B737 MAX Workbook PDF

B737 MAX WORKBOOK TABLE OF CONTENT AIRPLANE GENERAL HYDRAULICS FLIGHT CONTROLS FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS & DISPLAY FUEL ELECTRICAL FIRE PROTECTION ENGINES & APU AIR SYSTEMS ANTI-ICE & RAIN LANDING GEAR COMMUNICATIONS WARNING SYSTEMS FLIGHT MANAGEMENT & NAVIGATION AUTOMATIC FLIGHT AIRPLANE...

B737 MAX WORKBOOK TABLE OF CONTENT AIRPLANE GENERAL HYDRAULICS FLIGHT CONTROLS FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS & DISPLAY FUEL ELECTRICAL FIRE PROTECTION ENGINES & APU AIR SYSTEMS ANTI-ICE & RAIN LANDING GEAR COMMUNICATIONS WARNING SYSTEMS FLIGHT MANAGEMENT & NAVIGATION AUTOMATIC FLIGHT AIRPLANE GENERAL 1. What are the dimensions of the B737 MAX -8200? [FCOM 1.10.1]  Wingtip to Wingtip: 117’ - 10’’  Tail Height: 40’ - 10’’ 2. What is the minimum width of pavement for a 180° turn? [FCOM 1.10.2]  80 feet 3. Do not attempt to turn away from an object within how many feet of the nose or a wingtip? [FCOM 1.10.2]  Nose = 23 feet  Wingtip = 15 feet 4. What is the Maximum Landing Weight (MLW) of the B737 MAX -8200? [FCOM L.10.4]  152,800 lbs 5. What does illumination of the LOCK FAIL (amber) light indicate? [FCOM 1.40.31]  Door lock has failed or  Flight Deck Access System (FDAS) switch is in the OFF position 6. How is the flight crew warned that the correct emergency access code has been entered? [FCOM 1.40.32]  A flight deck chime sounds and  AUTO UNLK (amber) light illuminates 7. What happens when the FLT DK DOOR Lock selector is placed momentarily to DENY? [FCOM 1.40.32]  Denies entry and prevents further emergency access keypad entry for several minutes 8. If the correct emergency access code has been entered and the pilots do not select DENY, when will the flight deck door unlock? [FCOM 1.40.32]  After expiration of a time delay 9. For emergency access to the flight deck, which flight deck window can be opened from the exterior of the airplane? [FCOM 1.40.33]  First Officer’s side window (R2) 10. How many overwing emergency exit doors are on the B737 MAX? [FCOM 1.40.38]  Two on each side 11. How many mid-exit emergency doors are on the B737 MAX -8200? [FCOM 1.40.40]  One on each side 12. What is indicated with an illuminated overwing/mid-exit annunciator? [FCOM 1.30.13]  Related overwing/mid-exit is not closed and locked  Related flight lock failed to engage when commanded locked 13. Does the Aft Attendant Panel EMERGENCY EXIT LIGHTS switch override the flight deck switch? [FCOM 1.40.4]  Yes (for illuminating lights only) 14. What provides the power source for charging the photoluminescent floor path marking system along the cabin aisle? [FCOM 1.40.4]  Cabin ceiling and side wall lights on at full intensity and  Strips not covered or blocked AIRPLANE GENERAL 15. Will you have the cockpit dome light available during an emergency evacuation? [FCOM 1.40.3]  Yes  Powered by Standby Electrical Power 16. How is oxygen supplied to the flight crew oxygen system? [FCOM 1.30.14]  By a single cylinder 17. Where is the crew oxygen bottle pressure displayed? [FCOM 1.30.14]  Aft overhead panel 18. What is the maximum allowable pressure drop that may be observed during the crew oxygen pressure drop test? [FCOM NP.21.5]  100 psi 19. Where would you find the CREW OXYGEN requirements for dispatch with 2 pilots and 1 flight deck jumpseater? [QRH OI]  QRH / Operational Information (OI) 20. When is 100% oxygen at positive pressure supplied to a flight crew oxygen mask? [FCOM 1.40.15]  Above 27,000 feet or  EMERGENCY on the flight crew oxygen mask is selected 21. What provides passenger oxygen? [FCOM 1.40.18]  A single chemical oxygen generator located in each Passenger Service Unit (PSU) 22. How are the Passenger Service Unit (PSU) oxygen masks deployed? [FCOM 1.40.19]  Automatically at a cabin altitude of 14,000 feet or  Manually when the PASS OXYGEN switch on the aft overhead panel is positioned ON 23. How does the flight crew confirm that the PSU door solenoids have been powered? [FCOM 1.40.19]  PASS OXY ON light illuminates on the Aft Overhead panel 24. What action activates an oxygen generating canister? [FCOM 1.40.19]  Pulling a mask to pull the lanyard 25. How long will passenger oxygen flow once initiated? [FCOM 1.40.19]  12 minutes 26. Once initiated, can passenger oxygen be shut off? [FCOM 1.40.19]  No 27. When activated, Protective Breathing Equipment (PBE/Smoke Hood) provides useful oxygen for approximately how long? [FCOM 1.40.18]  15-20 Minutes 28. Where is the panel that shows the quantity of water in the potable water tank? [FCOM 1.40.47]  Aft Flight Attendant Station 29. How is the potable water tank pressurized? [FCOM 1.40.47]  Bleed air provided by the engines or APU or  An electric air compressor AIRPLANE GENERAL 30. Are the Cargo Compartments pressurized during flight? [FCOM 1.40.33]  Yes 31. With the FASTEN BELTS switch in AUTO, when do the passenger information signs automatically illuminate? [FCOM 1.40.3]  With the landing gear or flaps extended [INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK] HYDRAULICS 1. Why are the Hydraulic reservoirs pressurized? [FCOM 13.20.1]  Ensures positive fluid flow to all hydraulic pumps 2. What indications will you see if you have foaming in flight? [FCOM 13.20.7]  LOW PRESSURE lights for both pumps (Blinking)  MASTER CAUTION (Momentarily)  HYD (Momentarily) 3. Which system components are common to both Hydraulic System A and B? [FCOM 13.20.2]  Ailerons  Rudder  Elevators & Elevator Feel  Flight Spoilers (Half of total) QRH 13.2 4. With the loss of Hydraulic System A, what System A components are unrecoverable (no redundancies)? [QRH 13.4]  Landing gear retraction  Ground spoilers 5. With the loss of Hydraulic System B, what System B components are unrecoverable (no redundancies)? [QRH 13.9]  Leading Edge Flaps & Slats retraction  Autobrakes 6. What components are powered by the Standby Hydraulic System? [FCOM 13.20.4, 13.20.5]  Rudder  Thrust Reversers  Leading Edge Flaps & Slats (extend only)  Standby Yaw Damper 7. With regards to fluid volume output, what is the difference between the Engine-Driven Pump (EDP) and the Electric Motor- Driven Pump (EMDP)? [FCOM 13.20.3]  An Engine-Driven Pump (EDP) supplies approximately 6 times the fluid volume of the related Electric Motor-Driven Pump (EMDP) 8. When will you see RF (refill) next to the hydraulic quantity? [FCOM 13.10.2]  Below 76%  Valid only when the airplane is on the ground with both engines shut down or  After landing with flaps up during taxi in 9. When performing the preliminary preflight procedure, how would you determine that hydraulic quantity is low?  