Physics Past Paper PDF

10-11-2024 1001CMD303058240012 MD PHYSICS SECTION-A 1) A radius vector of point A relative to the origin varies with time t as...

10-11-2024 1001CMD303058240012 MD PHYSICS SECTION-A 1) A radius vector of point A relative to the origin varies with time t as , where a and b are constants. The equation of point's trajectory is :- (1) y=– x2 (2) y= x2 (3) y=– x2 (4) y= x2 2) The resistance is R = where V = (30 ± 5) volt and I = (3 ± 0.3) Ampere. What is the value of R ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 3) The position of a particle at time t is given by the relation x(g) = (1 – e–αt), where β is a constant and α > 0. The dimensions of β and α are respectively 0 (1) M L1T–1 and T–1 0 0 (2) M L1T and T–1 (3) M L1T–1 and T–2 0 (4) M L1T–1 and T 4) 1 joule of energy is to be converted into new system of units in which length is measured in 10 metre, mass in 10 kg and time in 1 minute. The numerical value of 1 J in the new system : (1) 36 × 10–4 (2) 36 × 10–3 (3) 36 × 10–2 (4) 36 × 10–1 5) , and are vectors each having a unit magnitude. If , will be:- (1) 1 (2) (3) (4) 0 6) Two vectors and of magnitudes 2 units and 4 units respectively are shown in the figure. Which of the following mathematical operations is correct ? (1) (2) (3) (4) All are correct 7) A stone is dropped from the top of a tower and travels 24.5 m in the last second of its journey. The height of the tower is: (g = 9.8 m/s2) (1) 44.1 m (2) 49 m (3) 78.4 m (4) 72 m 8) The coordinates of a particle is x = αt3 and y = βt3 then the rate of change of acceleration with respect to time is (α and β are constant) : 6 (1) (2) 6t (3) 3 (4) 9) Two balls are thrown simultaneously, (A) vertically upwards with a speed of 20 m/s from the ground and (B) vertically downwards from a height of 40 m with the same speed and along the same line of motion. At which point the balls will collide ? (take g = 10 m/sec2) (1) 15 m above from the ground (2) 15 m below from the top of the tower (3) 20 m above from the ground (4) 20 m below from the top of the tower 10) Two balls are projected from point A and B in a vertical plane as shown. AB is a straight vertical line. The balls can collide in mid air if v1/v2 is equal to- (1) (2) (3) (4) 11) A particle is projected with a velocity. The time, at which it will be moving perpendicular to its initial direction of motion, is (x-horizontal, y-vertical) : (1) 1 s (2) s (3) s (4) 1.255 12) Assertion: If a body is projected vertically upward, then the rate of change of its velocity is constant during its flight. Reason: The average acceleration of the body during its total journey is zero. (1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion. (3) Assertion is true but reason is false. (4) Both assertion and reason are false. 13) Find tension in rope for the system to be in equilibrium. (1) 900 N (2) 500 N (3) 450 N (4) 250 N 14) The tension T1, T2 and T3 in the massless strings as shown will be :- (1) 100N, 75N, 25N (2) 25N, 25N, 50N (3) 25N, , 50N (4) , 25N, 75N 15) Find contact force between 2kg and 3kg. (1) 8 N (2) 6 N (3) 0 (4) 2 N 16) The acceleration of block in the given diagram will be (1) 1 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2 (3) 3 m/s2 (4) 4 m/s2 17) A uniform rope so lies on a table that part of it lays over. The rope begins to slide when the length of hanging part is 25 % of entire length. The co-efficient of friction between rope and table is: (1) 0.33 (2) 0.25 (3) 0.5 (4) 0.2 18) A block of mass 0.1 kg is held against a wall by applying a horizontal force of 5N on the block. If the co-efficient of friction between the block and the wall is 0.5, the magnitude of frictional force acting on the block is- (1) 2.5 N (2) 1 N (3) 4.9 N (4) 0.49 N 19) Consider the situation shown in figure. Find distance of image of point P from eye E : (1) 15 cm (2) 21 cm (3) 26 cm (4) 12 cm 20) In vacuum, to travel distance d, light takes time t and in medium to travel 5d, it takes time T. The critical angle of the medium is :- (1) sin–1 (2) sin–1 (3) sin–1 (4) sin–1 21) A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence 60° on a glass slab of refractive index. After refraction, the light ray emerges out from other parallel face and lateral shift between incident ray and emergent ray is cm. The thickness of the glass slab is :- (1) 4 cm (2) 6 cm (3) 8 cm (4) 12 cm 22) A ray of light is incident at 60° on a prism of refracting angle 30°. The emerging ray is at an angle 30° with the incident ray. The value of refractive index of the prism is:- (1) (2) (3) (4) 23) A lens has a power of 10 D, when placed in air. When it is immersed in water , the change in power is (refractive index of lens material is 1.5) (1) 2.55 D (2) 5.0 D (3) +7.5 D (4) 6.67 D 24) Figure shows graph of deviation δ versus angle of incidence for a light ray striking on a prism. Angle of prism is :- (1) 30º (2) 45º (3) 60º (4) 75º 25) If the amplitude ratio of two sources producing interference is 3 : 5, the ratio of intensities at maxima and minima is: (1) 25 : 16 (2) 5 : 3 (3) 16 : 1 (4) 25 : 9 26) In YDSE how many maxima can be obtained on the screen if wavelength of light used is 200nm and d = 700 nm :- (1) 12 (2) 7 (3) 18 (4) none of these 27) Two coherent sources of intensity ratio 1 : 4 produce an interference pattern, the fringe visibility will be :- (1) 1 (2) 0.8 (3) 0.4 (4) 0.6 28) Two point sources separated by 2.0 m are radiating in phase with λ = 0.50 m. A detector moves in a circular path around the two sources in a plane containing them. How many maxima are detected? (1) 16 (2) 20 (3) 24 (4) 32 29) Young's Experiment is performed in air and fringe width is found to be β. Distance of slits from screen is 1.5D and separation between the slits is d. Same experiment is performed in a liquid of refractive index 1.5. To keep fringe width unchanged required changes are: (1) New distance of screen from slits is 2.25 D and separation between slits is d. (2) New distance of screen from slits is D and separation between slits is d (3) New distance of screen from slits is D and separation between slits is 1.5d New distance of screen from slits is 2.25D and separation between slits is (4) 30) Young's Double Slit Experiment is first performed in air then in a medium other than air. It is found that 10th bright fringe in medium lies where 8th dark fringe lies in air. The refractive index of medium is nearly :- (1) 1.59 (2) 1.78 (3) 1.69 (4) 1.33 31) In a YDSE, a slab of thickness 1.8 μm and R.I = 1.5 is placed in front of one slit and another slab of thickness t and R.I. = 2.5 is placed in front of the second slit. If the position of central fringe remains unchanged , then the thickness t is :- (1) 0.8 μm (2) 0.4 μm (3) 0.6 μm (4) 7 μm 32) In single slit Fraunhoffer diffraction width of slit is 1000 nm and wavelength of light is 500 nm. Distance between the slit and the screen is 2 m. Angular width of the central maxima will be :- (1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 70° 33) In a single slit diffraction pattern the first minima is observed at an angle of 45°. When light of wavelength 6000Å is incident on the