Psyc 340 Exam 1 F24 PDF

Exam 1 PSYX 340 F24 NAME _______________________________ Make sure that your answer is CLEAR. I recommend both writing and circling your choice. If your handwriting is unclear and you have not circled an answer, my decision will be final. Each answer is...

Exam 1 PSYX 340 F24 NAME _______________________________ Make sure that your answer is CLEAR. I recommend both writing and circling your choice. If your handwriting is unclear and you have not circled an answer, my decision will be final. Each answer is worth 1.5 points. ____ 1. Which of these individuals would be MOST likely to be classified as exhibiting abnormal behavior? a. a person who experiences grief immediately after losing her job and then her house b. a person who is nervous about shopping alone for weeks after being attacked by a mugger c. a person who always washes his hands immediately after returning home from grocery shopping d. a person who engages in multiple checking rituals each day and is unable to hold down a job ____ 2. Freud believed that all functioning, normal and abnormal, originates from: a. one’s underlying biological makeup. b. unconscious psychological processes. c. the internal battle between good and evil. d. conscious internal drives and moral external forces. ____ 3. One cause of the increase in individuals experiencing homelessness in recent decades has been the: a. policy of deinstitutionalization. b. decrease in the effectiveness of medications. c. decrease in the use of private psychotherapy. d. move to the community mental health approach. ____ 4. A Secret Service agent steps in front of the president of the United States, prepared to be killed or injured if the president’s safety is threatened. Psychologically speaking, the Secret Service agent’s behavior is: a. distressing to the agent and abnormal. b. dangerous for the agent but not abnormal. c. deviant but not abnormal. d. dysfunctional and abnormal. ____ 5. Ancient societies commonly treated abnormal behavior by: a. committing the affected persons to asylums. b. providing moral treatment. c. performing an exorcism. d. changing the diet. ____ 6. The moral treatment movement rapidly declined in the late nineteenth century because: a. prejudice against those with mental disorders decreased. b. fewer and fewer people were being sent to mental hospitals. c. all patients needing treatment had to be helped. d. hospitals became underfunded and overcrowded. ____ 7. When behavior prevents a person from participating in ordinary social interactions, that behavior is said to be: a. deviant. c. distressing. b. dangerous. d. dysfunctional. 1 ____ 8. Which is NOT a characteristic of eccentrics noted by researchers in the field? a. disinterest in others’ opinions c. mischievous sense of humor b. unhappiness or discontentedness d. poor spelling skills ____ 9. A person who is having suicidal thoughts and can see no reason for living BEST fits which definition of abnormality? a. deviance c. danger b. distress d. dysfunction ____ 10. The number of new cases of a disorder in a population that emerge in a particular time interval is called the: a. incidence. c. correlation. b. prevalence. d. epidemiology. ____ 11. A researcher finds a strong positive correlation between ratings of life stress and symptoms of depression. Therefore, the researcher may be confident that: a. life stress causes symptoms of depression. b. symptoms of depression cause life stress. c. something else causes stress and depression. d. life stress and depression are related. ____ 12. A psychologist does a study of an individual involving a history, tests, and interviews of associates. A clear picture is constructed of this individual so her behavior is better understood. This study is a(n): a. longitudinal study. c. experimental study. b. case study. d. correlational study. ____ 13. The ability to generalize results from a study of certain individuals to other individuals not studied is called: a. construct validity. c. internal validity. b. context validity. d. external validity. ____ 14. If stress levels and physical health are negatively correlated, the researcher can conclude that: a. stress causes people to have poor health. b. as stress increases, health decreases. c. poor health causes people to experience stress. d. mental illness causes both stress and poor health. ____ 15. If researchers studied Vietnam veterans for 30 years after the veterans’ return from Vietnam, the study would be classified as: a. epidemiological. c. incidental. b. longitudinal. d. experimental. ____ 16. According to Freud’s psychodynamic theory, ineffective interaction of the id, ego, and superego can result in a person becoming stuck at a developmental level. This is called: a. fixation. c. repression. b. neurosis. d. transference. 