RF (refill) is displayed next to the A or B quantity displays 10. What is the appropriate action when you see the RF (refill) during the Preliminary Preflight Procedure? [GOM 11.9.3.1]  Make M300 writeup  Call Maintenance Control via Dispatch 11. What are the normal and maximum hydraulic system pressures? [FCOM 13.10.2]  Normal Pressure: 3000 psi  Maximum Pressure: 3500 psi 12. What would cause the ELEC 2 OVERHEAT light to illuminate? [FCOM 13.10.1]  System A Electric Motor-Driven Pump (EMDP) has overheated or  Hydraulic fluid used to cool and lubricate that pump has overheated  HYDRAULICS 13. What is the minimum fuel in each main wing tank to provide adequate cooling for the hydraulic fluid for ground operation of Electric Motor-Driven Pumps (EDMP)? [FCOM 13.20.3]  1675 lbs 14. What must be done if pushback is required without the use of a nose gear steering lockout pin? [FCOM NP.21.22, NP.21.42]  Both System A hydraulic pumps must be selected OFF 15. What is the purpose of the Power Transfer Unit (PTU)? [FCOM 13.20.4]  Supply the additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate the Autoslats and Leading Edge Flaps & Slats at the normal rate when system B Engine–Driven Pump (EDP) is inoperative 16. Does the PTU transfer hydraulic fluid? [FCOM 13.20.4]  No  The PTU uses system A pressure to power a hydraulic Motor-Driven Pump, which pressurizes system B hydraulic fluid 17. When does the Power Transfer Unit (PTU) operate? [FCOM 13.20.4]  Airborne and  Flaps not up and  System B Engine-Driven Pump (EDP) hydraulic pressure drops below limits 18. What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit (LGTU)? [FCOM 13.20.4]  Supply the volume of hydraulic fluid needed to raise the landing gear at the normal rate when system A Engine–Driven Pump (EDP) volume is lost 19. When does the Landing Gear Transfer Unit (LGTU) operate? [FCOM 13.20.4, 14.20.3]  Airborne and  No. 1 Engine RPM drops below a limit value and  Landing Gear lever is positioned UP and  Either main Landing Gear is not up and locked 20. When is the Standby Hydraulic System primarily used? [FCOM 13.20.1, 13.20.4]  As a backup if system A and/or B pressure is lost 21. Does the System A or B pressure loss alone cause operation of the Standby Hydraulic System? [FCOM 13.20.5]  No, the Standby Hydraulic System would need to be activated either manually or automatically 22. How do you manually activate the Standby Hydraulic System? [FCOM 13.20.5]  Moving either FLT CONTROL A or B switch to the STBY RUD position or  Moving the ALTERNATE FLAPS Master switch to the ARM position 23. What would cause the Standby Hydraulic System to automatically activate? [FCOM 13.20.5] Standby Hydraulic System Automatic Operation  Airborne or wheel speed greater than 60 kts and  Flaps extended and  Main rudder PCU Force Fight Monitor (FFM) OR  Loss of Hydraulic System A or B and activates  FLT CONTROL switch A or B is ON 24. At a cruise altitude of FL350, if you see the Master Caution, FLT CONT annunciator and the STBY RUD ON lights illuminate, what happened? [FCOM 13.20.5]  Standby Hydraulic System automatically activated by the main rudder PCU Force Fight Monitor (FFM) HYDRAULICS 25. When does the STANDBY HYD LOW QUANTITY light illuminate? [FCOM 13.20.7]  When the standby reservoir is approximately half empty 26. What does the STANDBY HYD LOW PRESSURE (amber) light indicate and when is it armed? [FCOM 13.10.4]  Output pressure of standby pump is low  Armed only when standby pump operation has been selected or automatic standby function is activated 27. Which hydraulic system(s) are powering the elevator, ailerons, and rudder if the FLT CONTROL A switch is moved to STBY RUD?  Elevator – B System  Ailerons – B System  Rudder – Standby System 28. Will reverse thrust be available from both engines in the above scenario?  Yes, the #1 reverser is pressurized by the Standby Hydraulic System 29. If hydraulic system A and/or B fails, alternate operation for the affected Thrust Reverser can be provided by which Hydraulic System? [FCOM 7.20.12]  Standby Hydraulic System [INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK] FLIGHT CONTROLS 1. Which Hydraulic System(s) normally power the primary flight controls? [FCOM 9.20.1]  Hydraulic System A and B 2. What powers each primary flight control surface with the loss of both Hydraulic Systems A and B (manual reversion)? [FCTM 8.46]  Ailerons: Mechanically through cables  Elevator: Mechanically through cables  Rudder: Standby Hydraulic System 3. With the loss of Hydraulic System B, how are the Leading Edge (LE) Flaps and Slats and the Trailing Edge (TE) Flaps operated? [FCOM 9.20.1]  Leading Edge (LE) Flaps and Slats: Standby Hydraulic System  Trailing Edge (TE) Flaps: Electrically 4. With a jammed or restricted Aileron System, how is roll controlled? [FCOM 9.20.3]  Force applied to the First Officer’s control wheel provides roll control from the spoilers 5. With a jammed or restricted Spoiler System, how is roll controlled? [FCOM 9.20.3]  Force applied to the Captain’s control wheel provides roll control from the ailerons 6. Why is aileron trim prohibited with the autopilot engaged? [FCOM 9.20.3]  With the autopilot engaged, aileron trim is not reflected in the control wheel position  The autopilot overpowers the trim and holds the control wheel where it is required for heading/track control  Any aileron trim applied when the autopilot is engaged can result in an out of trim condition and an abrupt rolling movement when the autopilot is disengaged 7. How many degrees of control wheel displacement initiates Flight Spoiler deflection? [FCOM 9.20.4]  More than 10° (approximately) 8. What does an illuminated FEEL DIFF PRESS light indicate? [FCOM 9.10.3, 9.20.7]  Excessive differential pressure in the Elevator Feel Computer  Caused by either Hydraulic System A or B loss or the Elevator Feel Pitot System failure 9. If either the Captain’s or First Officer’s control column is jammed, how would you regain elevator control? [FCOM 9.20.6]  Applying force against the jam will breakout either the Captain’s or First Officer’s control column  Whichever column moves freely after the breakout can provide adequate elevator control 10. When would you use the Elevator Jam Landing Assist system? [FCOM 9.20.6]  When there is a jam in the aft elevator control mechanism 11. How does the Elevator Jam Landing Assist system aid when a landing is made with a jammed elevator? [FCOM 9.20.6, 9.20.7]  During approach and landing, the Elevator Jam Landing Assist system uses the flight spoilers for small changes to the flight path  A push on the control column causes the spoilers to extend farther, increasing the descent rate  A pull on the control column causes the spoilers to retract, decreasing the descent rate 12. How do you activate the Elevator Jam Landing Assist system? [FCOM 9.20.6]  Elevator Jam Landing Assist switch must be selected ON and  Actual flap position must be 1 or greater and  Autopilot must be disengaged  FLIGHT CONTROLS 13. How is stabilizer trim accomplished? [FCOM 9.20.8, 9.20.9]  With the autopilot engaged, stabilizer trim is accomplished through the autopilot stabilizer trim circuit  Main Electric Stabilizer Trim switches on each control wheel actuate the electric trim motor through the main electric stabilizer trim circuit when the airplane is flown manually  Manual stabilizer control is accomplished through cables which allow the pilot to position the stabilizer by rotating the stabilizer trim wheels 14. When is the Autopilot Trim or Main Electric Stabilizer Trim active in the high speed mode and low speed mode? [FCOM 9.20.8]  High Speed when Flaps are extended  Low Speed when Flaps are retracted 15. What is the purpose of the STAB TRIM Cutout (PRI and B/U) switches on the Control Stand? [FCOM 9.20.8]  If either switch is positioned to CUTOUT, the following trim inputs are disconnected from the stabilizer trim motor: Autopilot Trim Main Electric Stabilizer Trim Speed Trim System (Speed Trim function and MCAS function) 16. If the STAB TRIM Cutout switches have been set to CUTOUT, how would you trim the stabilizer? [FCOM 9.20.9]  Manually trim by rotating the stabilizer trim wheel 17. What is the purpose of the Control Column Actuated Stabilizer Trim Cutout switches? [FCOM 9.20.8]  When control column movement opposes trim direction, the Control Column Actuated Stabilizer Trim Cutout switches interrupts operation of Main Electric Stabilizer Trim, Autopilot Trim and the Speed Trim function  Forward control column movement interrupts MCAS nose up trim command  Aft control column movement does not affect MCAS nose down trim commands 18. What is the purpose of the Flight Control Computer (FCC) software column cutout function? [FCOM 9.20.8]  Adds a layer of redundancy to mitigate a latent failure of the Control Column