Structural Organisation in Animals Multiple Choice Questions PDF

STRUCTURAL ORGANIZATION IN ANIMALS MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS Animal Tissues Epithelial Tissues 01. Which of the following epithelia forms the inner lining of trachea and fallopian tube? (1) Cuboidal (2) Squamous (3) Columnar (4) Cili...

STRUCTURAL ORGANIZATION IN ANIMALS MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS Animal Tissues Epithelial Tissues 01. Which of the following epithelia forms the inner lining of trachea and fallopian tube? (1) Cuboidal (2) Squamous (3) Columnar (4) Ciliated columnar 02. Germinal epithelium of testis and ovary is made up of (1) Columnar epithelium (2) Squamous epithelium. (3) Cuboidal epithelium. (4) Stratified epithelium. 03. Ciliated epithelium is present in (1) Trachea (2) Ureter (3) Intestine (4) Nasal chamber 04. The cavities of brain are lined by (1) Cuboidal cells (2) Polygonal cells (3) Ependymal cells (4) Simple squamous cells. 05. Epithelial tissues arise from (1) Ectoderm (2) Endoderm (3) Mesoderm (4) All of these 06. Columnar epithelium with microvilli is present in (1) Gallbladder (2) Stomach (3) Appendix (4) Pharynx 07. The internal lining of blood vessels is called (1) Mesothelium (2) Endothelium (3) Pavement epithelium (4) Stratified epithelium 08. Germinal epithelium of ovary is (1) Columnar epithelium (2) Squamous epithelium. (3) Cuboidal epithelium (4) Stratified epithelium. 09. Stereocilia are present in (1) Epididymis (2) Seminal vesicle (3) Ureter (4) Kidney 10. The term Epithelium was coined by (1) Ruysch. (2) Mayer. (3) Bichat. (4) Marcello Malpighi. 11. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium is found in (1) Male urethra (2) Cornea (3) Oviduct (4) Oesophagus 12. Which of the following is an example of merocrine gland? (1) Sebaceous gland (2) Pineal gland (3) Salivary gland (4) Mammary gland 13. Pavement epithelium is another name for (1) Squamous epithelium (2) Cuboidal epithelium (3) Ciliated epithelium (4) Compound epithelium 14. Kupffer cells are found in (1) Lungs (2) Liver (3) Spleen. (4) Heart 15. Outer layer of skin is made up of keratinized epithelium, because (1) It covers whole body (2) It is thick (3) It is exposed, thus subjected to wear and tear. (4) It prevents entry of pathogens. 16. Which of the following helps in maintaining body hot? (1) Sweat glands (2) Connective tissue (3) Adipose tissue (4) Hair 17. Simple coiled tubular glands are found in (1) Dermis of skin(2) Kidney (3) Liver (4) Spleen 18. Inner lining of urinary bladder is composed of (1) Columnar epithelium (2) Squamous epithelium (3) Transitional epithelium. (4) Pseudostratified epithelium. 19. Distal part of male urethra is composed of (1) Stratified columnar epithelium (2) Stratified cuboidal epithelium (3) Pseudostratified epithelium (4) Transitional epithelium 20. Epithelial tissue is (1) A protective covering. (2) Consist of nerve cells. (3) Consist of corpuscles. (4) Constituent of reproductive structure. 21. Assertion: Materials cannot be exchanged between epithelial cells. Reason: Blood vessels are absent in epithelial tissue. (1) Both assertion and reason are true (2) Both assertion and reason are false (3) Assertion is true and reason is false (4) Assertion is false and reason is true 22. The epithelial tissue present on the inner surface of bronchioles and fallopian tubes is (1) Squamous (2) Cuboidal (3) Glandular (4) Ciliated 23. Which of the following tissue has a free surface? (1) Connective tissue (2) Muscular tissue (3) Epithelial tissue (4) Neural tissue 24. Which of the following epithelium is irregularly shaped? (1) Squamous epithelium (2) Cuboidal epithelium (3) Columnar epithelium (4) Ciliated columnar epithelium 25. Basal, oval shaped nucleus is present in which of the following types of epithelium? (1) Squamous epithelium (2) Pseudostratified epithelium (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Columnar epithelium 26. Cuboidal or columnar epithelium specialised for secretion is called ___________. (1) Ciliated epithelium (2) Glandular epithelium (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these 27. Which of the following is not secreted by exocrine glands? (1) Earwax (2) Oil (3) Milk (4) None of these 28. Where we will not find the compound epithelium? Page 1 of 20  (1) Dry skin surface (2) Moist surface of mouth (3) Pharynx (4) Pancreas 29. What is the function of adhering junction? (1) Cementing to keep neighbouring cells together (2) Give rigidity to tissue (3) Stop leaking substance across the tissue (4) All of these 30. Which of the following junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with each other by connecting the cytoplasm of adjoining cells? (1) Tight junction (2) Adhering junction (3) Gap junction (4) Both (2) and (3) 31. What kind of tissues has goblet cell? (1) Epithelial tissue (2) Connective tissue (3) Neural tissue (4) All of these 32. Which of the following is not associated with epithelium? (1) Cells are compactly packed with litde intercellular space (2) It is highly vascularised (3) It forms covering or lining of external and internal surfaces (4) It helps in protection, secretion, absorption, respiration, etc. 33. Which of the following is false about columnar epithelium? (a) It is made of tall and slender cells (b) Free surface may have microvilli (c) They are found in stomach and intestine and help in secretion and absorption (d) Ciliated epithelium is mainly present in hollow structure like bronchioles and fallopian tubes/oviducts (e) They have apical nuclei. (1) Only (a) (2) Only(e) (3) Only (b) and (d) (4) Only (b) and (c) 34. Goblet cells (in GIT) are a type of (1) Multicellular gland. (2) Unicellular gland. (3) Intercellular gland. (4) Salivary gland. 35. The inability to absorb nutrients may be due to damage of which type of epithelium? (1) Stratified squamous (2) Simple cuboidal (3) Simple columnar (4) Simple squamous 36. The terms, squamous and cuboidal apply to the ________ of cells in __________ tissue. (1) Location; muscular (2) Shape; skeletal (3) Location; nerve (4) Shape; epithelial 37. Which of the following statements is false about the glands? (1) Goblet cells secrete mucus. (2) Exocrine glands possess duct for secretion of mucus, milk, saliva, earwax, digestive enzymes, oil and other cell products. (3) Glandular epithelium consists of specialised columnar or cuboidal cells. (4) Endocrine glands secrete a variety of enzymes only. 38. Adjacent epithelial cells are joined together by (1) Desmosomes (2) Oxysomes (3) Desmonemes. (4) Plasmodesmata. 39. Which of the following statements about cell junctions is false? (I) All the cells of the epithelium are held together with little intercellular materials (II) In almost all animal tissues specialised junction provide both structural and functional link between its individual cells (III) Tight junctions help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue (IV) Adhering junctions provide cementing to keep neighbouring cells together. (V) Gap junctions provide cytoplasmic channels between cells for passage of ions, small molecules and sometimes big molecules. (1) Only (II) and (III) (2) Only (I) and (II) (3) Only (V) (4) None of these 40. The outside or inside lining of a body organ is formed by (1) Epithelial tissue. (2) Neural tissue. (3) Muscular tissue. (4) Variable and differs from organ to organ. 41. The function of which of the following epithelium is not secretion and absorption? (1) Simple cuboidal epithelium (2) Simple columnar epithelium (3) Simple squamous epithelium (4) Brush bordered, epithelium 42. Goblet glands are (1) Unicellular exocrine glands of intestine (2) Unicellular endocrine glands of intestine (3) Multicellular exocrine glands of gut (4) Multicellular endocrine glands of gut 43. Mast cells are associated with (1) Exocrine glands (2) Endocrine glands (3) Areolar connective tissue (4) Neural tissue 44. Simple epithelium is made of (1) Non-cellular layer of hyaluronic acid (2) Actively dividing cells. (3) Loosely arranged cells. (4) Compactly packed single layer of cells. 45. Which of the following glands does not have duct? (1) Salivary gland (2) Mammary gland (3) Intestinal gland (4) Adrenal gland 46. Cell junctions like tight, adhering and gap junctions are mainly present between the neighbouring cells of (1) Neural tissue (2) Connective tissue (3) Muscular tissue (4) Epithelial tissue 47. Goblet cells secrete (1) Mucus (2) Enzymes (3) (4) Hormones 48. Pavement epithelium is an alternate name for (1) Alveoli of lungs. (2) Hair follicles (3) Ligaments (4) Tendons and bones 49. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option. Column - I Column – II (a) Squamous epithelium (i) Lining of intestine (b) Cuboidal epithelium (ii) Ovary (c) Columnar epithelium (iii) Blood vessels (d) Ciliated epithelium (iv) Bronchioles Page 2 of 20  (1) (a) - (i); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iii); (d ) - (iv) (2) (a) - (iii); (b) - (ii); (c) - (i); (d) - (iv) (3) (a) - (iii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i); (d) - (ii) (4) (a) - (i); (b) - (iv); (c) - (iii); (d) - (ii) 50. Rapped dust particles are pushed out of respiratory tract by (1) Squamous epithelium (2) Glandular epithelium (3) Ciliated epithelium (d) Compound epithelium. 