300-Item NLE Practice Exam PDF

300-Item NLE Practice Exam Situation – Richard has a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance related to excessive secretions and is at risk for infection because of retained secretions. Part of Nurse Mario’s nursing care plan is to loosen an...

300-Item NLE Practice Exam Situation – Richard has a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance related to excessive secretions and is at risk for infection because of retained secretions. Part of Nurse Mario’s nursing care plan is to loosen and remove excessive secretions in the airway. 1. Mario listens to Richard’s bilateral sounds and finds that congestion is in the upper lobes of the lungs. The appropriate position to drain the anterior and posterior apical segments of the lungs when Mario does percussion would be: A. Client lying on his back then flat on his abdomen on Trendelenburg position B. Client seated upright in bed or on a chair then leaning forward in sitting position then flat on his back and on his abdomen C. Client lying flat on his back and then flat on his abdomen D. Client lying on his right then left side on Trendelenburg position 2. When documenting outcome of Richard’s treatment Mario should include the following in his recording EXCEPT: A. Color, amount and consistency of sputum B. Character of breath sounds and respiratory rate before and after procedure C. Amount of fluid intake of client before and after the procedure D. Significant changes in vital signs 3. When assessing Richard for chest percussion or chest vibration and postural drainage, Mario would focus on the following EXCEPT: A. Amount of food and fluid taken during the last meal before treatment B. Respiratory rate, breath sounds and location of congestion C. Teaching the client’s relatives to perform the procedure D. Doctor’s order regarding position restrictions and client’s tolerance for lying flat 4. Mario prepares Richard for postural drainage and percussion. Which of the following is a special consideration when doing the procedure? A. Respiratory rate of 16 to 20 per minute B. Client can tolerate sitting and lying positions C. Client has no signs of infection D. Time of last food and fluid intake of the client 5. The purpose of chest percussion and vibration is to loosen secretions in the lungs. The difference between the procedures is: A. Percussion uses only one hand while vibration uses both hands B. Percussion delivers cushioned blows to the chest with cupped palms while vibration gently shakes secretion loose on the exhalation cycle C. In both percussion and vibration the hands are on top of each other and hand action is in tune with client’s breath rhythm D. Percussion slaps the chest to loosen secretions while vibration shakes the secretions along with the inhalation of air Situation – A 61 year old man, Mr. Regalado, is admitted to the private ward for observation after complaints of severe chest pain. You are assigned to take care of the client. 6. When doing an initial assessment, the best way for you to identify the client’s priority problem is to: A. Interview the client for chief complaints and other symptoms B. Talk to the relatives to gather data about history of illness C. Do auscultation to check for chest congestion D. Do a physical examination while asking the client relevant questions 7. Nancy blames God for her situation. She is easily provoked to tears and wants to be left alone, refusing to eat or talk to her family. A religious person before, she now refuses to pray or go to church stating that God has abandoned her. The nurse understands that Nancy is grieving for her self and is in the stage of: A. bargaining B. denial C. anger D. acceptance 8. Which of the following ethical principles refers to the duty to do good? A. Beneficence B. Fidelity C. Veracity D. Nonmaleficence 9. During which step of the nursing process does the nurse analyze data related to the patient's health status? A. Assessment B. Implementation  C. Diagnosis D. Evaluation 10. The basic difference between nursing diagnoses and collaborative problems is that A. nurses manage collaborative problems using physician-prescribed interventions. B. collaborative problems can be managed by independent nursing interventions. C. nursing diagnoses incorporate physician-prescribed interventions. D. nursing diagnoses incorporate physiologic complications that nurses monitor to detect change in status. Situation – Mrs. Seva, 52 years old, asks you about possible problems regarding her elimination now that she is in the menopausal stage. 11. Instruction on health promotion regarding urinary elimination is important. Which would you include? A. Hold urine as long as she can before emptying the bladder to strengthen her sphincter muscles B. If burning sensation is experienced while voiding, drink pineapple juice C. After urination, wipe from anal area up towards the pubis D. Tell client to empty the bladder at each voiding 12. Mrs. Seva also tells the nurse that she is often constipated. Because she is aging, what physical changes predispose her to constipation? A. inhibition of the parasympathetic reflex B. weakness of sphincter muscles of anus C. loss of tone of the smooth muscles of the colon D. decreased ability to absorb fluids in the lower intestines 13. The nurse understands that one of these factors contributes to constipation: A. excessive exercise B. high fiber diet C. no regular time for defecation daily D. prolonged use of laxatives 14. You will do nasopharyngeal suctioning on Mr. Abad. Your guide for the length of insertion of the tubing for an adult would be: A. tip of the nose to the base of the neck B. the distance from the tip of the nose to the middle of the neck C. the distance from the tip of the nose to the tip of the ear lobe D. eight to ten inches Situation– Mr. Dizon, 84 years old, brought to the Emergency Room for complaint of hypertension, flushed face, severe headache, and nausea. You are doing the initial assessment of vital signs. 15. You are to measure the client’s initial blood pressure reading by doing all of the following EXCEPT: A. Take the blood pressure reading on both arms for comparison B. Listen to and identify the phases of Korotkoff’s sound C. Pump the cuff to around 50 mmHg above the point where the pulse is obliterated D. Observe procedures for infection control 16. A pulse oximeter is attached to Mr. Dizon’s finger to: A. Determine if the client’s hemoglobin level is low and if he needs blood transfusion B. Check level of client’s tissue perfusion C. Measure the efficacy of the client’s anti-hypertensive medications D. Detect oxygen saturation of arterial blood before symptoms of hypoxemia develops 17. In which type of shock does the patient experiences a mismatch of blood flow to the cells? A. Distributive C. Hypovolemic B. Cardiogenic D. Septic 18. The preferred route of administration of medication in the most acute care situations is which of the following routes? A. Intravenous C. Subcutaneous B. Epidural D. Intramuscular 19. After a few hours in the Emergency Room, Mr. Dizon is admitted to the ward with an order of hourly monitoring of blood pressure. The nurse finds that the cuff is too narrow and this will cause the blood pressure reading to be: A. inconsistent B. low systolic and high diastolic C. higher than what the reading should be D. lower than what the reading should be 20. Through the client’s health history, you gather that Mr. Dizon smokes and drinks coffee. When taking the blood pressure of a client who recently smoked or drank coffee, how long should the nurse wait before taking the client’s blood pressure for accurate reading? A. 15 minutes B. 30 minutes C. 1 hour D. 5 minutes 21. While the client has pulse oximeter on his fingertip, you notice that the sunlight is shining on the area where the oximeter is. Your action will be to: A. Set and turn on the alarm of the oximeter B. Do nothing since there is no identified problem C. Cover the fingertip sensor with a towel or bedsheet D. Change the location of the sensor every four hours 22. When taking blood pressure reading the cuff should be: A. deflated fully then immediately start second reading for same client B. deflated quickly after inflating up to 180 mmHg C. large enough to wrap around upper arm of the adult client 1 cm above brachial artery D. inflated to 30 mmHg above the estimated systolic BP based on palpation of radial or brachial artery 23. To ensure client safety before starting blood transfusions the following are needed before the procedure can be done EXCEPT: A. take baseline vital signs B. blood should be warmed to room temperature for 30 minutes before blood transfusions is administered C. have two nurses verify client identification, blood type, unit number and expiration date of blood D. get consent signed for blood transfusion 24. Mr. Bruno asks what the “normal” allowable salt intake is. Your best response to Mr. Bruno is: A. 1 tsp of salt/day with iodine and sprinkle of MSG B. 5 gms per day or 1 tsp of table salt/day C. 1 tbsp of salt/day with some patis and toyo D. 1 tsp of salt/day but no patis and toyo 25. Which of the following methods is the best method for determining nasogastric tube placement in the stomach? A. X-ray B. Observation of gastric aspirate C. Testing of pH of gastric aspirate D. Placement of external end of tube under water 26. Which of the following is the most important risk factor for development of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease? A. Cigarette smoking B. Occupational exposure C. Air pollution D. Genetic abnormalities 27. When performing endotracheal suctioning, the nurse applies suctioning while withdrawing and gently rotating the catheter 360 degrees for which of the following time periods? A. 10-15 seconds C. 20-25 seconds B. 30-35 seconds D. 0-5 seconds 28. The nurse auscultates the apex beat at which of the following anatomical locations? A. Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line B. Mid-sternum C. 2” to the left of the lower end of the sternum D. 1” to the left of the xiphoid process 29. Which of the following terms describes the amount of blood ejected per heartbeat? A. Stroke volume B. Cardiac output C. Ejection fraction D. Afterload 30. You are to apply a transdermal patch of nitoglycerin to your client. The following are important guidelines to observe EXCEPT: A. Apply to hairless clean area of the skin not subject to much wrinkling B. Patches may be applied to distal part of the extremities like forearm C. Change application and site regularly to prevent irritation of the skin D. Wear gloves to avoid any medication on your hand 31. The GAUGE size in ET tubes determines: A. The external circumference of the tube B. The internal diameter of the tube C. The length of the tube D. The tube’s volumetric capacity 32. The nurse is correct in performing suctioning when she applies the suction intermittently during: A. Insertion of the suction catheter B. Withdrawing of the suction catheter C. both insertion and withdrawing of the suction catheter D. When the suction catheter tip reaches the bifurcation of the trachea 33. The purpose of the cuff in Tracheostomy tube is to: A. Separate the upper and lower airway B. Separate trachea from the esophagus C. Separate the larynx from the nasopharynx D. Secure the placement of the tube 34. Which priority nursing diagnosis is applicable for a patient with indwelling urinary catheter? A. Self esteem disturbance B. Impaired urinary elimination C. Impaired skin integrity D. Risk for infection 35. An incontinent elderly client frequently wets his bed and eventually develop redness and skin excoriation at the perianal area. The best nursing goal for this client is to: A. Make sure that the bed linen is always dry B. Frequently check the bed for wetness and always keep it dry C. Place a rubber sheet under the client’s buttocks D. Keep the patient clean and dry 36. As a Nurse Manager, DMLM enjoys her staff of talented and self motivated individuals. She knew that the leadership style to suit the needs of this kind of people is called: A. Autocratic B. Participative C. Democratic D. Laissez Faire 37. A fire has broken in the unit of DMLM R.N. The best leadership style suited in cases of emergencies like this is: A. Autocratic B. Participative C. Democratic D. Laissez Faire 38. Which step of the management process is concerned with Policy making and Stating the goals and objective of the institution? A. Planning B. Organizing C. Directing D. Controlling 39. In the management process, the periodic checking of the results of action to make sure that it coincides with the goal of the institution is termed as: A. Planning B. Evaluating C. Directing D. Organizing 40. The Vision of a certain agency is usually based on their beliefs, Ideals and Values that directs the organization. It gives the organization a sense of purpose. The belief, Ideals and Values of this Agency is called: A. Philosophy B. Mission C. Vision D. Goals and Objectives 41. Mr. CKK is unconscious and was brought to the E.R. Who among the following can give consent for CKK’s Operation? A. Doctor B. Nurse  C. Next of Kin D. The Patient 42. Mang Carlos has been terminally ill for 5 years. He asked his wife to decide for him when he is no longer capable to do so. As a Nurse, You know that this is called: A. Last will and testament B. DNR C. Living will D. Durable Power of Attorney 43. Mang Carlos has a standing DNR order. He then suddenly stopped breathing and you are at his bedside. You would: A. Give extraordinary measures to save Mang Carlos B. Stay with Mang Carlos and Do nothing C. Call the physician D. Activate Code Blue 44. It is not a legally binding document but nevertheless, Very important in caring for the patients. A. BON Resolution No. 220 Series of 2002 B. Patient’s Bill of Rights C. Nurse’s Code of Ethics D. Philippine Nursing Act of 2002 45. In monitoring the patient in PACU, the nurse correctly identify that checking the patient’s vital signs is done every: A. 1 hour B. 5 minutes C. 15 minutes D. 30 minutes Situation: Dianne May Dee, R.N., is conducting a research on her unit about the effects of effective nurse-patient communication in decreasing anxiety of post operative patients. 46. Which of the following step in nursing research should she do next? A. Review of related literature B. Ask permission from the hospital administrator C. Determine the research problem D. Formulate ways on collecting the data 47. Before Dianne performs the formal research study, what do you call the pre testing, small scale trial run to determine the effectiveness of data collection and methodological problem that might be encountered? A. Sampling B. Pre-testing C. Pre-Study D. Pilot Study 48. On the study “effects of effective nurse-patient communication in decreasing anxiety of post operative patients” What is the Independent variable? A. Effective Nurse-patient communication B. Communication C. Decreasing Anxiety D. Post operative patient 49. On the study “effects of effective nurse-patient communication in decreasing anxiety of post operative patients” What is the Dependent variable? A. Effective Nurse-patient communication B. Communication C. Anxiety level D. Post operative patient 50. In the recent technological innovations, which of the following describe researches that are made to improve and make human life easier? A. Pure research B. Basic research C. Applied research D. Experimental research 51. Which of the following is not true about a Pure Experimental research? A. There is a control group B. There is an experimental group C. Selection of subjects in the control group is randomized  D. There is a careful selection of subjects in the experimental group 52. When Mrs. Guevarra, a nurse, delegates aspects of the clients care to the nurse-aide who is an unlicensed staff, Mrs. Guevarra A. makes the assignment to teach the staff member B. is assigning the responsibility to the aide but not the accountability for those tasks C. does not have to supervise or evaluate the aide D. most know how to perform task delegated 53. Process of formal negotiations of working conditions between a group of registered nurses and employer is A. grievance B. arbitration C. collective bargaining D. strike 54. You are attending a certification on cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) offered and required by the hospital employing you. This is A. professional course towards credits B. inservice education C. advance training D. continuing education 55. The law which regulated the practice of nursing profession in the Philippines is: A. R.A 9173 B. LOI 949 C. Patient’s Bill of Rights D. Code of Ethics for Nurses 56. This quality is being demonstrated by a Nurse who raise the side rails of a confused and disoriented patient? A. Autonomy B. Responsibility C. Prudence D. Resourcefulness 57. Nurse Joel and Ana is helping a 16 year old Nursing Student in a case filed against the student. The case was frustrated homicide. Nurse Joel and Ana are aware of the different circumstances of crimes. They are correct in identifying which of the following Circumstances that will be best applied in this case? A. Justifying B. Aggravating C. Mitigating D. Exempting 58. In signing the consent form, the nurse is aware that what is being observed as an ethical consideration is the patient’s A. Autonomy B. Justice C. Accountability D. Beneficence 59. Why is there an ethical dilemma? A. Because the law do not clearly state what is right from what is wrong B. Because morality is subjective and it differs from each individual C. Because the patient’s right coincide with the nurse’s responsibility D. Because the nurse lacks ethical knowledge to determine what action is correct and what action is unethical 60. Who among the following can work as a practicing nurse in the Philippines without taking the Licensure examination? A. Internationally well known experts which services are for a fee B. Those that are hired by local hospitals in the country C. Expert nurse clinicians hired by prestigious hospitals D. Those involved in medical mission who’s services are for free 61. In signing the consent form, the nurse is aware that what is being observed as an ethical consideration is the patient’s A. Autonomy B. Justice C. Accountability D. Beneficence 62. Nurse Buddy gave Inapsine instead of Insulin to a patient in severe hyperglycemia. He reported the incident as soon as he knew there was an error. A nurse that is always ready to answer for all his actions and decision is said to be: A. Accountable C. Critical thinker  B. Responsible D. Assertive 63. Which of the following best describes Primary Nursing? A. Is a form of assigning a nurse to lead a team of registered nurses in care of patient from admission to discharge B. A nurse is responsible in doing certain tasks for the patient C. A registered nurse is responsible for a group of patients from admission to discharge D. A registered nurse provides care for the patient with the assistant of nursing aides 64. The best and most effective method in times of staff and financial shortage is: A. Functional Method C. Team Nursing B. Primary Nursing D. Modular Method 65. You are doing bed bath to the client when suddenly, The nursing assistant rushed to the room and tell you that the client from the other room was in Pain. The best intervention in such case is: A. Raise the side rails, cover the client and put the call bell within reach and then attend to the client in pain to give the PRN medication B. Tell the nursing assistant to give the pain medication to the client complaining of pain C. Tell the nursing assistant to go the client’s room and tell the client to wait D. Finish the bed bath quickly then rush to the client in Pain 66. Angie is a disoriented client who frequently falls from the bed. As her nurse, which of the following is the best nursing intervention to prevent future falls? A. Tell Angie not to get up from bed unassisted B. Put the call bell within her reach C. Put bedside commode at the bedside to prevent Angie from getting up D. Put the bed in the lowest position ever 67. When injecting subcutaneous injection in an obese patient, It should be angled at around: A. 45 ° B. 90 ° C. 180 ° D. Parallel to the skin 68. The following statements are all true about Z-Track technique except: A. Z track injection prevent irritation of the subcutaneous tissues B. The technique involve creating a Zig Zag like pattern of medication C. It forces the medication to be contained at the subcutaneous tissues D. It is used when administering Parenteral Iron 69. Communication is best undertaken if barriers are first removed. Considering this statement, which of the following is considered as deterrent factor in communication? A. Not universally accepted abbreviations B. Wrong Grammar C. Poor Penmanship D. Old age of the client 70. Nurse DMLM is correct in identifying the correct sequence of events during abdominal assessment if she identifies which of the following? A. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation B. Inspection, Percussion, Palpation, Auscultation C. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation D. Inspection, Auscultation, Palpation, Percussion 71. To prevent injury and strain on the muscles, the nurse should observe proper body mechanics. Among the following, which is a principle of proper body mechanics? A. Broaden the space between the feet B. Push instead of pull C. Move the object away from the body when lifting D. Bend at the waist, not on the knees 72. In taking the client’s blood pressure, the nurse should position the client’s arm: A. At the level of the heart B. Slightly above the level of the heart C. At the 5th intercostals space midclavicular line D. Below the level of the heart 73. What principle is used when the client with fever loses heat through giving cooling bed bath to lower body temperature? A. Radiation C. Evaporation  B. Convection D. Conduction 74. The most effective way in limiting the number of microorganism in the hospital is: A. Using strict aseptic technique in all procedures B. Wearing mask and gown in care of all patients with communicable diseases C. Sterilization of all instruments D. Handwashing 75. The immunoglobulin of the mother that crosses the placenta to protect the child is an example of: A. Natural active immunity C. Artificial active immunity B. Natural passive immunity D. Artificial passive immunity 76. Richard is a subject of a research lead by his doctor. The nurse knows that all of the following is a correct understanding as his right as a research subject except: A. I can withdraw with this research even after the research has been started B. My confidentiality will not be compromised in this research C. I must choose another doctor if I withdrew from this research D. I can withdraw with this research before the research has been started 77. Which of the following is a normal finding during assessment of a Chest tube in a 3 way bottle system? A. There is a continuous bubbling in the drainage bottle B. There is an intermittent bubbling in the suction control bottle C. The water fluctuates during inhalation of the patient D. There is 3 cm of water left in the water seal bottle 78. In obtaining a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity on a catheterized patient, the nurse is correct if: A. Clamp the catheter for 30 minutes, Alcoholize the tube above the clamp site, Obtain a sterile syringe and draw the specimen on the tube above the clamp B. Alcoholize the self sealing port, obtain a sterile syringe and draw the specimen on the self sealing port C. Disconnect the drainage bag, obtain a sterile syringe and draw the specimen from the drainage bag D. Disconnect the tube, obtain a sterile syringe and draw the specimen from the tube 79. Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention? A. Teaching the diabetic client on obtaining his blood sugar level using a glucometer B. Screening patients for hypertension C. Immunizing infants with BCG D. Providing PPD on a construction site 80. Which of the following is a form of primary prevention? A. Regular Check ups B. Regular Screening C. Self Medication D. Immunization 81. An abnormal condition in which a person must sit, stand or use multiple pillows when lying down is: A. Orthopnea B. Dyspnea C. Eupnea D. Apnea 82. As a nurse assigned for care for geriatric patients, you need to frequently assess your patient using the nursing process. Which of the following needs be considered with the highest priority? A. Patients own feeling about his illness B. Safety of the client especially those elderly clients who frequently falls C. Nutritional status of the elderly client D. Physiologic needs that are life threatening 83. The component that should receive the highest priority before physical examination is the: A. Psychological preparation of the client B. Physical Preparation of the client C. Preparation of the Environment D. Preparation of the Equipments 84. Legally, Patients chart are: A. Owned by the government since it is a legal document B. Owned by the doctor in charge and should be kept from the administrator for whatever reason C. Owned by the hospital and should not be given to anyone who request it other than the doctor in charge D. Owned by the patient and should be given by the nurse to the client as requested 85. Which of the following categories identifies the focus of community/public health nursing practice? A. Promoting and maintaining the health of populations and preventing and minimizing the progress of disease B. Rehabilitation and restorative services C. Adaptation of hospital care to the home environment D. Hospice care delivery 86. A major goal for home care nurses is A. restoring maximum health function. B. promoting the health of populations. C. minimizing the progress of disease. D. maintaining the health of populations. 87. A written nursing care plan is a tool that: A. Check whether nursing care goals were achieved B. Gives quality nursing care C. Select the appropriate nursing intervention D. Make a nursing diagnosis 88. Gina, A client in prolong labor said she cannot go on anymore. The health care team decided that both the child and the mother cannot anymore endure the process. The baby is premature and has a little chance of surviving. Caesarian section is not possible because Gina already lost enough blood during labor and additional losses would tend to be fatal. The husband decided that Gina should survive and gave his consent to terminate the fetus. The principle that will be used by the health care team is: A. Beneficence B. Non malfeasance C. Justice D. Double effect Situation – There are various developments in health education that the nurse should know about: 89. The provision of health information in the rural areas nationwide through television and radio programs and video conferencing is referred to as: A. Community health program B. Telehealth program C. Wellness program D. Red Cross program 90. In teaching the sister of a diabetic client about the proper use of a glucometer in determining the blood sugar level of the client, The nurse is focusing in which domain of learning according to bloom? A. Cognitive B. Affective C. Psychomotor D. Affiliative 91. A nearby community provides blood pressure screening, height and weight measurement, smoking cessation classes and aerobics class services. This type of program is referred to as A. outreach program B. hospital extension program C. barangay health program D. wellness program 92. After cleaning the abrasions and applying antiseptic, the nurse applies cold compress to the swollen ankle as ordered by the physician. This statement shows that the nurse has correct understanding of the use of cold compress: A. Cold compress reduces blood viscosity in the affected area B. It is safer to apply than hot compress C. Cold compress prevents edema and reduces pain D. It eliminates toxic waste products due to vasodilation 93. After receiving prescription for pain medication, Ronnie is instructed to continue applying 30 minute cold at home and start 30 minute hot compress the next day. You explain that the use of hot compress: A. Produces anesthetic effect B. Increases nutrition in the blood to promote wound healing C. Increase oxygenation to the injured tissues for better healing D. Induces vasoconstriction to prevent infection Situation – A nursing professor assigns a group of students to do data gathering by interviewing their classmates as subjects. 94. She instructed the interviewees not to tell the interviewees that the data gathered are for her own research project for publication. This teacher has violated the student’s right to:  A. Not be harmed B. Disclosure C. Privacy D. Self-determination 95. Before the nurse researcher starts her study, she analyzes how much time, money, materials and people she will need to complete the research project. This analysis prior to beginning the study is called: A. Validity B. Feasibility C. Reliability D. Researchability 96. Data analysis is to be done and the nurse researcher wants to include variability. These include the following EXCEPT: A. Variance C. Standards of Deviation B. Range D. Mean 97. Nurse Minette needs to schedule a first home visit to OB client Leah. When is a first home-care visit typically made? A. Within 4 days after discharge B. Within 24 hours after discharge C. Within 1 hour after discharge D. Within 1 week of discharge 98. By force of law, therefore, the PRC-Board of Nursing released Resolution No. 14 Series of 1999 entitled: “Adoption of a Nursing Specialty Certification Program and Creation of Nursing Specialty Certification Council.” This rule-making power is called: A. Quasi-Judicial Power B. Regulatory Power C. Quasi-Legislative Power D. Executive/Promulgating Power 99. Anita is performing BSE and she stands in front of the Mirror. The rationale for standing in front of the mirror is to check for: A. Unusual discharges coming out from the breast B. Any obvious malignancy C. The Size and Contour of the breast D. Thickness and lumps in the breast 100. An emerging technique in screening for Breast Cancer in developing countries like the Philippines is: A. Mammography once a year starting at the age of 50 B. Clinical BSE Once a year C. BSE Once a month D. Pap smear starting at the age of 18 or earlier if sexually active 101. Transmission of HIV from an infected individual to another person occurs: A. Most frequently in nurses with needlesticks B. Only if there is a large viral load in the blood C. Most commonly as a result of sexual contact D. In all infants born to women with HIV infection 102. After a vaginal examination, the nurse determines that the client’s fetus is in an occiput posterior position. The nurse would anticipate that the client will have: A. A precipitous birth B. Intense back pain C. Frequent leg cramps D. Nausea and vomiting 103. The rationales for using a prostaglandin gel for a client prior to the induction of labor is to: A. Soften and efface the cervix B. Numb cervical pain receptors C. Prevent cervical lacerations D. Stimulate uterine contractions Situation: Nurse Lorena is a Family Planning and Infertility Nurse Specialist and currently attends to FAMILY PLANNING CLIENTS AND INFERTILE COUPLES. The following conditions pertain to meeting the nursing needs of this particular population group. 104. Dina, 17 years old, asks you how a tubal ligation prevents pregnancy. Which would be the best answer? A. Prostaglandins released from the cut fallopian tubes can kill sperm  B. Sperm cannot enter the uterus because the cervical entrance is blocked. C. Sperm can no longer reach the ova, because the fallopian tubes are blocked D. The ovary no longer releases ova as there is no where for them to go. 105. The Dators are a couple undergoing testing for infertility. Infertility is said to exist when: A. a woman has no uterus B. a woman has no children C. a couple has been trying to conceive for 1 year D. a couple has wanted a child for 6 months 106. The correct temperature to store vaccines in a refrigerator is: A. between -4 deg C and +8 deg C B. between 2 deg C and +8 deg C C. between -8 deg C and 0 deg C D. between -8 deg C and +4 deg C 107. Which of the following vaccines is not done by intramuscular (IM) injection? A. Measles vaccine C. Hepa-B vaccine B. DPT D. Tetanus toxoids 108. This vaccine content is derived from RNA recombinants. A. Measles C. Hepatitis B vaccines B. Tetanus toxoids D. DPT 109. This special form is used when the patient is admitted to the unit. The nurse completes the information in this record particularly his/her basic personal data, current illness, previous health history, health history of the family, emotional profile, environmental history as well as physical assessment together with nursing diagnosis on admission. What do you call this record? A. Nursing Kardex B. Nursing Health History and Assessment Worksheet C. Medicine and Treatment Record D. Discharge Summary 110. These are sheets/forms which provide an efficient and time saving way to record information that must be obtained repeatedly at regular and/or short intervals of time. This does not replace the progress notes; instead this record of information on vital signs, intake and output, treatment, postoperative care, post partum care, and diabetic regimen, etc. This is used whenever specific measurements or observations are needed to be documented repeatedly. What is this? A. Nursing Kardex B. Graphic Flow Sheets C. Discharge Summary D. Medicine and Treatment Record 111. These records show all medications and treatment provided on a repeated basis. What do you call this record? A. Nursing Health History and Assessment Worksheet B. Discharge Summary C. Nursing Kardex D. Medicine and Treatment Record 112. This flip-over card is usually kept in a portable file at the Nurse’s Station. It has 2-parts: the activity and treatment section and a nursing care plan section. This carries information about basic demographic data, primary medical diagnosis, current orders of the physician to be carried out by the nurse, written nursing care plan, nursing orders, scheduled tests and procedures, safety precautions in patient care and factors related to daily living activities. This record is used in the charge-of-shift reports or during the bedside rounds or walking rounds. What record is this? A. Discharge Summary B. Medicine and Treatment Record C. Nursing Health History and Assessment Worksheet D. Nursing Kardex 113. Most nurses regard this conventional recording of the date, time, and mode by which the patient leaves a healthcare unit but this record includes importantly, directs of planning for discharge that starts soon after the person is admitted to a healthcare institution. It is accepted that collaboration or multidisciplinary involvement (of all members of the health team) in discharge results in comprehensive care. What do you call this? A. Discharge Summary B. Nursing Kardex C. Medicine and Treatment Record D. Nursing Health History and Assessment Worksheet 114. Based on the Code of Ethics for Filipino Nurses, what is regarded as the hallmark of nursing responsibility and accountability?  