Actuated Stabilizer Trim Cutout switches  Cuts out automatic stabilizer commands beyond the cutout position of the Control Column Actuated Stabilizer Trim Cutout switches  Main Electric Stabilizer Trim commands are not inhibited 19. What is the purpose of the STAB TRIM switch on the aft electronics panel? [FCOM 9.20.8]  When positioned to OVRD, allows operation of the Main Electric Stabilizer Trim regardless of control column position 20. What will occur if you attempt to takeoff with the stabilizer trim out of the green band? [FCOM 9.20.9]  An intermittent horn sounds (Takeoff Warning horn)  TAKEOFF CONFIG light illuminates 21. What does the Speed Trim System (STS) provide? [FCOM 9.20.9]  Speed and pitch stability augmentation  Speed stability augmentation is provided by the Speed Trim function in the Speed Trim System  Pitch stability augmentation is provided by the MCAS function in the Speed Trim System 22. Will the Speed Trim System (STS) operate when the autopilot is engaged? [FCOM 9.20.9]  No 23. What does Speed Trim function accomplish? [FCOM 9.20.10]  Improve flight characteristics during operations with low gross weight, aft center of gravity and high thrust when the autopilot is not engaged  Return the airplane to a trimmed speed by commanding the stabilizer in a direction opposite the speed change FLIGHT CONTROLS 24. What are the conditions for Speed Trim function to operate? [FCOM 9.20.10]  Up to Mach 0.68  10 seconds after takeoff  5 seconds following release of the Main Electric Stabilizer Trim switches  Autopilot not engaged  Sensing of trim requirement 25. What speed does the Speed Trim function control the stabilizer trim motor? [FCOM 9.20.10]  High rate with Flaps extended  Low rate with Flaps retracted 26. What does the Maneuvering Characteristics Augmentation System (MCAS) function accomplish? [FCOM 9.20.11]  MCAS is a pitch stability augmentation function designed to operate at elevated Angles Of Attack (AOAs)  The purpose is to increase control column forces by commanding the stabilizer in the nose down direction at elevated AOAs 27. What are the conditions for Maneuvering Characteristics Augmentation System (MCAS) function to operate? [FCOM 9.20.11]  AOA above threshold  Autopilot not engaged  Flaps up  Up to Mach 0.84  10 seconds after takeoff 28. Will MCAS activate with an autopilot engaged?  No 29. What speed does the Maneuvering Characteristics Augmentation System (MCAS) function control the stabilizer trim motor? [FCOM 9.20.11]  High rate 30. Where does the Flight Control Computer (FCC) get its data to activate MCAS? [FCOM 9.20.11]  Both AOA vanes 31. How can MCAS stabilizer operation be inhibited and reversed? [FCOM 9.20.11]  By using pilot Main Electric Stabilizer Trim switches 32. After Main Electric Stabilizer Trim is used to inhibit Speed Trim or MCAS, how long is the delay before Speed Trim or MCAS will operate if needed again? [FCOM 9.20.10, 9.20.11]  Inhibited for 5 seconds  After the 5 second inhibit, the Stabilizer will be commanded to the specified value based on detected AOA and Mach 33. Why does the MCAS function contain logic that limits the amount of nose down stabilizer trim movement? [FCOM 9.20.11]  To preserve elevator authority for pitch control 34. What occurs when MCAS has reached its command limit logic nose down stabilizer trim limit? [FCOM 9.20.11]  SPEED TRIM FAIL light illuminates  Speed Trim System (Speed Trim function and MCAS function) is inhibited for the remainder of the flight 35. What causes the SPEED TRIM FAIL light to illuminate and remain illuminated after a FLT CONT Master Caution is reset? [FCOM 9.10.3, 9.20.10]  Failure in the Speed Trim System (Speed Trim function or MCAS function)  If one function fails, the other function is inhibited FLIGHT CONTROLS 36. What if you only get the FLT CONTROL Master Caution on RECALL and see this light, and the light extinguishes when the Master Caution system is reset? Would you perform the QRH Non-Normal Checklist in this scenario? [FCOM 9.10.3]  Single FCC channel failure  No 37. Can the pilot override the Speed Trim System (Speed Trim function and MCAS function) nose up or nose down stabilizer trim commands?  Yes, by using the Main Electric Stabilizer Trim to oppose STS/MCAS commands  Control column cutout switches inhibit electric trim commands  Exception: does not interrupt MCAS nose down stab trim commands 38. What is the purpose of the Elevator Feel Shift (EFS) module? [FCOM 9.20.13]  Increases Hydraulic System A pressure to the Elevator Feel and Centering Unit during a stall  This approximately doubles control column forces 39. What protection do the Flight Control Computers (FCCs) provide with regards to stall identification? [FCOM 9.20.13]  Protection against possible runaway stabilizer conditions caused by erroneous FCC stabilizer trim commands  The FCCs continuously monitor each other’s stabilizer trim commands,  If erroneous commands are detected, stabilizer trim commands, autopilot trim commands, and Control Wheel Steering (CWS) trim commands are stopped and inhibited for the remainder of the flight for that FCC. 40. What does the Autopilot Elevator Monitor protect against? [FCOM 9.20.13]  Erroneous elevator commands that can result in erroneous autopilot stabilizer trim commands 41. What does the Stabilizer Cross-FCC Trim Monitor protect against? [FCOM 9.20.14]  Erroneous stabilizer trim commands 42. What does illumination of a STAB OUT OF TRIM light indicate? [FCOM 4.10.20]  In-flight Autopilot is not properly trimming the stabilizer Partial failure of a Flight Control Computer Illuminates only with autopilot engaged Remains extinguished when the autopilot is not engaged  On the ground Partial failure of a Flight Control Computer Illuminates after landing when groundspeed is less than 30 knots 43. What does illumination of a FLT CONTROL LOW PRESSURE light indicate? [FCOM 9.10.2]  Low Hydraulic System (A or B) pressure to ailerons, rudder and elevator  Deactivated when associated FLIGHT CONTROL switch is positioned to STBY RUD and standby rudder shutoff valve opens 44. How can the standby rudder system be pressurized? [FCOM 9.10.1, 9.20.16]  By either Flight Control switch in the STBY RUD position or  Automatically during takeoff or landing or  Automatically by the Force Fight Monitor 45. What does the illumination of the STBY RUD ON light indicate? [FCOM 9.10.2]  Standby rudder system is commanded on to pressurize the standby rudder power control unit 46. What is the purpose of the Force Fight Monitor (FFM) on the Main Rudder PCU? [FCOM 9.20.15]  Detects opposing pressure (force fight) between A and B actuators  This may occur if either Hydraulic System A or B input is jammed or disconnected FLIGHT CONTROLS 47. How would you know that the Force Fight Monitor (FFM) has sensed a jammed rudder? [FCOM 9.20.15]  Illuminates the STBY RUD ON, Master Caution, and Flight Control (FLT CONT) lights  The FFM output is used to automatically turn on the Standby Hydraulic pump and open the standby rudder shutoff valve to pressurize the standby rudder PCU 48. What does the Rudder Trim control switch do? [FCOM 9.20.16]  Electrically repositions the Rudder Feel and Centering Unit and displaces the Rudder pedals 49. Will the rudder trim operate with the autopilot engaged?  