51. Which of the following is Incorrect with respect to junction and its function? (1) Tight junction Promotes leaking of substances across a tissue (2) Adhering junction Keeps neighbouring cells together (3) Gap junction Connects the cytoplasm of adjoining cells for rapid trans fer of ions and small molecules (4) Gap junction Facilitates the cells to communicate with each other 52. Stratified squamous epithelium is found in (1) Buccal cavity (2) Stomach (3) Intestine (4) Spleen 53. Which of the following tissue covers moist surface of buccal cavity and pharynx? (1) Cuboidal epithelium (2) Columnar epithelium (3) Transitional epithelium (4) Compound epithelium 54. Epithelial lining of cornea is composed of (1) Stratified squamous non - keratinised epithelium. (2) Transitional epithelium (3) Simple cuboidal epithelium. (4) Simple squamous epithelium. 55. Basement membrane is composed of (1) Hyaluronic acid and glycoproteins (2) Only mucopolysacharides (3) Endodermal cells. (4) Epidermal cells. 56. Inner lining of gut, stomach and liver is made up of (1) Simple squamous epithelium (2) Simple cuboidal epithelium (3) Simple columnar epithelium (4) Pseudostratified epithelium 57. Cells of peritoneum comprise (1) Ciliated epithelium (2) Glandular epithelium. (3) Columnar epithelium. (4) Squamous epithelium. 58. Inner lining of blood vessels and heart has tessellated epithelium, which is (1) Simple squamous due to wavy appearance. (2) Simple squamous due to tile like appearance. (3) stratified cubodial epithelium. (4) Germinal epithelium. 59. Olfactory epithelium (Scheneidarian membrane) is composed of (1) Neuro sensory epithelium. (2) Simple squamous epithelium. (3) Simple cuboidal. (4) Germinal epithelium. 60. Mesothelium is (1) Lining of coelom which originated from mesoderm. (2) Lining of coelom which originated from ectoderm. (3) Lining of heart which originated from endoderm. (4) Lining of heart which originated from mesoderm. 61. Exoskeleton (e.g., feathers, nail, horn, hoofs) originated from (1) Connective tissue proper (2) Epithelium tissue. (3) Skeletal tissue. (4) Vascular tissue. 62. Mucus cells (goblet cells) are (1) Unicellular glands (2) Multicellular glands (3) Endocrine glands. (4) Parietal cells of gastric glands. 63. Sweat glands are (1) Merocrine (2) Endocrine (3) Holocrine. (4) None of these. 64. Ependymais (1) Ciliated pseudostratified columnar (2) Ciliated columnar (3) Ciliated cubical epithelium. (4) Non-ciliated columnar. 65. Lining of sebaceous duct is composed of (1) Cuboidal stratified epithelium. (2) Stratified squamous. (3) Simple columnar. (4) Simple squamous. 66. Choroid of eye is lined by (1) Cuboidal epithelium. (2) Squamous epithelium. (3) Ciliated epithelium. (4) Columnar epithelium. 67. Select the false statement with respect to epithelial tissue. (1) It has a free surface (2) It faces body fluids sometimes (3) It faces the external environment sometimes (4) It sometimes forms middle structure part of organs 68. The correct statements with respect to epithelial tissue are (a) Cells are compactly packed. (b) Cells have no intercellular matrix. (c) Cells have little intercellular material. (d) It is single or multilayered. (1) (a) and (d) (2) (b) and (c) (3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) All of these Connective Tissues 69. Cartilage is present at (I) Tip of nose (II) Between adjacent bones and vertebral column (III) Outer ear joints (1) (I) and (II) (2) (II) and (III) (3) (I) and (III) (4) (I), (II) and (III) 70. Tissues shown in the given figure are present in Page 3 of 20  (1) Ligament and tendon, respectively (2) Tendon and ligament, respectively (3) Bone and ligament, respectively (4) Tendon and skin, respectively 71. __________ has hard and non-pliable ground substance rich in calcium salt and collagen fibres. (1) White fibrous tissue (2) Bone (3) Cartilage (4) Yellow fibrous tissue 72. Which character suits to tissue shown in figure? (1) Provides insulation (2) Stores proteins (3) Provides strength (4) Provides elasticity 73. Person having A-antigen and B-antigen on surface of RBC cannot donate blood to (1) B – ve (2) A + ve (3) O – ve (4) All of these. 74. Plasma contributes (1) 90 – 92 % of blood (2) 55 of blood (3) 6 - 8% of blood. (4) 2-3% of blood. 75. Which labelled structure secretes fibres of matrix? (1) (2) (2) (4) (3) (3) (4) (1) 76. Clotting factor released by platelets is (1) Factor II. (2) Factor III. (3) Factor IV (4) Factor XII. 77. Which of the following cells of areolar connective tissue secrete histamine? (1) Macrophage (2) Mast cell (3) Fibroblast (4) Histiocyte 78. Which of the following tissues joins bone to bone? (1) Cartilage (2) White fibrous connective tissue (3) Ligament (4) Areolar 79. Which of the following WBCs may have life long life span? (1) Neutrophils (2) Monocytes (3) Lymphocytes (4) Eosinophils 80. Dense irregular connective tissue is present in (1) Skin (2) Tendon (3) Ligament (4) Both (2) and (3) 81. What is the main difference in human and frog RBCs? (1) Human RBC are non - nucleated (2) Human RBC have nucleus (3) Human RBC are multi - nucleated (4) Haemoglobin is found only in frog RBC 82. In normal healthy female, the number of RBCs/mm3 of blood is (1) 6.5 - 7 million (2) 5.5 - 6.0 million (3) 4.5 - 5.0 million (4) 3.5 - 4.0 million 83. Blood colloidal osmotic pressure is maintained by (1) Albumin (2) Globulin (3) Fibrinogen (4) Thrombin 84. Haversian canal is found in the bones of (1) Mammals (2) Reptiles (3) Aves (4) Pisces 85. Which of the following cells of connective tissue secretes antibodies? (1) Mast cells (2) Reticular cells (3) Adipose cells (4) Plasma cells 86. Which is a sesamoid bone? (1) Patella (2) Femur (3) Ulna (4) Pterygoid 87. White adipose tissue contains (1) Multilocular fat cells (2) Bilocular fat cells (3) Unilocular fat cells (4) Alocular fat cells 88. Hyaline cartilage is found in (1) Santorini of larynx (2) tracheal rings (3) epiglottis (4) Eustachian tubes 89. Femur and humerus are (1) Membranous bone (2) Investing bone (3) Cartilaginous bone (4) Sesamoid bone 90. Epiphysis and diaphysis of bone are Page 4 of 20  (1) End and shaft of a long bone, respectively (2) Shaft and end of a long bone, respectively (3) Head and neck of a long bone, respectively (4) Sponge bones only 91. Haversian canal contains (1) Blood vessels and nerves (2) Blood vessels only (3) Lymphatic only (4) Connective tissue only 92. All the following cells produce collagen except (1) Osteoblast (2) Chondro blast (3) Fibroblast (4) Mast cells 93. Wharton jelly in umbilical cord is (1) Mucoid connective tissue (2) Reticular connective tissue (3) Areolar connective tissue (4) Adipose connective tissue 94. Active mammary glands are (1) Compound tubulo-alveolar (2) Compound tubular (3) Compound alveolar (4) Simple alveolar 95. Cutaneous glands of frog are (1) Tubular (2) Simple alveolar (3) Compound alveolar (4) Compound tubular 96. Protein present in cartilage is (1) Chondrin (2) Oesein (3) Casein (4) Cartilagin 97. Major constituent of bone is (1) Calcium phosphate (2) Magnesium phosphate (3) Calcium carbonate (4) Sodium chloride 98. Intervertebral disc is made up of (1) Elastic cartilage (2) Fibrous cartilage (3) Calcified cartilage (4) Hyaline cartilage 99. Inorganic phosphate found in the bones are called (1) Hydroxy apatite (2) Ossein (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these 100. Which of the following cells are phagocytic in nature? (1) Mast cells (2) Fibroblasts (3) Macrophages (4) Pigment cells 101. Haversian system consists of (1) Haversian canal and lamellae (2) Haversian canal and osteocyte (3) Haversian canal and lamellae and osteocyte (4) Haversian canal and lamellae and osteoblast 102. Areolar tissue connects (1) Two bones (2) Muscle and the bone (3) Muscle and fat tissue (4) Muscles and their components 103. Bone dissolving cells are (1) Osteocyte (2) Osteoclast (3) Osteoblast (4) Fibroblast 104. Pigment connective tissue is found in (1) Iris (2) Choroid (3) Frogs dermis (4) All of these 105. Glass like cartilage is (1) Hyaline cartilage (2) Fibro cartilage(3) Calcified cartilage (4) elastic cartilage 106. Muscles are connected to bone by means of (1) Cartilage (2) Ligaments (3) Tendon (4) Adipose tissue 107. Strongest cartilage is (1) White fibrous cartilage (2) Elastic cartilage (3) Hyaline cartilage (4) None of these 108. Supportive connective tissue means (1) Tendon (2) Cartilage and bone (3) Ligaments (4) Blood and lymph 109. Maximum concentration of Hb normally found in RBC is (1) 3 % (2) 10 % (3) 36 % (4) 46 % 110. Critical count of platelet is (1) 40,000/mm3 (2) 1 lac/mm3 (3) 2 lac/mm3 (4) 4 lac/mm3 111. Which of the following is called macropolice man of blood? (1) Neutrophil (2) Basophil (3) Monocyte (4) Lymphocyte 112. In comparison to WBC, RBC has (1) Antigen (agglutinogen) surface of RBC (2) Carbonic anhydrase (3) Donnan's membrane (4) All of these 113. Smallest blood cells are (1) RBCs (2) WBCs (3) Platelets (4) None of these 114. A drop of each of the following is placed separately on four slides. Which of them will not coagulate? (1) Whole blood from pulmonary vein (2) Blood plasma (3) Blood serum (4) Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic system 115. The most popularly known blood grouping is the ABO grouping. It is named ABO and not ABC, because O in it refers to having (1) No antigens on RBCs (2) Other antigens besides A and B on RBCs (3) Overdominance of this type on the genes for A and B types (4) One antibody only - either anti-A or anti-B on the RBCs 116. The letter T in T lymphocyte refers to (1) Thymus (2) Thyroid (3) Thalamus (4) Tonsil 117. The most active phagocytic white blood cells are (1) Eosinophils and lymphocytes (2) Neutrophils and monocytes (3) Neutrophils and eosinophils (4) Lymphocytes and macrophages 118. Martix or ground substance in connective tissues is made up of ________. (1) Thick proteins (2) Elastin fibres (3) Modified polysaccharides (4) Modified triglycerides 119. Where is the excess unused nutrition stored in our body? (1) Aerolar tissue (2) Adipose tissue (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Blood 120. Which portion of cartilage provides it with solidity, pliability and resistance to compression? (1) Collagen fibres (2) Calcium salts (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these 121. Which of the following is not true? (1) Limb bones are long bones (2) The function of long bones is weight bearing and brining out movement (3) Bone marrows in all such long bones are site of blood cells production (4) All of these 122. What is the main function of blood? (1) Protection of body (2) Transport of various substances Page 5 of 20  (3) pH buffering (4) Maintaining osmolarity balance 123. Which of the following statements is correct about the loose connective tissues? (I) Aerolar tissue and adipose tissue are the examples of loose connective tissue (II) Loose connective tissue has cells and fibres loosely arranged in a semifluid ground substance (III) Areolar connective tissue connects skin with muscles (IV) Often aerolar connective tissue serves as a support frame work for epithelium (1) All of these (2) Only(II) (3) Only (III) (4) Only (I), (II) and (IV) 124. Tendons and ligaments are the examples of (1) Bone (2) Cartilage (3) Dense regular connective tissue (4) Dense irregular connective tissue 125. Which of the following are the three basic components of all type of connective tissue except blood? (1) Cells, fibres and ground substances (2) Fibroblast, reticular fibres and collagen (3) Mast cells, lymphocytes and adipocyte (4) Arteries, veins and capillaries 126. Collagen fibres are secreted by (1) Fibroblast (2) Mast cells (3) Histocyte (4) Macrophages 127. The intercellular material of cartilage is (1) Hollow, pliable and resists compression (2) Solid, not pliable and resists compression (3) Solid, pliable and resists compression (4) Solid, pliable and does not resist compression 128. Which of the following statements is correct? (1) Most of the cartilage is not replaced by bones in adult (2) Cartilage is present in nose-tip, intervertebral disc, limbs and hands in adult, outer ear joints (3) Cartilage has no rich blood supply but bone has (4) Both (2) and (3) 129. A lacuna of bone contains _________ osteocyte (s) (1) One (2) Two (3) Many (4) 2 pairs 130. Bones have a ______________ and ___________ groundsubstance, rich in ________salts and ___________ fibres. (1) Soft; pliable; Ca; collagen (2) Hard; pliable; Ca; collagen (3) Hard; non-pliable; Ca; collagen (4) Hard; pliable; Fe; collagen 131. The chondrocytes of connective tissue are (1) Fibre secreting cells (2) Bone forming cells (3) Cartilage cells (4) Bone eating cells 132. Consider the following three statements and mark the right options. (I) The plasma without clotting factor is called semen (II) Thymus is called the graveyard of RBCs (III) Thrombocytes are the cell fragments produced from megakaryocytes (1) Only (I) is correct (2) Both (I) and (III) are correct (3) Both (II) and (III) are correct (4) Only (III) is correct 133. RBCs in human are (1) Biconcave and nucleated (2) Biconvex and nucleated (3) Biconcave and enucleated (4) Biconvex and enucleated 134. The most and the least abundant leucocytes are respectively (1) Neutrophils and basophils (2) Lymphocytes and monocytes (3) Lymphocytes and basophils (4) Neutrophily-and monocytes 135. Read the following statements and mark the right option. (I) A healthy person has 12 to 16 g of haemoglobin per 100 mL of blood (II) The number of platelets in a normal individual is 1.5 lac to 3.5 lac per mm3 of blood (III) Eosinophils are involved in allergic reactions (1) Only (II) is correct (2) Only (II) and (III) are correct (3) Only (I) and (3) are correct (4) All (I), (II) and (III) are correct 136. The bone of a mammal contains Haversian canals which are interconnected by transverse canals known as (1) Trabeculae (2) Bidders canals (3) Canaliculi (4) Volksman canals 137. Which one of the following salts predominates in bone matrix? (1) Sodium chloride (2) Magnesium phosphate (3) Calcium phosphate (4) Sodium carbonate 138. Which of the following is a characteristic of mammalian bone? (1) Collagen (2) Bloodvessels (3) Lymphatic vessels (4) Haversian canals 139. Blood consists of (1) Plasma and WBCs (2) RBCs, WBCs and platelets (3) Plasma and bone marrow (4) Plasma, RBCs, WBCs and platelets 140. Supportive connective tissue means (1) Tendon and ligament (2) Blood and lymph (3) Adipose and areolar tissue (4) Bone and cartilage 141. Hardest tissue of the body is (1) Cartilage (2) Fibrous connective tissue (3) Bone (4) Areolar tissue 142. The cells of connective tissue which produce histamine are (1) Fibroblasts (2) Macrophages (3) Mast cells (4) Plasma cells 143. Blubber of whale is an example of (1) Areolar tissue (2) Adipose tissue(3) Tendon (4) Muscular tissue 144. Haversian canals are found in (1) Matrix of mammalian bone (2) Matrix of amphibian bone (3) Matrix of reptilian bone (4) All of these 145. Select the incorrect statement with respect to the structure of a bone. (1) The matrix of bone is present in the form of layers called lamellae (2) Lamellae consist of fluid filled spaces called lacunae (3) Lacunae contain bone cells called chondrocytes (4) The matrix is hard because of the presence of salts such as calcium phosphate 146. Which of the following cells in areolar tissue are phagocytic? (1) Histocytes (2) Fibroblasts (3) Macrophages (4) Both (1) and (3) 147. During an injury nasal septum gets damaged. Which cartilage is involved? (1) Elastic cartilage (2) Hyaline cartilage (3) Calcified cartilage (4) Fibrous cartilage 148. Which of the following cells can release heparin and histamine in the blood? (1) Mast cells (2) Eosinophils Page 6 of 20  (3) Mast cells and basophils (4) Eosinophils and mast cells 149. Which of the following is a transparent tissue? (1) Hyaline cartilage (2) Fibrous cartilage (3) Tendon (4) All of these 150. Blood devoid of corpuscles and protein fibrin is (1) Lymph (2) Plasma (3) Serum (4) Clot 151. Anaemia is caused due to the deficiency of (1) Vitamin B12 (2) Haemoglobin (3) Folic acid (4) All of these 152. Hyaline cartilage is found in (1) Joint surfaces (2) Epidermis of skin (3) Viterous humour of eye (4) Tympanic membrane of ear. 153. Volkmann's canal interconnect (1) Bone marrow (2) 3rd and 4th vertices of brain (3) Central candls and 4th ventricle (4) Haversian canals 154. Formation of cartilaginous bone involves (1) Deposition of bony matter by osteoblast and reabsorption by chondrioclasts (2) Deposition of bony matter osteoblast only (3) Deposition of bony matter by osteoclasts and reabsorption by chondrioblasts (4) None of these 155. A mixture of tough, white fibrous tissue and flexible cartilaginous tissue is found in (1) White fibrous cartilage (2) Elastic cartilage (3) Hyaline cartilage (4) None of these 156. Epiglottis is composed of (1) Hyaline cartilage (2) Calcified cartilage (3) Both (4) Elastic cartilage 157. Eustachian tube is supported by (1) Elastic cartilage (2) White fibrous cartilage (3) Calcified cartilage (4) Hyaline cartilage 158. Decalcified bone is (1) Bone with organic matter (2) Bone with inorganic matter (3) Bone without living cells (4) Bone without peristomium 159. Perichondrium is (1) Adipose tissue (2) White fibrous connective tissue (3) Yellow elastic tissue (4) Areolar connective tissue 160. Vitreous humour is (1) Reticular (2) Areolar (3) Adipose (4) Mucoid connective tissue 161. Brown adipose cells contain (1) Only one fat globule (2) More than one fat globules (3) Without fat globules (4) Central nucleus with peripheral fat globules 162. Scavanger cells of alveoli are called (1) Melanophage (2) Monocytes/macrophage (3) Dust cell (4) Antigen presenting cells 163. Yellow, white and reticular fibres made up of protein (1) Elastin, reticulin and collagen, respectively (2) Reticulin, elastin and collagen, respectively (3) Collagen, elastin and reticulin protein, respectively (4) Elastin, collagen and reticulin protein, respectively 