Zoom Questions.docx

**Zoom Questions** 1. Q: What is the APRN role when treating a patient with behavioral health disorders? Options: a\) Manage comorbidities (Correct) b\) Explain anatomy in layman\'s terms (Correct) c\) Comprehend DSM-5 limitations (Correct) d\) Diagnose ADHD in young patients (Inco...

**Zoom Questions** 1. Q: What is the APRN role when treating a patient with behavioral health disorders? Options: a\) Manage comorbidities (Correct) b\) Explain anatomy in layman\'s terms (Correct) c\) Comprehend DSM-5 limitations (Correct) d\) Diagnose ADHD in young patients (Incorrect) 2. Understanding the role of APRNs when treating patients with behavioral health issues, which one is NOT part of your practice? Options: a. You cannot make diagnosis 3. Q: For which factors should an APRN refer to the DSM-5 when treating a client with a mental health disorder? 4. Q: What statement provided by the NP reflects affirmation according to Carl Rogers\' theory? Options: a\) \"After all, it is up to you, you can do whatever you want.\" (Incorrect) b\) \"It is not good practice, and that is why I am not allowing you to continue on this controlled substance.\" (Incorrect) c\) \"It is clear that you\'re really trying to change your binge drinking.\" (Correct) Theorist Carl Rogers created framework 4 components : absolute worth, affirmation, autonomy, and accurate empathy.  **Absolute Worth**: Definition: The belief that every individual has inherent value and dignity, regardless of their behavior or circumstances. Example: A therapist working with a teenager who has committed a crime maintains a respectful and non-judgmental attitude, recognizing the teen\'s inherent worth as a human being despite their actions.  **Affirmation**: Definition: Acknowledging and validating an individual\'s experiences, feelings, and perspectives without necessarily agreeing with them. Example: When an adolescent expresses frustration about feeling misunderstood by their parents, the counselor responds, \"It sounds like you\'re feeling really frustrated and isolated. It\'s understandable to have those feelings in this situation.\"  **Autonomy**: Definition: Respecting an individual\'s right to make their own decisions and choices, and encouraging self-direction. Example: In an art therapy session, the therapist allows the adolescent to choose their preferred art materials and decide what they want to create, rather than dictating a specific project or theme.  **Accurate Empathy**: Definition: The ability to understand and reflect back the individual\'s emotions and experiences accurately, demonstrating a deep understanding of their perspective. Example: When a student shares their anxiety about an upcoming exam, the school counselor responds, \"It seems like you\'re feeling overwhelmed and worried about this test. The pressure to perform well is causing you a lot of stress. Is that correct?\" 5. Q: Which self-reflection question would be **most** helpful for an NP to evaluate their success in engaging a client in motivational interviewing? Options: a\) \"How can I fix this to make it better?\" (Incorrect) b\) \"How truthful is this patient in talking with me?\" (Correct) 6. Q: What is the best response when a patient states they have no intention of reducing alcohol intake during an SBIRT intervention? Options: a\) \"Have you ever tried to stop drinking in the past?\" (Incorrect) b\) \"The health risks are great if you continue to drink.\" (Incorrect) c\) \"I get the sense that you are not ready to change at this time. We can discuss this at a later time if you change your mind.\" (Correct) SBIRT is an early intervention approach to identify and address substance use issues before they become more serious. S - Screening: Quickly assess substance use risk using standardized tools. B - Brief Intervention: Short, motivational conversations to raise awareness and encourage change. I - Referral: Direct those needing more help to specialized services. T - Treatment: Provide more intensive care for those with substance use disorders. 7. Q: Cultural assessment goes beyond race and ethnicity. What factor should NOT be included in a cultural interview? Options: a\) Lack of familiarity with technical terms and jargon (Incorrect) b\) Potential for unrecognized influence of authority (Incorrect) c\) Provider\'s attitudes towards a group of people (Correct) 8. Q: What is an example of an open-ended question in the OARS technique? Options: a\) \"How many times have you tried?