Yes 50. How many yaw dampers does the yaw damper system consist of? [FCOM 9.20.16]  Main Yaw Damper  Standby Yaw Damper 51. What protections does the yaw damper provide? [FCOM 9.20.16]  Dutch roll prevention  Gust damping  Turn coordination 52. When will the Yaw Damper switch automatically move to the OFF position? [FCOM 9.20.16]  SMYD senses a yaw damper system fault or  SMYD senses that the yaw damper does not respond to a command or  B FLT CONTROL switch is positioned to OFF or STBY RUD 53. When is the Standby Yaw Damper available? [FCOM 9.20.16]  During manual reversion (loss of Hydraulic System A and B) when both FLT CONTROL switches are positioned to STBY RUD and the YAW DAMPER switch is reset to ON 54. The loss of Hydraulic Systems A and B will render which spoiler panels inoperative? [FCOM 9.20.21]  All Spoiler panels (Flight and Ground spoilers) 55. What happens when electrical power is lost to the Spoilers Control Electronics (SCE) Unit? [FCOM 9.20.18]  All spoilers are inoperative and will retract if extended 56. Which Flight Control switch(es) are used for maintenance purposes only? [FCOM 9.10.1, 9.10.2]  SPOILER A and B 57. During landing or rejected takeoff, when would the auto speedbrake system operate if the speedbrake lever was in the down position? [FCOM 9.20.20]  Main landing gear wheels spin up (more than 60 kts)  Both thrust levers are retarded to IDLE  Reverse thrust levers are positioned for reverse thrust 58. What does illumination of a SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light indicate? [FCOM 9.10.9]  Fault within the auto speedbrake system 59. When does the SPEED BRAKES EXTENDED light illuminate? [FCOM 9.20.18]  In-flight, the light illuminates to warn the crew that the speedbrakes are extended while in the landing configuration or below 800 feet AGL  It also illuminates if the speedbrakes are extended and the thrust levers are greater than idle for 15 seconds, or a thrust lever is greater than approximately 40 degrees for 3 seconds  On the ground, the light illuminates when hydraulic pressure is sensed in the ground spoiler shutoff valve with the speedbrake lever in the DOWN position  FLIGHT CONTROLS 60. What would cause the Leading Edge (LE) FLAPS TRANSIT (amber) light to illuminate? [FCOM 9.10.12, 9.10.13]  Any LE device in transit  Any LE device not in programmed position with respect to TE Flaps  Two (2) or more LE Flaps or Slats moved from their commanded position 61. What are the normal landing flap settings? [FCOM 9.20.22]  Flaps 15, 30, 40  Flaps 15 is normally limited to airports where approach climb performance is a factor 62. Why do we have Flap gates at Flap positions 1 and 15 on the Flap track? [FCOM 9.10.11]  Prevent accidental Flap lever movement beyond:  position 15, to check Flap position for a normal Go Around  position 1, to check Flap position for a One-Engine-Inoperative Go Around 63. What is the purpose of the Flap Load Relief function? [FCOM 9.20.22]  Protects the Trailing Edge Flaps from excessive air loads  When the Flap Load Relief function activates, the FLAP lever does not move, but the flap position indicator shows flap retraction and re–extension 64. How far do the Flaps move during load relief? [FCOM 9.20.22, 9.20.23]  One Flap setting lower than selected Flap setting (from 40 to 30, from 30 to 25, from 25 to 15, from 15 to 10, from 10 to 5) 65. What does illumination of an AUTO SLAT FAIL light during Master Caution RECALL indicate? Would you perform the QRH Non- normal checklist in this scenario? [FCOM 9.10.4]  Failure of a single Stall Management Yaw Damper (SMYD)  No 66. With the failure of Hydraulic System B, is it possible to extend/retract the Leading Edge (LE) Flaps & Slats and Trailing Edge (TE) Flaps? [FCOM 9.20.23]  Yes, using the alternate flap extension  Leading Edge (LE) Flaps & Slats extend only (uses Standby Hydraulic System)  Trailing Edge (TE) Flaps extend and retract (uses electric motor) 67. What happens when you place the ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch to ARM? [FCOM 9.20.23]  Activates the Standby Hydraulic Pump  Closes the Trailing Edge Flap Bypass Valve  Arms the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch 68. What happens if you momentarily place the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch to the DOWN position? [FCOM 9.20.23]  Extends the LE Flaps and Slats using standby hydraulic pressure to the full extend (FULL EXT) position 69. When using the alternate flap extension method, how long is the extension time from Flaps Up to Flaps 15? [QRH 9.40]  About 2 minutes 70. What is an asymmetry condition? [FCOM 9.20.25]  If a device on one wing does not align with the symmetrical device on the other wing 71. What is a skew condition? [FCOM 9.20.25]  Symmetrical TE flaps do not operate at the same rate causing the panels to twist during extension or retraction 72. When using alternate flap extension, is asymmetry or skew protection provided? [FCOM 9.20.23]  No FLIGHT CONTROLS 73. What protection does the Flap Slat Electronic Unit (FSEU) provide when it detects a TE asymmetry or a skew? [FCOM 9.20.25]  Closes the TE flap bypass valve  Displays a needle split on the flap position indicator  Shows position of left and right wing Trailing Edge Flaps 74. What protection does the Flap Slat Electronic Unit (FSEU) provide when it detects an uncommanded motion of Leading Edge (LE) devices on one wing? [FCOM 9.20.25, 9.20.26]  Shuts down the LE control and illuminates the amber LE FLAPS TRANSIT light  To prevent uncommanded motion from occurring on the LE devices during cruise, the FSEU maintains pressure on the retract lines and depressurizes the extend and full extend lines 75. What protection does the Flap Slat Electronic Unit (FSEU) provide when it detects an uncommanded motion of Trailing Edge (TE) devices? [FCOM 9.20.26]  Shuts down the TE drive unit by closing the TE flap bypass valve  The TE Flap shutdown cannot be reset by the flight crew and they must use the alternate flap system to control TE Flaps [INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK]  FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS & DISPLAYS 1. Where is the Static Air Temperature (SAT) displayed? [FCOM 10.20.11]  CDU PROGRESS page 2. What happens if a single Display Processing Computer (DPC) fails? [FCOM 10.20.2]  Automatic switching is provided to select which DPC drives all four displays 3. Where is the DISPLAYS SOURCE select switch located, and what does it allow the crew to do? [FCOM 10.20.2]  Located on DISPLAYS Panel (overhead panel)  Manually select which DPC drives the DUs, overriding the automation 4. What does the DSPLY SOURCE 1/2 (amber) annunciation indicate on the Primary Flight Display (PFD)? [FCOM 10.10.37, 10.20.2]  DPC 1 has failed or DPC 2 has failed or  If the displays are automatically or manually switched to a single DPC source 5. What does the DISPLAYS CONTROL PANEL (amber) annunciation indicate on the Primary Flight Display (PFD)? [FCOM 10.10.38]  Failed EFIS Control Panel on the affected side 6. What happens if one EFIS Control Panel fails? [FCOM 10.10.38, 10.20.3]  The displays can be controlled by the remaining control panel by selecting BOTH ON 1 or BOTH ON 2 (as directed by the QRH procedure) 7. What happens to the weather radar if there is an EFIS Control Panel failure in flight? [FCOM 10.15.5]  The WXR switch is automatically selected OFF 8. What happens when an Outboard DU failure is sensed? [FCOM 10.20.5]  Displays will automatically reconfigure  The MFD display adjacent to the failed DU is replaced by a reduced size PFD 9. What happens when an Inboard DU failure is sensed? [FCOM 10.20.6]  Displays will automatically reconfigure  Max Display System (MDS) ensures each pilot has a PFD and an Engine Display is always shown 10. What happens when an Inboard DU fails while displaying the Engine Display? [FCOM 10.20.6]  Engine Display will transfer to the remaining Inboard DU 11. When both Inboard DUs fail, what happens to the Engine Display? [FCOM 10.20.7]  Engine Display will not be shown  Display Select switches can be used to show the Engine Display on the desired outboard DU 12. What are the