164. The normal albumin/globulin ratio in blood is (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 5 165. Haematocrit is ratio of volume of RBCs to (1) Volume of plasma (2) Volume of serum (3) Volume of WBCs (4) Total volume of blood 166. In DLC, ___________ neutrophils are found. (1) 0 – 2 % (2) 2 – 8 % (3) 25 % (4) 65 % 167. ABO blood grouping is based on (1) Surface antibodies on RBC (2) Surface antigen on WBC (3) Surface antigen on RBC (4) Plasma antigens 168. Which of the following is a small colourless disc-shaped cell fragment without a nucleus, found in large numbers in blood? (1) RBCs (2) WBCs (3) Platelets (4) None of these 169. Diapedesis means (1) Formation of WBCs (2) Formation of RBCs (3) Process by lymphocyte squeeze through thin capillary wall (4) Movement of food in gut 170. Serum contains (1) Blood without blood cells (2) Plasma without fibrinogen (3) Blood without plasma (4) Blood without RBCs 171. Blood is different from real connective tissue. (1) Plasma of blood is not entirely secreted by blood cells (2) Blood corpuscles are not formed in blood (3) Fibres are absent in blood (4) All of these 172. Spleen and thymus are haemopoietic for (in adult) (1) RBCs (2) WBCs (3) Platelets (4) All of these 173. First site of haemopoesis in life is (1) Bone narrow (2) Spleen (3) Liver (4) Yolk sac 174. Ligaments are made up of (1) Only white fibres (2) Yellow fibre? and white fibres (3) Yellow fibres and muscle fibres (4) White fibres and muscle fibres 175. Which type of cell is known as cart wheel cell? (1) Mast cell (2) Plasma cell (3) Reticular cell (4) Adipose cell 176. Macrophages of spleen are (1) Microglial cell (2) Dust cell (3) Reticular cell (4) Monocyte cell 177. Yellow fibres are present as (1) Arranged bundles (2) Singly and branched (3) Singly and unbranched (4) Unbranched and arrange in bundles 178. Strongest ligament of human body is (1) Ligamentum fiava (2) Ilofemoral ligament (3) Ligamentum nuchae (4) Ligamentum arteriosis 179. Which WBC has maximum lifespan? (1) Basophil (2) Monocyte (3) Acidophil (4) Neutrophil 180. 100 mL pure blood carries Page 7 of 20  (1) 1.34 mL (2) 20 mL (3) 15 mL (4) 4 mL 181. Which WBC increases during allergy? (1) Acidophil (2) Basophil (3) Lymphocyte (4) Neutrophil 182. Thromboplastin is secreted by (1) Kidney (2) Platelets (3) Leucocyte (4) Erythrocyte 183. T lymphocytes are differentiated in (1) Bone marrow (2) Liver (3) Thymus gland (4) Kidney 184. Agglutinin is present in (1) RBC (2) WBC (3) Serum (4) Spleen Muscle Tissues 185. Muscles that help in transportation of food through digestive tract and gametes through the genital tract are (1) Smooth muscles (2) Striatedjnuscles (3) Voluntary muscles (4) Cardiac muscles 186. Mark incorrect statement for cardiac muscles. (1) Based on appearance, cardiac muscles are striated (2) Cell junctions fuse the plasma membranes of cardiac muscle cells and make them stick together (3) Communication junctions are present (4) They do not contract as a single unit 187. Mark the correct statement. (1) About 40-50% of body weight of a human adult is contributed by muscles (2) Cardiac muscles structurally resembles to smooth muscles and functionally to striated muscle (3) Smooth muscles are found in neck, back and thigh parts (4) Both (2) and (3) 188. If a fibre contracts faster, it must have (1) High content of myoglobin (2) Large number of mitochondria (3) High amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum (4) Low number of sarcoplasmic reticulum 189. Given below are some characteristics of muscle tissue. (A) Cylindrical, elongated (B) Multinucleated (C) Show striations Identify the muscle tissue and choose the correct option with respect to location of these types of muscle tissue. (1) Neck and back (2) Myocardium of heart wall (3) Wall of blood vessels (4) Stomach 190. Striped muscle fibre has (1) No nucleus (2) One nucleus (3) Two nuclei (4) Many nuclei. 191. Smooth muscle is found in all sites except (1) Bloodvessels (2) Fallopian tube (3) Eyeball muscle (4) gastrointestinal tract. 192. The long cylindrical fibres that form a muscle is made up of __________. (1) Tinofibriles (2) Collagen fibres (3) Fibroblasts (4) myofibrils 193. Muscular movement is intended to __________________. (1) Move the body to adjust to changes in environment (2) Maintain position of various body parts (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these 194. Which of the following is a fusiform muscle? (1) Cardiac muscle (2) Smooth muscle (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Skeletal muscle 195. Fusion of what sticks the cardiac muscles together? (1) Cell junctions (2) Plasma membranes (3) Intercalated disc (4) All of these 196. Which of the following is not true for intercalated discs? (1) Found only in heart (2) All the fusion points form intercalated disc (3) One stimulus is enough for multiple muscle (4) None of these 197. Each muscle is composed of many long, cylindrical fibres arranged in parallel arrays. These fibres are composed of numerous fine fibrils, called (1) Microfilament (2) Myofibrils (3) Microtubule (4) Sarcoplasm 198. Which of the following statements is false about the muscles? (1) Wall of blood vessels, stomach and intestine contain striated muscles (2) The smooth muscle fibres are fusiform (3) Cell junctions hold smooth muscle fibres together and they are bundled together in a connective tissue sheath (4) Both (1) and (2) 199. Which of the following statements is correct about the cardiac muscles? (A) It is present in heart only (B) The plasma membranes of adjacent cardiac cells interlock at intercalated disc (C) The intercalated disc contains desmosome (adhering and gap junction) (D) Gap junctions allow the cardiac cells to contrast as a unit (1) All of these (2) None of these (3) (B) and (D) (4) (A) and (B) 200. The fibres of the following muscles are fusiform and do not show striations: (1) Skeletal muscles (2) Cardiac muscles (3) Both of these (4) Smooth muscles 201. Muscles of intestine and blood vessels are (1) Involuntary and smooth (2) Voluntary and smooth (3) Involunatry and striated (4) Voluntary and striated. 202. The type of muscles present in our (1) Heart has involuntary and unstriated smooth muscle fibres (2) Intestine has striated and involuntary smooth muscle fibres (3) Thighs have striated and voluntary smooth muscle fibres (4) Upper arm has smooth muscle fibres that are fusiform in shape 203. Intercalated disc and cross connections are the characteristic features of (1) Cardiac muscles (2) Skeletal muscles (3) Smooth muscles (4) Voluntary muscle 204. Which of the following are the characteristics of striated muscles? (1) Cylindrical, striped and branched (2) Cylindrical, striped and uninucleate (3) Spindle, unbranched and uninucleate (4) Cylindrical, syncytial unbranched Page 8 of 20 205. Cardiac muscle contracts (1) Slowly and gets fatigued (2) Quickly and does not get fatigued (3) Slowly and does not get fatigued (4) Quickly and gets fatigued. 206. Which of the following muscles act involuntarily? (1) Striated muscles (2) Smooth muscles (3) Cardiac muscles (4) Skeletal muscles 207. Gap junctions are characteristically found in (1) Skeletal muscles (2) Cardiac muscles (3) Multi-unit smooth muscles (4) Striated muscles 208. Sprain is caused due to stretching of (1) Tendon (2) Ligament (3) Muscle (4) Nerve 209. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of biceps muscle? (1) We are usually able to make it contract merely by thinking about it (2) It has alternate light and dark bands (3) Its muscle fibre taper at both ends (4) Its muscle fibres are bundled together in a parallel fashion 210. Which of the following is correct pairing of a body part and the kind of muscle tissue that moves it? (1) Iris - Involuntarysmooth muscle (2) Heart wall - Involuntary unstriated muscle (3) Biceps of upper arm - Smooth muscle fibres (4) Abdominal wall - Smooth muscle 211. Erector pili muscles are (1) Voluntary and smooth (2) Voluntary and striped (3) Involuntary and striped (4) Involuntary and smooth Neural Tissues 212. ______________ makes up more than one half the volume of neural tissue in our body. (1) Neuron (2) Nerve fibre (3) Neuroglia (4) Nerve 213. Which of the following form blood brain barrier? (1) Astrocytes (2) Oligodendrocytes (3) Microglial cell (4) Neuron 214. Nissil's granules are made up of (1) DNA and proteins (2) Ribosomes and RNA (3) Ribosomes and DNA (4) RNA, DNA and proteins 215. Which of the following forms insulating layer around axon in PNS? (1) Schwann cells (2) Microglia cells (3) Astrocytes (4) Oligodendrocyte 216. Tissue with least regeneration power is (1) Epithelial tissue (2) Nervous tissue (3) Connective tissue (4) Muscular tissue 217. Schwann cells are present in which part of a neuron? (1) Axon (2) Soma/Body (3) Dendrites (4) Axon hillock 218. The myelin sheath is produced by ___________ and nodes of Ranvier are found in ____________. (1) Paneth cells; cardiac muscle (2) Oxyntic cells; non-medullated nerve fibre (3) Schwann cell; medullated nerve fibre (4) Chief cells; striated muscle fibre 219. The electrical disturbance