposition from the the region. Company’s Court of Directors.  Statement 5 is incorrect: While the Act did Q.37) Which of the following statements regarding centralize legislative powers, it did not the Charter Act of 1833 is/are true? establish the Indian Legislative Council. This 1. The Act made the Governor-General of council was actually formed later under Bengal the Governor-General of all India. different legislative reforms. 2. It took away the power to make laws from the Governors of Bombay and Q.38) Consider the following statements regarding Madras. the Charter Act of 1853: Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 15 )  1. It established the Indian Legislative period. Council by separating the legislative and  Statement 4 is correct: The Act introduced executive functions of the Governor- local representation within the Indian (Central) General's council. Legislative Council, where four of the six new 2. It introduced an open competition members were to be appointed by the system for the selection and recruitment provincial governments of Madras, Bombay, of civil servants. Bengal, and Agra. 3. It extended the East India Company’s  Statement 5 is incorrect: The Act did not rule indefinitely without specifying any abolish the East India Company; it only period for termination. extended its rule while modifying its 4. It introduced local representation in the governance structure. Indian (Central) Legislative Council with  Statement 6 is incorrect: There was no appointments made from provincial requirement for all Indian legislation to be governments. ratified by the British Parliament; the 5. It abolished the East India Company and legislation was managed by the newly formed transferred all governmental functions to legislative council in India. the British Crown. 6. It mandated all legislation to be ratified Q.39) Consider the following statements: by the British Parliament before being Statement-I: The Government of India Act of implemented in India. 1858 marked the end of the East India Choose the correct answer using the code give Company’s rule and transferred the control of below India to the British Crown. A. 1, 2, 3, and 4 only Statement-II: The Act established the Secretary B. 2, 3, 5, and 6 only of State for India, vested with complete C. 1, 2, 3, and 5 only authority over Indian administration, to ensure D. 1, 2, 4, and 6 only centralized and efficient governance by the Answer: A British Crown. Explanation: Which one of the following is correct in respect  Statement 1 is correct: The Charter Act of 1853 of the above statements? established the Indian (Central) Legislative A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Council, separating the legislative and correct and Statement-II is the correct executive functions of the Governor-General’s explanation for Statement-I council. This new council functioned similarly to B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are the British Parliament, focusing solely on correct and Statement-II is not the legislative affairs. correct explanation for Statement-I  Statement 2 is correct: The Act introduced an C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is open competition system for civil service, incorrect which was a significant step towards making D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II civil services accessible to Indians, following the is correct recommendations of the Macaulay Committee Answer: A in 1854. Explanation:  Statement 3 is correct: This act extended the  Statement-I is correct. The Government of Company’s rule indefinitely, indicating that the India Act of 1858 was enacted following the British Parliament could revoke the Company’s Revolt of 1857, which led to significant changes charter at any time without setting a specific in the governance of India. The Act abolished Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 16 )  the East India Company and transferred all sovereign rule over India, replacing the governmental powers, territories, and commercial governance of the East India revenues to the British Crown, symbolizing a Company with direct Crown governance. direct control of India by the British monarchy.  Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act abolished the  Statement-II is also correct and provides the Board of Control and Court of Directors, correct explanation for Statement-I. By effectively ending the dual governance system establishing the Secretary of State for India as a that had managed Indian affairs, consolidating member of the British Cabinet with full control authority under the British government. over Indian administration, the Act effectively  Statement 3 is correct. The establishment of centralized governance and ensured a more the Secretary of State for India as a member of structured and accountable administration the British Cabinet centralized administrative under the Crown. This change was crucial for control and accountability, integrating Indian the British government to maintain control governance more directly with the British over India and prevent the administrative government. lapses that were partly blamed for the revolt.  Statement 4 is correct. The creation of a 15-  Thus, option (a) is the correct answer, as member advisory council, chaired by the Statement-II elaborates on the administrative Secretary of State, was aimed at supporting the restructuring that supported the transfer of Secretary in managing the complexities of control to the British Crown, as outlined in Indian administration from Britain. Statement-I. Q.41) What was a significant feature of the Indian Q.40) Which of the following statements regarding Councils Act of 1861? the Government of India Act of 1858 is/are A. Establishment of provincial legislatures correct? B. Introduction of separate electorates 1. The Act renamed the Governor-General C. Appointment of Indians as non-official of India to the Viceroy of India members of the Viceroy's legislative 2. It maintained the Board of Control and council Court of Directors for managing Indian D. Creation of the Secretary of State for affairs India 3. The Secretary of State for India, a Answer: C member of the British Cabinet, was Explanation: introduced.  