components of the standby flight instruments? [FCOM 10.20.12]  Standby Magnetic Compass  Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) 13. How is the ISFD powered? [FCOM 10.20.12]  Battery Bus  Activating the Battery switch turns on the ISFD FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS & DISPLAYS 14. How long does the initialization sequence of the ISFD take? [FCOM 10.20.12]  90 seconds 15. How are failures/invalid information displayed on the PFD? [FCOM 10.30.1]  Failure flags are displayed for system failures  Blanked or replaced by dashes when no valid information is available 16. How is the Maximum Operating Speed (red and black) indicated on the PFD? [FCOM 10.10.6]  The bottom of the bar indicates the maximum speed limited by Vmo/Mmo, Landing Gear placard speed, or Flap placard speed 17. What does the amber bar indicate in the Maximum Maneuver Speed/High-Speed Buffet indication on the PFD? [FCOM 10.10.6]  When the flaps are up, the bottom of the amber bar indicates the maximum maneuver speed  This airspeed provides a 1.3g maneuver capability to high-speed buffet 18. What does the Maximum Maneuver Speed/Next Flap Position Placard Speed (amber) indication represent? [FCOM 10.10.9]  When the flaps are not fully retracted, the bottom of the amber bar indicates the placard speed for the next normal flap setting sequence of 1, 5, 15, 30, 40 19. What is the purpose of the V2+15 (white/shark tooth) indication on the display? [FCOM 10.10.8]  Displayed for takeoff  Removed at the first Flap retraction or when VREF is entered in the CDU 20. What does the Minimum Maneuver Speed (amber) indication represent? [FCOM 10.10.8]  Provides 1.3g maneuver capability to the stick shaker below approximately 20,000 ft  Provides 1.3g maneuver capability to the low-speed buffet above approximately 20,000 ft 21. What does the Minimum Speed (red and black) indication represent? [FCOM 10.10.9]  The top of the bar indicates the speed at which the stick shaker occurs 22. How can you manually enter N1 targets and V Speed bugs on the airspeed indicator? [FCOM 10.15.11]  Pressing the MFD Information (INFO) Switch on the Forward Electronic Panel 23. What does the Flight Path Vector (FPV) symbol represent? [FCOM 10.30.2]  Airplane's flight path angle vertically and drift angle laterally  Displayed on the PFD when the EFIS control panel FPV switch is selected on 24. When is the Pitch Limit Indication (PLI)(amber) displayed and what does it indicate? [FCOM 10.10.10]  Displayed when the flaps are not up or at slow speeds with the flaps up  Indicates the pitch limit for stick shaker activation 25. What happens to the Bank Pointer when the bank angle is 35 degrees or more? [FCOM 10.10.11]  Turns amber and fills 26. What happens to the Slip/Skid Indication when bank angle is 35 degrees or more? [FCOM 10.10.11]  Turns amber  FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS & DISPLAYS 27. When is the "ROLL/YAW ASYMMETRY" Alert displayed? [FCOM 10.10.42]  Autopilot engaged in single channel mode requiring more than 75% of the autopilot roll authority due to unusual asymmetric forces 28. When is the "ROLL/YAW ASYMMETRY" Alert replaced with "ROLL AUTHORITY"? [FCOM 10.10.42]  When 100% of the autopilot roll authority is required 29. When is the Roll Command Arrow displayed? [FCOM 10.10.44]  Bank angle exceeds 45 degrees or 65 degrees (if the pitch attitude is greater than 25 degrees) 30. How does the Roll Command Arrow behave? [FCOM 10.10.44]  Points in the shortest direction to wings level  If the bank angle passes 180 degrees, the arrow points in the new shortest direction to wings level 31. Where does the Navigation Source Reference appear? [FCOM 10.10.11, 10.10.12]  Above and to the left of the attitude display 32. How is excessive deviation of the localizer indicated? [FCOM 10.30.3]  At low Radio Altitudes with the autopilot engaged, the scale turns amber and the pointer flashes 33. Under what conditions is the glideslope pointer not displayed? [FCOM 10.30.3]  Glideslope signal is unusable or  Track and the Front Course on the Mode Control Panel differ by more than 90 degrees (Backcourse) 34. How is excessive glideslope deviation indicated? [FCOM 10.30.3]  At low Radio Altitudes with the autopilot engaged, the scale turns amber and the pointer flashes 35. Where and when is the Radio Altitude displayed? [FCOM 10.30.3, 10.10.16]  Bottom center of the attitude indication area  Displayed when Radio Altitude is below 2,500 feet AGL  The display box is highlighted in white for 10 seconds upon descent below 2,500 ft 36. When is the Rising Runway indication displayed? [FCOM 10.10.16]  When localizer signal is usable and the pointer is in view and  Radio Altitude is less than 2,500 ft 37. What does the Landing Altitude Reference Bar represent and how is it displayed? [FCOM 10.30.4]  Indicates the height above touchdown  Displayed along the inner edge of the altitude indication White bar: 500 to 1,000 ft above the landing altitude Amber bar: 0 to 500 ft above the landing altitude 38. When is the Part Time Mini-Map displayed? [FCOM 10.30.4]  When an Inboard Display failure occurs 39. What information can be displayed on the Part Time Mini-Map? [FCOM 10.30.5]  TCAS targets  Terrain/Weather/PWS  True Airspeed (TAS)/Ground Speed (GS)/Wind Direction and Wind Speeds FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS & DISPLAYS 40. Is the range of the Part Time Mini-MAP adjustable? [FCOM 10.30.5]  No  Fixed range of 20 NM 41. How are failures/invalid information displayed on the ND? [FCOM 10.40.2]  Failure flags are displayed for system failures  Blanked or replaced by dashes when the source system information is not available 42. What is the PLN mode used for? [FCOM 10.40.1]  The active route can be viewed using the STEP prompt on the CDU LEGS pages 43. What does the WXR switch on the EFIS control panel do? [FCOM 10.15.5]  Energizes the weather radar transmitter  Displays weather radar returns in specific modes  Limits weather radar returns to 320 nm when the 640 nm range is selected 44. How do you adjust the brightness of Radar/Terrain? [FCOM 10.15.9]  By adjusting the respective Inboard or Outboard display brightness rotary control 45. Are speed constraints shown on the ND when DATA switch is selected? [FCOM 10.15.5]  No 46. What does the Vertical Situation Display (VSD) represent? [FCOM 10.10.49]  Profile view of the airplane and its environment along the current track  Information within the cyan dashed lines on the ND is shown in profile on the VSD 47. What does the enroute corridor on the ND represent on the vertical situation display (VSD)? [FCOM 10.10.49]  Information within the cyan dashed lines on the ND is shown in profile on the VSD 48. What does the BARO Minimums Pointer indicate on the Vertical Situation Display (VSD)? [FCOM 10.10.51]  Barometric minimums selected on the EFIS control panel  The pointer and dashed line turn amber when the airplane descends below the selected minimum altitude 49. What does the Range to Target Speed Dot (RTSD) indicate on the Vertical Situation Display (VSD)? [FCOM 10.10.52]  Where the airplane will achieve the FMC or MCP target speed [INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK]  FUEL 1. What is the normal fuel feed schedule for the engines? [FCOM 12.20.1]  Pressure fed from the center tank until the center tank quantity decreases to near zero  Then pressure fed from their respective main tanks 2. What is the purpose of the Nitrogen Generation System (NGS)? [FCOM 12.20.1]  Convert bleed air to Nitrogen-Enriched Air (NEA) during all phases of flight  Delivered to the center fuel tank to reduce flammability of the tank 3. Where is the indicator panel for the Nitrogen Generation