generated in neurons travels through ______________. (1) Neuroglia (2) Cytoplasm (3) Plasma membrane (4) All of these 220. Nervous tissue is made up of neurons and neuroglial cells. Point out which of the following statements about these two cells is false. (A) Neuroglia make up more than one-half the volume of neural tissue in our body (B) Neuroglia protect and support neurons (C) When a neuron is suitably stimulated, an electrical disturbance is generated which swiftly travels along its cytosol (D) This disturbance at the neuron endings triggers stimulation or inhibition of adjacent neurons or other cells (1) (A) and (D) (2) (B) and (C) (3) Only (B) (4) Only (D) 221. Neuroglia are (1) Excitable cells of neural tissue (2) Supporting and non-excitable cells of neural tissue (3) Two to three times in volume of neural tissue (4) Protective and excitable cells of neural tissue 222. Nissl's granules are present in which part of a neuron? (1) Cyton (2) Synaptic knobs (3) Axon (4) Nerve endings 223. The functional junction between the axon of one neuron and the dendrite of the next is called (1) Desmosome (2) Synapse (3) Oblique bridge (4) Tight junction 224. Neuroglia (1) Protect neurons (2) Support neurons (3) Make up more than one-half the volume of neural tissue (4) All of these 225. Unipolar neurons with an axon and no dendrite are present in (1) Embryos (2) Dorsal root ganglia of spinal cord (3) Brain (4) Retina 226. Which of the following cells in our nervous system are not neurons? (1) Oxyntic cells (2) Histocytes (3) Adipocytes (4) Neuroglia cells 227. Select the correct statement for node of Ranvier (1) Covered by myelin sheath (2) Neurilemma is discontinuous (3) Myelin sheath is discontinuous (4) Both myelin sheath and neurilemma are continuous Miscellaneous in Tissues 228. Mark the correct statement. (1) Cartilage, bones and blood are various types of specialised connective tissue (2) Blood is type of dense connective tissue (3) Gap junctions do not allow exchange between cells (4) Muscular tissue is endodermal in origin Page 9 of 20 229. All the statements about kinocilia are correct except (1) They are non-motile (2) These are found in fallopian tube (3) It has 9+2 ultrastructure (4) The basal granule is present 230. Mammary gland is a type of (1) Apocrine (2) Holocrine (3) Merocrine (4) Endocrine 231. What is discernible trend? (1) Complexity of organ system (2) Evolutionary trend (3) Inheritance trend (4) All of these Earthworm 232. Lateral hearts in Pheretima are present in segment numbers (1) 6 and 7 (2) 7 and 9 (3) 12 and 13 (4) 9 and 11 233. Largest nephridia in earthworm are (1) Integumentary (2) Septal (3) Pharyngeal (4) None of these 234. Fertilisation in earthworm takes place in (1) Clitellum (2) Ground (3) Cocoon (4) Gonoduct 235. The colour of body of earthworm is brown due to (1) Porphyrin (2) Haemoglobin (3) Blood (4) Haemocyanin 236. Body of Pheretima is divided into how many metameres/somites? (1) 60-120 (2) 80-120 (3) 100-120 (4) 120 or more 237. Which is correctly matched regarding earthworm? (1) Buccal cavity - 1st to 5th segment (2) Stomach -11th to 12th segment (3) Typhlosole- 26th to 95th segment (4) Testes - 10th to 14th segment 238. Female genital pore of Pheretima is on (1) 14th segment (2) 16th segment (3) 18th segment (4) 15th segment 239. In earthworm dorsal wall of intestine from 26th segment forms median fold called (1) Setae (2) Typhosole (3) Clitellum (4) Trachea 240. Which of the following is correctly matched with respect to Pheretima? (1) Clitellum - Secretes cocoon (2) Gizzard - Absorbs digested food (3) Setae - Defence against predators (4) Typhlosole - Storage of extra nutrients 241. The process of increasing soil fertility by earthworm is called (1) Worm casting (2) Vermicomposting (3) Compost bedding (4) None of these 242. If a live earthworm is pricked with a needle on its outer surface without damaging its gut which of the following fluid comes out? (1) Slimy mucus (2) Haemolymph (3) Excretory fluid (4) Coelomic fluid 243. Which organ neutralises humic acid in earthworm? (1) Typhlosole (2) Calciferous glands (3) Intestinal caecum (4) Gizzard 244. Spermatheca of earthworm takes part in (1) Fertilisation (2) Sperm maturation (3) Collection of sperms from other animals (4) Collection of sperms of same animal 245. With respect to earthworm, match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option. Column - I Column - II A) Male genital (i) Between 12/13 apertures and last segment B) Dorsal pores (ii) From 3rd to last segment C) Spermathecal pores (iii) 18th segment D) Nephridiopores (iv) From 5/6 to 8/9 segment (1) (A) - (ii); (B) - (iii); (C) - (i); (D) - (iv) (2) (A) - (ii); (B) - (i); (C) - (iii); (D) - (iv) (3) (A) - (iii); (B) - (i); (C) - (iv); (D) - (ii) (4) (A) - (iii); (B) - (iv); (C) - (ii); (D) - (i) 246. Earthworm can be traced by faecal deposits. What are they called? (1) Worm deposits (2) Worm castings (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these 247. Which of the following types are of Indian earthworms? (1) Pheretima (2) Lumbricus (3) Lumbricoidus (4) Both (1) and (2) 248. Total number of segments (metameres) without setae in mature earthworm is (1) Two (2) Three (3) Five (4) Six 249. Earthworm does not have (1) A distinct head (2) Excretory organ (3) Alimentary.canal (4) Reproductive organ 250. The prostomimum in earthworm (1) Is sensory in function (2) Is a fleshy lobe fold overhanging the mouth (3) Serves to open cracks in the soil during crawling (4) All of these 251. The clitellum (glandular tissue band) is present in which of the following segments? (1) 11, 12 and 13 (2) 14,15 and 16 (3) 13,14 and 15 (4) 16,17 and 18 252. Due to presence of clitellum, the body is divisible into ____________ parts. (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 253. The male genital pores in earthworm are present on ventrolateral side of segment (1) 18th (2) 14th (3) 12th (4) 10th 254. In earthworm genital papillae occur in which of the following segments? (1) 16th and 17th (2) 16th and 18th (3) 17th and 18th (4) 17th and 19th 255. Setae in earthworm (1) Are S-shaped and can be extended and retracted. (2) Have principal role in locomotion. (3) Are embedded in the epidermal pits in the middle of segments. (4) All of these 256. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option. Column - I Column - II (Parts of alimentary canal of earthworms) (Respective segments) A) Buccal cavity (i) 1-3 B) Pharynx (ii) 3-4 C) Oesosphagus (iii) 5-7 1 D) Gizzard (iv) 8 E) Stomach (v) 9-14 F) Intestine (vi) 15 to last Page 10 of 20  G) Typhlosole (vii) 26-35 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (F) (G) (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) (2) (i) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv) (vi) (vii) (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vii) (vi) (4) (i) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv) (vii) (vii) 257. The role of typhlosole in earthworm is to (1) Emulsify fat (2) Control blood flow (3) Increase absorptive area (4) Release digestive juice 258. Gizzard in earthworm serves for (1) Excretion (2) Crushing food (3) Secreting slime (4) Food absorption 259. Blood vascular system in earthworm is of (1) Open type (2) Closed type (3) Portal type (4) None of these 260. Earthworm has (1) No heart (2) 4 pairs of hearts (3) Lateral hearts (4) Both (2) and (3) 261. Hearts in earthworm occur in segments (1) 6,7 and 9,10 (2) 9, 10 and 14, 15 (3) 7, 9 and 12,13 (4) None of these 262. Which of the following is correct about the blood vascular system of earthworm? (1) Blood vascular system is different in first 13 segments with regards to number, arrangement and nature of blood vessel (2) Small blood vessels supply the gut, nerve cord, and the body wall (3) Respiratory exchange occurs through moist body surface into blood stream (4) All of these 263. Excretory organs to earthworm are (1) Nephridia (2) Gizzard (3) Green gland (4) Solenocytes 264. Which of the following is/are correct about excretion in earthworm? (A) Earthworm is mainly ureotelic (B) Septal nephridia, present on both sides of intersegmental septa of segment 15 to the last, open into intestine (C) Integumentary nephridia, attached to lining of body wall of segment 3 to the last, open on the body surface (D) Different types of nephridia are basically similar in structure. (E) Nephridia regulate the volume and composition of body fluids. (1) All of these (2) (4) (3) (3) (4) None of these 265. Which of the following segments are called forest of nephridia? (1) Clitellar segments (2) Preclitellar segments (3) Postclitellar segments (4) None of these 266. Nerve cord of Pheretima is (1) Paried, solid and ventral (2) Paired, solid and dorsal. (3) Single, solid and dorsal (4) Single, hollow and dorsal 267. Which of the following is/are false about the nervous system of earthworm? (I) Nervous system is basically represented by ganglia arranged on ventral nerve cord. (II) In 3rd and 4th segments, the nerve cord bifurcates and joins the cerebral ganglia dorsally to form a nerve ring. (III) In earthworm neurons are sensory, motor and adjuster. (IV) The cerebral ganglia along with other nerves in the ring integrate sensory input as well as command muscular responses of the body. (1) All of these (2) Only (IV) (3) Only (III) (4) None of these 268. Earthworm has no special sense organs, still they are sensitive to (1) Light and sound (2) Touch and sound (3) Touch, taste and light (4) touch, taste, light and vibrating. 