The Indian Councils Act of 1861 marked the 4. A 15-member Council of India was beginning of representative institutions by created to assist the Secretary of State associating Indians with the law-making for India. process. It allowed the Viceroy to nominate Choose the correct answer using the code some Indians as non-official members of his given below expanded council, thereby providing them with A. 1 ,2 and 3 Only a role in the legislative process. B. 2,3 and 4 Only C. 1,3 and 4 Only Q.42) Consider the following statements regarding D. All of the above the Indian Councils Act of 1861: Answer: C 1. This Act abolished the practice of Explanation: nominating Indians to the legislative  Statement 1 is correct. By changing the title to councils Viceroy, the Act symbolized the direct 2. It restored legislative powers to the Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 17 )  Bombay and Madras Presidencies, marking a shift towards decentralization. Q.43) Consider the following statements related to 3. Legislative councils were established for Indian Councils Act of 1861 Bengal, North-Western Provinces, and Statement-I: The act introduced the portfolio Punjab after the enactment of the Act. system, wherein members of the Viceroy's 4. The Act introduced the 'portfolio Council were assigned specific governmental system', where members of the Viceroy’s departments. council were assigned specific Statement-II: The act marked the beginning of governmental departments. representative institutions by including Indians 5. The Viceroy was empowered to issue in the legislative process through nomination ordinances during emergencies without to the Viceroy's Council. the approval of the legislative council. Which one of the following is correct in respect Which of the above statements is/are correct? of the above statements? A. 1, 2, 3, and 4 only A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are B. 1, 2, 4, and 5 only correct and Statement-II is the correct C. 2, 3, 4, and 5 only explanation for Statement-I D. All of the above B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Answer: C correct and Statement-II is not the Explanation: correct explanation for Statement-I  Statement 1 is incorrect: The Act did not C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is abolish the nomination of Indians to the incorrect legislative councils; rather, it was an initiation D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II of such practices. is correct  Statement 2 is correct: It restored the Answer: B legislative powers to the Bombay and Madras Explanation: Presidencies, reversing the centralization that  Statement-I is correct. The Indian Councils Act had been increasing since the Regulating Act of of 1861 introduced the portfolio system, a 1773. significant administrative reform where  Statement 3 is correct: While the Act did allow members of the Viceroy's Council were made in for the establishment of new legislative charge of one or more departments of the councils, the actual establishment dates for government, allowing them to issue final councils in Bengal, North-Western Provinces, orders on behalf of the council in their and Punjab were after the Act but years later designated areas. This system helped (Bengal in 1862, North-Western Provinces in streamline administrative functions and 1886, and Punjab in 1897). improve governance.  Statement 4 is correct: The Act recognized and  Statement-II is also correct. This Act is notable formalized the 'portfolio system' that was for beginning the practice of including Indians introduced by Lord Canning in 1859, where in the legislative process, a foundational step council members took charge of specific towards representative governance. It allowed departments. for the nomination of Indian non-official  Statement 5 is correct: The Act gave the members to the Viceroy’s legislative council, Viceroy the power to issue ordinances during starting with notable figures such as the Raja of emergencies that did not require the Benaras and the Maharaja of Patiala. concurrence of the legislative council, valid for  However, while both statements are correct, up to six months. Statement-II does not explain Statement-I; they Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 18 )  describe two distinct aspects of the Act. 2. Regulating Act of 1773 Statement-I discusses an administrative reform, B. The company’s rule was replaced while Statement-II focuses on the early by the British Crown’s rule. inclusion of Indians in legislative processes. 