System (NGS) located? [FCOM 12.10.10]  Right main wheel well 4. What is the indication that the Nitrogen Generation System (NGS) is not operating? [FCOM 12.10.10]  INOPERATIVE light (amber) is illuminated or  No lights illuminated on the indicator panel 5. With the center tank fuel pump switches ON, what happens to the center tank pumps if the sensor detects a low output pressure? [FCOM12.20.2]  Automatically shut down after a short time 6. If both AC fuel pumps fail in one main tank, can the engine still suction feed fuel from the respective tanks? [FCOM 12.20.2]  Yes  Each engine can draw fuel from its corresponding main tank through a suction feed line that bypasses the pumps 7. Can the engines suction feed fuel from the center tank? [FCOM 12.20.5]  No 8. What is the purpose of the crossfeed valve? [FCOM 12.20.2]  Allows fuel to feed from any tank to either engine 9. When the crossfeed VALVE OPEN light is extinguished, what is the position of the crossfeed valve? [FCOM 12.10.2]  Closed 10. When the crossfeed VALVE OPEN light illuminates’ dim, what is the position of the crossfeed valve? [FCOM 12.10.2]  Open 11. What does a crossfeed VALVE OPEN light (bright blue) indicate? [FCOM 12.10.2]  Crossfeed valve is in transit or  Valve position and CROSSFEED selector disagree 12. With the Crossfeed VALVE OPEN light extinguished, you move the crossfeed selector to the open position and the crossfeed VALVE OPEN light stays illuminated bright blue, what position is the crossfeed valve in? [FCOM 12.10.2]  Closed 13. What closes both the Spar Fuel Shutoff Valve and the Engine Fuel Shutoff Valve? [FCOM 12.10.1, 12.20.3]  Respective Engine Fire switch is pulled or  Respective Engine Start Lever is placed to CUTOFF 14. What does an ENG VALVE CLOSED (bright blue) and SPAR VALVE CLOSED (bright blue) light indicate? [FCOM 12.10.1]  Related engine or spar fuel shutoff valve is in transit, or  Valve position and Engine Start Lever or Engine Fire switch disagree 15. What does an ENG VALVE CLOSED (dim blue) and SPAR VALVE CLOSED (dim blue) light indicate? [FCOM 12.10.1]  Related engine or spar fuel shutoff valve is closed 16. What do the ENGINE VALVE CLOSED (blue) and SPAR VALVE CLOSED (blue) lights look like when the engines are running? [FCOM 12.10.1]  Extinguished  FUEL 17. As part of the preflight check, and before the engines are started, what should the ENGINE VALVE CLOSED (blue) and SPAR VALVE CLOSED (blue) lights look like? (dim or bright or extinguished)? [FCOM NP.21.18]  Dim 18. Which side of the fuel manifold is the APU being supplied with fuel, when all AC fuel pumps are operating? [FCOM 12.20.3]  Left side 19. The APU can suction feed from which tank? [FCOM 12.20.3]  Main Tank No. 1 20. What is the approximate usable fuel quantity for each tank? [FCOM 12.20.4]  Main Tank No. 1: 8,500 lbs  Main Tank No. 2: 8,500 lbs  Center Tank: 28,600 lbs 21. Which page of the CDU displays Total Fuel Quantity? [FCOM 11.40.26, 11.40.27]  PERF INIT 22. (True/False) With all fuel pumps selected on, a failure of one Main Tank pump will cause the FUEL system annunciator to automatically illuminate. [FCOM 15.20.2]  False  One LOW PRESSURE light causes MASTER CAUTION and FUEL system annunciator lights to illuminate on MASTER CAUTION light RECALL 23. (True/False) If both main tank FUEL PUMP LOW PRESSURE lights illuminate at high altitude, thrust deterioration or engine flameout may occur. [FCOM 12.20.2]  True 24. What happens to the center tank LOW PRESSURE lights when the center tank fuel pump switches are turned OFF? [FCOM 12.10.2]  Extinguish 25. What happens to the main tank LOW PRESSURE lights when the main tank fuel pump switches are turned OFF? [FCOM 12.10.2]  Illuminate 26. When do the FUEL system annunciator and MASTER CAUTION lights illuminate for a Center Tank Fuel Pump LOW PRESSURE light? [FCOM 12.10.2, 12.10.3]  If this signal continues for approximately 10 seconds 27. When does the CONFIG (amber) alert display? [FCOM 12.10.5]  Either engine is running and  Center tank fuel quantity is greater than 1,600 lbs. and  Both CTR FUEL PUMP switches are OFF 28. What does the IMBAL (amber) alert indicate? [FCOM 12.10.5]  Main tanks differ by more than 1,000 lbs 29. What does the USING RSV FUEL alert indicate? [FCOM 12.10.6]  FMC fuel at the destination is predicted to be less than the entered RESERVES fuel 30. What does the INSUFFICIENT FUEL alert indicate? [FCOM 12.10.6]  FMC fuel at the destination is predicted to be less than 2,000 lbs 31. What does the FUEL DISAGREE alert indicate? [FCOM 12.10.5]  The totalizer fuel quantity and the FMC calculated fuel quantity disagree 32. What does the LOW (amber) fuel alert indicate? [FCOM 12.10.5]  Fuel quantity in the respective main tank is less than 2,000 lbs [INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK] ELECTRICAL 1. Which Bus is always connected to the Battery? [FCOM 6.20.10]  Hot Battery Bus 2. When is the Switched Hot Battery Bus powered? [FCOM 6.20.9]  Whenever the Battery switch is ON 3. What is the Battery voltage range? [FCOM 6.20.9]  22 – 30 Volts 4. What does the BAT DISCHARGE (amber) light indicate? [FCOM 6.10.2, 6.10.3]  With BAT switch ON, excessive Battery discharge detected 5. The Integrated Drive Generators (IDGs) provide what kind of AC power? [FCOM 6.20.1]  115 Volt 400 cycle Alternating Current (AC) 6. What does the TR UNIT (amber) light indicate? [FCOM 6.10.2, 6.10.3, 6.20.9]  On the ground Any TR has failed  In flight TR1 failed or TR2 and TR3 failed 7. What does the ELEC (amber) light indicate? [FCOM 6.10.2, 6.10.3, 6.20.9]  A fault exists in DC power system or Standby Power system 8. When is the ELEC (amber) light on the metering panel inhibited? [FCOM 6.10.3]  Inflight 9. What are the two basic principles of operation for the 737 electrical system? [FCOM 6.20.1]  No paralleling of the AC sources of power  The source of power being connected to a Transfer Bus automatically disconnects an existing source 10. What does illumination of the GRD POWER AVAILABLE (blue) light indicate? [FCOM 6.10.7]  Ground power is connected and meets airplane power quality standards 11. What does the APU GEN OFF BUS (blue) light indicate? [FCOM 6.10.7, 6.10.8]  APU is running and not powering a Bus 12. After the APU is started, does the pilot have to manually select the APU GEN as the power source for the system? [FCOM 6.10.8, 6.10.9]  Yes 13. If the AC Transfer Buses are powered by External Power, momentarily positioning either APU GEN switch ON will cause the APU to power which Bus(es)? What lights would you see? [FCOM 6.10.8, 6.10.9]  Connects both AC Transfer Buses to APU generator  Opposite SOURCE OFF light illuminates until the other APU GEN switch is moved to ON 14. What does the SOURCE OFF (amber) light indicate? [FCOM 6.10.7, 6.10.8]  No source has been manually selected to power the related Transfer Bus, or the manually selected source has been disconnected If a source has been selected to power the opposite Transfer Bus, both Transfer Buses are powered  ELECTRICAL 15. Is it possible to power one Transfer Bus with External Power and the other Transfer Bus with APU power? [FCOM 6.20.4]  No 16. Whenever External Power or APU is powering both Transfer Buses, and engine generator power is applied to its onside Transfer Bus, does the External Power or APU continue to supply power to the remaining Transfer Bus? [FCOM 6.20.4]  Yes 17. What is the automatic generator on-line feature for the AC power system? [FCOM 6.20.4]  The AC power system incorporates an automatic generator on-line feature in case the airplane takes off with the APU powering both Transfer Buses  If the APU is either shut down or fails, the engine generators are automatically connected to their related