2 ____ 17. Brooklyn learns to turn on the TV by watching her older brother turn it on. This form of learning is called: a. shaping. c. operant conditioning. b. modeling. d. classical conditioning. ____ 18. Joanie has social anxiety. Whenever she has to attend a party, she only speaks to people she knows well. According to the cognitive-behavioral model, this is an example of _____ behavior. a. avoidance c. safety b. illogical d. exposure ____ 19. With mindfulness-based therapy techniques, clients would MOST likely be encouraged to: a. focus on setting goals for the future. b. let their thoughts flow, without judgment. c. reject thoughts that are not rational. d. try to figure out the source of their troublesome thoughts. ____ 20. The _____ model proposes that humans must have an accurate self-awareness and live meaningful lives to be psychologically well adjusted. a. psychodynamic c. humanistic-existential b. cognitive-behavioral d. biological ____ 21. What happens when an electrical impulse reaches a neuron’s ending? a. Neurotransmitters are released. c. The receiving neurons fire. b. Release of neurotransmitters is d. The receiving neurons stop all firing. stopped. ____ 22. Which is a goal of acceptance and commitment therapy? a. to lessen the power of thoughts b. to stop the client from comparing himself or herself to others c. to decrease internal negative self-talk d. to increase awareness of why the client behaves a certain way ____ 23. In the 1960s and 1970s, social upheaval and soul-searching in Western society gave rise to humanistic and existential therapies. The BEST explanation for this trend is that these theories: a. focused primarily on unconscious thoughts, instincts, and conflict. b. focused on a positive message and living a meaningful life. c. identified an external source as the cause of abnormal behavior. d. discounted the concept of abnormality and focused on acceptance. ____ 24. The principle of multifinality emphasizes that: a. stress is the primary factor leading to abnormality. b. a biological predisposition is the primary factor leading to abnormality. c. abnormality arises from an interaction between predisposition and stress. d. only one factor—stress or predisposition—is necessary for abnormality to occur. 3 ____ 25. According to Freud’s psychodynamic theory, the part of the personality that operates by the morality principle is the: a. id. c. superego. b. ego. d. ego ideal. ____ 26. Marie comes from a supportive, loving family and has a stable socioeconomic background. She has developed depression due to a serotonin deficiency. Anne has distant parents, failing grades, and insufficient funds for basic necessities and also develops depression. These two cases demonstrate what principle of developmental psychopathology? a. equifinality c. multifinality b. eclectic integration d. timing ____ 27. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is used MOST often in the treatment of: a. schizophrenia. c. depression. b. anxiety disorders. d. bipolar disorder. ____ 28. The goal of cognitive-behavioral therapy is BEST described as: a. improving the client’s interactions with others. b. helping the client develop a stronger sense of self and rational thinking. c. helping the client gain insight into his or her unconscious desires and needs. d. modifying the client’s negative behavior and dysfunctional ways of thinking. ____ 29. Mason’s parents always pay special attention to him when he takes toys from his little sister. As such, he continues to steal her toys. This is an example of: a. shaping. c. operant conditioning. b. modeling. d. classical conditioning. ____ 30. Which of the following is a reason for which little controlled research has been devoted to the effectiveness of existential therapy? a. Existential therapy is very new, and there hasn’t yet been enough time to conduct thorough research. b. Existentialists believe that research isn’t necessary, because the effectiveness of existential therapy is already apparent due to its widespread success. c. Existentialists believe that research dehumanizes individuals by reducing them to test measures. d. Not enough therapists practice existential therapy to make it worth researching. ____ 31. Which statement about paradigms (perspectives) is FALSE? a. Each paradigm focuses mainly on one aspect of human functioning. b. The paradigms are sometimes in conflict. c. Each paradigm is complete in itself. d. An investigator’s preferred paradigm influences how they interpret research findings. ____ 32. If a new test for assessing anorexic tendencies produces scores comparable to those of other tests for assessing anorexic tendencies, then the new test has high: a. predictive validity. c. concurrent validity. b. standardization criteria. d. interjudge reliability. 4 ____ 33. Studies report that most therapists are MOST likely to learn about the latest information on the treatment of psychological disorders from: a. reading research articles. c. conducting their own research. b. talking with professional colleagues. d. writing grants. ____ 34. If a panel of experts evaluate test results and clinical interviews with a client and all arrive at the same diagnosis, that diagnosis is said to have high: a. internal validity. c. interrater reliability. b. predictive validity. d. test–retest reliability. ____ 35. A person knows he is being observed and changes his behavior to make a good impression. What is this known as? a. observer drift c. reactivity b. observer bias d. naturalistic change ____ 36. A person is diagnosed as having severe generalized anxiety disorder. Generalized anxiety disorder represents which part of the diagnosis? a. primary information c. dimensional information b. additional information d. categorical information ____ 37. Fiona's therapist has asked her to keep a log where she records every occasion where she feels an urge to