slit. The second maxima is observed at an angle of :- (1) (2) (3) (4) 34) For a given medium, the polarizing angle is 60°. What will be the critical angle for this medium? (1) sin–1 (0.577) (2) sin–1 (0.177) (3) sin–1 (0.277) (4) sin–1 (0.415) 35) Two Polaroids P1 and P2 are placed with their axis perpendicular to each other. Unpolarised light I0 is incident on P1. A third polaroid P3 is kept in between P1 and P2 such that its axis makes an angle 37° with that of P1. The intensity of transmitted light through P2 is :- (1) (2) (3) (4) SECTION-B 1) A student measured the diameter of a small steel ball using a screw gauge of least count 0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and 25 divisions of circular scale coincide with the reference level. If screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm, the correct diameter of the ball is :- (1) 0.521 cm (2) 0.525 cm (3) 0.053 cm (4) 0.529 cm 2) The position of a particle moving in the xy-plane at any time t is given by x = (3t2 – 6t) metres, y = (t2 – 2t) metres. Select the correct statement about the moving particle from the following :- (a) The acceleration of the particle is zero at t = 0 second. (b) The velocity of the particle is zero at t = 0 second. (c) The velocity of the particle is zero at t = 1 second. (d) The velocity and acceleration of the particle are never perpendicular. (1) a and b (2) a and c (3) c and d (4) b and d 3) A ship is travelling due east at 10 km/h. Another ship heading 30° east of north is seen always due north from the first ship. The speed of the second ship (in km/h) is - (1) (2) (3) 20 (4) 4) Sixteen beads in a string are placed on a smooth inclined plane of inclination sin–1 such that some of them lie along the incline whereas the rest hang over the top of the plane. If acceleration of first bead is (vertically downward) the arrangement of beads is such that :- (1) 12 hang vertically (2) 10 lie along inclined plane (3) 8 lie along inclined plane (4) 10 hang vertically 5) Match the following :- (system is in equilibrium) Column-I Column-II (A) F (P) 200 N (B) T1 (Q) 800 N (C) T2 (R) 100 N (D) T3 (S) 400 N (1) A → R, B → P, C → S, D → Q (2) A → R, B → P, C → Q, D → S (3) A → R, B → S, C → P, D → Q (4) A → Q, B → S, C → P, D → R 6) Two blocks A and B of masses 3 m and m respectively are connected by a massless and inextensible string. The whole system is suspended by a massless spring as shown in figure. The mangnitudes of acceleration of A and B immediately after the string is cut, are respectively:- (1) (2) g, g (3) (4) 7) A block of mass 10 kg is kept on a rough inclined plane as shown in the figure. A force of 3N is applied on the block. The coefficient of static friction between the plane and the block is 0.6. What should be the minimum value of force P (approx) such that the block does not move downward (take g = 10 m/s2) ? (1) 32 N (2) 23 N (3) 25 N (4) 18 N 8) Object of length 3 cm is placed along principal axis as shown. Length of image will be (cm) :- (1) 4 (2) 16 (3) 9 (4) 15 9) In the figure shown a point object O is placed in air. A spherical boundary of radius of curvature 2.0 m separates various media. AB is principal axis. The refractive index above AB is 1.6 and below AB is 2.0. The separation between the images formed due to refraction at spherical surface is :- (1) zero (2) infinity (3) 12 m (4) 10 m 10) A compound microscope has an objective of focal length 2.0 cm and an eye-piece of focal length 6.25 cm and distance between the objective and eye-piece is 15 cm. If the final image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision (25 cm), the distance of the object from the objective is (1) 1.5 cm (2) 2.5 cm (3) 3.0 cm (4) 4.0 cm 11) Find power of system (Lenses are thin): (1) –12.5 D (2) –7.5 D (3) +7.5 D (4) +12.5 D 12) The image for the converging beam after refraction through the curved surface is formed at :- (1) 40 cm (2) 30 cm (3) 20 cm (4) 10 cm 13) An object is placed 21 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius of curvature 10 cm. A glass slab of thickness 3 cm and refractive index 3/2 is then placed close to the mirror in the space between the object and the mirror. Distance of the near surface of the slab from the mirror is 1 cm. Find the position of the final image formed :- (1) 7.67 cm (2) 20/3 cm (3) 21 cm (4) 2.3 cm 14) Assertion (A) :- For best contrast between maxima and minima in the interference pattern of Young's double slit experiment, the intensity of light emerging out of the two slits should be equal. Reason (R) :- The intensity of interference pattern is directly proportional to the square of amplitude. (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A) 15) Column-I shows the changes introduced in Young's double slit experiment while Column-II tell the changes in the fringe pattern while performing the experiment. Match each situation given in Column-I with the results given in column-II. Column-I Column-II If sodium light is replaced by red light of same All fringes are coloured except (A) (p) intensity central fringe. Fringe width will become (B) Monochromatic light is replaced by white light (q) quadrupled Distance between slits and screen is doubled and The bright fringe will become less (C) the distance (r) bright between slits is halved If one of the slits is covered by semitransparent (D) (s) The fringe width will increase paper (1) A-s; B-p; C-q; D-r (2) A-p; B-s; C-r; D-q (3) A-q; B-r; C-p; D-s (4) A-r; B-q; C-p; D-s CHEMISTRY SECTION-A 1) For an imaginary reaction 2X + 3Y → products Given : rate with respect to X = r1 rate with respect to Y = r2, r1 and r2 are related as (1) 2r1 = 3r2 (2) 3r1 = 2r2 (3) r1 = r2 (4) 2) Consider the graph given in following diagram. Which of the following options does not show instantaneous rate of reaction at 40th second ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 3) Rate law of the reaction A → Product is, rate = k[A]. Graphically it is represented as : Hence rate constant is : (1) 1 × 10–2 min–1 (2) 1 × 10–2 s–1 (3) 3 × 10–2 s–1 (4) 1 × 10–4 s–1 4) In the Arrhenius plot of ln k vs , a linear plot is obtained with a slope of –2 × 104. Then energy of activation of the reaction (in kJ mol–1) is (R value is 8.3 JK–1 mol–1) : (1) 83 (2) 166 (3) 249 (4) 332 5) Consider the following potential energy diagram Which of the following is true for the forward reaction? PE of activated ΔH (kJ) Complex (in kJ) (1) –25 50 (2) –25 150 (3) +25 50 (4) +25 150 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 6) In a certain gaseous reaction between x and y, x + 2y → xy2. The initial rates are reported as follows :- x y Rate 0.1 M 0.1 M 2 × 10–3Ms–1 0.2 M 0.1 M 2 × 10–3Ms–1 0.2 M 0.3 M 1.8 × 10–2 Ms–1 The rate law is :- (1) r = k [x]1[y]1 0 (2) r = k[x] [y]1 (3) r = k[x]0 [y]3 0 (4) r = k[x] [y]2 7) A first order reaction is 75% completed in 100 minutes. How long time will it take for it’s 87.5% completion ? (1) 125 min (2) 150 min (3) 175 min (4) 200 min 8) The reaction, X + 2Y + Z → N, occurs by the following mechanism (i) X + Y ⇌ M, (very rapid equilibrium) (ii) M + Z → P, (slow) (iii) P + Y → N, (very fast) What is the rate