\" (Incorrect) b\) \"What was that like for you?\" (Correct) c\) \"I get the sense that this is difficult.\" (Incorrect) The OARS technique is a set of communication strategies used in motivational interviewing and counseling, helps build rapport, encourage client engagement, and facilitate behavior change discussions in a non-confrontational manner. O - Open-ended questions: Ask questions that encourage detailed responses rather than simple yes/no answers. A - Affirmations: Offer sincere, positive statements to recognize the client\'s strengths and efforts. R - Reflective listening: Demonstrate understanding by restating or paraphrasing what the client has said. S - Summarizing: Periodically recap the main points of the conversation to ensure clarity and understanding. 9. To avoid shaming questions during an interview with a male adolescent client who responds that he prefers having sexual relationships with another male, what behavior that this interaction exemplifies? Options: a. Homophobia (Incorrect) b. Inclusive (Correct) c. Bias (Incorrect) d. By authority? (Incorrect) 10. Q: SATA It's important for the clinician to avoid writing reflex in order to prevent resistant to change by the patient. What are examples of writing reflex? Options: a. See the world through the client's eyes (Incorrect) b. Giving advice, Making suggestions, Proving solutions (Correct) c. Reinsuring, sympathizing or consoling (Incorrect) d. Persuading, arguing, or lecturing (Correct) e. Disagreeing, criticizing or blaming (Correct) **Roadblocks** in MI refer to communication styles or responses that can hinder the therapeutic process and the client\'s progress towards change. These are typically practitioner behaviors that can create resistance or disengagement in the client. Common roadblocks include: 1. Ordering, directing, or commanding 2. Warning or threatening 3. Giving advice, suggestions, or solutions prematurely 4. Persuading with logic, arguing, or lecturing 5. Moralizing, preaching, or telling clients what they \"should\" do 6. Disagreeing, judging, criticizing, or blaming 7. Agreeing, approving, or praising 8. Shaming, ridiculing, or labeling 9. Interpreting or analyzing 10. Reassuring, sympathizing, or consoling 11. Questioning or probing 12. Withdrawing, distracting, humoring, or changing the subject **Righting Reflex**: The righting reflex is the natural tendency of healthcare providers or helpers to want to \"fix\" the client\'s problem or to steer them in the \"right\" direction. It\'s the impulse to give immediate advice, offer solutions, or try to correct the client\'s behavior. While this reflex comes from a good place (wanting to help), it can actually be counterproductive in MI. When faced with direct advice or persuasion, clients often respond with resistance or ambivalence. The righting reflex can lead to the practitioner doing most of the talking about change, while the client argues for the status quo. In MI, instead of giving in to the righting reflex, practitioners are encouraged to: 1. Resist the righting reflex 2. Understand the client\'s motivations 3. Listen with empathy 4. Empower the client By avoiding roadblocks and resisting the righting reflex, MI practitioners can create a more collaborative relationship with clients, allowing them to explore their own motivations for change and come to their own decisions about behavior change. 11. Q: What teaching is important regarding prescribed benzodiazepines? Options: a\) Do not take this medication with food that contains tyramine (Incorrect) b\) Do not take this within an hour of eating (Incorrect) c\) Take this medication first thing in the morning with a meal (Incorrect) d\) Take only the prescribed dose for the period of time indicated because addiction can occur (Correct) 12. Q: What is the mechanism of action of SSRIs antidepressant medication? Options: a\) Promote the reuptake of dopamine (Incorrect) b\) Promote inactivation of serotonin (Incorrect) c\) Inhibit serotonin reuptake (Correct) d\) Decrease blood level concentration (Incorrect) 13. Q: You are precepting a student. Motivational interviewing is part of your practice and the student asks, what is motivational interviewing, what would be your best answer? Options: a. MI