269. In earthworm, two pairs of testes are located in segments (1) 10 and 11 (2) 12 and 13 (3) 12 and 13 (4) 17 and 18 270. In earthworm, the prostatic secretion is helpful for (1) Formation of eggs (2) Activation of sperms. (3) Formation of sperms (4) Formation of spermatophore 271. Function of spermathecae in earthworm is to (1) Receive spermatogonia for maturation (2) Secrete substances that form the cocoons (3) Receive sperms during copulation for storage (4) Receive fertilised ova for embryonic development 272. In earthworm, the common prostate and spermatic duct/vasa deferentia open to the _______________ by a pair of _____________ genital pore on the ventrolateral side of the ___________ segment. (1) Exterior; male; 16th (2) Exterior female; 16th (3) Exterior; male; 18th (4) Exterior; female; 18th 273. The two oviducts unite and open ventrally on ______________ segment by a female genital pore (1) 13th (2) 14th (3) 15th (4) 16th 274. In a copulating pair of earthworms, which of the two processes take place? (1) Internal fertilisation and cross fertilisation (2) Cross fertilisation and reciprocal fertilisation (3) External fertilisation and internal fertilisation (4) Reciprocal fertilisation and internal fertilisation 275. In earthworm, mature sperms and egg cells and nutrition fluid are deposited in ____________ produced by the gland cells of _________________. Fertilisation and development occur within _____________ which are deposited in soil. After fertilisation, __________ slip off the worm. After 3 weeks, each cocoon produces 2- 20 (average 4) baby worm. (1) Clitellum; cocoon; clitellum; cocoons (2) Cocoons; clitellum; cocoon; clitellum (3) Clitellum; cocoons; clitellum; clitellum (4) Cocoons; clitellum; cocoons; cocoons 276. Which one of the following is known as a friends of farmers? (1) Rana (2) Cockroach (3) Pheretima (4) Rat Page 11 of 20 277. Vermicompost is (1) Nutrient rich material coming out of earthworm's body (2) Earth worm's castings mixed with soil (3) Castings along (4) Dead earthworms mixed with soil 278. All the following statements are correct about the' reproductive system of earthworm, except one. Identify the wrong statement. (1) There are two pairs of testes one pair in the 10th and one pair in 11 th segment (2) One pair of ovaries attached at the intersemental septum of the 12 th and 13th segments (3) Two pairs of accessory glands one pair each in 18th and 19th segments (4) Four pairs of spermatheca are located in 6th-9,h segments, one pair in each segments 279. Given below are four statements (I)-(IV), select the option in which mentioned two statements are correct? (I) In earthworms development is indirect and the larva is trochophore larva. (II) A mutual exchange of sperms occurs between two worms during mating. (III) Fertilisation is internal occurs within the cocoon deposited in soil. (IV) About 3 weeks are required for development, each cocoon produces two to twenty baby worms with an average of four. (1) (I)and(II) (2) (II) and (III) (3) (II) and (IV) (4) (III) and (IV) 280. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the circulatory system of earthworm? (1) It exhibits a closed type of blood vascular system. (2) Blood glands are present in 4th, 5th and 6th segments. (3) Haemoglobin is the respiratory pigment which is dissolved in plasma. (4) Ventral vessel is the largest distributing vessel in which the blood flows from posterior to anterior side. 281. Which of the following is an incorrect match of the part of alimentary canal in earthworm with its location and function? Part of alimentary canal Location Function (1) Stomach 9 – 14 segments Calciferous glands present in stomach neutralize humic acid (2) Typhlosole 26 – 95 segments Increases the effective area of absorption in the intestine (3) Gizzard 8 – 9 segments Helps in grinding soil particles and decaying leaves (4) Intestinal caecae 15 – 26 segments Produce proteolytic enzymes 282. In earthworm spermathecal aperture are situated on ventrolateral sides of intersegmental grooves of (1) 4th to 9th segments (2) 5/6,6/7,7/8,8/9 segments (3) 6th, 7th, 8th and 9th segments (4) Both (1) and (2) 283. Which of the following is mismatched? (1) Clitellum 14th — 16th segments in mature earthworm (2) Female genital Mid-ventral line of 14th segment aperture (3) Pair of male Dorsolateral sides of the genital pore — 18th segment (4) Setae Present in each segment of the body, except the first, last and clitellar segments 284. Conglobate glands are also called (1) Phallic glands (2) Mushroom glands (3) Collateral glands (4) Utricular glands 285. Buccal cavity in earthworm extends from (1) 1st to 3rd segments (2) 1st to 7th segment (3) 3rd to 5th segments (4) 5th to 7th segments 286. In earthworm, the humic acid present in humus part of soil is neutralised in stomach by secretion of (1) Prostate glands. (2) Blood glands (3) Calciferous glands (4) Gizzard 287. In earthworm, CO2 haemoglobin is present in the dissolved state in (1) Lymph (2) Bile (3) Plasma (4) Blood corpuscles 288. In earthworm, blood glands are present in the (1) 4th, 5th and 6th segments (2) 3rd and 4th segments (3) 5th, 6th and 7th segments (4) 7th and 9th segments 289. In earthworm, CO2 diffuses out to surrounding atmosphere through (1) Spiracles (2) Nephridiopores (3) Body surface (4) Setae 290. Spermatophores are (1) Spermathecae (2) Packets of sperms (3) Spermathecal apertures (4) Egg capsule 291. Which of the following statements is not correct about earthworm? (1) It shows metamerism, and the number of segments varies from 100 to 200 (2) The first segment at the anterior end of the body is called as the buccal segment or Peristomium (3) The first segment is Prostomium (4) The skin of earthworm is brown due to the presence of porphyrin 292. Earthworm is (1) Ureotelic (2) Ammoneotelic(3) Uricotelic (4) Both (1) and (2) 293. Tick mark the wrong match (in earthworm). (1) Female genital aperture - Mid-ventral line of 14 th (2) segment (3) A pair of male genital apertures (4) Genital papillae 294. Which of the following are analogous to vertebrate liver cells? (1) Chromophil cells (2) Chloragogen cells (3) Calciferous gland cells (4) Albumen cells 295. Testes in earthworm are present in which of the following segments? (1) 11 and 12 (2) 12 and 13 (3) 14 and 15 (4) 10 and 11 296. During copulation in earthworms, sperms are transferred between copulating individuals from (1) Female genital pore to spermathecae (2) Male genital pores to spermathecae. (3) Spermathecae to cocoon (4) Male genital pores to outside. 297. Lateral oesophageal hearts in earthworm connect (1) Supra-oesophageal and dorsal vessel to ventral vessel. (2) Dorsal vessel to sub-oesophageal vessel. (3) Lateral oesophageal vessel to subneural vessel (4) Dorsal vessel to subneural vessel Page 12 of 20 298. Flow of blood in the ventral vessel of earthworm is (1) Forward (2) Backward (3) Backward in half of it and forward in another half (4) None of these 299. Find out the incorrect match with respect to intestine of earthworm (1) Muscular gizzard – 8th - 9th segments (2) Oesophagus – 9th - 14th segments (3) Intestine - 15th segment onward (4) Typhlosole - 27th - 95th segments 300. Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to reproductive system of earthworm? (1) There are two pairs of testes present in 10th and 11th segments enclosed in Testis seas (2) Accessory glands are present on the ventral side of the 17 th and 19th segments (3) One pair of ovaries is attached at the intersegmental septum of the 13th and 14th segments (4) Four pairs of sac like structures called spermathecae are found one pair each in 6th to 9th segments 301. Flow of blood in lateral heart of earthworm is (1) Upwards (2) Downwards (3) Forwards (4) Backwards 302. Which of the following blood vessels in earthworm is both collecting as well as distributing? (1) Dorsal vessel (2) Ventral vessel (3) Sub neural vessel (4) Lateral oesophageal vessel 303. Mark the incorrect statement with respect to Pheretima. (1) Fertilisation and development takes place in cocoon. (2) Each cocoon produces two to twenty worms with an average of four. (3) There is no larval stage that is, development is direct. (4) Mouth is placed in first segment called prostomium. Cockroach 304. Cockroaches are (1) Omnivorous (2) Carnivorous (3) Herbivorous (4) Parasite 305. The entire body of the cockroach is covered by (1) Skin (2) Shell (3) Hard chitinous exoskeleton (4) Keratin 306. Each segment of the cockroach exoskeleton has hardened plates called (1) Sclerites (2) Carpels (3) Arthrodial membrane (4) Ossicles 307. Which of the following segments constitute the thorax of the cockroach? (1) Prothorax and prothorax (2) Prothorax and mesothorax (3) Mesothorax and metathorax (4) Prothorax, mesothorax and metathorax 308. Hypopharynx of the cockroach acts as (1) Mouth (2) Lips (3) Tongue (4) Jaws 309. In female cockroach, anterior part of the genital pouch contains (1) Gonopore (2) Spermathecal pores (3) Collateral glands (4) All of these. 