Transfer Buses 18. What does the GEN OFF BUS (blue) light indicate? [FCOM 6.10.7, 6.10.8]  IDG is not supplying power to the related Transfer Bus 19. What does the BUS TRANSFER switch, in the AUTO (guarded) position, allow? [FCOM 6.10.7, 6.10.8]  Bus Tie Breakers (BTBs) operate automatically to maintain power to AC Transfer Buses from any operating generator or External Power  DC Cross Tie Relay automatically provides normal or isolated operation as required 20. What does the BUS TRANSFER switch, in the OFF position, allow? [FCOM 6.10.7, 6.10.8]  Isolates AC Transfer Bus 1 from AC Transfer Bus 2 if one IDG is supplying power to both AC Transfer Buses  DC Cross Tie Relay opens to isolate DC Bus 1 from DC Bus 2  Inhibits TR3 input from connecting to AC Transfer Bus 1 21. What does the TRANSFER BUS OFF (amber) light indicate? [FCOM 6.10.7]  Related Transfer Bus is not powered 22. What would cause the generator drive (DRIVE) amber caution light to illuminate? [FCOM 6.20.7]  Low oil pressure is sensed in the Integrated Drive Generator (IDG)  IDG low oil pressure is caused by one of the following: IDG failure Engine shutdown IDG automatic disconnect due to high oil temperature IDG disconnected through generator drive DISCONNECT switch 23. During single generator (engine generator) operations, what Buses are shed if an overload is sensed? [FCOM 6.20.5]  Galleys and Main Bus on Transfer Bus 2 are shed first  If an overload is still sensed, the Galleys and Main Bus on Transfer Bus 1 are shed  If overload still exists, the IFE Buses are shed 24. What Buses are shed when the APU is operating in flight as the single electrical source? [FCOM 6.20.5]  All Galley Buses and Main Buses are automatically shed  If load still exceeds design limits, then both IFE Buses are automatically shed 25. During ground operations, what happens if the APU Electrical demand exceeds design limits? [FCOM 7.30.4]  APU attempts to carry a full electrical load  If an overload condition is sensed, the APU sheds galley buses and main buses until the load is within limits 26. After load shedding of the Galley and Main Bus power, can it be manually restored? [FCOM 6.20.5]  It can be attempted by moving the CAB/UTIL Power switch to OFF, then back ON  ELECTRICAL 27. Inflight, if Generator 1 (GEN 1) fails, would AC Transfer Bus 1 also lose power? [FCOM 6.20.4]  No  The Bus Tie Breakers (BTBs) automatically close to allow the other engine generator to supply power to both Transfer Buses through the tie bus and BTBs 28. What is the purpose of the Battery Charger? [FCOM 6.20.10]  Restore and maintain the Battery at full electrical power 29. How long will a fully charged Battery provide Standby Power? [FCOM 6.20.9]  30 minutes 30. What does the STANDBY POWER switch, in the AUTO (guarded) position, allow? [FCOM 6.10.5, 6.10.6]  In flight, or on the ground, and AC Transfer Buses powered: AC Standby Bus is powered by AC Transfer Bus 1 DC Standby Bus is powered by TR1, TR2 and TR3  In flight, or on the ground, loss of all AC power: AC Standby Bus is powered by Battery through Static Inverter DC Standby Bus is powered by Battery Battery bus is powered by Battery 31. What does the STANDBY POWER switch, in the OFF (center) position, allow? [FCOM 6.10.5, 6.10.6]  STANDBY PWR OFF light illuminates  AC Standby Bus, Static Inverter, and DC Standby Bus are not powered 32. What does the STANDBY PWR OFF (amber) light indicate? [FCOM 6.10.5]  One or more of the following Buses are unpowered: AC Standby Bus DC Standby Bus Battery Bus 33. What does the STANDBY POWER switch, in the BAT (unguarded) position, allow? [FCOM 6.10.5, 6.10.6, 6.20.12]  AC Standby Bus is powered by Battery through Static Inverter  DC Standby Bus and Battery Bus are powered directly by Battery 34. Inflight with the loss of all generators, what Buses are powered during Standby Power operation? [FCOM 6.20.12, 6.20.13]  Hot Battery Bus  Battery Bus  Switched Hot Battery Bus  DC Standby Bus  AC Standby Bus (via the Static Inverter) 35. What flight instruments are available on Standby Power (all generators inoperative)? [FCOM 6.20.16]  Captain’s Outboard Display Unit with Primary Flight Display  Captain’s Inboard Display Unit with Navigation Display  Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD)  Left FMC  Left CDU 36. Where is the ground service switch located? [FCOM 6.10.9]  Forward Attendant Panel 37. What is the purpose of the ground service switch? [FCOM 6.10.9]  Provides manual control of Ground Service Buses  Enables servicing airplane using External Power without activating AC Transfer Buses [INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK]  FIRE PROTECTION 1. What systems have fire detection and protection capability? [FCOM 8.20.1]  Engine  APU  Lavatory 2. What only has a fire detection system? [FCOM 8.20.1]  Main wheel well 3. What kind of fire detection and protection system exists for the cargo compartments? [FCOM 8.20.1]  Smoke detection  Fire suppression 4. How many overheat/fire loops does each engine have? [FCOM 8.20.1]  2 5. When would the ENG1 or ENG2 OVERHEAT lights illuminate? [FCOM 8.20.1, 8.10.4]  When the temperature of the detector increases to a predetermined limit 6. When would the Engine (1 or 2) Fire switches illuminate? [FCOM 8.20.1, 8.10.4]  When the temperature of the detector reaches a higher predetermined limit than the overheat limit 7. What indication will you see in the flight deck if there is a single overheat/fire detector loop failure for the engine? [FCOM 8.20.1]  There is no flight deck indication of single loop failure 8. Normally both loops must sense an overheat or fire indication. Will you lose fire detection capability if there is a single engine loop failure? [FCOM 8.20.1]  No  If one loop fails with the OVHT DET switch in NORMAL, that loop is automatically deselected and the remaining loop functions as a single loop detector 9. What indications would be observed if there is an engine overheat? [FCOM 8.20.2, NP.21.19/20]  Both MASTER CAUTION lights illuminate  The OVHT/DET system annunciator light illuminates  The related ENG OVERHEAT light illuminates 10. What indications would be observed if there is an engine fire? [FCOM 8.20.2, NP.21.19/20]  Both MASTER CAUTION lights illuminate  Both master FIRE WARN lights illuminate  The OVHT/DET system annunciator light illuminates  Fire warning bell sounds  The related ENG OVERHEAT light illuminates  Related engine fire switch illuminates  Related engine start lever illuminates 11. How many extinguisher bottles does the engine fire extinguisher system contain? [FCOM 8.20.2]  2 12. Can both fire bottles suppress fire for one engine? [FCOM 8.20.2, 8.20.3]  Either or both bottles can be discharged into either engine 13. Why do some overhead system panels have light gray backgrounds? [----]  System panels with gray backgrounds are major systems that are affected by pulling a Fire switch  FIRE PROTECTION 14. What actions take place when you pull the engine fire switch? [FCOM 8.20.2]  Fuel: Closes engine fuel shutoff valve and Closes the spar fuel shutoff valve  Air: Closes the engine bleed air valve resulting in loss of wing anti–ice to the affected wing and closure of bleed air operated pack valve  Electric: Trips the generator control relay and breaker  Hydraulic: Closes the hydraulic fluid shutoff valve Engine driven hydraulic pump LOW PRESSURE light is deactivated  Disables thrust reverser for the related engine  Allows the engine fire switch to be rotated for discharge  Arms one discharge squib on each engine fire extinguisher bottle 15. What does the L or R BOTTLE DISCHARGE light indicate? [FCOM 8.20.2, 8.10.4]  Related fire extinguisher bottle has discharged or pressure is low 16. How many fire