law for this reaction (1) Rate = k[Z] (2) Rate = k[X] [Y]2 [Z] (3) Rate = k [N] (4) Rate = k[X] [Y] [Z] 9) In the reaction 2SO3(g) → 2SO2(g) + O2(g) the rate of appearance of O2 is 0.016 kg.hr–1. What is the rate of formation of SO2 in kg.hr–1 ? (1) 0.016 kg.hr–1 (2) 0.001 kg.hr–1 (3) 0.032 kg.hr–1 (4) 0.064 kg.hr–1 10) If unit of rate constant K is L1/2 Mole–1/2 sec–1 then order of reaction will be :- (1) – 1/2 (2) 1/2 (3) 3/2 (4) – 3/2 11) For a chemical reaction at 500 K and 700 K temperature, the value of rate constant are 0.04 sec–1 and 0.08 sec–1 respectively. Find value of activation energy in terms of R : (R = Gas constant) :- (1) (2) (3) (4) 12) A(g) → 2B(g) + C(g) for a first order reaction – (Po = Initial pressure ; Pt = Total pressure at time t) (1) k= (2) k= (3) k= (4) k= 13) Kp for the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) at 400ºC is 1.64 × 10–4, then Kc for the above reaction is :- (1) 0.5 (2) 0.93 (3) 1.27 (4) 3.89 14) PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g), what should be the relation between equilibrium constants, Kp and Kc for the above reaction :- (1) log – log (RT) = 0 –2 (2) Kp = Kc (RT) –1 (3) Kp = Kc (RT) (4) None of the above 15) P2(g) + Q2(g) ⇌ 2PQ(g) ; if in 2 litre vessel 5 mol P2, 8 mol Q2 and 2 mol PQ are taken to start the reaction and at equilibrium 8 mol PQ is obtained then the equilibrium constant (KP) of reaction will be :- (1) 16 (2) 6.4 (3) 2.5 (4) 0.8 16) On heating a mixture of SO2Cl2 and CO, two equilibria are simultaneously established: On adding more SO2 at equilibrium what will happen? (1) Amount of CO will decrease (2) Amount of SO2Cl2 and COCl2 will increase (3) Amount of CO will remain unaffected (4) Amount of SO2Cl2 and CO will increase 17) Study the given figure and label X, Y and Z :- X Y Z Backward Forward 1 Products Reaction Reaction Forward Backward 2 Equilibrium Reaction Reaction Reversible Irreversible 3 Equilibrium Reaction Reaction Forward Forward Backward 4 Reaction Reaction Reaction (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 18) For the equilibrium SO2Cl2(g) SO2(g) + Cl2(g), what is the temperature at which (1) 0.027 K (2) 0.36 K (3) 36.54 K (4) 4.06 K 19) For the reaction, 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g).What is Kc when the equilibrium concentration of [SO2] = 0.60 M, [O2] = 0.82 M and [SO3] = 1.90 M ? (1) 12.229 L mol–1 (2) 24.5 L mol–1 (3) 36.0 L mol–1 (4) 2.67 × 103 L mol–1 20) An endothermic reaction is represented by the graph :- (1) (2) (3) (4) 21) When 3 mol of A and 1 mol of B are mixed in 1 lit. vessel the following reaction takes place. A(g) + B(g) ⇌ 2C(g). 1.5 mol of C are formed at equilibrium. The equilibrium constant will be:- (1) 0.12 (2) 0.25 (3) 0.5 (4) 4 22) What is the unit of Kp for the reaction ? CS2(g) + 4H2(g) ⇌ CH4(g) + 2H2S(g) (1) atm (2) atm+2 (3) atm–2 (4) atm–1 23) PQ2 dissociates as PQ2(g) ⇌ PQ(g) + Q(g) The initial pressure of PQ2 is 600mmHg. At equilibrium, the total pressure is 800mmHg. Calculate the value of Kp :- (1) 100 (2) 400 (3) 200 (4) 50 24) Arrange the following aqueous solutions in the order of their increasing boiling points :- (i) 10–4 M NaCl (ii) 10–4 M Urea (iii) 10–3 M MgCl2 (iv) 10–2 M NaCl (1) (i) < (ii) < (iv) < (iii) (2) (ii) < (i) = (iii) < (iv) (3) (ii) < (i) < (iii) < (iv) (4) (iv) < (iii) < (i) = (ii) 25) Degree of dissociation of three binary electrolytes AB, CD and EF are 60%, 20% and 100% in the solution having same mole fraction of water. Ratio of lowering in vapour pressure of their solution is (1) 0.8 : 0.6 : 1 (2) 0.2 : 0.4 : 0.1 (3) 0.3 : 0.5 : 0.2 (4) 1 : 2 : 0.5 26) Select the correctly matched: (i) Dalton's law (P) PT = Raoult's law Partial pressure of gas = mole (ii) (Q) (liquid-liquid system) fraction × PT Raoult's law (iii) (R) (solid-liquid system) (1) (i)-(P), (ii)-(Q), (iii)-(R) (2) (i)-(P), (ii)-(R), (iii)-(Q) (3) (i)-(Q), (ii)-(P), (iii)-(R) (4) (i)-(Q), (ii)-(R), (iii)-(P) 27) In which case Van't hoff factor is maximum ? (1) KCl, 50% ionised (2) K2SO4, 40% ionised (3) SnCl4, 20% ionised (4) FeCl3, 30% ionised 28) Assertion : A solution of phenol and aniline will show negative deviation from Raoult's Law. Reason : In case of negative deviation from Raoult's Law, A-B forces are stronger than A-A & B-B forces. (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion. (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False. 29) Assertion : 2.5 mol NaCl and 5 mol glucose have same colligative properties. Reason : Colligative properties depends on number of particle of solute. (1) Both assertion and reason are true. (2) Both assertion and reason are false. (3) Assertion is true but the reason is false. (4) Assertion is false but the reason is true. 30) Match the following Column-I with Column-II. Column-I Column-II (A) Raoult's law (P) (B) Henry's law (Q) π = CST Elevation of (C) (R) boiling point Depression in (D) (S) freezing point Osmotic (E) (T) pressure (1) (A)–(S); (B)–(R); (C)–(Q); (D)–(P); (E)–(T) (2) (A)–(R); (B)–(T); (C)–(S); (D)–(P); (E)–(Q) (3) (A)–(T); (B)–(R); (C)–(Q); (D)–(P); (E)–(S) (4) (A)–(S); (B)–(R); (C)–(T); (D)–(P); (E)–(Q) 31) If we draw a graph between partial pressure of HCl gas versus mole fraction of the gas in solution, then we get following graph :- The Henry's law constant, KH is - (1) 5 × 104 torr (2) 104 torr (3) 10–4 torr (4) 2 × 10–5 torr 32) C6H6 freezes at 5.5°C. At what temperature will a solution of 10.44 g of C4H10 in 200 g of C6H6 freeze ? Kf (C6H6) = 5.12°C/m (1) 4.608°C (2) 0.892°C (3) 5.5°C (4) 7.5°C 33) Mixture of volatile components A and B has total vapour pressure (in torr) p = 254 – 119 xA where xA is mole fraction of A is mixture. Hence and are (in torr) respectively :- (1) 254, 119 (2) 119, 254 (3) 135, 254 (4) 119, 373 34) Density of a 2.05 M solution of H2SO4 in water is 1.08 g/ml. Find its Normality and molality:- (1) 4.1 N, 2.33 m (2) 4.1 N, 3.28 m (3) 4.1 N, 2.88 m (4) 4.1 N, 4.1 m 35) What will be mole fraction of C2H6O2 in a aqueous solution containing 31% C2H6O2 by mass? (1) 0.31 (2) 0.78 (3) 0.89 (4) 0.11 SECTION-B 1) The accompanying figure depicts the change in concentration of species X and Y for the reaction 2X → Y, as a function of time. The point of intersection of the two curves represents:- (1) t1/2 (2) t3/4 (3) t2/3 (4) t1/4 2) What will be the order of the reaction having following graph between log t1/2 and log a ? (where a = initial concentration; t1/2 = half life) :- (1) Zero order (2) First order (3) Second order (4) None of these 3) For the elementary reaction A(g) + 2B(g) → C(g) + D(g) initial pressure of A and B are respectively 0.60 atm and 0.80 atm. At a time when pressure of C is 0.20 atm, rate of the reaction, relative to the initial value is : (1) (2) (3) (4) 4) The rate constant for a first order decomposition reaction is given by log k =. Then, what will be activation energy in kCal/mol ? (1) 4.60 (2) 17.6 (3) 3.2 (4) 9.8 5) Match the columns: Column-I Column-II (A) (p) Rate constant for zero (B) (q) order reaction Value of k for first order reaction, (C) (r) when and  Value of k for zero order reaction, Rate constant for first (D) (s) order reaction