is a clinician centered counseling style (Incorrect) b. MI is a collaborative conversation style used to strengthen a person's own motivation and commitment to change (Correct) 14. Q: What is the potential complication of SSRI use when there is a high intake of cannabis? Options: a\) Sedation (Incorrect) b\) PPH (Incorrect) c\) Toxicity (Incorrect) d\) Serotonin syndrome (Correct) 15. Q: What is essential before implementing the SBIRT process? Options: a\) Using motivational interviewing techniques (Incorrect) b\) Developing a SMART goal (Incorrect) c\) Identifying patient\'s readiness (Correct) 16. Q: you are assessing a patients that\'s treated for hyperlipidemia. They report how their psychiatrist increased the dose of antipsychotic medication which specifically is chlorpromazine prescribed for schizophrenia. During physical exam you observe patient expressing tremors at rest, facial ticks, tongue rolling, and eye twitching. What do you suspect and document in the assessment as the cause of this symptoms? Options: a\) Myasthenia gravis (Incorrect) b\) Medication adherence (Incorrect) c\) Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) (Correct) 17. Q: Which psychotropic medication does not require periodic blood level monitoring? Options: a\) Lithium carbonate (Incorrect) b\) Depakote (Incorrect) c\) Tegretol (Incorrect) d\) Wellbutrin (Correct) 18. Q: you assess the patient and you learn that they have difficulty sleeping, increased periods of agitation, inability to fulfill roles at home or work. Which additional assessment screening should you perform? Options: a. Inquire about the financial concerns (Incorrect) b. Lower symptoms of OCD (Incorrect) c. Screen them for substance use disorder (Correct) 19. Q: Which suicide assessment protective factor is best described as an intrinsic component? Options: a\) Coping skills, problem-solving skills, ability to change (Correct) b\) Caring for a beloved pet (Incorrect) c\) Daily alcohol use (Incorrect) d\) Having children or close relatives (Incorrect) 20. Q: You evaluate the patient which presents with URI symptoms (upper story infection), when entering his room you smell cigarette smoke on patient's clothes and breath. Which of the following statement is most effective for starting the conversation about nicotine cessation? Options: a. Oh I could smell the cigarette on your breath or your clothes (Incorrect) b. Didn\'t anyone in your family die of lung cancer from smoking (Incorrect) c. Are you still smoking with this blah blah blah (Incorrect) d. I can imagine that one of the hardest things to do in this world is stop smoking (Correct) 21. Q: What is true about the difference between nicotine intake via cigarettes versus patches? A: Inhalation of nicotine via cigarette is arterial uptake with quick neurological response, while nicotine patches are venous uptake with delayed onset of action. (True/False question, answer is True) 22. Q: You have a 42 year old patient, long standing history of drug abuse, he comes to you, patient admits that recently he had a relapse after being clean and he says to you, "I am having trouble working due to withdrawal symptoms". The most appropriate initial response or action by you would be...? Options: a. Prescribed Narcan for possible overdose (Incorrect) b. Refer to detox unit (Incorrect) c. Provided titration schedule (Incorrect) d. How ready are you to change this behavior? (Correct) 23. Q: A person expresses desire of tobacco cessation counseling and tells the NP that smokes approximately 20 cigarettes per day. What strength of nicotine patch would you prescribe for a patient smoking 20 cigarettes per day? Options: a\) 7 milligrams (Incorrect) b\) 14 milligrams (Incorrect) c\) 21 milligrams (Correct) d\) 50 milligrams (Incorrect) 24. Q: What factor will **not assist** the APRN in reducing health inequalities in any clinical setting? Options: a. Recognize implicit bias (Incorrect) b. Educate patient in available social services (Incorrect) c. Consider environmental influencers or influences on the patient (Incorrect) d. Prescribe the newest medication to anyone regardless of cost (Correct) 25. Q: MSE components are necessary for supporting specific psychiatric disease diagnosis (True or False, True question) 26. Q: The nurse practitioner instruct the patient to pay attention to only what is happening in the present