A. Human rights of clients, regardless of creed and gender B. The privilege of being a registered professional nurses C. Health, being a fundamental right of every individual D. Accurate documentation of actions and outcomes 115. A nurse should be cognizant that professional programs for specialty certification by the Board of Nursing accredited through the: A. Professional Regulation Commission B. Nursing Specialty Certification Council C. Association of Deans of Philippine Colleges of Nursing D. Philippine Nurse Association 116. Integrated management for childhood illness is the universal protocol of care endorsed by WHO and is use by different countries of the world including the Philippines. In any case that the nurse classifies the child and categorized the signs and symptoms in PINK category, You know that this means: A. Urgent referral B. Antibiotic Management C. Home treatment D. Out-patient treatment facility is needed 117. You know that fast breathing of a child age 13 months is observed if the RR is more than: A. 40 B. 50 C. 60 D. 30 118. Angelo, An 8 month old child is brought to the health care facility with sunken eyes. You pinch his skin and it goes back very slowly. In what classification of dehydration will you categorize Angelo? A. No Dehydration B. Some Dehydration C. Severe Dehydration D. Diarrhea 119. In responding to the care concerns of children with severe disease, referral to the hospital is of the essence especially if the child manifests which of the following? A. Wheezing B. Stop feeding well C. Fast breathing D. Difficulty to awaken 120. A child with ear problem should be assessed for the following, EXCEPT: A. is there any fever? B. Ear discharge C. If discharge is present for how long? D. Ear pain 121. If the child does not have ear problem, using IMCI, what should you as the nurse do? A. Check for ear discharge B. Check for tender swellings behind the ear C. Check for ear pain D. Go to the next question, check for malnutrition 122. All of the following are treatment for a child classified with no dehydration except: A. 1,000 ml to 1,400 ml be given within 4 hours B. Continue feeding C. Have the child takes as much fluid as he wants D. Return the child to the doctor if condition worsens 123. An ear infection that persists but still less than 14 days is classified as: A. Mastoiditis B. Chronic Ear Infection C. Acute Ear Infection D. Otitis Media 124. If a child has two or more pink signs, you would classify the child as having: A. No disease B. Mild form of disease C. Urgent Referral D. Very severe disease 125. The nurse knows that the most common complication of Measles is: A Pneumonia and larynigotracheitis B. Encephalitis C. Otitis Media D. Bronchiectasis 126. A client scheduled for hysterosalpingography needs health teaching before the procedure. The nurse is correct in telling the patient that: A. She needs to void prior to the procedure B. A full bladder is needed prior to the procedure C. Painful sensation is felt as the needle is inserted D. Flushing sensation is felt as the dye in injected 127. In a population of 9,500. What is your estimate of the population of pregnant woman needing tetanus toxoid vaccination? A. 632.5 C. 450.5 B. 512.5 D. 332.5 128. All of the following are seen in a child with measles. Which one is not? A. Reddened eyes C. Pustule B. Coryza D. Cough 129. Mobilizing the people to become aware of their own problem and to do actions to solve it is called: A. Community Organizing B. Family Nursing Care Plan C. Nursing Intervention D. Nursing Process 130. Prevention of work related accidents in factories and industries are responsibilities of which field of nursing? A. School health nursing B. Private duty nursing C. Occupational health nursing D. Institutional nursing 131. In one of your home visit to Mr. JUN, you found out that his son is sick with cholera. There is a great possibility that other member of the family will also get cholera. This possibility is a/an: A. Foreseeable crisis B. Health threat C. Health deficit D. Crisis 132. Why is bleeding in the leg of a pregnant woman considered as an emergency? A. Blood volume is greater in pregnant woman; therefore, blood loss is increased B. There is an increase blood pressure during pregnancy increasing the likelihood of hemorrhage C. Pregnant woman are anemic, all forms of blood loss should be considered as an emergency especially if it is in the lower extremity D. The pressure of the gravid uterus will exert additional force thus, increasing the blood loss in the lower extremities 133. Aling Maria is nearing menopause. She is habitually taking cola and coffee for the past 20 years. You should tell Aling Maria to avoid taking caffeinated beverages because: A. It is stimulating B. It will cause nervousness and insomnia C. It will contribute to additional bone demineralization D. It will cause tachycardia and arrhythmias 134. All of the following are contraindication when giving Immunization except: A. BCG Vaccines can be given to a child with AIDS B. BCG Vaccine can be given to a child with Hepatitis B C. DPT Can be given to a child that had convulsion 3 days after being given the first DPT Dose D. DPT Can be given to a child with active convulsion or other neurological disease 135. Theresa, a mother with a 2 year old daughter asks, “at what age can I be able to take the blood pressure of my daughter as a routine procedure since hypertension is common in the family?” Your answer to this is: A. At 2 years you may B. As early as 1 year old C. When she’s 3 years old D. When she’s 6 years old 136. Baby John develops hyperbilirubinemia. What is a method used to treat hyperbilirubinemia in a newborn? A. Keeping infants in a warm and dark environment B. Administration of cardiovascular stimulant C. Gentle exercise to stop muscle breakdown D. Early feeding to speed passage of meconium 137. The community/Public Health Bag is: A. a requirement for home visits B. an essential and indispensable equipment of the community health nurse C. contains basic medications and articles used by the community health nurse D. a tool used by the Community health nurse is rendering effective nursing procedures during a home visit 138. What is the rationale in the use of bag technique during home visits? A. It helps render effective nursing care to clients or other members of the family B. It saves time and effort of the nurse in the performance of nursing procedures C. It should minimize or prevent the spread of infection from individuals to families D. It should not overshadow concerns for the patient 139. In consideration of the steps in applying the bag technique, which side of the paper lining of the CHN bag is considered clean to make a non-contaminated work area? A. The lower lip B. The outer surface C. The upper tip D. The inside surface 140. How many words does a typical 12-month-old infant use? A. About 12 words B. Twenty or more words C. About 50 words D. Two, plus “mama” and “papa” 141.. During operation, The OR suite’s lighting, noise, temperature and other factors that affects the operation are managed by whom? A. Nurse Supervisor C. Circulating nurse B. Surgeon D. Scrub nurse 142. Before and after the operation, the operating suite is managed by the: A. Surgeon C. Nurse Manager B. Nurse Supervisor D. Chief Nurse 143. The counting of sponges is done by the Surgeon together with the: A. Circulating nurse B. Scrub nurse C. Assistant surgeon D. Nurse supervisor 144. The OR team performs distinct roles for one surgical procedure to be accomplished within a prescribed time frame and deliver a standard patient outcome. While the surgeon performs the surgical procedure, who monitors the status of the client like urine output, blood loss? A. Scrub Nurse B. Surgeon C. Anaesthesiologist D. Circulating Nurse 145. Surgery schedules are communicated to the OR usually a day prior to the procedure by the nurse of the floor or ward where the patient is confined. For orthopedic cases, what department is usually informed to be present in the OR? A. Rehabilitation department B. Laboratory department C. Maintenance department D. Radiology department 146. In some hip surgeries, an epidural catheter for Fentanyl epidural analgesia is given. What is your nursing priority care in such a case? A. Instruct client to observe strict bed rest B. Check for epidural catheter drainage C. Administer analgesia through epidural catheter as prescribed D. Assess respiratory rate carefully 147. The patient’s medical record can work as a double edged sword. When can the medical record become the doctor’s/nurse’s worst enemy? A. When the record is voluminous B. When a medical record is subpoenaed in court C. When it is missing D. When the medical record is inaccurate, incomplete, and inadequate 148. Disposal of medical records in government hospitals/institutions must be done in close coordination with what agency? A. Department of Interior and Local Government (DILG) B. Metro Manila Development Authority (MMDA) C. Records Management Archives Office (RMAO) D. Department of Health (DOH) 149. In the hospital, when you need the medical record of a discharged patient for research you will request permission through: A. Doctor in charge B. The hospital director C. The nursing service D. Medical records section 150. You will give health instructions to Carlo, a case of bronchial asthma. The health instruction will include the following, EXCEPT: A. Avoid emotional stress and extreme temperature B. Avoid pollution like smoking C. Avoid pollens, dust, seafood D. Practice respiratory isolation 151. As the head nurse in the OR, how can you improve the effectiveness of clinical alarm systems? A. Limit suppliers to a few so that quality is maintained B. Implement a regular inventory of supplies and equipment C. Adherence to manufacturer’s recommendation D. Implement a regular maintenance and testing of alarm systems 152. Overdosage of medication or anesthetic can happen even with the aid of technology like infusion pumps, sphygmomanometer and similar devices/machines. As a staff, how can you improve the safety of using infusion pumps? A. Check the functionality