Allen JEE(Main+Advanced) Past Paper PDF 2024-2025

Test Pattern (1001CJA101022240001) )1001CJA101022240001) English CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME JEE(Advanced)...

Test Pattern (1001CJA101022240001) )1001CJA101022240001) English CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME JEE(Advanced) REVIEW TEST (Academic Session : 2024 - 2025) 02-04-2024 JEE(Main+Advanced) : ENTHUSIAST COURSE [PHASE : II] Time : 3 Hours PAPER-1 (OPTIONAL) Maximum Marks : 180 IMPORTANT NOTE : Students having 8 digits Form No. must fill two zero before their Form No. in OMR. For example, if your Form No. is 12345678, then you have to fill 0012345678. READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY GENERAL : 1. This sealed booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal till you are told to do so. 2. Use the Optical Response sheet (ORS) provided separately for answering the questions. DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR 3. Blank spaces are provided within this booklet for rough work. 4. Write your name, form number and sign in the space provided on the back cover of this booklet. 5. After breaking the seal of the booklet, verify that the booklet contains 24 pages and that all the 17 questions in each subject and along with the options are legible. If not, contact the invigilator for replacement of the booklet. 6. You are allowed to take away the Question Paper at the end of the examination. OPTICAL RESPONSE SHEET : 7. The ORS will be collected by the invigilator at the end of the examination. 8. Do not tamper with or mutilate the ORS. Do not use the ORS for rough work. 9. Write your name, form number and sign with pen in the space provided for this purpose on the ORS. Do not write any of these details anywhere else on the ORS. Darken the appropriate bubble under each digit of your form number. DARKENING THE BUBBLES ON THE ORS : 10. Use a BLACK BALL POINT PEN to darken the bubbles on the ORS. 11. Darken the bubble COMPLETELY. 12. The correct way of darkening a bubble is as : 13. The ORS is machine-gradable. Ensure that the bubbles are darkened in the correct way. 14. Darken the bubbles ONLY IF you are sure of the answer. There is NO WAY to erase or "un-darken" a darkened bubble. 15. Take g = 10 m/s2 unless otherwise stated. QUESTION PAPER FORMAT : 16. The question paper has three parts : Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics. Please see the last page of this booklet for rest of the instructions  Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2025/02-04-2024/Paper-1 ALLEN ® SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS Atomic No. : H = 1, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17, Br = 35, Xe = 54, Ce = 58 Atomic masses : H = 1, Li = 7, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, Ca=40, Fe = 56, Br = 80, I = 127, Xe = 131, Ba=137, Ce = 140 · Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1 1 · Coulomb's law constant = 9 ×10 9 4 pe0 · Universal gravitational constant G = 6.67259 × 10–11 N–m 2 kg–2 · Speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 108 ms–1 · Stefan–Boltzmann constant s = 5.67 × 10–8 Wm–2 –K–4 · Wien's displacement law constant b = 2.89 × 10–3 m–K · Permeability of vacuum µ0 = 4p × 10–7 NA–2 1 · Permittivity of vacuum Î0 = m0 c2 · Planck constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 J–s Space for Rough Work E-2/24 1001CJA101022240001  Enthusiast Course/Phase-II/02-04-2024/Paper-1 BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING PART-1 : PHYSICS SECTION-I (i) : (Maximum Marks: 12) This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer. For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer. Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme : Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen. Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered) Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases 1 1. The graph shows the variation of (where V is the velocity of the particle) with respect to time. Then V find the value of acceleration at t = 3 sec. (A) 3 m/s2 (B) 5 m/s2 (C) 1 m/s2 (D) None of these 3 2. A point object is placed at a distance of 9 meter from a glass hemisphere of refractive index µ = then 2 position of final image from C is (radius of hemisphere is 3 meter) :- (A) 15 m right of C (B) 16 m left of C (C) 22.5 m left of C (D) 22.5 m right of C 1001CJA101022240001 E-3/24  Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2025/02-04-2024/Paper-1 3. Two blocks of masses 2 kg & 3 kg are kept at rest on a fixed wedge. They are connected by a light inextensible string. There is no friction between wedge & both masses. Both blocks are at same height from horizontal base AB. If string is cut then Choose the correct statement :- (A) Both block reaches bottom of wedge simultaneously. (B) m1 reaches earlier than m2 at bottom of wedge. (C) Speed of m1 will be large at bottom. (D) Speed of m2 will be larger at bottom. 4. Figure shows graph of deviation δ versus angle of incidence for a light ray striking a prism. Angle of prism is :- (A) 30º (B) 45º (C) 60º (D) 75º E-4/24 1001CJA101022240001  Enthusiast Course/Phase-II/02-04-2024/Paper-1 SECTION-I (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 12) This section contains THREE (03) questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s). For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all ) the correct answer(s) Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme: Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen. Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen. Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both of which are correct. Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option. Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered). Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases. For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks. Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this case), with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in –2 marks. 5. An object O is kept infront of a converging lens of focal length 30 cm behind which there is a plane mirror at 15 cm from the lens. (A) The final image is formed at 60 cm from the lens towards right of it (B) The final image is at 60 cm from lens towards left of it (C) The final image is real (D) The final image is virtual 1001CJA101022240001 E-5/24  Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2025/02-04-2024/Paper-1 6. A particle moves in the xy-plane and at time t is at the point (t2, t3 – 2t). Then :- (A) At t = 2/3 s, directions of velocity and acceleration are perpendicular. (B) At t = 0, directions of velocity and acceleration are perpendicular. (C) At t = √ 2/3 s particle is moving parallel to x-axis. (D) Acceleration of the particle when it is at point (4, 4) is ( 2 ^i + 12 ^j ) m/s2. 7. A small block of mass of 0.1 kg lies on a fixed inclined plane PQ which makes an angle θ with the horizontal. A horizontal force of 1 N acts on the block through its geometrical centre as shown in the figure. The block remains stationary if (take g = 10 m/s2) (A) θ = 45o and PQ is a frictionless surface (B) θ > 45o and a frictional force acts on the block towards P (C) θ > 45o and a frictional force acts on the block towards Q (D) θ < 45o and a frictional force acts on the block towards Q E-6/24 1001CJA101022240001  Enthusiast Course/Phase-II/02-04-2024/Paper-1 SECTION-I (iii) : (Maximum Marks: 12) This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets. Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question. Each set has TWO lists : List-I and List-II. List-I has Four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and List-II has Five entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question. Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme: Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen; Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered); Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases. 8. A ball is thrown from point O with speed 50 m/s from ground at an angle 53° with horizontal it lands on same horizontal level at point A and a dog is running with 20 m/s constant velocity along OA. List-II List-I (values in appropriate SI unit) (P) Range of ball on ground (1) 240 Horizontal displacement of ball (Q) (2) 80 w.r.t. dog at t = 8 sec. Magnitude of velocity of ball (R) (3) 10√5 w.r.t. dog at t = 2 sec. Magnitude of velocity of ball (S) (4) 10√2 w.r.t. dog at t = 5 sec. (5) 160 (A) P → 1;Q → 4;R → 1;S → 3 (B) P → 1;Q → 2;R → 3;S → 4 (C) P → 3;Q → 2;R → 1;S → 4 (D) P → 4;Q → 1;R → 2;S → 3 1001CJA101022240001 E-7/24  Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2025/02-04-2024/Paper-1 9. List – I contains value of F and List – II contains corresponding value of friction. List-I List-II (P) F = 20 N (1) 6.4 N (Q) F = 100 N (2) 20 N (R) F = 40 N (3) 16 N (S) F = 10 N (4) 3.2 N (5) 8 N (A) P → 1;Q → 2;R → 3;S → 4 (B) P → 1;Q → 5;R → 3;S → 4 (C) P → 1;Q → 2;R → 5;S → 4 (D) P → 2;Q → 2;R → 3;S → 4 10. Using the lens maker formula, relate the focal length of thin lens in List-I with value in List-II. List-I List-II (P) (1) 4R (Q) (2) – 2R (R) (3) – 4R (S) (4) 2R (5) R (A) P → 1;Q → 3;R → 4;S → 2 (B) P → 4;Q → 2;R → 1;S → 3 (C) P → 3;Q → 2;R → 1;S → 4 (D) P → 4;Q → 1;R → 2;S → 3 E-8/24 1001CJA101022240001  Enthusiast Course/Phase-II/02-04-2024/Paper-1 11. Angle of deviation is given in list-I and ray diagram for angle of deviation in list-II. List – I List – II (P) 60° (1) (Q) 0° (2) (R) 180° (3) (S) 30° (4) (5) None (A) P → 4;Q → 1;R → 2;S → 3 (B) P → 1;Q → 4;R → 3;S → 2 (C) P → 3;Q → 1;R → 4;S → 2 (D) P → 4;Q → 1;R → 3;S → 2 1001CJA101022240001 E-9/24  Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2025/02-04-2024/Paper-1 SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 24) This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER For each question, enter the correct integer value of the answer in the place designated to enter the answer. For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories : Full Marks : +4 If only the correct answer is given. Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases. 1. An object of length 30 cm is placed on principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 30cm. Its one end at a distance of 45 cm as shown. If length of image is 10x (in cm) find the value of x. 2. A convex lens of refractive index 1.5 and focal length 18 cm in air is immersed in water. The change in focal length of the lens will be_____cm. 4 (Given refractive index of water = ) 3 3. A particle is projected upwards with a velocity of 39.2 m/s at an angle of 60° with the vertical. Find the time in seconds, when the particle will move perpendicular to its initial direction. 