moment. What therapeutic modality does this utilize? Options: a. Ignorance (Incorrect) b. Trauma (Incorrect) c. Informed care (Incorrect) d. Mindfulness (Correct) 27. Q: You have an elderly patient who reports fatigue easily, his niece has been helping him to take care of him, however he says "I can't afford it anymore because I cannot pay her because my lifesavings are already gone. What type of abuse are you suspecting from the niece? Options: a. Physical (Incorrect) b. Elder abandonment (Incorrect) c. Neglect (Incorrect) d. Financial exploitation (Correct) 28. Q: What component of the mental status exam consists of level of consciousness, attention and concentration, memory, and ability to understand? Options: a\) Affect (Incorrect) b\) Behavior (Incorrect) c\) Appearance (Incorrect) d\) Cognition (Correct) 29. Q: You are completing a MSE on a geriatric patient, what symptoms you see would you suspect from elder abuse or neglect? Options: a. Fatigue, insomnia, depression (Incorrect) b. Dehydration, withdrawn, bedsores (Correct) c. Dementia, argumentative (Incorrect) d. Chronic health condition, bruising, supportive family member (Incorrect) 30. Q: Which is not true about the concept of ambivalence in motivational interviewing? Options: a\) It is identified when both change and sustained talk occurs together (Incorrect) b\) It develops from the conflict of reasons to change and reasons not to change(Incorrect) c\) It is a minor obstacle to change (Correct) 31. Q: The AUDIT tool is used to screen for drinking disorder or alcohol abuse. What factor is necessary to determine before administering this questionnaire? 32. Q: A patient presents with complains of upper respiratory symptoms, you ask questions and notice that the patient looks away and tears are beginning from their eyes. What is your best response? Options: a. Can you explain why the change in grades (Incorrect) b. What matters is that you are honest with your parents and let them know what is going on (Incorrect) c. Has something happened that we need to discuss more in detail (Correct) 33. Q: Which of the following refers to observations made during the exam that may include appearance, behavior, cognition, mood, and thought process. Options: a. GAD9 survey (Incorrect) b. Medical decision making (Incorrect) c. Baker Act (Incorrect) d. MSE (Correct) 34. Q: What becomes a priority action when a patient on SSRI regimen becomes more energized after a dose increase? Options: a\) Add benzodiazepine to the medication regimen (Incorrect) b\) Decrease the dose of the SSRI (Incorrect) c\) Increase vigilance regarding suicide potential (Correct) 35. Q: You are treating a patient who complains of insomnia. They complete the CAGE screening questionnaire and report 3 positive answers. These support the diagnosis of alcohol abuse (True question) 36. Q: You are using the SBIRT procedure for a patient with suspected substance use disorder. Valid screening tool is needed to evaluate the patient's consumption. This means that the tool selected has been used in the population previously and is highly specific. (True question) 37. The nurse reports how the patient during the assessment begins joking and is cheerful. Then they begin to cry. After a few minutes they again smile and becomes cheerful but holding back tears. How you document this patient's affect? Options: a. Constricted (Incorrect) b. Normal (Incorrect) c. Labile (Correct) d. Blunted (Incorrect) 38. Q: Where does the mini mental exam implementation belong to the soap note? a. Subjective (Correct) b. Objective (Incorrect) c. Assessment (Incorrect) d. Plan (Incorrect) 39. Q: The document reads loose association, flights of ideas, or blocking. The comments describe what components of MSE? Options: a. Appearance (Incorrect) b. Attitude (Incorrect) c. Physical exam (incorrect) d. Thought process (Correct) 40. For social distortions including delusions and hallucinations are common features of cognitive decline. How can the factors be differentiated from psychosis? Options: a. Refer to a neuron specialist (Incorrect) b. Monitor symptoms and document. (Incorrect) c. There is no way to discriminate (Incorrect) d. Utilize a neuro screening tool (Correct) 41. Q: What term describes a normal mood? Options: a. Euphoric (Incorrect) b. Dyspneic (Incorrect) c. Euthymic (Correct) d. Dysphoric (Incorrect) 42. Q: A person's level