of the pump before use B. Select your brand of infusion pump like you do with your cellphone C. Allow the technician to set the infusion pump before use D. Verify the flow rate against your computation 153. While team effort is needed in the OR for efficient and quality patient care delivery, we should limit the number of people in the room for infection control. Who comprise this team? A. Surgeon, anesthesiologist, scrub nurse, radiologist, orderly B. Surgeon, assistants, scrub nurse, circulating nurse, anesthesiologist C. Surgeon, assistant surgeon, anesthesiologist, scrub nurse, pathologist D. Surgeon, assistant surgeon, anesthesiologist, intern, scrub nurse 154. When surgery is on-going, who coordinates the activities outside, including the family? A. Orderly/clerk C. Circulating Nurse B. Nurse Supervisor D. Anesthesiologist 155. The breakdown in teamwork is often times a failure in: A. Electricity B. Inadequate supply C. Leg work D. Communication 156. To prevent recurrent attacks on client with glomerulonephritis, the nurse instructs the client to: A. Take a shower instead of tub baths B. Avoid situations that involve physical activity C. Continue the same restriction on fluid intake D. Seek early treatment for respiratory infection 157. When administering Tapazole, The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effect? A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hypothyroidism C. Drowsiness  D. Seizure 158. Post bronchoscopy, the nurse priority is to check which of the following before feeding? A. Gag reflex B. Wearing off of anesthesia C. Swallowing reflex D. Peristalsis 159. Changes normally occur in the elderly. Among the following, which is a normal change in an elderly client? A. Increased sense of taste B. Increased appetite C. Urinary frequency D. Thinning of the lens Situation: Colostomy is a surgically created anus. It can be temporary or permanent, depending on the disease condition. 160. Skin care around the stoma is critical. Which of the following is not indicated as a skin care barriers? A. Apply liberal amount of mineral oil to the area B. Use karaya paste and rings around the stoma C. Clean the area daily with soap and water before applying bag D. Apply talcum powder twice a day 161. What health instruction will enhance regulation of a colostomy (defecation) of clients? A. Irrigate after lunch everyday B. Eat fruits and vegetables in all three meals C. Eat balanced meals at regular intervals D. Restrict exercise to walking only 162. After ileostomy, which of the following condition is NOT expected? A. Increased weight B. Irritation of skin around the stoma C. Liquid stool D. Establishment of regular bowel movement 163. The following are appropriate nursing interventions during colostomy irrigation, EXCEPT: A. Increase the irrigating solution flow rate when abdominal cramps is felt B. Insert 2-4 inches of an adequately lubricated catheter to the stoma C. Position client in semi-Fowler D. Hang the solution 18 inches above the stoma 164. What sensation is used as a gauge so that patients with ileostomy can determine how often their pouch should be drained? A. Sensation of taste C. Sensation of smell B. Sensation of pressure D. Urge to defecate 165. In performing a cleansing enema, the nurse performs the procedure by positioning the client in: A. Right lateral position B. Left lateral position C. Right Sim’s position D. Left Sim’s position 166. Mang Caloy is scheduled to have a hemorrhoidectomy, after the operation, you would expect that the client’s position post operatively will be: A. Knee chest position B. Side lying position C. Sims position D. Genopectoral position 167. You would expect that after an abdominal perineal resection, the type of colostomy that will be use is? A. Double barrel colostomy B. Temporary colostomy C. Permanent colostomy D. An Ileostomy 168. You are an ostomy nurse and you know that colostomy is defined as: A. It is an incision into the colon to create an artificial opening to the exterior of the abdomen B. It is end to end anastomosis of the gastric stump to the duodenum C. It is end to end anastomosis of the gastric stump to the jejunum D. It is an incision into the ileum to create an artificial opening to the exterior of the abdomen 169. Larry, 55 years old, who is suspected of having colorectal cancer, is admitted to the CI. After taking the history and vital signs the physician does which test as a screening test for colorectal cancer. A. Barium enema B. Carcinoembryonic antigen C. Annual digital rectal examination D. Proctosigmoidoscopy 170. Symptoms associated with cancer of the colon include: A. constipation, ascites and mucus in the stool B. diarrhea, heart burn and eructation C. blood in the stools, anemia, and “pencil shaped” stools D. anorexia, hematemesis, and increased peristalasis 171. 24 Hours after creation of colostomy, Nurse Violy is correct if she identify that the normal appearance of the stoma is : A. Pink, moist and slightly protruding from the abdomen B. Gray, moist and slightly protruding from the the abdomen C. Pink, dry and slightly protruding from the abdomen D. Red, moist and slightly protruding from the abdomen 172. In cleaning the stoma, the nurse would use which of the following cleaning mediums? A. Hydrogen Peroxide, water and mild soap B. Providone Iodine, water and mild soap C. Alcohol, water and mild soap D. Mild soap and water 173. When observing a return demonstration of a colostomy irrigation, you know that more teaching is required if pt: A. Lubricates the tip of the catheter prior to inserting into the stoma B. Hangs the irrigating bag on the bathroom door cloth hook during fluid insertion C. Discontinues the insertion of fluid after only 500 ml of fluid has been instilled D. Clamps of the flow of fluid when felling uncomfortable 174. What does a sample group represent? A. Control group C. General population B. Study subjects D. Universe 175. As a nurse, you can help improve the effectiveness of communication among healthcare givers by: A. Use of reminders of ‘what to do’ B. Using standardized list of abbreviations, acronyms, and symbols C. One-on-one oral endorsement D. Text messaging and e-mail 176. Myxedema coma is a life threatening complication of long standing and untreated hypothyroidism with one of the following characteristics. A. Hyperglycemia C. Hyperthermia B. Hypothermia D. Hypoglycemia 177. Mang Edgardo has a chest tube inserted in place after a Lobectomy. The nurse knows that that Chest tube after this procedure will: A. Prevents mediastinal shift B. Promote chest expansion of the remaining lung C. Drain fluids and blood accumulated post operatively D. Remove the air in the lungs to promote lung expansion 178. Mrs. Pichay who is for thoracentesis is assigned by the nurse to any of the following positions, EXCEPT: A. straddling a chair with arms and head resting on the back of the chair B. lying on the unaffected side with the bed elevated 30-40 degrees C. lying prone with the head of the bed lowered 15-30 degrees D. sitting on the edge of the bed with her feet supported and arms and head on a padded overhead table 179. Chest x-ray was ordered after thoracentesis. When your client asks what is the reason for another chest x-ray, you will explain: A. to rule out pneumothorax B. to rule out any possible perforation C. to decongest D. to rule out any foreign body 180. The RR nurse should monitor for the most common postoperative complication of: A. hemorrhage B. endotracheal tube perforation  C. osopharyngeal edema D. epiglottis 181. The PACU nurse will maintain postoperative T and A client in what position? A. Supine with neck hyperextended and supported with pillow B. Prone with the head on pillow and turned to the side C. Semi-fowler’s with neck flexed D. Reverse trendelenburg with extended neck 182. Tony is to be discharged in the afternoon of the same day after tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. You as the RN will make sure that the family knows to: A. offer osterized feeding B. offer soft foods for a week to minimize discomfort while swallowing C. supplement his diet with Vitamin C rich juices to enhance healing D. offer clear liquid for 3 days to prevent irritation Situation – Rudy was diagnosed to have chronic renal failure. Hemodialysis is ordered so that an A-V shunt was surgically created. 183. Which of the following action would be of highest priority with regards to the external shunt? A. Avoid taking BP or blood sample from the arm with the shunt B. Instruct the client not to exercise the arm with the shunt C. Heparinize the shunt daily D. Change dressing of the shunt daily 184. Diet therapy for Rudy, who has acute renal failure is low-protein, low potassium and low sodium. The nutrition instructions should include: A. Recommend protein of high biologic value like eggs, poultry and lean meats B. Encourage client to include raw cucumbers, carrot, cabbage, and tomatoes C. Allowing the client cheese, canned foods and other processed food D. Bananas, cantaloupe, orange and other fresh fruits can be included in the diet 185. The most common causative agent of Pyelonephritis in hospitalized patient attributed to prolonged catheterization is said to be: A. E. Coli C. Pseudomonas B. Klebsiella D. Staphylococcus 186. The IVP reveals that Fe has small renal calculus that can be passed out spontaneously. To increase the chance of passing the stones, you instructed her to force fluids and do which of the following? A. Balanced diet C. Strain all urine B. Ambulate more D. Bed rest 187. Sergio is brought to Emergency Room after the barbecue grill accident. Based on the assessment of the physician, Sergio sustained superficial partial thickness burns on his trunk, right upper extremities and right lower extremities. His wife asks what that means? Your most accurate response would be: A. Structures beneath the skin are damage B. Dermis is partially damaged C. Epidermis and dermis are both damaged D. Epidermis is damaged 188. During the first 24 hours after the thermal injury, you should asses Sergio for: A. hypokalemia and hypernatremia B. hypokalemia and hyponatremia C. hyperkalemia and hyponatremia D. hyperkalemia and hypernatremia 189. All of the following are instruction for proper foot care to be given to a client with peripheral vascular disease caused by Diabetes. Which is not? A. Trim nail using nail clipper B. Apply cornstarch to the foot C. Always check for the temperature of the water before bathing D. Use Canvas shoes 190. You are on morning duty in the medical ward. You have 10 patients assigned to you. During your endorsement rounds, you found out that one of your patients was not in bed. The patient next to him informed you that he went home without notifying the nurses. Which among the following will you do first? A. Make an incident report B. Call security to report the incident C. Wait for 2 hours before reporting D. Report the incident to your supervisor 191. You are on duty in the medical ward. You were asked to check the narcotics cabinet. You found out that what is on record does not tally with the drugs used. Which among the following will you do first? A. Write an incident report and refer the matter to the nursing director B. Keep your findings to yourself C. Report the matter to your supervisor D. Find out from the endorsement any patient who might have been given narcotics 192. You are on duty in the medical ward. The mother of your patient who is also a nurse, came running to the nurses station and informed you that Fiolo went into cardiopulmonary arrest. A. Start basic life support measures B. Call for the Code C. Bring the crash cart to the room D. Go to see Fiolo and assess for airway patency and breathing problems 193. When observing a return demonstration of a colostomy irrigation, you know that more teaching is required if pt: A. Lubricates the tip of the catheter prior to inserting into the stoma B. Hangs the irrigating bag on the bathroom door cloth hook during fluid insertion C. Discontinues the insertion of fluid after only 500 ml of fluid has been instilled D. Clamps of the flow of fluid when felling uncomfortable 194. Which of the four phases of emergency management is defined as “sustained action that reduces or eliminates long-term risk to people and property from natural hazards and their effects.”