310. In male cockroach, genital pouch lies at the hind end of the abdomen, bounded dorsally by ___________ and ____________ terga and ventrally by _____________ sternum (1) 6th; 7th; 7th (2) 7th; 8th; 8th (3) 9th; 10th; 9th (4) 10th; 9th; 10th 311. In both the sexes of cockroaches, the 10th segment bears a pair of jointed filamentous structure called (1) Anal style (2) Analcerci (3) Gonapophysis (4) Spermathecal pores 312. _____________ helps in grinding the food particles in cockroach. (1) Crop (2) Intestine (3) Gizzard (4) Pharynx 313. In the digestive system of cockroach hepatic caecae is present at the junction of (1) Midgut and hindgut (2) Hindgut and foregut (3) Foregut and mouth (4) Midgut and foregut 314. The number of spiracles present in cockroaches are (1) 9 pairs (2) 10 pairs (3) 12 pairs (4) 14 pairs 315. Spiracles are present on the ___________ side of the body of cockroach. (1) Lateral (2) Dorsal (3) Ventral (4) Dorsolateral 316. Thin Malpighian tubules in cockroach are present at the junction of (1) Foregut and midgut (2) Midgut and hindgut (3) Foregut and hindgut (4) Midgut and gizzard 317. The compound eyes of cockroaches are situated at the surface of the head. (1) Dorsal (2) Ventral (3) Lateral (4) Dorsolateral 318. The female reproductive system of the cockroach consists of (1) Two large ovaries (2) Three large ovaries (3) One large ovary (4) Four large ovaries 319. In the female reproductive system of cockroach ovaries are located in which of the following abdominal segments? (1) 2nd - 6th (2) 4th - 8th (3) 6th – 8th (4) 1st - 2nd 320. Given below is the figure of open circulatory system of cockroach. Identify (a), (b) and (c) and choose the correct options. (1) (a) - Lateral aorta; (b) - Ciliary muscles; (c)- Chambers of heart (2) (a) - Internal aorta; (b) - Alary muscles; (c) - Chambers of heart (3) (a) - Anterior aorta; (b) - Alary muscles; (c) - Chambers of heart (4) (a)-Posterior aorta; (b)-Fibrous muscles; (c) - Chambers of heart 321. Identify (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) in the given figures related with mouth parts of the cockroach. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Page 13 of 20  (1) (a) - Mandible; (b) - Labium; (c) - Labium; (d) - Maxilla; (e) - Hypopharynx (2) (a) - Labium; (b) - Labrum; (c) - Mandible; (d) - Hypopharynx; (e) - Maxilla (3) (a) - Labrum; (b) - Mandible; (c) - Hypopharynx; (d) - Maxilla; (e) - Labium (4) (a) - Hypopharynx; (b) - Maxilla; (c) - Labium; (d) - Labrum; (e) - Mandible 322. With reference to cockroach match the following Column-I with Column-n and select the correct option. Column - I Column - II A) Anal cerci (i) 4th and 6th segments B) Tegmina (ii) 10th segment C) Testes (iii) Forewings D) Ommatidia (iv) Sclerites E) Exoskeleton (v) Photoreceptor (1) (A) - (ii); (B) - (iii); (C) - (i); (D) - (v); (E) - (iv) (2) (A) - (iv); (B) - (iii); (C) - (ii); (D) - (v); (E) - (i) (3) (A) - (iii); (B) - (iv); (C) - (v); (D) - (ii); (E) - (i) (4) (A) - (v); (B) - (iv); (C) - (iii); (D) - (ii); (E) - (i) 323. Cockroach belongs to the class (1) Hexapoda (2) Chilopoda (3) Insecta (4) Both (1) and (3) 324. Spiracles foupd in cockroach are (1) 2 pairs in throax and 10 pairs in abdomen (2) 2 pairs in throax and 6 pairs in abdomen (3) 2 pairs in throax and 8 pairs in abdomen (4) 2 pairs in throax and 4 pairs in abdomen 325. The process of conversion of a small cockroach into an adult cockroach is called (1) Moulting (2) Metamorphosis (3) Ecdysis (4) Transformation 326. Basic unit in the eye of cockroach/insect is (1) Retina (2) Rhabdome (3) Corneal facets(4) Ommatidium 327. Structure common between earthworm and cockroach is (1) Cocoon (2) Ommatidia (3) Dorsal nerve cord (4) Ventral nerve cord 328. In cockroach, larval and nymphal characters are maintained by (1) Ecdysone (2) Salivary gland (3) Parotid gland (4) Juvenile hormone 329. Family of cockroach is (1) Blattodea (2) Arthropoda (3) Blattidae (4) Insecta 330. Mouth parts of the cockroach are of (1) Piercing and sucking type (2) Sucking and siphoning type (3) Chewing and biting type (4) Sucking and grasping type 331. Male and female cockroaches can be distinguished externally through (1) Anal styles in male (2) Anal cerci in female (3) Anal style and antennae in females (4) Both (1) and (3) 332. Periplaneta shows (1) Complete metamorphosis (2) Incomplete metamorphosis (3) No metamorphosis (4) Gradual metamorphosis 333. Metamorphosis of insects is regulated through hormone (1) Pheromone (2) Thyroxine (3) Ecdysone (4) All of these 334. Size of cockroach ranges from (1)1/4 to 3’’ (2) 1 to 3’’ (3) 2’’ to 3’’ (4) 1/4 to 3/4’’ 335. Which one is correct about cockroach? (1) Generally brown and black colour (2) Pest and vectors of several disease (3) Found in damp places (4) All of these 336. In each segment exoskeleton has hardened plates in cockroach known as (1) Slerites (2) Sternum (3) Carapace (4) All of these 337. Head of cockroach is formed by fusion of how many segments? (1) Four (2) Five (3) Six (4) Eight 338. How many filamentous Malphigian tubules are found in cockroach? (1) 100-150 (2) 50-100 (3) 150-200 (4) 200-250 339. Haeamolymph of cockroach consist of (1) Plasma (2) Haemocyte (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these 340. If the head of cockroach is cut off, it will live for as long as (1) 2 weeks (2) 1 week (3) 3 weeks (4) 4 weeks 341. Mosaic vision means (1) More sensitivity and less resolution (2) More sensitivity and more resolution (3) Less sensitivity and less resolution (4) Less sensitivity and more resolution 342. A pair of testes in cockroach lies in (1) 2-4 abdominal segments (2) 4-6 abdominal segments (3) 4-7 abdominal segments (4) 6-8 abdominal segments. 343. External genitalia in cockroach in represented by (1) Male gonophysis (2) Phallomere (3) Ejaculatory duct (4) Both (1) and (2) 344. Each ovary in cockroach is made up of how many ovarian tubules or ovarioles? (1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 10 345. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option. Column-I Column-II (A) Pair of spermatheca (i) 2nd - 6th segments (abdominal) (B) Ovary (ii) 6th segment (abdominal) (C) Mushroom shaped accessory reproductive gland (iii) 6th — 7th segments (abdominal) (D) Anal cerci (iv) 10th segment (1) (a) - (ii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iii); (d) - (iv) (2) (a) - (iii); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iv); (d) - (i) (3) (a) - (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (i); (d) - (ii) (4) (a) - (i); (b) - (iv); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iii) 346. Which one of the following is incorrect statement about cockroach? (1) They are pest because they destroy food and contaminate it with their smelly excreta (2) All species have economic importance (3) Development in i? americana is paurometabolus type Page 14 of 20  (4) Next to last nymphal stage has wing pads 347. Waxy layer in the body wall of cockroach is secreted by (1) Oenocytes (2) Trophocytes (3) Mycetocytes (4) Urate cells 348. In cockroach, head can move in all directions due to (1) Without any sensory receptors (2) Muscles of neck (3) Sensory receptors that help in monitoring the environment (4) Both (2) and (3). 349. Most primitive type of mouth parts is of (1) Sponging type (2) Biting and sucking type (3) Biting and chewing type (4) Piercing and sucking type 350. In cockroach mouth consists of a Iabrum, a pair of mandibles, a pair of maxillae and a labium. Labrum and labium act as (1) Upper and lower jaws, respectively (2) Lower and upper jaws, respectively (3) Upper jaw and lips, respectively (4) upper and lower lips, respectively 351. In cockroach, the first pair of wings is known as (1) Terga (2) Sterna (3) Tegmina (4) Halters 352. In female cockroach, 7th sternum together with 8th and 9th sterna forms (1) A brood/genital pouch (2) Analcercus (3) Anal style (4) None of these 353. Cockroaches breathe through (1) Nephridia (2) Chloragogen cells (3) Green glands (4) Spiracles 354. Which of the following is correct about cockroach? (1) Sexual dimorphism is distinct (2) The anal styles are present on 9th sternite of male only (3) In both sexes the 10th segment bears a pair of jointed filamentous structures called anal cerci (4) All of these 355. Male cockroach has (1) Dorsal anus, ventral genital pore and gonapophysis (2) Ventral anus, dorsal genital pore and gonapophysis (3) Dorsal anus, ventral genital pore but no gonapophysis (4) Dorsal anus, ventral genital pore, gonapophysis but no anal styles 356. A ring of 6-8 blind tubules called hepatic/gastric cae- cae are present at (1) Foregut (2) Hindgut (3) Midgut (4) Junction of foregut and midgut 357. Which of the following is correct about the alimentary canal of cockroach? (1) The entire fore gut is lined by cuticle (2) Hindgut is broader than midgut (3) Hindgut is differentiated into ileum, colon and rectum (4) All of these 358. Which of the following is a character of cockroach? (1) Reduced wing (2) Cocoon formation (3) 13-chambered heart (4) Absence of salivary gland 359. Which of the following is false about the heart of cockroach? (1) It is differentiated into funnel shaped chambers with ostia on either sides (2) It is myogenic (3) Blood from sinuses enter the heart through ostia and is pumped anteriorly to sinuses again (4) Alary muscles are related to heart 360. Spiracles of cockroach are (1) Holopneustic (2) Heteropneustic (3) Apneustic (4) Dipneustic 361. The blood of cockroach contains no respiratory pigment. It means that (1) Respiration is anaerobic (2) Cockroach has no respiration (3) Oxygen goes into tissues with H20 from outside (4) Oxygen goes directly into tissues through tracheal system. 