engage in self-harm. What Fiona has been asked to do is called: a. standardization. c. self-monitoring. b. rapprochement. d. assembling a clinical picture. ____ 38. The type of therapy found to be most effective for treating phobias is: a. drug therapy. c. electroconvulsive therapy. b. Gestalt therapy. d. cognitive-behavioral therapy. ____ 39. DSM-5 is the first edition of the DSM that requires clinicians to provide: a. both categorical information and dimensional information. b. only categorical information. c. only dimensional information. d. neither categorical information nor dimensional information. ____ 40. One reason to question the validity of clinical interviews is that: a. people respond differently to different interviewers. b. people may respond differently to clinicians who are not of their race. c. on different days, people might describe themselves differently. d. interviewers may make mistakes in how they interpret the information they gather ____ 41. How does fear differ from anxiety? a. Fear is a response to a specific threat, whereas anxiety is more general. b. Anxiety is more likely to lead to aggression than is fear. c. Fear is a response to an inanimate threat, whereas anxiety is a response to an interpersonal threat. d. Anxiety is an immediate response, whereas fear is more vague. 5 ____ 42. “Phobic and generalized anxiety disorders arise when people stop looking at themselves honestly and with acceptance and instead deny and distort their true thoughts, emotions, and behavior.” Which kind of theorist would offer the preceding explanation for anxiety disorders? a. a biological theorist c. a sociocultural theorist b. a cognitive-behavioral theorist d. a humanistic theorist ____ 43. The first step in systematic desensitization treatment is: a. role-playing. c. construction of a fear hierarchy. b. relaxation training. d. graded pairings w/the phobic object. ____ 44. When would religious rituals and superstitious behavior (such as not stepping on cracks) be considered compulsive behaviors? a. when they are done to provide comfort and reduce tension b. when they are done more than once a day c. when they interfere with daily function and cause distress d. never ____ 45. The biological understanding of generalized anxiety is supported by the finding that: a. relatives of people with generalized anxiety are more likely to have it than nonrelatives are. b. distant relatives of people with generalized anxiety are more likely to have it than close relatives. c. relatives share not only biological characteristics but also similar environments. d. identical twins have more similar environments than fraternal twins. ____ 46. According to the intolerance of uncertainty theory, individuals with generalized anxiety disorder are: a. likely to have difficulty tolerating the knowledge that a negative event may occur. b. likely to underestimate the chances that any positive event will occur. c. able to tolerate uncertainty only in mildly threatening events. d. able to tolerate uncertainty only in severely threatening events. ____ 47. The cognitive explanation for panic disorders is that people who have them: a. have relatives who are atypically anxious. b. are prone to allergies and have immune deficiencies. c. misinterpret bodily sensations. d. experience more than the average amount of stress. ____ 48. The benefits of exposure treatment for agoraphobia are very often: a. more pronounced in clients who also suffer from panic disorder. b. followed by a relapse but then recovered through more treatment. c. minimal and easily lost. d. complete and permanent. ____ 49. Which of these describes a compulsion? a. a thought, idea, impulse, or image that seems to invade a person's consciousness b. a strong fear that influences anxiety c. a repetitive and rigid behavior or mental act that people feel they must perform d. a thought that a person cannot get out of his or her head 6 ____ 50. Every once in a while, Ona feels nervous to the point of terror. This feeling seems to come on suddenly and randomly. Her experience is an example of a(n): a. panic disorder. c. generalized anxiety disorder. b. phobic disorder. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder. ____ 51. A professor's office is a mess; graded tests are in piles on the desk, overflowing bookshelves line the walls, and research materials from years ago occupy boxes on the floor where there is only a narrow pathway to walk. If the professor is experiencing a diagnosable disorder, it would MOST likely be in which category? a. social anxiety disorders c. obsessive-compulsive–related disorders b. panic disorders d. specific phobias ____ 52. What is the BEST combination of treatments for obsessive-compulsive disorder? a. client-centered therapies and exposure therapies b. cognitive-behavioral therapies and antidepressant drugs c. antidepressant drugs and biofeedback d. biofeedback and relaxation training ____ 53. Which disorder is characterized by severe, persistent, and irrational anxiety about social or performance situations in which the person may face scrutiny by others and possibly feel embarrassment? a. specific phobias c. agoraphobia b. generalized anxiety disorder d. social anxiety disorder ____ 54. Avery, a 28-year-old woman, tells her therapist that she has an intense fear of snakes. She says she has been