when and (1) A-(s),B-(q),C-(p),D-(r) (2) A-(q),B-(s),C-(p),D-(r) (3) A-(q),B-(p),C-(s),D-(r) (4) A-(q),B-(r),C-(p),D-(s) 6) The equilibrium constant of a reaction is 20.0. At equilibrium, the rate constant of forward reaction is 10. The rate constant for backward reaction is : (1) 0.5 (2) 2.0 (3) 10.0 (4) 200.0 7) Calculate the percent dissociation of H2S(g) if 0.1 mole of H2S is kept in 0.4 litre vessel at 1000K. For the reaction 2H2S(g) ⇌ 2H2(g) + S2(g) the value of KC is 1.0 × 10–6. (1) 4 % (2) 2 % (3) 1 % (4) 3.5 % 8) X2 + Y2 ⇌ 2XY reaction was studied at a certain temperature. In the beginning 1 mol of X2 was taken in a one litre flask and 2 moles of Y2 was taken in another 2 litre flask. What is the equilibrium concentration of X2 and Y2 when both containers are joined together [Given equilibrium concentration of [XY] = 0.6 moles/litre] :- (1) (2) (3) (1–0.3), (2–0.3) (4) (1–0.6), (2–0.6) 9) If K1 and K2 are the respective equilibrium constants for the two reactions :- : K1 : K2 The equilibrium constant for the reaction will be (1) K2/K1 (2) K1.K2 (3) K1/K2 (4) K1.K2.K3 10) For the reaction, 3O2(g) ⇌ 2O3(g); KC at 25°C for this equilibrium is 2 × 10–50. If equilibrium concentration of O2 at 25°C is 1.6 × 10–2 M, what is the equilibrium concentration of O3 ? (1) 8.19 × 10–56 (2) 2.86 × 10–28 (3) 2.86 × 10–14 (4) 8.19 × 10–44 11) A and B are two liquids that form an ideal solution. The vapour pressure of pure liquid A is 40 mm Hg at 310 K. The partial vapour pressure of this liquid in the liquid mixture of A and B was found to be 32 mm Hg. The mole fraction of 'B' in the liquid mixture is found to be :- (1) 0.8 (2) 0.5 (3) 0.2 (4) 0.4 12) Assertion : When NaCl is added to water, a depression in freezing point is observed. Reason : The lowering of vapour pressure of a solution causes depression in the freezing point. (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True. (2) Both Assertion & Reason are False. (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. (4) Assertion is False but the Reason is True. 13) Assertion : For an ideal solution, ΔHmix is zero. Reason : In an ideal solution A-B interaction are less than A-A & B-B interactions. (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion. (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False. 14) Assertion : Mole fraction and molality of an aqueous solution are independent of temperature but molarity of an aqueous solution depends on temperature. Reason : Volume of an aqueous solution changes with temperature but mass of aqueous solution does not. (1) Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion. Both assertion and reason are correct but the reason is not a correct explanation of the (2) assertion. (3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect. (4) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct. 15) The vapour pressure of pure benzene at a certain temperature is 0.850 bar. A non-volatile, non- electrolyte solid weighing 0.5g when added to 39g of benzene, vapour pressure of the solution then is 0.845 bar. What is the molar mass of the solid substance? (1) 170 gmol–1 (2) 250 gmol–1 (3) 150 gmol–1 (4) 100 gmol–1 BOTANY SECTION-A 1) Statement-I : Tassels is a part of male inflorescence. Statement-II : In corn cob, tassels wave in the wind to trap pollen grains. (1) Statement-I correct and statement-II incorrect (2) Statement-I incorrect and statement-II correct (3) Both statements correct (4) Both statements incorrect 2) Read the given statements and select the correct one's. a. Pollen grains in family Rosaceae maintain viabiliby for months. b. The generative cell of pollen grain is small, spindle-shaped with dense cytoplasm and a nucleus. c. The basal part of angiospermic ovule has small opening called germ pore. (1) a only (2) a and b only (3) b and c (4) c only 3) Assertion (A): Most zygotes divide only after certain amount of endosperm is formed. Reason (R): This is an adaptation to provide assured nutrition to the developing embryo. (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct 4) Find the odd one with respect to hydrophilous plants :- (1) Vallisneria (2) Hydrilla (3) Zostera (4) Grasses 5) Choose the incorrect statement :- (1) In apple, thalamus also contributes to fruit formation. (2) Parthenocarpic fruits develop without fertilization. (3) The wall of the ovary develops into wall of fruit called periderm. (4) Mango is an example of fleshy fruit. 6) In angiosperms, the haploid, diploid and triploid structures are respectively (1) Pollen, embryo and endosperm (2) Male gamete, endosperm and zygote (3) Scutellum, embryo and aleurone layer (4) Aleurone layer, coleoptile and coleorhiza 7) Which of the following is not 2n (diploid) (1) Zygote (2) Primary endosperm nucleus (3) Megaspore mother cell (4) Nucellus 8) Parthenium was introduced in India as a contaminant with...... ? (1) Rice (2) Mango (3) Wheat (4) Sugarcane 9) In paddy and wheat pollen grains remain viable for :- (1) Several months (2) Few weeks (3) 30 minutes (4) 30 hours 10) Which of the following statement is correct regarding given diagram ? (1) This plant is having only open type of flowers (2) This plant is having only closed type of flowers (3) Cleistogamous flower participates only in self pollination (4) This plant participates only in cross pollination 11) Generative cell divides mitotically and give rise to :- (1) Two motile male gametes (2) Two non-motile male gametes (3) One non-motile male gamete (4) Three motile male gametes 12) Remnants / residual part of nucellus is known as :- (1) Perisperm (2) Aril (3) Hilum (4) Caruncle 13) Find out incorrect match : (1) Root cap – thimble like structure (2) Meristematic region – Have small, thin walled and dense protoplasmic cells (3) Elongation region – Distal to meristematic region (4) Maturation region – Root hairs present 14) Which of the following is not represented by floral diagram but represented by floral formula ? (1) Cohesion of stamens (2) Adhesion of stamen (3) Placentation (4) Position of gynoecium 15) In some leguminous plants the leaf base may become swollen, which is called :- (1) Plumule (2) Pulvinus (3) Bulb (4) Tuber 16) Given placentation is found in - (1) Mustard (2) Chinarose (3) Sunflower (4) Brinjal 17) Which of the floral formula is correct for given floral diagram ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 18) Select the true statement from the following : (1) Aleurone layer is present in dicotyledonous seed The plumule and radicle are enclosed in sheaths which are called coleorhiza and coleoptile (2) respectively (3) Flowers of petunia are unisexual and zygomorphic (4) Vexillary aestivation is found in pea and bean flowers 19) Select incorrect match pair from the following : (1) Staminode – Sterile stamen (2) Gamopetalous – United petals (3) Rachis – Modified petiole (4) Tegmen – Inner seed coat 20) Which one of the following plant shows twisted aestivation and monoadelphous cohesion ? (1) Allium cepa (2) China rose (3) Trifolium (4) Tobacco 21) Assertion : Diadelphous stamens are found in soyabean. Reason : Stamens are present in two bundles in soyabean. (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion. (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False. 