4. Radii of curvature of a concavo-convex lens (refractive index = 1.5) are 40 cm (concave side) and 20 cm (convex side) as shown. The convex side is silvered. The distance x on the principal axis where object is placed so that its image is created on the object itself, is equal to (in cm) :- 5. The refractive index of a transparent liquid filled in an equilateral hollow prism is √ 2. The angle of minimum deviation (in degree) for the liquid will be :- 6. What should be the value of distance d (in cm) so that final image is formed on the object itself ? (focal lengths of the lenses are written on the lenses.) E-10/24 1001CJA101022240001  Enthusiast Course/Phase-II/02-04-2024/Paper-1 PART-2 : CHEMISTRY SECTION-I (i) : (Maximum Marks: 12) This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer. For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer. Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme : Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen. Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered) Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases 1. Which of the following compound is optically active : (A) (B) (C) (D) 2. Boiling point of geometrical isomers depend on dipole moment. Boiling point ∝ Polarity Melting point ∝ Packing efficiency Which of the following is correct : (A) Stability order (B) Stability order (C) Order of melting point (D) Stability order 1001CJA101022240001 E-11/24  Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2025/02-04-2024/Paper-1 3. Select the correct statements. (A) Crystalline solids have long range order. (B) Crystalline solids are isotropic. (C) Amorphous solid are sometimes called pseudo solids. (D) Amorphous solids soften over a range of temperatures. (E) Amorphous solids have a definite heat of fusion. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. (A) (A), (B), (E) only (B) (B), (D) only (C) (C), (D) only (D) (A), (C), (D) only 4. Which of the following is correct for I2Cl6 ? (A) It is non-planar like Al2Cl6 (B) It has both 2c – 2e¯ & 3c – 2e¯ bond (C) In it's molten form cationic part is non-planar (D) In it's molten form in anionic part all closest bond angles are same E-12/24 1001CJA101022240001  Enthusiast Course/Phase-II/02-04-2024/Paper-1 SECTION-I (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 12) This section contains THREE (03) questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s). For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all ) the correct answer(s) Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme: Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen. Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen. Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both of which are correct. Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option. Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered). Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases. For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks. Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this case), with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in –2 marks. 5. Which of the following statements are not correct ? (A) A meso compound has chiral centres but exhibits no optical activity (B) A meso compound has no chiral centres and thus are optically inactive (C) A meso compound has molecules which are superimpossable on their mirror images even though they contain chiral centres (D) A meso compound is optically inactive because the rotation caused by any molecule is cancelled by an equal and opposite rotation caused by another molecules that is the mirror image of the first 6. In the depression in freezing point experiment which of the following is correct for a dilute aqueous urea solution : (A) The vapour pressure of solution is less than that of pure solvent (B) Only solvent molecules solidify at the freezing point (C) The freezing temperature of solution depends upon concentration of solution (D) The freezing temperature of solution is independent of the molar mass of solute. 7. Choose the correct order(s) for the given properties. (A) MgSO4 < SrSO4 < BaSO4 : Thermal stability order (B) BeC2O4 < CaC2O4 < BaC2O4 : Solubility in water (C) LiCl > NaCl > KCl : Polarizing power of cation (D) BeF2 > CaF2 > SrF2 : Covalent character order 1001CJA101022240001 E-13/24  Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2025/02-04-2024/Paper-1 SECTION-I (iii) : (Maximum Marks: 12) This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets. Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question. Each set has TWO lists : List-I and List-II. List-I has Four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and List-II has Five entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question. Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme: Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen; Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered); Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases. 8. List - I List - II Statements related to pair Pair of compounds of compounds given in List-I They differ in the position of the (P) and (1) functional groups and hence are positional isomers They are mirror images of each other (Q) and (2) and hence they are enantiomers They are optical isomers but are not (R) and (3) mirror images of each other and hence are diastereomers (S) and (4) Both are homomers. They differ in the parent carbon chain (5) and hence they are chain isomers. Which of the following represent correct combinations from List-I and List-II (A) P → 3,5;Q → 2,5;R → 1;S → 4,5 (B) P → 2,3;Q → 2,3,4;R → 1,2;S → 4,5 (C) P → 3,4;Q → 4,5;R → 2,3;S → 1,2 (D) P → 2,3;Q → 4;R → 2,5;S → 1,3 E-14/24 1001CJA101022240001  Enthusiast Course/Phase-II/02-04-2024/Paper-1 9. List-I List-II (P) (1) Compound can show optical isomerism (Q) (2) Compound can show geometrical isomerism (R) (3) Compound can show positional isomerism (S) (4) Structure may have centre of symmetry in one of its from (5) D.U. = 2 Find the correct answer. (A) P → 1,2,3,5;Q → 4;R → 2,3,4;S → 1,2,3 (B) P → 4;Q → 2,3;R → 1;S → 1,4 (C) P → 2,4;Q → 1,3;R → 2,3;S → 1,4 (D) P → 4;Q → 1,2;R → 1;S → 3,4 1001CJA101022240001 E-15/24  Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2025/02-04-2024/Paper-1 10. List-II List-I ('n' factor of underlined specie in (Chemical reactions) the given chemical redox reactions) (P) H 2 O 2 → H2 O + O2 (1) 4 (Q) (2) 1 (R) (3) 2 (S) (4) 3 (5) 6 (A) P → 1;Q → 2;R → 3;S → 5 (B) P → 2;Q → 5;R → 1;S → 5 (C) P → 2;Q → 3;R → 4;S → 5 (D) P → 3;Q → 2;R → 1;S → 4 11. Match the list: List- I List- II (Type of π -bond character in specified bond) (Species) (P) 2p π -2p π (1) N(SiH3)3 (N – Si) (Q) 2p π -3p π (2) BF3 (B – F) (R) 2p π -3d π (3) BCl3 (B – Cl) (S) 2p π -4d π (4) BrO−3 (Br – O) (5) F3P=O (P – O) The CORRECT option is (A) P → 2 ;Q → 3, 5 ;R → 1, 3, 5 ;S → 4, 5 (B) P → 2;Q → 3;R → 1, 5 ;S → 4 (C) P → 2;Q → 3, 5 ;R → 1, 3, 5 ;S → 4 (D) P → 1;Q → 2;R → 2,5;S → 3 E-16/24 1001CJA101022240001  Enthusiast Course/Phase-II/02-04-2024/Paper-1 SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 24) This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER For each question, enter the correct integer value of the answer in the place designated to enter the answer. For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories : Full Marks : +4 If only the correct answer is given. Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases. 1. How many optically active molecules are present ? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) (g) (h) (i) (j) 2. 10 ml of CO is mixed with 25 ml air having 20% O2 by volume. What would be the final volume (in ml) if none of CO and O2 is left after the reaction? 3. The vapour pressures of two volatile liquids A and B at 25°C are 50 Torr and 150 Torr, respectively. If the liquid mixture contains 0.3 mole fraction of A, then the mole fraction of B in the vapour phase is x 16 The value of x is ________. 4. In a solid AB. A atoms are in CCP arrangement and B atoms occupy all the octahedral sites in the lattice. If all face-centred atoms whose centres lie on an axis joining face-centres of opposite faces are removed, then the resultant stoichiometry of the compound is AxBy. The value of x is_______. [nearest integer] 5. Find the maximum number of atoms in a plane in Al2(CH3)6. 6. Among the following how many ions are having pseudo inert configuration? Cu+ , Cu+2 , Zn+2 , Cd+2 , Mg+2 , Ag+ , Ga+ , Ga+3 , Pb+2 1001CJA101022240001 E-17/24  Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2025/02-04-2024/Paper-1 PART-3 : MATHEMATICS SECTION-I (i) : (Maximum Marks: 12) This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer. For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer. Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme : Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen. Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered) Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases 1. Complete set of values of x such that sin –1(x) > sin –1(x2) is (A) (0, 1) (B) (2, 3) (C) [3, 7] (D) [ – 3, – 2] 2. Consider sin –1x + sin –1y = 2 π , if a = cos –1x + cos –1y then value of 18a is 3 π (A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 5 3. cos(tan –1x) is equal to (where x ∈ R) x (A) √ 1 + x2 (B) x 1 (C) √ 1 + x2 (D) √ 1 − x2 + x 4. sin(2tan –1(4)) + cos(2tan –13) (A) 13 − 3 (B) 3 − 4 (C) 0 (D) 28 − 85 E-18/24 1001CJA101022240001  Enthusiast Course/Phase-II/02-04-2024/Paper-1 SECTION-I (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 12) This section contains THREE (03) questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s). For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all ) the correct answer(s) Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme: Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen. Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen. Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both of which are correct. Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option. Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered). Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases. For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks. Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this case), with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in –2 marks. 5. Which of the following is/are identical function(s) :- (A) f(x) = sin(sin –1x) & g(x) = cos(cos –1x) (B) f(x) = tan(tan –1x) & g(x) = cot(cot –1x) (C) f(x) = sec(sec –1x) & g(x) = cosec(cosec –1x) (D) f(x) = sin2x + cos2x & g(x) = 1 ⎧ ⎪ x2 − 1 ; 0