362. Which of the following is false regarding the respiratory system of cockroach? (1) Opening of spiracles is regulated by sphincters (2) Exchange of gases takes place at the tracheoles by diffusion (3) Oxygen can-ying respiratory pigment is haemoerythrin (4) Trachea has non-collapsible wall 363. The excretory organs in cockroach are (1) Green glands (2) Hepatic caecae (3) Malpighian tubules (4) Malpighian corpuscles 364. Cockroach is (1) Uricotelic (2) Ureotelic (3) Ammonotelic (4) Guanotelic 365. Common feature of earthworm and cockroach is (1) Hermaphrodism (2) Ventral nerve cord (3) Moulting of cuticle (4) Excretion by nephridia 366. The nervous system in cockroach (1) Is spread throughout the body (2) Isrepresented by segmentally arranged ganglia and ventral nerve cord (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Consists of supra-oesopharyngeal ganglia in head and dorsal nerve cord 367. If the head of cockroach is cut off, it will still live for as long as one week. It is because (1) Body is covered with a hard chitinous exoskeleton (2) Head holds a bit of nervous system (3) Head is of no use (4) Food capturing apparatus is found elsewhere 368. Which of the following is correct of mosaic vision in cockroach? (1) With the help of several ommatidia, a cockroach receives several images of an object (2) It is with more sensitivity but has less resolution (3) Being common during night, it is called nocturnal vision also (4) All of these 369. Cockroach are (1) Dioecious and without sexual dimorphism (2) Monoecious and without sexual dimorphism (3) Monoecious with sexual dimorphism (4) Dioecious with sexual dimorphism 370. In male cockroach, mushroom gland, acting as an accessory reprdocutive gland is situated in the ______ Abdominal segments (1) 4th – 5th (2) 6th – 7th (3) 7th – 8th (4) 8th – 9th Page 15 of 20 371. During copulation, cockroach transfers male gametes in the form of (1) Sperms (2) Spermatophore (3) Seminal vesicles (4) Spermatid 372. Mark the false statement with respect to the reproductive system of female cockroach (Periplaneta americana) (1) Pair of spermatheca present in the 6th segments (2) Two large ovaries lying laterally in the 2nd-6th abdominal segments (3) Each ootheca contains 9-10 eggs (4) The nymph grows by moulting about 13 times to reach the adult form 373. Mark the false statement regarding the heart of cockroach. (1) Heart is present along the mid-dorsal line of thorax and abdomen (2) It is 13-chambered (3) It is neurogenic (4) It is myogenic 374. Exoskeleton of each segment in cockroach consists of (1) Dorsal tergum and a ventral sternum (2) Dorsal sternum and a ventral tergum (3) Sternum only (4) Tergum only 375. In cockroach, foregut comprises of (1) Pharynx, oesophagus, crop and gizzard (2) Mesenteron, corp and gizzard (3) Ileum, colon and rectum (4) Pharynx, oesophagus and rectum 376. Thin tubes that carry oxygen from the air to all the parts in cockroach constitute (1) Tracheal system (2) Haemolymph (3) Lungs (4) Gills 377. Malpighian tubule are lined by (1) Glandular epithelium with ciliated cells (2) Simple epithelium and non-ciliated cells (3) Cutinised epithelium (4) Simple squamous epithelium 378. In cockroach, eye consists of visual units called (1) Ostia (2) Ommatidia (3) Gonapophyses (4) Spiracles 379. In cockroach, the body inspite of being covered by an exoskeleton of strong chitinous cuticle remains f lexible due to (1) Tergites (2) Sternites (3) Pleurites (4) Arthrodial membranes 380. Periplaneta has mosaic vision. Each ommatidium is composed of following parts, except (1) Corneal lens (2) Refractive crystalline cone (3) Rhabdome (4) Phaeosome 381. Which of the following is wrong match in cockroach? (1) Head – Hypognathous (2) Heart -13 chambered (3) Anal styles - Female cockroach (4) Excretion - Malpighian tubules 382. In Periplaneta each walking leg consists of five segments. Which of the following is a correct sequence? (1) Trochanter, Coxa, Femur, Tibia, Tarsus (2) Coxa, Trochanter, Femur, Tibia, Tarsus (3) Coxa, Femur, Trochanter, Tibia, Tarsus (4) Trochanter, Femur, Coxa, Tibia, Tarsus 383. Structure that helps the cockroach to walk on smooth surface is (1) Trochanter (2) Plantulae (3) Cardo (4) Scape 384. Which of the two parts in cockroach are fundamentally similar in structure? (1) Anal styles and labrum (2) Wings and anal cerci (3) Maxillae and legs (4) Mandibles and antennae 385. Number of eggs contained in an ootheca of cockroach is (1) 8 (2) 16 (3) 32 (4) 4 386. Which of the following statements is incorrect about development of periplaneta Americana? (1) On an average female produces 9 – 10 oothecae each containing 14 – 16 eggs (2) The development is paurometabolous (3) The nymph grows by molting about 7 -8 times to reach adult form (4) The next to last nymphal stage has wing pads but only adult cockroach has wings 387. One of the following muscles deal with respiration of cockroach (1) Alary muscle (2) Tergosternal muscle (3) Intercostal muscles (4) Adductor muscles 388. During metamorphosis, under the ecdysone hormone moulting occurs ___________ times in periplaneta (1) 3 – 5 (2) 15 – 20 (3) 6 – 13 (4) 1 - 2 Frog 389. In male, frog ureter transfers (1) Urine (2) Sperms (3) Both 1 and 2 (4) None of these 390. Frog belongs to order (1) Urodela (2) Apoda (3) Caudata (4) Anura 391. A hibernating frog respires with (1) Lung (2) Diaphragm (3) Buccal epithelium (4) Skin 392. Head of frog is _________________ and its anterior conical part is called _____________. (1) Circular; snout (2) Triangular; snout (3) Rectangular; snout (4) Pentagonal; snout 393. Select the true statement regarding frog (Rana tigrina). (1) Frog is a homeothermal animal (2) Frog drinks about 5 litres H20 per day (2) Poisonous glands are not found on the body of frog (4) A very long tail is present in posterior part of frog's body 394. Dorsal part of frog is _____________ and ventral part is (1) Olivegreen; uniformly pale yellow (2) Olivegreen; uniformly dark yellow (3) Olivegreen; nonuniformly pale yellow (4) Olivegreen; nonuniformly dark yellow 395. Frog is an amphibian because (1) Tail is not found in it (2) Lungs are found in it (3) Its tadpoles are aquatic in nature (4) It lives in water as well as on land 396. Neck is absent in frog. This helps frog in (1) Catching prey (2) Respiration (3) Swimming in water (4) Jumping on ground 397. Which of the following is found in frog? (1) Five fingers and four toes (2) Four fingers and five toes (3) Five fingers and five toes (4) Four fingers and four toes 398. Which of the following trait is not a characteristic of frog? (1) Thin, scaleless skin (2) Aquatic reproduction (3) Amniotic egg (4) Cutaneous respiration Page 16 of 20 399. Frogs belonging to class ______________ of phylum chordate are __________ animals and show hibernation in _________________ and aestivation in. (1) Hemichordata; poikilothermic; winter; summer (2) Amphibia; poikilothermic; summer; rainy season (3) Amphibia; poikilothermic; winter; summer (4) Amphibia; warm blooded; winter; summer 400. Which of the following is false about the frog? (A) Eyes are bulged out and covered by nictitating membrane that protects them while in water (B) On either side of the eyes a membranous tympanum (ear) receives sound signals (C) The forelimbs and hind limbs help in swimming, walking, leaping and burrowing (D) The hind limbs end in five digits and they are larger and muscular than fore limbs that end in four digits (E) Feet have webbed digits that help in swimming (F) Frogs exhibit sexual dimorphism (1) Only (A) and (F) (2) Only(C) (3) Only (D) and (E) (4) None of these 401. The glands present in the skin of frogs are (1) Sweat and mucous (2) Sweat and mammary (3) Sweat and sebaceous (4) Mucous 402. One of the main functions of frog's skin is (1) Diffusion of respiratory gases (2) Absorption of ultraviolet rays to produce vitamin D (3) Storage of excess food in the form of subcutaneous fat (4) Excretion of nitrogenous waste in the form of uric acid 403. In frog, food is captured by (1) TriloHied tongue (2) Bilobed tongue (3) Tentacles (4) Limbs 404. Which of the following is false about the respiration of frog? (1) Frogs respire on land and in water by the same method (2) In w