of consciousness, attention, and concentration memory, and ability to understand abstract information is an evaluation of what components of the MSE? Options: a. Affect (Incorrect) b. Behavior (Incorrect) c. Appearance (Incorrect) d. Cognition (Correct) 43. Q: All of the following are true about persons who have adverse childhood experience (ACE) except: Options: a. Higher prevalence of substance abuse (Incorrect) b. Degree of abuse contributes to this situation (Incorrect) c. ACE has an association to chronic (Incorrect) d. Early childhood abuse promotes resilience (Correct) 44. Q: Mindfulness techniques includes journal keeping, yoga exercise, CBT contributes to building resilience in victim who has high ACE scores. (True) 45. Q: You have a female patient with alcohol use disorder. She is not interested in attending AAA because it did not work for her friend. Which of the following clinician response is the best? Options: a. Expressing empathy (Incorrect) b. Believe me, it works. I have plenty of clients with success in AAA (Incorrect) c. You shouldn't let your friend experiences influence your decision in seeking help (Incorrect) d. Maybe it was the location, have you tried to look into various locations? (Incorrect) e. I can understand how you feel, you would feel skeptical due to your friend's experience? (Correct) 46. Which of the following best describes the MI roadblocks in this statement "I don't know. It sounds to me like you are not following your diet. And that is causing the weight gain not the medications"? Options: a. Giving advice, redirecting, or commanding (Incorrect) b. Reassuring, sympathizing, or consoling (Incorrect) c. Disagreeing, judging, criticizing or blaming (Correct) 47. Q: The statement what I hear you saying is that your family is very concerned about your tobacco use is an example of which components of your strategy in MI? Options: a. Open-ended question (Incorrect) b. Affirmation (Correct) c. Reflection (Incorrect) d. Summary(Incorrect) 48. Q: SATA. What factors are considered necessary for resilience to develop in person who has experienced trauma? Options: a. Mindfulness (Correct) b. Self-care behaviors (Correct) c. Revisiting the past experience (Incorrect) d. Numbing the hostile feeling (Incorrect) 49. Q: Transtheoretical model (TTM) of behavioral health. In this stage you are on the fence considering both the pros and cons of the behavioral health. Options: a. Dismissal (Incorrect) b. Action (Incorrect) c. Maintenance (Incorrect) d. Contemplation (Correct) 50. Q: TTM. Which categorizes segments of populations based on where they are in the process of change? TTM is founded on: Options: a. Refusal of change (Incorrect) b. Stages of change (Correct) c. Statistics (Incorrect) d. Upheaval (Incorrect) 51. Q: Which of the following best describes a toxic stressor? Options: a. Family members (Incorrect) b. MI (Incorrect) c. Stress management techniques (Incorrect) d. Experience that engages strong and prolonged activation of the body's stress management system (Correct) 52. Q: you perform a medication reconciliation with an outside pharmacy. When you are evaluating the patient then you find out that patient was initiated on SSRI regimen and recently their dose was increased for depression. As the patient becomes more energized, what action is a priority for this patient to end the benzodiazepine? Options: a. To end the benzodiazepine medication regimen (Incorrect) b. To decrease the dose of SSRI (Incorrect) c. To increase the vigilance regarding the suicidal potential (Correct) 53. Q: A patient is about to be prescribed benzodiazepine. What comment regarding its administration needs to be included in the teaching plan? Options: a. Do not take this medication with food that contains tyramine (Incorrect) b. Do not do this within the hour of eating (Incorrect) c. Take this medication first thing in the morning with meal (Incorrect) d. Take only the prescribed dose for the period of time indicated because addiction can occur (Correct) 54. Q: What are key findings when examining a patient who is being trafficked? (Select all that apply) Options: a\) Accompanied by a person who answers questions (Correct) b\) Positive for deflection or vague answers in mental status exam (Correct) c\) Anxiety or shyness with no eye contact (Correct) d\) Receiving only acute health care needs (Correct)