? A. Recovery B. Mitigation C. Response D. Preparedness 195. Which of the following terms refer to a process by which the individual receives education about recognition of stress reaction and management strategies for handling stress which may be instituted after a disaster? A. Clinical incident stress management B. Follow-up C. Defriefing D. Defusion 196. Fires are approached using the mnemonic RACE, in which, R stands for: A. Run B. Race C. Rescue D. Remove 197. You are caring for Conrad who has a brain tumor and increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP). Which intervention should you include in your plan to reduce ICP? A. Administer bowel softener B. Position Conrad with his head turned toward the side of the tumor C. Provide sensory stimulation D. Encourage coughing and deep breathing 198. Keeping Conrad’s head and neck alignment results in: A. increased intrathoracic pressure B. increased venous outflow C. decreased venous outflow D. increased intraabdominal pressure 199. Earliest sign of skin reaction to radiation therapy is: A. desquamation B. erythema C. atrophy D. pigmentation 200. A guideline that is utilized in determining priorities is to assess the status of the following, EXCEPT: A. perfusion C. respiration B. locomotion D. mentation 201. Miss Kate is a bread vendor and you are buying a bread from her. You noticed that she receives and changes money and then hold the bread without washing her hand. As a nurse, What will you say to Miss Kate? A. Miss, Don’t touch the bread I’ll be the one to pick it up B. Miss, Please wash your hands before you pick up those breads C. Miss, Use a pick up forceps when picking up those breads  D. Miss, Your hands are dirty I guess I’ll try another bread shop 202. In administering blood transfusion, what needle gauge is used? A. 18 C. 23 B. 22 D. 24 203. Before administration of blood and blood products, the nurse should first: A. Check with another R.N the client’s name, Identification number, ABO and RH type. B. Explain the procedure to the client C. Assess baseline vital signs of the client D. Check for the BT order 204. The only IV fluid compatible with blood products is: A. D5LR C. NSS B. D5NSS D. Plain LR 205. In any event of an adverse hemolytic reaction during blood transfusion, Nursing intervention should focus on: A. Slow the infusion, Call the physician and assess the patient B. Stop the infusion, Assess the client, Send the remaining blood to the laboratory and call the physician C. Stop the infusion, Call the physician and assess the client D. Slow the confusion and keep a patent IV line open for administration of medication 206. The nurse knows that after receiving the blood from the blood bank, it should be administered within: A. 1 hour C. 4 hours B. 2 hours D. 6 hours 207. During blood administration, the nurse should carefully monitor adverse reaction. To monitor this, it is essential for the nurse to: A. Stay with the client for the first 15 minutes of blood administration B. Stay with the client for the entire period of blood administration C. Run the infusion at a faster rate during the first 15 minutes D. Tell the client to notify the staff immediately for any adverse reaction 208. As Leda’s nurse, you plan to set up an emergency equipment at her beside following thyroidectomy. You should include: A. An airway and rebreathing tube B. A tracheostomy set and oxygen C. A crush cart with bed board D. Two ampules of sodium bicarbonate 209. Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate after a total thyroidectomy? A. Place pillows under your patient’s shoulders. B. Raise the knee-gatch to 30 degrees C. Keep you patient in a high-fowler’s position. D. Support the patient’s head and neck with pillows and sandbags. 210. If there is an accidental injury to the parathyroid gland during a thyroidectomy which of the following might Leda develop postoperatively? A. Cardiac arrest C. Respiratory failure B. Dyspnea D. Tetany 211. After surgery Leda develops peripheral numbness, tingling and muscle twitching and spasm. What would you anticipate to administer? A. Magnesium sulfate C. Potassium iodide B. Calcium gluconate D. Potassium chloride Situation: NURSES are involved in maintaining a safe and healthy environment. This is part of quality care management. 212. The first step in decontamination is: A. to immediately apply a chemical decontamination foam to the area of contamination B. a through soap and water wash and rinse of the patient C. to immediately apply personal protective equipment D. removal of the patients clothing and jewelry and then rinsing the patient with water 213. For a patient experiencing pruritus, you recommend which type of bath. A. water C. saline B. colloidal (oatmeal) D. sodium bicarbonate 214. Induction of vomiting is indicated for the accidental poisoning patient who has ingested. A. Rust remover C. toilet bowl cleaner B. Gasoline D. aspirin Situation: Because severe burn can affect the person’s totality it is important that-you apply interventions focusing on the various dimensions of man. You also have to understand the rationale of the treatment. 215. A client was rushed in the E.R showing a whitish, leathery and painless burned area on his skin. The nurse is correct in classifying this burn as: A. First degree burn C. Third degree burn B. Second degree burn D. Partial thickness burn 216. During the first 24 hours of burn, nursing measures should focus on which of the following? A. I and O hourly B. Strict aseptic technique C. Forced oral fluids D. Isolate the patient 217. During the Acute phase of burn, the priority nursing intervention in caring for this client is: A. Prevention of infection B. Pain management C. Prevention of Bleeding D. Fluid Resuscitation 218. The nurse knows that the most fatal electrolyte imbalance in burned client during the Emergent phase of burn is: A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypernatremia D. Hyponatremia 219. Hypokalemia is reflected in the ECG by which of the following? A. Tall T waves C. Pathologic Q wave B. Widening QRS Complex D. U wave 220. Pain medications given to the burn clients are best given via what route? A. IV C. Oral B. IM D. SQ 221. What type of debridement involves proteolytic enzymes? A. Interventional C. Surgical B. Mechanical D. Chemical 222. Which topical antimicrobial is most frequently used in burn wound care? A. Neosporin B. Silver nitrate C. Silver sulfadiazine D. Sulfamylon 223. Hypertrophic burn scars are caused by: A. exaggerated contraction B. random layering of collagen C. wound ischemia D. delayed epithelialization 224. This study which is an in depth study of one boy is a: A. case study B. longitudinal study C. cross-sectional study D. evaluative study 225. The process recording was the principal tool for data collection. Which of the following is NOT a part of a process recording? A. Non verbal narrative account B. Analysis and interpretation C. Audio-visual recording D. Verbal narrative account 226. The most significant factor that might affect the nurse’s care for the psychiatric patient is: A. Nurse’s own beliefs and attitude about the mentally ill  B. Amount of experience he has with psychiatric clients C. Her abilities and skill to care for the psychiatric clients D. Her knowledge in dealing with the psychiatric clients 227. In order to establish a therapeutic relationship with the client, the nurse must first have: A. Self awareness C. Self acceptance B. Self understanding D. Self motivation 228. Nurse Edna thinks that the patient is somewhat like his father. She then identifies positive feeling for the patient that affects the objectivity of her nursing care. This emotional reaction is called: A. Transference B. Counter Transference C. Reaction formation D. Sympathy 229. The most important quality of a nurse during a Nurse-Patient interaction is: A. Understanding B. Acceptance C. Listening D. Teaching 230. Selective inattention is seen in what level of anxiety? A. Mild B. Moderate C. Severe D. Panic 231. Obsessive compulsive disorder is characterized by: A. Uncontrollable impulse to perform an act or ritual repeatedly B. Persistent thoughts and behavior C. Recurring unwanted and disturbing thoughts D. Pathological persistence of unwilled thoughts 232. Ms. Maria Salvacion says that she is the incarnation of the holy Virgin Mary. She said that she is the child of the covenant that would save this world from the evil forces of Satan. One morning, while caring for her, she stood in front of you and said “Bow down before me! I am the holy mother of Christ! I am the blessed Virgin Mary!” The best response by the Nurse is: A. Tell me more about being the Virgin Mary B. So, You are the Virgin Mary? C. Excuse me but, you are not anymore a Virgin so you cannot be the Blessed Virgin Mary. D. You are Maria Salvacion 233. Maria’s statement “Bow down before me! I am the holy mother of Christ! I am the blessed Virgin Mary!” is an example of: A. Delusion of grandeur B. Visual Hallucination C. Religious delusion D. Auditory Hallcucination 234. The nurse interprets the statement “Bow down before me! I am the holy mother of Christ! I am the blessed Virgin Mary!” as important in documenting in which of the following areas of mental status examination? A. Thought content B. Mood C. Affect D. Attitude 235. Mang David, A 27 year old psychiatric client was admitted with a diagnosis of schizophrenia. During the morning assessment, Mang David shouted “Did you know that I am the top salesman in the world? Different companies want me!” As a nurse, you know that this is an example of: A. Hallucination B. Delusion C. Confabulation D. Flight of Ideas 236. The recommended treatment modality in clients with obsessive compulsive disorder is: A. Psychotherapy B. Behavior therapy C. Aversion therapy  D. Psychoanalysis 237. A state of disequilibrium wherein a person cannot readily solve a problem or situation even by using his usual coping mechanisms is called: A. Mental illness C. Crisis B. Mental health D. Stress 238. Obsessive compulsive disorder is classified under: A. Psychotic disorders B. Neurotic disorders C. Major depressive disorder D. Bipolar disorder 239. Which nursing diagnosis is a priority for clients with Borderline personality disorder? A. Risk for injury B. Ineffective individual coping C. Altered thought process D. Sensory perceptual alteration 240. An appropriate nursing diagnosis for clients in the acute manic phase of bipolar disorder is: A. Risk for injury directed to self B. Risk for injury directed to others C. Impaired nutrition less than body requirements D. Ineffective individual coping 241. A paranoid client refuses to eat telling you that you poisoned his food. The best intervention to this client is: A. Taste the food in front of him and tell him that the food is not poisoned B. Offer other types of food until the client eats C. Simply state that the food is not poisoned D. Offer sealed foods 242. Toilet training occurs in the anal stage of Freud’s psychosexual task. This is equivalent to Erikson’s: A. Trust vs. Mistrust B. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt C. Initiative vs. Guilt D. Industry vs. Inferiority 243. During the phallic stage, the child must identify with the parent of: A. The same sex B. The opposite sex C. The mother or the primary caregiver D. Both sexes 244. Ms. ANA had a car accident where he lost her boyfriend. As a result, she became passive and submissive. The nurse knows that the type of crisis Ms. ANA is experiencing is: A. Developmental crisis B. Maturational crisis C. Situational crisis D. Social Crisis 245. Persons experiencing crisis becomes passive and submissive. As a nurse, you know that the best approach in crisis intervention is to be: A. Active and Directive B. Passive friendliness C. Active friendliness D. Firm kindness 246. The psychosocial task of a 55 year old adult client is: A. Industry vs. Inferiority B. Intimacy vs. Isolation C. Integrity vs. Despair D. Generativity vs. Stagnation 247. The stages of grieving identified by Elizabeth Kubler-Ross are: A. Numbness, anger, resolution and reorganization B. Denial, anger, identification, depression and acceptance C. Anger, loneliness, depression and resolution  D. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression and acceptance 248. Which physiologic effect should the nurse expect in a client addicted to hallucinogens? A. Dilated pupils B. Constricted pupils C. Bradycardia D. Bradypnea 249. Miss CEE is admitted for treatment of major depression. She is withdrawn, disheveled and states “Nobody wants me” The nurse most likely expects that Miss CEE is to be placed on: A. Neuroleptics medication B. Special diet C. Suicide precaution D. Anxiolytics medication 250. In alcoholic patient, the nurse knows that the vitamin deficient to these types of clients that leads to psychoses is: A. Thiamine C. Niacin B. Vitamin C D. Vitamin A 251. Which of the following terms refers to weakness of both legs and the lower part of the trunk? A. Paraparesis B. Hemiplegia C. Quadriparesis D. Paraplegia 252. Of the following neurotransmitters, which demonstrates inhibitory action, helps control mood and sleep, and inhibits pain pathways? A. Serotonin B. Enkephalin C. Norepinephrine D. Acetylcholine 253. The lobe of the brain that contains the auditory receptive areas is the ____________ lobe. A. temporal B. frontal C. parietal D. occipital 254. In preparation for ECT, the nurse knows that it is almost similar to that of: A. ECG C. EEG B. General Anesthesia D. MRI 255. The expected side effect after ECT is commonly associated with: A. Transient loss of memory, confusion and disorientation B. Nausea and vomiting C. Fractures D. Hypertension and increased in cardiac rate 256. The purpose of ECT in clients with depression is to: A. Stimulation in the brain to increase brain conduction and counteract depression B. Mainly Biologic, increasing the norepinephrine and serotonin level C. Creates a temporary brain damage that will increase blood flow to the brain D. Involves the conduction of electrical current to the brain to charge the neurons and combat depression 257. The priority nursing diagnosis for a client with major depression is: A. Altered nutrition B. Altered thought process C. Self care deficit D. Risk for injury 258. A patient tells the nurse “I am depressed to talk to you, leave me alone” Which of the following response by the nurse is most therapeutic? A. I’ll be back in an hour B. Why are you so depressed? C. I’ll seat with you for a moment D. Call me when you feel like talking to me 259. One of the following statements is true with regards to the care of clients with depression: A. Only mentally ill persons commit suicide B. All depressed clients are considered potentially suicidal C. Most suicidal person gives no warning D. The chance of suicide lessens as depression lessens 260. An adolescent client has bloodshot eyes, a voracious appetite and dry mouth. Which drug abuse would the nurse most likely suspect? A. Marijuana B. Amphetamines C. Barbiturates D. Anxiolytics 261. During which phase of therapeutic relationship should the nurse inform the patient for termination of therapy? A. Pre-orientation B. Orientation C. Working D. Termination 262. A client says to the nurse “I am worthless person, I should be dead” The nurse best replies: A. “Don’t say you are worthless, you are not a worthless person” B. “We are going to help you with your feelings” C. “What makes you feel you’re worthless?” D. “What you say is not true” 263. The nurse’s most unique tool in working with the emotionally ill client is his/her A. theoretical knowledge B. personality make up C. emotional reactions D. communication skills 264. The mentally ill person responds positively to the nurse who is warm and caring. This is a demonstration of the nurse’s role as: A. counselor B. mother surrogate C. therapist D. socializing agent 265. The past history of Camila would most probably reveal that her premorbid personality is: A. schizoid B. extrovert C. ambivert D. cycloid 266. In an extreme situation and when no other resident or intern is available, should a nurse receive telephone orders, the order has to be correctly written and signed by the physician within: A. 24 hours B. 36 hours C. 48 hours D. 12 hours 267. If it is established that the child is physically abused by a parent, the most important goal the nurse could formulate with the family is that: A. Child and any siblings will live in a safe environment B. Family will feel comfortable in their relationship with the counselor C. Family will gain understanding of their abusive behavior patterns D. Mother will be able to use verbal discipline with her children 268. Cocaine is derived from the leaves of coca plant; the nurse knows that cocaine is classified as: A. Narcotic B. Stimulant C. Barbiturate D. Hallucinogen 269. To successfully complete the tasks of older adulthood, an 85 year old who has been a widow for 25 years should be encouraged to: A. Invest her creative energies in promoting social welfare B. Redefine her role in the society and offer something and offer something of value C. Feel a sense of satisfaction in reflecting on her productive life  D. Look to recapture the opportunities that were never started or completed 270. In a therapeutic relationship, the nurse must understand own values, beliefs, feelings, prejudices & how these affect others. This is called: A. Therapeutic use of self B. Psychotherapy C. Therapeutic communication D. Self awareness 271. While on Bryant’s traction, which of these observations of Graciela and her traction apparatus would indicate a decrease in the effectiveness of her traction? A. Graciela’s buttocks are resting on the bed. B. The traction weights are hanging 10 inches above the floor. C. Graciela’s legs are suspended at a 90 degree angle to her trunk. D. The traction ropes move freely through the pulley. 272. The nurse notes that the fall might also cause a possible head injury. She will be observed for signs of increased intracranial pressure which include: A. Narrowing of the pulse pressure B. Vomiting C. Periorbital edema D. A positive Kernig’s sign 273. This is a tricyclic antidepressant drug: A. Venlafaxine (Effexor) B. Flouxetine (Prozac) C. Sertraline (Zoloft) D. Imipramine (Tofranil) 274. The working phase in a therapy group is usually characterized by which of the following? A. Caution B. Cohesiveness C. Confusion D. Competition 275. Substance abuse is different from substance dependence in that, substance dependence: A. includes characteristics of adverse consequences and repeated use B. requires long term treatment in a hospital based program C. produces less severe symptoms than that of abuse D. includes characteristics of tolerance and withdrawal 276. Ricky’s IQ falls within the range of 50-55. he can be expected to: A. Profit from vocational training with moderate supervision B. Live successfully in the community C. Perform simple tasks in closely supervised settings D. Acquire academic skills of 6th grade level 277. The mother of a drug dependent would never consider referring her son to a drug rehabilitation agency because she fears her son might just become worse while relating with other drug users. The mother’s behavior can be described as: A. Unhelpful B. Codependent C. Caretaking D. Supportive 278. You teach your clients the difference between, Type I (IDDM) and Type II (NDDM) diabetes. Which of the following is true? A. both types diabetes mellitus clients are all prone to developing ketosis B. Type II (NIDDM) is more common and is also preventable compared to Type I (IDDM) diabetes which is genetic in etiology C. Type I (IIDM) is characterized by fasting hyperglycemia D. Type II (NIDDM) is characterized by abnormal immune response 279. Lifestyle-related diseases in general share areas common risk factors. These are the following except: A. physical activity B. smoking C. genetics D. nutrition 280. The following mechanisms can be utilized as part of the quality assurance program of your hospital EXCEPT: A. Patient satisfaction surveys B. Peer review to assess care provided C. Review of clinical records of care of client D. Use of Nursing Interventions Classification 281. The use of the Standards of Nursing Practice is important in the hospital. Which of the following statements best describes what it is? A. These are statements that describe the maximum or highest level of acceptable performance in nursing practice B. It refers to the scope of nursing practice as defined in Republic Act 9173 C. It is a license issued by the Professional Regulation Commission to protect the public from substandard nursing practice D. The Standards of Care includes the various steps of the nursing process and the standards of professional performance 282. You are taking care of critically ill client and the doctor in charge calls to order a DNR (do not resuscitate) for the client. Which of the following is the appropriate action when getting DNR order over the phone? A. Have the registered nurse, family spokesperson, nurse supervisor and doctor sign B. Have 2 nurse validate the phone order, both nurses sign the order and the doctor should sign his order within 24 hours C. Have the registered nurse, family and doctor sign the order D. Have 1 nurse take the order and sign it and have the doctor sign it within 24 hours 283. Under the PRC-Board of Nursing Resolution promulgating the adoption of a Nursing Specialty Certification Program and Council, which two (2) of the following serves as the strongest for its enforcement? (a) Advances made in Science and Technology have provided the climate for specialization in almost all