afraid of snakes since she was a child. Which additional criterion would suggest that Avery meets the diagnostic criteria for a specific phobia? a. feelings of anxiousness when looking at images of snakes b. occasional dreams that involve snakes c. refusal to go to certain places where she believes snakes could be present, such as the lake d. feelings that the world would be better off without snakes ____ 55. A woman constantly avoids crowded streets and buildings, and she is very reluctant to leave home, even with a friend. Recently, she has started experiencing sudden, extreme fear every time she enters a crowded street. MOST likely, this woman would be diagnosed with: a. panic disorder and specific phobia. c. agoraphobia and panic disorder. b. panic disorder. d. agoraphobia. ____ 56. One limitation of the sociocultural approach to understanding generalized anxiety disorders is that it cannot explain: a. the paradox that as poverty gets worse, generalized anxiety declines. b. the relationships among race, poverty, and job opportunity. c. why everyone who experiences danger doesn't experience generalized anxiety. d. the differences in generalized anxiety in countries around the world. ____ 57. The MOST common mental disorders in the United States are: a. mood disorders. c. personality disorders. b. anxiety disorders. d. sexual disorders. 7 ____ 58. What is the current status of repressed childhood memories of trauma, as far as the community of clinicians is concerned? a. Repressed childhood memories are generally dismissed as illusions. b. Repressed childhood memories are generally accepted as memories of real events. c. Most clinicians reject them as illusions, but a significant minority defend the concept. d. Most clinicians defend the concept, but a significant minority reject them as illusions. ____ 59. In which age group does depersonalization-derealization disorder almost never occur? a. children younger than age 10 c. young adults b. adolescents and teens d. the middle-aged ____ 60. People who are unable to recall important information about themselves, especially of an upsetting nature, are MOST likely experiencing: a. dissociative identity disorder. d. depersonalization-derealization b. dissociative amnesia. disorder. c. body dysmorphic disorder. ____ 61. A person's mental functioning or body feels unreal or foreign. They are MOST likely suffering from: a. body dysmorphic disorder. c. dissociative identity disorder. b. depersonalization. d. dissociative amnesia. ____ 62.. Which does NOT characterize stress disorders? a. recurring memories, dreams, or nightmares about the event b. a compulsive need to engage in activities that remind one of the event c. reduced responsiveness to the world around one d. signs of increased arousal, such as poor sleep and exaggerated startle reactions ____ 63. What is a typical time frame for a rape survivor's stress level to be at its highest level? a. immediately after the assault b. between 12 and 20 days after the assault c. between 3 and 7 weeks after the assault d. between 4 and 6 months after assault ____ 64. Carlotta is attacked in the street, and her young daughter is kidnapped. Eventually, the police find her daughter and return her to her mother. However, Carlotta is unable to recall events that have occurred since the attack. She is even unable to retain new information; she remembers what happened before the attack but cannot remember new and ongoing experiences. This is a classic example of: a. localized amnesia. c. continuous amnesia. b. selective amnesia. d. generalized amnesia. ____ 65. Salina was terrified during the magnitude 7.2 earthquake that hit where she lived. For a couple of weeks after the event, she did not sleep well or feel comfortable inside a building. However, her fears gradually diminished and were completely gone within a month. Her reaction to the earthquake would MOST likely be diagnosed as a(n): a. panic attack. c. acute stress disorder. b. phobic reaction. d. posttraumatic stress disorder. 8 ____ 66. When a person feels that the external world is removed, mechanical, distorted, or even dead, he or she is experiencing: a. doubling. c. dissociative amnesia. b. depersonalization. d. derealization. ____ 67. A person who experiences which incident is at the GREATEST risk of developing posttraumatic stress disorder? a. learning of a friend who lost their leg in an accident b. witnessing a friend die from being shot point-blank c. seeing a friend seriously injured during a sporting event d. being home alone when a storm damages the house ____ 68. In response to a threat, we perspire, breathe more quickly, get goosebumps, and feel nauseated. These responses are controlled by the: a. central nervous system. c. sympathetic nervous system. b. peripheral nervous system. d. parasympathetic nervous system. ____ 69. _____ is common with dissociative fugue. a. Fleeing to a new location c. Becoming more introverted b. Engaging in criminal activity d. Losing procedural memories ____ 70. A pattern of anxiety, insomnia, depression, and flashbacks that begins shortly after a traumatic event and persists for less than a month is called: a. hysteria. c. generalized anxiety disorder. b. acute stress disorder. d. posttraumatic stress disorder. BONUS QUESTION (worth up to 5 points): What is a trauma, as defined by the DSM-5? 9