22) Match List-I with List-II : List-I List-II A. Marginal placentation I. Brinjal B. Epipetalous stamens II. Peach C. Epiphyllous stamens III. Pea D. Perigynous flower IV. Lily Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III 23) Statement-1 :- Leaf is a lateral outgrowth of stem developed endogenously at the nodes Statement-2 :- leaves exhibit marked variation in their shape, size, margin and apex but not at extent of incisions of leaf blade. (1) Statement-1 and 2 both are true (2) Statement-1 is true while 2 is false (3) Statement-1 is false but 2 is true (4) Statement-1 and 2 both are false 24) Which of the following layer in dicot stem provides mechanical strength to the young stem : (1) Epidermis (2) Hypodermis (3) Endodermis (4) Cortical layer 25) Read given statement in context of given figure : i. A is xylem & B is phloem ii. A is phloem & B is xylem iii. Primary xylem in figure is endarch type iv. Primary xylem in figure is exarch type. Choose the correct statement (1) (i) and (iii) (2) (i) and (iv) (3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (ii) and (iv) 26) Hypodermis of dicot stem is made of :- (1) Parenchyma (2) Collenchyma (3) Sclerenchyma (4) All of these 27) Pith or central part of ground tissue is made of : (1) Collenchyma (2) Parenchyma (3) Chlorenchyma (4) Sclerenchyma 28) Statement-I : In-dicot leaf adaxial epidermis generally bears more stomata than the abaxial epidermis. Statement-II : The size of the vascular bundles of leaf are dependent on the size of the veins. (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. (3) Only Statement I is correct. (4) Only Statement II is correct. 29) Epidermal cells modify to form : (1) Trichomes only (2) Trichomes, Root hairs only (3) Trichomes, Root hair, Subsidiary cells (4) Root hairs only 30) Choose the correct order of layers from outside to inside in a, dicot root. (1) Epidermis → Endodermis → Cortex → Pericycle (2) Epidermis → Cortex → Endodermis → Pericycle (3) Epidermis → Cortex → Pericycle → Endodermis (4) Epidermis → Endodermis → Pericycle → Cortex 31) In leaves, mesophyll is the component of :- (1) Epidermal tissue system (2) Ground tissue system (3) Vascular tissue system (4) Both (1) & (2) 32) Assertion : Monocot have closed type of vascular bundles. Reason : Monocot do not show secondary growth. (1) Assertion is true but Reason is false. (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. (3) Both Assertion & Reason are false. (4) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion. 33) Innermost layer of cortex in dicot root is :- (1) Pericycle (2) Hypodermis (3) Endodermis (4) Pith 34) Stomatal apparatus is consists of :- (1) Stomatal aperture only (2) Stomatal aperture and guard cells (3) Subsidiary cells (4) Both (2) & (3) 35) Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option : Column-I Column-II A. Bulliform cells I. Initiation of lateral roots B. Pericycle II. Root C. Endarch xylem III. Grasses D. Exarch xylem IV. Stem (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I SECTION-B 1) Find out the total number of male gametes developed from 70 microspore mother cells ? (1) 120 (2) 280 (3) 460 (4) 560 2) In angiosperms how many structures are haploid and diploid respectively ? Pollen grain, embryo, antipodal cell, synergid, polar nuclei, egg cell, nucellus, integument, embryo sac (1) 3, 6 (2) 6, 3 (3) 4, 5 (4) 6, 4 3) Identify W, X, Y, Z in the given figure of mature embryo sac and select the correct option - W–Eggs-fuses with one of the male gamate X–Ovule-forms zygote after fertilization (1) Y–Microspore tetrad-formed by meiosis Z–Chalazal cells-present towards chalazal end W–Antipodal cells-present towards micropylar end X–Female gamete-Diploid part of embryo sac (2) Y–Central cell-possess two polar nuclei Z–Synergids-it is a part of egg apparatus W–Polar nuclei-provide nourishment to egg X–MMC-forms four megaspores (3) Y–Antipodal cells-present towards chalazal end Z–Polar nuclei-they have special cellular thickenings W–Polar nuclei-forms triploid PEN after triple fusion X–Egg-forms zygote after fertilization (4) Y–Synergids - part of egg apparatus Z–Filiform apparatus - guides pollen tube into the synergid 4) In some angiosperms when pollen grain shed at 3 celled stage, it contains :- (1) One vegetative cell and 2 generative cells (2) One vegetative cell and 2 male gametes (3) 3 male gametes (4) One vegetative cell, one generative cell and 1 male gamete 5) In which of the following plants both autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented ? (a) Castor (b) Date palm (c) Papaya (d) Coconut (1) a and b only (2) b and d only (3) a and c only (4) b and c only 6) Find out incorrect statement : (1) Flower is a modified shoot (2) Lateral meristem changes into floral meristem. (3) Two major type of inflorescence are racemose and cymose. (4) Arrangement of flowers on the floral axis known as inflorescence. 7) Ray florets of sunflower have- (1) Superior ovary (2) Inferior ovary (3) Half superior ovary (4) Half inferior ovary 8) Whlored phyllotaxy, reticulate venation, with simple leaves is found in ? (1) Alstonia (2) Calotropis (3) Neem (4) Chinarose 9) When calyx and corolla are not distinct known as - (1) Radial (2) Zygomorphic (3) Perianth (4) Asymmetric 10) Match the column-I with column-II and select correct option : Column-I Column-II (A) Fabaceae (i) A(∞) (B) Malvaceae (ii) A3 + 3 (C) Liliaceae (iii) A(9) + 1 (D) Brassicaceae (iv) A2+4 (1) A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv (2) A–iii, B–i, C–iv, D–ii (3) A–iii, B–i, C–ii, D–iv (4) A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i 11) Monocot root differs from dicot root in having : (1) Open vascular bundles (2) Scattered vascular bundles (3) Well developed pith (4) Radially arranged vascular bundles 12) Match column-I with column-II & choose the correct option : Column-I Column-II a. Starch sheath i. Monocot root b. Scattered vascular bundles ii. Monocot stem c. Two to four xylem and phloem patches iii. Dicot root d. More than six xylem bundles iv. Dicot stem (1) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (2) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (3) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii (4) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii 13) Assertion : Collenchyma sclerenchyma & xylem provide mechanical support to the plant parts. Reason : The cell wall of collenchyma, sclerenchyma & xylem are thick and lignified. (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion. (3) Assertion is true but Reason is false. (4) both Assertion & Reason are false. 