aspects of human endeavor; and (b) As necessary consequence, there has emerged a new concept known as globalization which seeks to remove barriers in trade, industry and services imposed by the national laws of countries all over the world; and (c) Awareness of this development should impel the nursing sector to prepare our people in the services sector to meet the above challenge; and (d) Current trends of specialization in nursing practice recognized by the International Council of Nurses (ICN) of which the Philippines is a member for the benefit of the Filipino in terms of deepening and refining nursing practice and enhancing the quality of nursing care. A. b & c are strong justifications B. a & b are strong justifications C. a & c are strong justifications D. a & d are strong justifications 284. Knowing that for a comatose patient hearing is the last sense to be lost, as Judy’s nurse, what should you do? A. Tell her family that probably she can’t hear them B. Talk loudly so that Wendy can hear you C. Tell her family who are in the room not to talk D. Speak softly then hold her hands gently 285. Which among the following interventions should you consider as the highest priority when caring for June who has hemiparesis secondary to stroke? A. Place June on an upright lateral position B. Perform range of motion exercises C. Apply antiembolic stockings D. Use hand rolls or pillows for support 286. Salome was fitted a hearing aid. She understood the proper use and wear of this device when she says that the battery should be functional, the device is turned on and adjusted to a: A. therapeutic level B. comfortable level C. prescribed level D. audible level 287. Membership dropout generally occurs in group therapy after a member: A. Accomplishes his goal in joining the group B. Discovers that his feelings are shared by the group members C. Experiences feelings of frustration in the group D. Discusses personal concerns with group members 288. Which of the following questions illustrates the group role of encourager? A. What were you saying? B. Who wants to respond next? C. Where do you go from here?  D. Why haven’t we heard from you? 289. The goal of remotivation therapy is to facilitate: A. Insight C. Socialization B. Productivity D. Intimacy 290. Being in contact with reality and the environment is a function of the: A. conscience C. id B. ego D. super ego 291. Substance abuse is different from substance dependence in that, substance dependence: A. includes characteristics of adverse consequences and repeated use B. requires long term treatment in a hospital based program C. produces less severe symptoms than that of abuse D. includes characteristics of tolerance and withdrawal 292. During the detoxification stage, it is a priority for the nurse to: A. teach skills to recognize and respond to health threatening situations B. increase the client’s awareness of unsatisfactory protective behaviors C. implement behavior modification D. promote homeostasis and minimize the client’s withdrawal symptoms 293. Commonly known as “shabu” is: A. Cannabis Sativa B. Lysergic acid diethylamide C. Methylenedioxy methamphetamine D. Methampetamine hydrochloride 294. Which of the following gauges should you prepare for spinal anesthesia if the anesthesiologist requires a pink spinal set and a blue spinal set as backup? A. Gauges 16 and 22 B. Gauges 18 and 16 C. Gauges 16 and 20 D. Gauges 25 and 22 295. Discharge plans of diabetic clients include injection site rotation. You should emphasize that the space between sites should be: A. 6.0 cm. B. 5.0 cm. C. 2.5 cm. D. 4.0 cm. 296. Which of the ff. colors would you expect a tank containing nitrous oxide (laughing gas) to have, based on the universally-accepted color codes? A. Red B. Blue C. Green D. Orange 297. From an ECG reading, a QRS Complex represents: A. Atrial depolarization B. Ventricular repolarization C. Ventricular depolarization D. End of ventricular depolarization 298. Diego is undergoing blood transfusion of the first unit. The earliest signs of transfusion reactions are: A. Oliguria and jaundice B. Urticaria and wheezing C. Headache, chills, & fever D. Hypertension and flushing 299. Your alertness to both the physical and emotional needs of clients is based on which of the following philosophical frameworks? A. There is a basic similarity among human beings. B. All behavior has meaning for communicating a message or need. C. Human beings are systems of interdependent and interrelated parts. D. Each individual has the potential for growth and change in the direction of positive mental health. 300. Soledad is terminally ill of cancer. Looking sad, she expresses, “Wala na yata akong pag-asang mabuhay pa.” A response which fosters hope is: A. “Gagaling din po kayo. Huwag po kayong mag-alala.” B. “Lakasan ang loob ninyo. Lahat naman po tayo ay doon ang patutunguhan.”  C. “Mukhang napakabigat and dinadamdam ninyo. Andito po ako at puwede tayong mag-usap. D. “Huwag po ninyong isipin ang sakit ninyo. Bale wala yon. Andito naman ako para makausap ninyo.” ANSWER KEY 1. B. Client seated upright in bed or on a chair then leaning forward in sitting position then flat on his back and on his abdomen 2. C. Amount of fluid intake of client before and after the procedure 3. C. Teaching the client’s relatives to perform the procedure 4. B. Client can tolerate sitting and lying positions 5. B. Percussion delivers cushioned blows to the chest with cupped palms while vibration gently shakes secretion loose on the exhalation cycle 6. D. Do a physical examination while asking the client relevant questions 7. C. anger 8. A. Beneficence 9. A. Assessment 10. A. nurses manage collaborative problems using physician-prescribed interventions. 11. A. Hold urine as long as she can before emptying the bladder to strengthen her sphincter muscles 12. C. loss of tone of the smooth muscles of the colon 13. D. prolonged use of laxatives 14. C. the distance from the tip of the nose to the tip of the ear lobe 15. C. Pump the cuff to around 50 mmHg above the point where the pulse is obliterated 16. D. Detect oxygen saturation of arterial blood before symptoms of hypoxemia develops 17. A. Distributive 18. A. Intravenous 19. C. higher than what the reading should be 20. B. 30 minutes 21. C. Cover the fingertip sensor with a towel or bedsheet 22. D. inflated to 30 mmHg above the estimated systolic BP based on palpation of radial or brachial artery 23. B. blood should be warmed to room temperature for 30 minutes before blood transfusions is administered 24. D. 1 tsp of salt/day but no patis and toyo 25. A. X-ray 26. A. Cigarette smoking 27. A. 10-15 seconds 28. A. Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line 29. A. Stroke volume 30. B. Patches may be applied to distal part of the extremities like forearm 31. B. The internal diameter of the tube 32. B. Withdrawing of the suction catheter 33. A. Separate the upper and lower airway 34. D. Risk for infection 35. D. Keep the patient clean and dry 36. D. Laissez Faire 37. A. Autocratic 38. A. Planning 39. B. Evaluating 40. A. Philosophy 41. C. Next of Kin 42. D. Durable Power of Attorney 43. B. Stay with Mang Carlos and do nothing 44. B. Patient’s Bill of Rights 45. C. 15 minutes 46. A. Review of related literature 47. D. Pilot Study 48. A. Effective Nurse-patient communication 49. C. Anxiety level 50. C. Applied research 51. D. There is a careful selection of subjects in the experimental group 52. B. is assigning the responsibility to the aide but not the accountability for those tasks 53. C. collective bargaining 54. B. In-service education 55. A. R.A 9173 56. C. Prudence 57. C. Mitigating 58. A. Autonomy 59. C. Because the patient’s right coincide with the nurse’s responsibility 60. D. Those involved in medical mission who’s services are for free 61. A. Autonomy 62. A. Accountable 63. C. A registered nurse is responsible for a group of patients from admission to discharge 64. A. Functional Method 65. A. Raise the side rails, cover, put the call bell within reach, and attend to the client in pain to give the PRN medication 66. D. Put the bed in the lowest position ever 67. B. 90 ° 68. C. It forces the medication to be contained at the subcutaneous tissues 69. A. Not universally accepted abbreviations 70. A. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation 71. A. Broaden the space between the feet 72. A. At the level of the heart 73. D. Conduction 74. D. Handwashing 75. B. Natural passive immunity 76. C. I must choose another doctor if I withdrew from this research 77. C. The water fluctuates during inhalation of the patient 78. B. Alcoholize the self sealing port, obtain a sterile syringe and draw the specimen on the self sealing port 79. B. Screening patients for hypertension 80. D. Immunization 81. A. Orthopnea 82. D. Physiologic needs that are life threatening 83. A. Psychological preparation of the client 84. C. Owned by the hospital and should not be given to anyone who request it other than the doctor in charge 85. A. Promoting and maintaining the health of populations and preventing and minimizing the progress of disease 86. A. restoring maximum health function. 87. B. Gives quality nursing care 88. D. Double effect 89. B. Telehealth program 90. C. Psychomotor 91. D. wellness program 92. C. Cold compress prevents edema and reduces pain 93. C. Increase oxygenation to the injured tissues for better healing 94. B. Disclosure 95. B. Feasibility 96. D. Mean 97. B. Within 24 hours after discharge 98. C. Quasi-Legislative Power 99. C. The Size and Contour of the breast 100. C. BSE Once a month 101. A. Most frequently in nurses with needlesticks 102. B. Intense back pain 103. A. Soften and efface the cervix 104. C. Sperm can no longer reach the ova, because the fallopian tubes are blocked 105. C. a couple has been trying to conceive for 1 year 106. B. between 2 deg C and +8 deg C 107. A. Measles vaccine 108. C. Hepatitis B vaccines 109. B. Nursing Health History and Assessment Worksheet 110. B. Graphic Flow Sheets 111. D. Medicine and Treatment Record 112. D. Nursing Kardex 113. A. Discharge Summary 114. D. Accurate documentation of actions and outcomes 115. B. Nursing Specialty Certification Council 116. A. Urgent referral 117. A. 40 118. C. Severe Dehydration 119. D. Difficulty to awaken 120. A. is there any fever? 121. D. Go to the next question, check for malnutrition 122. A. 1,000 ml to 1,400 ml be given within 4 hours 123. C. Acute Ear Infection 124. D. Very severe disease 125. A. Pneumonia and larynigotracheitis 126. D. Flushing sensation is felt as the dye in injected 127. D. 332.5 128. C. Pustule 129. A. Community Organizing 130. C. Occupational health nursing 131. B. Health threat 132. D. The pressure of the gravid uterus will exert additional force thus, increasing the blood loss in the LE. 133. C. It will contribute to additional bone demineralization 134. B. BCG Vaccine can be given to a child with Hepatitis B 135. C. When she’s 3 years old 136. D. Early feeding to speed passage of meconium 137. B. an essential and indispensable equipment of the community health nurse 138. B. It saves time and effort of the nurse in the performance of nursing procedures 139. D. The inside surface 140. D. Two, plus “mama” and “papa” 141. C. Circulating nurse 142. C. Nurse Manager 143. B. Scrub nurse 144. C. Anaesthesiologist 145. D. Radiol