3. Pitt’s India Act of 1784  Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer, C. Separation of the company's recognizing that both statements are correct commercial and political functions. but describe different outcomes of the Indian 4. Charter Act of 1833 Councils Act of 1861 without one explaining the D. Governor-General of Bengal was other. made Governor-General of India. Options: Q.44) Which of the following statements regarding A. 1 - B, 2 - A, 3 - C, 4 - D Councils Act of 1892 is/are correct? B. 1 - A, 2 - B, 3 - D, 4 - C 1. Legislative councils were granted the C. 1 - C, 2- D, 3 - A, 4- B power to discuss the budget D. 1 - D, 2- C, 3- B, 4 – A 2. It introduced direct elections to the Answer: A legislative councils for the first time. Explanation: Choose the correct answer using the code  A (Charter Act of 1858) corresponds to 2: The given below company’s rule was replaced by the British A. 1 Only Crown’s rule. B. 2 Only  B (Regulating Act of 1773) corresponds to 1: C. Both 1 and 2 Establishment of the Supreme Court at D. Neither 1 nor 2 Calcutta. Answer: A  C (Pitt’s India Act of 1784) corresponds to 3: Explanation: Separation of the company's commercial and  Statement 1 is correct. The Indian Councils Act political functions. of 1892 expanded the functions of the  D (Charter Act of 1833) corresponds to 4: legislative councils, notably allowing them the Governor-General of Bengal was made power to discuss the budget and address Governor-General of India. questions to the executive, which was a step  The Charter Act of 1858 marked a critical towards legislative oversight. transition from East India Company rule to  Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act of 1892 made direct governance under the British Crown, a an indirect provision for the use of election by response to the Indian Rebellion of 1857. allowing certain bodies to recommend  The Regulating Act of 1773 laid the members, but it did not introduce direct foundational legal framework for British elections. The act was a precursor to more administration in India, including the substantial reforms, but the method used was establishment of the Supreme Court at nomination rather than election, and the term Calcutta. "election" itself was not employed in the act.  Pitt’s India Act of 1784 refined the structure set up by the Regulating Act, creating a distinct Q.45) Match the following British Acts with their separation between the commercial and outcomes related to the governance of India. political activities of the East India Company. List –I Act List –II Outcomes  The Charter Act of 1833 consolidated power 1. Charter Act of 1858 under the Governor-General, marking a step A. Establishment of the Supreme towards centralizing authority in India under Court at Calcutta. British control Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 19 )  correct? Q.46) Which of the following provisions of the A. Only Two Indian Constitution is incorrectly matched? B. Only Three A. Freedom of Speech and Expression— C. Only Four Article 19(1)(a) D. All Five B. Right to Constitutional Remedies— Answer: A Article 32 Explanation: C. Protection in respect of conviction for The correct statements are: offences—Article 20  They are justiciable and can be enforced by the D. Abolition of Untouchability—Article 18 judiciary: This is true, as Fundamental Rights Answer: D provided in the Indian Constitution are Explanation: enforceable by the courts. The pairs (a), (b), and (c) are correctly matched:  Certain rights may be suspended during a  Article 19(1)(a) guarantees all citizens the right national emergency: This statement is also to freedom of speech and expression. true. Article 359 allows the suspension of the  Article 32 provides the right to constitutional enforcement of certain rights during a national remedies, which allows Indian citizens to stand emergency. up for their rights against anybody—even the The incorrect statements are: government—through the Supreme Court or 2. These rights are without any limitations: This High Courts. is not true, as Fundamental Rights come with  Article 20 provides protection in respect of reasonable restrictions, particularly under conviction for offences, including protection conditions specified in the Constitution itself. against ex post facto laws, double jeopardy,  Only Indian citizens are entitled to these and self-incrimination. rights: This is incorrect. While some  The incorrect match is (d): Fundamental Rights are exclusive to citizens  Article 18 pertains to the abolition of titles, not (like rights against discrimination on grounds of untouchability. It states that no title, not being religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth), a military or academic distinction, shall be others, such as the right to equality before the conferred by the State. The correct article for law and the right to protection in respect of the abolition of untouchability is Article 17, conviction for offenses, are available to all which makes untouchability a punishable persons, including foreigners. offence in all forms.  They are outlined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution: This is incorrect. Fundamental Q.47) Consider the following statements with Rights are listed in Part III of the Constitution, reference to Fundamental Rights: not Part IV. Part IV deals with the Directive 1. They are justiciable and can be enforced Principles of State Policy. by the judiciary. 2. These rights are without any limitations. Q.48) Which of the following statements regarding 3. Certain rights may be suspended during Directive Principles of State Policy is/are a national emergency. correct? 4. Only Indian citizens are entitled to these 1. They are enforceable by the courts. rights. 2. They serve as guidelines to the central 5. They are outlined in Part IV of the Indian and state governments at all levels. Constitution 3. They are mentioned in Part IV of the How many of the above statements is/are Indian Constitution. Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 20 )  4. They are designed to establish social and Q.49) Which of the following statements about the economic democracy. Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution 5. They supersede Fundamental Rights is/are correct? during conflicts 1. Fundamental Rights are available equally Choose the correct option using the code to citizens, foreigners, and legal entities given below. without any distinction. A. 2, 3, and 4 2. The Parliament can repeal Fundamental B. 1, 2, and 5 Rights through an ordinary legislative C. 2, 4, and 5 process. D. 1, 3, and 5 Choose the correct answer using the code Answer: A given below. Explanation: A. 1 Only The correct statements are: B. 2 Only  They serve as guidelines to the central and C. Both 1 and 2 state governments at all levels: This is true. D. Neither 1 nor 2 The Directive Principles are recommendations Answer: D to the state governments and the central Explanation: government to guide the establishment of a  Statement 1 is incorrect because while some just society. Fundamental Rights are available to everyone  They are mentioned in Part IV of the Indian including foreigners and legal entities, certain Constitution: This is true. The Directive rights, such as those related to political Principles are outlined in Part IV of the participation, are exclusively for citizens. Constitution, covering Articles 36 to 51.  Statement 2 is incorrect. The Parliament cannot  They are designed to establish social and curtail or repeal Fundamental Rights through economic democracy: True, the Directive an ordinary legislative process; it requires a Principles aim to create an environment where constitutional amendment act to do so. social and economic inequalities are minimized Additionally, any amendment to the and everyone has access to a decent standard Fundamental Rights must be in line with the of living. 'basic structure' doctrine established by the The incorrect statements are: Supreme Court of India, which means the  They are enforceable by the courts: This is not essence of the rights cannot be altered. true. Unlike Fundamental Rights, the Directive Principles are not enforceable by the courts but Q.50) Consider the following statements related to are considered fundamental in the governance the Governor of the country, thereby guiding legislation. 1. He appoints the members of the  They supersede Fundamental Rights during subordinate judiciary. conflicts: This statement is incorrect. Although 2. He acts as the Chancellor of all the there was a historical debate about the universities within the respective State. relationship between Directive Principles and 3. Judicial or pardoning powers of the Fundamental Rights, the Supreme Court has Governor are same as that of President clarified that Fundamental Rights cannot be except that in case of Court Martial. overridden by the Directive Principles. They are How many of the statements is/are correct? meant to be complementary and harmoniously A. Only One interpreted. B. Only two C. Only three Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 21 )  D. None commutation of sentence of death the powers Answer: A of the Governor and President are concurrent. Explanation: Q.51) With reference to the office of the Indian  Statement 2 is incorrect: The Governor is the President, consider the following statements: Chancellor of the universities run by the state 1. The President can be removed from and not all universities. Article 233. office by a process of impeachment for Appointment of district judges. — (1) “violation of the Constitution”. Appointments of persons to be, and the 2. The impeachment charges can be posting and promotion of, district judges in any initiated by the lower House of the State shall be made by the Governor of the Parliament only. State in consultation with the High Court 3. These charges should be signed by 100 exercising jurisdiction in relation to such State. members of the House. Statement 1 is correct. Which of the statements given above is/are  Article 72: Power of President to grant correct? pardons, etc., and to suspend, remit or A. 1 only commute sentences in certain cases. B. 1 and 3 only  (1) The President shall have the power to grant C. 1 and 2 only pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of D. 1,2 and 3 punishment or to suspend, remit or commute Answer: A the sentence of any person convicted of any Explanation: offence— According to the constitution,  in all cases where the punishment or sentence  Statement 1 is correct: The President can be is by a Court Martial; removed from office by a process of  in all cases where the punishment or sentence impeachment for” violation of the is for an offence against any law relating to a Constitution”. matter to which the executive power of the  Statement 2 is incorrect: When a President is Union extends; to be impeached for violation of the  in all cases where the sentence is a sentence of Constitution, the charge shall be preferred by death either House of Parliament.  Article 161 confers on the Governor the power  Statement 3 is incorrect: Such a resolution has to grant pardon, commutation, remission, to be signed by not less than one-fourth of the respite or reprieve to any person convicted of total members of that house and a prior 14 any offence against any law relating to matters day notice has to be given to the president. to which the executive power of the State extends. Q.52) The President of India has the power of  However, the power of the President under ‘Absolute Veto’ with respect to which of the Art. 72 is much wider. The President has the following bill/bills? exclusive power to grant pardon in cases where 1. A government bill when the cabinet has a person has been sentenced to death. resigned.  The Governor cannot grant pardon in case of 2. A bill making changes in the name and death sentence. He can only commute the boundary of a state. punishment. 3. Constitutional Amendment Bill  The Governor has no power in relation to Court 4. Private Members bill Martial. Statement 3 is incorrect. Which among the following options is/are  In regards to suspension remission and correct? Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 22 )  A. 1 and 2 only and the other ministers shall be appointed by B. 1, 3 and 4 only the president on the advice of the Prime C. 1 and 4 only