14) Large, empty colourless cells present on upper surface of grass leaf are :- (1) Palisade parenchyma (2) Spony parenchyma (3) Subsidiary cells (4) Bulliform cells 15) Consider the following statements : (i) Epidermis cells are parenchymatous. (ii) Epidermis is usually two-layered. (iii) Stomata are mainly present in epidermis of root. (iv) Outer walls of guard cells are thick & inner walls are thin. (v) Subsidiary cells occurs in stomata. How many of above statements are incorrect? (1) Two (2) One (3) Three (4) Four ZOOLOGY SECTION-A 1) Which of the following is not at autoimmune disease? (1) Psoriasis (2) Rheumatoid arthritis (3) Alzheimer's disease (4) Vitiligo 2) Cocaine is derived from :- (1) Erythroxylum coca (2) Coffea arabica (3) Thea sinensis (4) Cannabis sativa 3) Which of the following statement is false ? (1) Gametocytes (sexual stages) develop in human RBC (2) Plasmodium reproduce asexually in human liver cells. (3) Fertilisation of plasmodium gametes take place in salivary gland of mosquito. (4) Sporozoite is the infective stage for humans. 4) Which of the following is not a correct match :- (1) Amphetamine – Stimulant (2) Morphine – Sedative (3) Cocaine – Coca alkaloid (4) L.S.D. – Cannabinoid 5) A vector borne disease characterised by enlargement of spleen, jaundice and haemoglobin concentration is low. All these feature associated to RBC destruction by pathogen. This disease may be ? (1) Chikungunya (2) Malaria (3) Filariasis (4) Dengue 6) How many of the following diseases are caused by bacteria ? Diphtheria, tetanus, plague, Hepatitis B, Filariasis, Ringworm, round worm, typhoid, Influenza, AIDS. (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 6 (4) 5 7) Many fungi belonging to genera Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are responsible for :- (1) Filariasis (2) Ascariasis (3) Ringworm (4) Amoebiasis 8) Match the following column :- Column-I Column-II Infects the nose and 1 Pneumonia a respiratory passage but not lungs. Common Blockage of Intestinal 2 b cold passage Infects the lungs (air filled 3 Amoebiasis c sacs) Stool with excess mucous 4 Ascariasis d and blood clots 1 2 3 4 (1) a c d b (2) c a b d (3) c a d b (4) a b c d (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 9) Which of the following disease spread by mosquitoes ? (1) Plague (2) Typhoid (3) Tetanus (4) Filariasis 10) Withdrawl syndrome of drug and alcohol discontinuation is not characterized by (1) Anxiety (2) Shakiness (3) Sweating (4) Euphoria 11) Which of the following is correct about this diagram: (a) Datura (b) Hallucinogen (c) Heroin (d) White, odourless, bitter, crystalline compound (e) Interfere with the transport of dopamine (f) Diacetyl morphine (g) Papaver somniferum (1) a, b, e (2) d, e, f, g (3) c, d, f, g (4) a, c, d, e 12) Principle of vaccination is based on – (1) Discrimination between self-non self (2) Diversity (3) Immunological memory (4) Specificity 13) Which of the following interferes with the transport of the neuro-transmitter dopamine ? (1) Smack (2) Marijuana (3) Ganja (4) Cocaine 14) Read the following symptoms and pathogenicity and identify the disease :- a. Constipation, abdominal pain and cramps b. Stools with blood and mucous c. Parasite of large intestine d. House flies are mechanical carriers (1) Amoebiasis (2) Ascariasis (3) Ringworm (4) Elephantiasis 15) Select the correct statement about cancer :- (1) α-interferon has no role in treatment of cancer. (2) Susceptibility to certain cancers is inherited. (3) Proto-oncogenes are absent in normal cell. (4) Metastasis is most feared property of benign tumor 16) The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens present in the environment could be associated with which of the following antibody? (1) IgE (2) IgG (3) IgA (4) IgD 17) Which of the following statement is false for the structure labelled as "A" in the figure given below? (1) Here maturation of T-lymphocytes takes place (2) Here immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen-sensitive lymphocytes (3) Here lymphocytes interact with antigen and become effector cells (4) It is an example of primary lymphoid organ. 18) Choose the odd one out w.r.t. placental hormone :- (1) hCG and hPL (2) Estrogen and progesterone (3) Relaxin and prolactin (4) Human placental lactogen and progesterone 19) Phase of menstrual cycle, which has fixed duration :- (1) Mestrual phase (2) Follicular phase (3) Proliferative phase (4) Luteal phase 20) Lower narrow end of uterus is called (1) Urethra (2) Cervix (3) Clitoris (4) Vulva 21) The primary spermatocytes are transformed into secondary spermatocytes from : (1) E to A (2) A to C (3) A to B (4) C to D 22) Which extra embryonic membrane in humans prevents desiccation of the embryo inside the uterus:- (1) Yolk sac (2) Amnion (3) Chorion (4) Allantois 23) Which of the following contraceptive devices makes the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to the sperms ? (1) Nim – 76 (2) LNG – 20 (3) Lippes loop (4) Multiload – 375 24) How many primary follicles are left in both ovary at puberty ? (1) 20,000–40,000 (2) 1,20,000–1,60,000 (3) 60,000–80,000 (4) 400–500 25) Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an endocrine gland after ovulation ? (1) Vitelline membrane (2) Graafian follicle (3) Stroma (4) Germinal epithelium 26) Which of the following is haploid cells ? (1) Primary spermatocytes and primary oocytes (2) Secondary spermatocytes and sec. oocytes (3) Spermatogonia and oogonia (4) Germinal cells. 27) GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in reproduction, acts on: (1) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and FSH. (2) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of oxytocin and FSH. (3) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and relaxin. (4) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and oxytocin. 28) The first sign of growing foetus may be noticed by :- (1) Movement of fetus (2) Appearance of hair on head (3) Listening to the heart sound carefully through the stethoscope (4) Formation of limbs 29) Fertilization most commonly occurs if the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to (1) Fimbriae-Infundibulum junction (2) Infundibulum-Ampulla junction (3) Ampulla (4) Isthmus-Fundus junction 30) The expulsion of fully developed foetus from the uterus is known as :- (1) ovulation (2) menstruation (3) gestation (4) parturition 31) Statement-1 : The secondary oocyte forms a new membrane called zona pellucida surrounding it. Statement-2 : Both LH and FSH attain a peak level in the middle of the menstrual cycle. (1) Statements-1 and 2 both are wrong (2) Only Statements-1 is correct (3) Statements-1 and 2 both are correct (4) Only Statements-2 is correct 32) Choose incorrect statement :- (1) Epididymis present on posterior side of testis (2) Secretion of bulbourethral gland helps in lubrication of penis (3) Interstitial cells are also called as Leyding's cell (4) Both testes have about 250 testicular lobules 33) Which technologies in the list given below are showing in-vivo fertilisation? GIFT, ZIFT, ICSI, IUT, AI, IVF (1) GIFT, ZIFT, ICSI, IUT (2) GIFT, AI (3) IUT, AI, IVF (4) ZIFT, ICSI, IUT 34) Match the following :- Makes the Non-medicated Uterus (A) (a) Multiload 375 (i) IUDs unsuitable for implantation Copper releasing Phagocyte the (B) (b) Non-Steroid (ii) IUDs sperms  Hormone Suppress (C) releasing (c) Lippe's loop (iii) sperm IUDs motility Weekly oral (D) Saheli (d) LNG-20 (iv) pill (1) A–b–i, B–c–ii, C–d–iii, D–a–iv (2) A–c–iv, B–a–iii, C–b–i, D–d–ii (3) A–c–ii,B–a–iii,C–d–i,D–b–iv (4) A–a–iii,B–c–ii,C–d–ii,D–b–iv 35) A contraceptive pill prevents ovulation by :- (1) Blocking fallopian tube (2) Inhibiting release of FSH & LH (3) Stimulating release of FSH & LH (4) Causing immediate degeneration of released ovum SECTION-B 1) Virus infected cell secrete proteins called. Which stimulate adjacent non infected cells to produce ? X Y (1) Antigen Antibody Translation (2) inhibiting Interferons protein (3) Antibody Antigen Translation (4) Interferons inhibiting protein (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 2) Given below are pairs of pathogens, disease caused by them and their classification. Which of these is incorrectly matched? Disease Pathogen Causative agent Haemophilus (1) Pneumonia Bacteria influenzae (2) Typhoid Salmonella Bacteria (3) Filariasis Microsporum Round worm Chikungunya (4) Chikungunya Virus Virus (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 3) Cancer cells are characterized by : (1) Uncontrolled growth (2) Invasion of local tissue (3) Spreading to other body parts (4) All the above 4) IgG antibodies produced by immune system of a mother and received by foetus through the placenta during pregnancy is an example of...... for the Foetus. (1) natural active immunity (2) artificial active immunity (3) natural passive immunity (4) artificial passive immunity 5) For cell mediated immunity __(a)__ are responsible whereas __(b)__ are responsible for antibody mediated immunity. (1) (a)-B-lymphocyte (b)-T-lymphocyte (2) (a)-T-lymphocyte (b)-Natural killer cell (3) (a)-B-lymphocyte (b)-Natural killer cell (4) (a)-T-lymphocyte (b)-B-lymphocyte 6) Assertion :- Human immuno deficiency virus is known to cause AIDS. Reason :- It reduces count of T-helper cells. (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion. (2) Assertion is true but Reason is false. (3) Assertion is false but Reason is true. (4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. 7) Read the following statement (A-D) (A) Dependence is the tendency of the body to manifest a characteristic and unpleasant withdrawl syndrome if regular dose of drug/alcohol is abruptly discontinued. (B) Excessive doses of drugs may lead to coma and death. (C) The period between 12-18 years of age may be thought of as adolescence period. (D) Addiction is a psychological attachment to certain effects-such as euphoria and a temporary feeling of well-being associated with drugs and alcohol. How many of the above statements are true :- (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 8) Read the following statements (A-D). (A) Non-specific type of defence. (B) It is characterised by memory. (C) It is present at the time of birth. (D) When it encounters a pathogen for the first time produces primary response. How many of above statements are true for "Innate Immunity" ? (1) (B) and (D) both (2) (A) and (C) both (3) (A), (B) and (C) (4) All of the above 9) The male accessory ducts include : (1) Penis , Testis and ureter (2) Rete testis, Vasa efferentia , Epididymis and vas deferens (3) Ureter, Urinary bladder, and urethra (4) Ureter, urethra and Penis 10) The edges of the infundibulum possess finger like projections called fimbriae which helps in : (1) Collection of sperms (2) Collection of ovum after ovulation (3) To facilitate implantation (4) To pass nutrition towards ovum 11) Match the column-A with column-B : - Column-A Column-B (A) Mons pubis (i) Outer fleshy folds of tissue (B) Labia majora (ii) Paired folds of tissue (C) Labia minors (iii) Finger-like structure (D) Clitoris (iv) Cushion of fatty tissue (1) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii (2) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii (3) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii (4) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i 12) It is a diagrammatic sectional view of male reproductive system, In which identify common path for the semen and urine : (1) A (2) B (3) D (4) C 13) Incorrect statement is– (1) Prostate is a paired gland present in male reproductive system (2) In male, testes are situated out side the abdominal cavity (3) In male, sperm formation continues even in old age Male reproductive system includes a pair of testes along with accessory ducts, glands and the (4) external genitalia 14) Given below are four method (A-D) and their modes of action (a-d) in achieving contraception. Select their correct matching. Method Mode of action prevent physical (A) Surgical method (a) meeting of gametes Chemical method (B) (b) Terminal method (creams) (C) Cu-7 (c) Spermicides Suppress sperm (D) Nirodh (d) motility (1) (A)-(c), (B)-(d), (C)-(a), (D)-(b) (2) (A)-(b), (B)-(c), (C)-(a), (D)-(d) (3) (A)-(c), (B)-(a), (C)-(d), (D)-(b) (4) (A)-(b), (B)-(c), (C)-(d), (D)-(a) 15) Given below are four statements (a-d) regarding assisted reproductive technologies (ART) :- (a) ZIFT - The zygote or early embryo (with upto 8 blastomere) transferred into the fallopian tube (b) ICSI - A sperm is directly injected into the ovum to form an embryo in the laboratory (c) IUI - The semen collected either from the husband or healthy donor is artificially introduced into the uterus (d) GIFT - Transfer of zygote collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce ova but can provide suitable environment for fertilisation and development Which of the above statements are correct : (1) a, b, d (2) b, c, d (3) a, b, c (4) b, d, a  ANSWER KEYS PHYSICS SECTION-A Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 A. 1 1 1 4 2 4 1 1 1 4 3 3 3 3 3 2 1 2 1 2 Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 A. 4 3 4 2 3 2 2 1 1 4 3 3 4 1 4 SECTION-B Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 A. 4 3 3 4 1 1 1 1 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 CHEMISTRY SECTION-A Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 A. 2 4 2 2 4 4 2 4 4 3 3 4 1 1 2 4 2 4 1 2 Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 A. 4 3 1 3 1 3 4 1 1 2 1 2 3 1 4 SECTION-B Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 A. 3 1 1 1 2 1 2 1 1 2 3 1 3 1 1 BOTANY SECTION-A Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 A. 2 2 1 4 3 1 2 3 3 3 2 1 3 4 2 3 4 4 3 2 Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 A. 1 1 4 2 3 2 2 4 3 2 2 4 3 4 3 SECTION-B Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 A. 4 2 4 2 4 2 2 1 3 3 3 2 3 4 3 ZOOLOGY  SECTION-A Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 A. 3 1 3 4 2 1 3 3 4 4 3 3 4 1 2 1 3 3 4 2 Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185 A. 3 2 2 2 2 2 1 3 3 4 3 4 2 3 2 SECTION-B Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 A. 4 3 4 3 4 4 1 2 2 2 2 4 1 4 3  SOLUTIONS PHYSICS 1) x = at and y = – bt2 ⇒ t= and y = –b ⇒y= 2) R = Ω Ω ∴R= 3) Dimension of αt = ∴[α] = Again = [L] so [β] = [LT–1] 4) = 36 × 10–1 5) Given that ⇒ angle between any two vector is 120° = (1) (1) cos120° + (1) (1) cos120° + (1) (1) cos120° = 6) (1) (2) (3) 7) –24.5 = 0 + n = 3 sec S = ut + –h = 0 + h = 44.1 m 8) vx = 3αt2 vy = 3βt2 ax = 6αt ay = 6βt 9) h + h' = 40 m ∴ 40 = 2ut ⇒ 40 = 2 × 20 × t ⇒ t = 1 sec h' = 20 (1) – (10) (1)2 = 20 – 5 = 15 m above from the ground 10) v1 cosθ1 = v2 cosθ2 11) 13) 2T = 90 g = 900 N T = 450 N 14) ⇒ T1 = 25 N, T2 = 25 N, T3 = 50 N 15) fL = 0.5 × 2g = 10 N 8 < fL So, 2kg do not move Hence 16) a = 2 m/s2 17) Apply system equation g= g×μ ⇒ μ= = 0.33 18) fL = 0.5 (5N) = 2.5 N fL > mg ⇒ block remains stationary f = mg = 0.1 g = 1 N 19) dAP = 15 cm 20) in vacuum C = , in medium v = μ= ⇒ sin θc = ⇒ θc = sin–1 21) μ1sini = μ2sinr 1 sin 60° = r = 30° Lateral shift t = 12 cm 22) δ = (i1 + i2) – (r1 + r2) 30° = 60° + i2 – 30° i2 = 0°, r2 = 0° r1 + r2 = A r1 = 30° 23) Pair = Pwater = ⇒ Pwater = ⇒ Pwater = 3.33 D Change in power = 10 – 3.33 D = 6.67 D 24) δ = i + e – A 30 = 15° + 60º – A 30º = 75º – A A = 75º – 30º = 45º 25) 26) d sinθ ≤ nλ for maximum no. of maxima θ = 90° ⇒ sinθ = 1 ≥n ⇒n≤ ⇒ n ≤ 3.5 nmax = 3 (one side of control maxima) ntotal = 3 + 1 + 3 = 7 27) Imax = 9 Imin = 1 28) λ = 0.5 m d = 2m So distance between S1 & S2 (0.5 λ) × 8 =4λ 29) As β = β' D' = 2.25 D 30) (Δx)medium = (Δx)air n1λ1 = 10 × λm = (2 × 8 –1) ×  31) (µ1 – 1)t1 = (µ2 – 1)t2 0.5 × 1.8µm = 1.5t2 t2 = 0.6µm 32) ⇒ θ = 30º Angular width of central maxima = 2θ = 60º 33) a sinθ = Δ a sinθ = nλ.....(1).......(2) (1)/(2) 34) Polarizing angle = tanθ = µ ⇒ =µ Critical angle sin iC = ⇒ 35) 36) Correct diameter of ball = 5mm + 25 × 0.001 cm + 0.004 cm = 0.5cm + 0.025 cm + 0.004 cm = 0.529 cm 37) x = 3t2 – 6t y = t2 – 2t vx = = 6t – 6 vy = = 2t – 2 at t = 1 sec → vx = 0 and vy = 0 hence , a is never zero, vx = 6t – 6, vy = 2t – 2 At t = 1s, velocity is zero. 38) , , ∴ ∴ ∴ ∴ V2 = 20 km/h 39) = n– (16–n) =8 3n–16+n=24 ⇒ 4n = 40 ⇒ n = 10 40) F + 2F + 4F = 700 N F = 100 N T1 = 2F = 200 N T2 = 2T1 = 4F = 400 N T3 = 2T2 = 8F = 800 N 41) After cut the string 42) 3 + 10gsin45° = μ(10gcos45°) + P 3+ = 0.6 × +P P=3+ ≈ 32 N 43) For A : uA = – 21 cm f = – 12 cm = –4 × 7 = – 28 cm Image of C will be at C ∴ length of image = |–28| – |–24| = 4 cm 44) For μ = 1.6 For μ = 2 so separation between images formed will be infinity. 45) f0 = 2.0 cm, fe = 6.25 cm, L = 15 cm, Ve = – 25 cm ⇒ ue = – 5 V0 = L – |ue| = 15 – 5 = 10 cm ⇒ ⇒ u0 = – 2.5 cm 46) (If f is in cm) use P = –12.5 D 47) v = 40 cm 48) R = 10 cm, object distance = 21 cm Shift due to slab =t =3 = 1 cm along the direction of ray (incident) So, u = –21 + 1 = – 20 cm f=– = – 5 cm  Now ⇒ v=– Now ray is reflected and shift due to slab is along direction of reflected ray 50. Final position of image is = V –1 =– = cm from mirror distance of image from mirror = 49) For best contrast we require perfect black or zero as minima which is only possible for equal intensity of light. 50) Fringe width w = where D = distance between slits and screen, d = distance between slits and λ = wavelength of light. (A) λ increase so w also increase ∴ A → s (B) White light produce coloured fringes ∴ B → p (C) If D is doubled and d is halved, w become four times. ∴ C → q (D) If intensity of either is reduced, the bright fringe become less bright. ∴ D → r CHEMISTRY 52) For tangent, during 50-30 sec. interval, concn change. = C5–C2 and not C4 -C2. Hence option (4) is not correct 53) Rate = K[A] 1 × 10–3 = K (0.1) K= 54) In k = ℓnA – Ea/RT For ln k vs 1/T ln A = intercept –Ea/R = Slope = –2 × 104 K Ea = R × 2 × 104 K = 8.3 × 2 × 104 J mol–1 = 16.6 × 104 J mol–1 or 166 KJ mol–1 55) ΔH = Ea–Eb = 150 – 125 = 25 kJ P.E. of activated complex = (PER +E2) = 150 kJ 57) t= 100 =...(1)...(2) 58) Rate = k1 [M] [Z].....(1) from equation (1) Keq =. M = keq [x] [y].....(2) put the value of M from (2) to (1) Rate = k1 keq [x] [y] [z] Rate = k [x] [y] [z] 59) = =2× mol.hr–1 = × 64 kg.hr–1 = 0.064 kg.hr–1 62) A(g) → 2B(g) + C(g) a 0 0 ; a = Po a–x 2x x ; a + 2x = Pt x= K= 72) Kp = (atm)Δng Δng = –2 KP = (atm)–2 75) 1 = 1 – α + nα iAj = 1 – 0.6 + 2 × 6 = 2.2 – 0.6 = 1.6 1CD = 1 – 0.2 + 2 × 0.2 = 1.4 – 0.2 = 1.2 iEF = 1 – 1 + 2 × 1 =3–1=2 (ΔP)1 = i × p° (xsolute)1 (ΔP)2 = i × p° (xsolute)2 (ΔP)3 = i × p° (xsolute)3 (1.6)p° : 1.2p° : 2p° 1.6 : 1.2 : 2 0.8 : 0.6 : 1 76) See Raoult's law (liq-liq system) & solid-liq system formula & Dalton's law. 77) Vant Hoff's factor i = 1 – α + nα For KCl ⇒ i = 1 – 0.5 + 2 × 0.5 = 1.5 For K2SO4 ⇒ i = 1 – 0.4 + 3 × 0.4 = 1.8 For SnCl4 ⇒ i = 1 – 0.2 + 5 × 0.2 = 1.8 For FeCl3 ⇒ i = 1 – 0.3 + 4 × 0.3 = 1.9 80) Raoult's law : Henry's law : Elevation of boiling point: Depression in freezing point: Osmotic pressure: π = CST 81) NCERT-2021, Part-1, Pg. # 41 KH = Slope of the curve 84) N = M × n factor = 2.05 × 2 = 4.1 m =  m= = 2.33 mol/kg 87) t1/2 = (for zero order) log t1/2 = log = log a – log 2k 88) At Pc = 0.20 atm PA = 0.60 – 0.20 = 0.40 atm PB = 0.80 – 0.20 = 0.60 atm 89) K = 10 –...(1) logK = log A –...(2) from equation (1) & (2) = 1000 Ea = 1000 × 2.303 × Ea = 4.606 kCal /mol. 99) NCERT (2019) Page No. # 39_Theory 100) MA = 170 gmol–1 BOTANY 101) NCERT-XII, Pg#13 102) NCERT-XII, Pg # 07,08,09 103) NCERT-XII, Pg # 19 104) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 13 105) NCERT-XII, Pg # 20,21 106) NCERT XII Pg.# 18 107) NCERT-XII, Pg # 18 108) NCERT-XII, Pg # 07 109) NCERT-XII, Pg # 08 110) NCERT-XII, Pg # 12 111) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 7 112) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 20 113) NCERT XI, Pg. No. 59 114) NCERT-XI, Pg # 67,68 115) NCERT-XI, Pg # 60 116) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 65 117) NCERT-XI, Pg # 67 118) NCERT-XI, Pg # 64,67,69 119) NCERT-XI, Pg # 61,63,64,66 120) NCERT XI Pg. # 64 121) NCERT-XI, Pg # 64 122) NCERT-XI, Pg # 62,64,65 123) NCERT-XI, Pg # 59,60 124) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 75 125) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 73 126) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 75 127) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 73 128) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 76 129) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 72 130) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 74 131) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 77 132) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 77 133) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 74 134) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 72 135) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 75 & 76 138) NCERT-XII, Pg # 10 139) NCERT-XII Pg. # 07 140) NCERT XII Pg # 15 141) NCERT-XI, Pg # 61,62 142) NCERT-XI, Pg # 63 143) NCERT-XI, Pg # 61 144) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 62 146) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 74  147) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 74 & 75 148) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 75 149) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 77 150) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 72 ZOOLOGY 158) NCERT Pg.# 147,148,149 159) NCERT XII Pg # 149 160) NCERT XII Pg # 161 165) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 157,158 166) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 153, Para. 8.2.5 171) NCERT Pg#34 to 36 182) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 27 190) NCERT Pg.# 151 192) NCERT XII, Pg.# 160,161 200) NCERT XII, Page # 64