detection loops are installed on the APU? [FCOM 8.20.4]  A single fire detection loop 17. With the failure of the APU loop, do you lose APU fire detection capability? [FCOM 8.20.4]  Yes  The APU DET INOP light illuminates indicating the APU fire detection system is inoperative 18. What indications would be observed if there is an APU fire? [FCOM 8.20.4, NP.21.19/20]  Fire warning bell sounds  Both master FIRE WARN lights illuminate  APU fire switch illuminates  APU automatically shuts down  Wheel well APU fire warning horn sounds, (on the ground only), and the wheel well APU fire warning light flashes 19. How many extinguisher bottles does the APU fire extinguisher system contain? [FCOM 8.20.4]  1 20. Where is the APU ground control panel located? [FCOM 8.20.4, 8.10.7]  Right main wheel well 21. What actions take place when you pull the APU fire switch? [FCOM 8.20.2]  Provides backup for the automatic shutdown feature  Closes the APU air inlet door  Fuel: Deactivates the fuel solenoid and Closes the APU fuel shutoff valve  Air: Closes the APU bleed air valve  Electric: Trips the APU generator control relay and breaker 22. Does the nose wheel well have fire detection capability? [FCOM 80.20.5]  No  FIRE PROTECTION 23. What indications would be observed if there is a fire in the main wheel well? [FCOM 8.20.5]  Fire warning bell sounds  Both master FIRE WARN lights illuminate  WHEEL WELL fire warning light illuminates 24. How are the cargo compartment smoke detector loops configured? [FCOM 8.20.5]  Dual loop configuration 25. How many cargo compartment loops do you need to detect smoke? [FCOM 8.20.5]  Both detection loops must sense smoke to cause an alert 26. Do you lose cargo compartment smoke detection if one of the loops fails? [FCOM 8.20.5]  The system can be manually converted to a single loop with the DET SELECT switch on the cargo fire panel 27. What indications would be observed if there is a fire in the cargo compartment? [FCOM 8.20.5]  Fire warning bell sounds  Both master FIRE WARN lights illuminate  FWD/AFT cargo fire warning light(s) illuminates 28. How many fire suppression bottles are installed for the cargo compartment? [FCOM 8.20.6]  2 Halon filled fire suppression bottles 29. Are both cargo compartment fire suppression bottles the same? [FCOM 8.20.6]  No  One bottle is a High-Rate Discharge (HRD) and the other one is a Low-Rate Discharge (LRD) 30. Do both cargo compartment fire suppression bottles discharge at the same time? [FCOM 8.20.6]  No  Pushing the cargo fire DISCH completely discharges the High-Rate Discharge (HRD) bottle contents into the selected cargo compartment and starts a 15 minute timer  After 15 minutes, the Low-Rate Discharge (LRD) bottle discharges its contents at a reduced metered flow into the selected compartment 31. How long do the bottles provide cargo compartment fire suppression? [FCOM 8.20.6]  Total 75 mins (supporting a 60 minute diversion and a 15 minute reserve) 32. Would the cargo compartment fire suppression Low-Rate Discharge (LRD) bottle discharge if a landing was made before it discharged? [FCOM 8.20.6]  No 33. What fire protection is provided for the lavatory? [FCOM 8.20.7]  Lavatory smoke detection  Lavatory fire extinguishing (heat activated) 34. What indication would be observed in the flight deck if there is smoke detected in the lavatory? [FCOM 8.20.7]  There is no flight deck indication 35. Where is the lavatory fire extinguisher system located? [FCOM 8.20.7]  Beneath the sink area in each lavatory 36. How is the lavatory fire extinguisher operated? [FCOM 8.20.7]  When lavatory fire is detected the fire extinguisher operation is automatic  FIRE PROTECTION 37. What indication would be observed in the flight deck for the discharge of the lavatory fire extinguisher? [FCOM 8.20.7]  There is no flight deck indication of extinguisher discharge [INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK]  ENGINES & APU 1. Where do the Primary and Secondary Engine Indications automatically display if there is a failure of the Inboard DU? [FCOM 7.20.1]  Opposite DU 2. How would you transfer the Engine displays between Inboard Display Units? [FCOM 7.10.18]  Pressing the ENG TFR button on the Engine Display Control Panel 3. What is indicated when A/T LIM is displayed? [FCOM 7.10.3]  Degraded N1 is being calculated for the affected engine 4. What is the meaning of the amber N1 Maximum Bug? [FCOM 7.10.4]  N1 value for full rated thrust computed by the EEC through all phases of flight  Upper limit for autothrottle operation 5. How are N1, EGT and N2 exceedances displayed? [FCOM 7.20.2]  The digital readout, box, pointer, and indicator change color to red or amber 6. What is indicated by a Red Box on the N1 readout on ground after engine shutdown? [FCOM 7.10.4]  An Inflight exceedance has occurred 7. What does the EGT Amber Band indicate? [FCOM 7.10.6]  Lower end of band displays maximum continuous EGT limit 8. What indicates a Max Continuous EGT limit exceedance? [FCOM 7.10.7]  Digital EGT readout turns amber 9. What does the EGT Redline indicate? [FCOM 7.10.6]  Maximum takeoff EGT limit  Maximum In-flight start EGT limit when the start limit redline is not shown 10. What indicates a Takeoff or Start EGT limit exceedance? [FCOM 7.10.6]  Digital EGT readout turns red 11. How are Oil Pressure and Oil Temperature exceedances displayed? [FCOM 7.20.2]  If the oil temperature or pressure reaches the caution range, the digital readout, digital readout box, and pointer all change color to amber  If one of these indications reach the operating limit, the digital readout, digital readout box, and pointer all change color to red 12. How is Engine Oil Quantity displayed? [FCOM 7.10.15]  Usable oil quantity as a percentage of full quantity  NOTE: Indicated oil quantity may decrease during engine start, takeoff and climb out  If this occurs, engine operation is not impacted 13. What is displayed to indicate a low oil quantity? [FCOM 7.10.15]  Oil Quantity is displayed in Reverse Video along with LO 14. How is high engine vibration indicated? [FCOM 7.10.15]  Reverse video  A tick mark and thick line shows the high vibration limit  ENGINES & APU 15. If blinking is not inhibited, how are the Crew Alerts illuminated? [FCOM 7.10.8]  The alert and entire block will blink for 10 seconds and then the alert only will remain steady until the condition no longer exists 16. What does a START VALVE OPEN alert indicate? [FCOM 7.10.8]  Respective engine start valve open and air is supplied to starter 17. What does an OIL FILTER BYPASS alert indicate? [FCOM 7.10.8]  An impending bypass of oil supply filter 18. What does a LOW OIL PRESSURE alert Indicate? [FCOM 7.10.8]  Oil pressure at or below red line 19. What does a THRUST alert indicate? [FCOM 7.10.9]  Thrust is more or less than commanded  Displayed in conjunction with amber N1 command sector for affected engine 20. What does a FUEL FLOW alert Indicate? [FCOM 7.10.9]  Engine fuel flow is abnormally high when compared to FMC expected fuel flow 21. How do you display all pointers/digits for all engine parameters? [FCOM 7.20.2]  Positioning the Engine Start switch to GRD supplies electrical power to the EEC and displays pointers/digits for all engine parameters 22. What provides Full Authority Digital Engine Control to control and monitor engine parameters? [FCOM 7.20.3]  Electronic Engine Controls (EEC) 23. What are the two EEC Control Modes? [FCOM 7.20.3]  NORMAL  ALTERNATE 24. In Normal Mode, what does the Electronic Engine Control (EEC) use to calculate N1 thrust ratings? [FCOM 7.20.3]  Sensed flight conditions and bleed air demand 25. The Electronic Engine Control (EEC) provides exceedance protection for which parameter(s) in both the Normal and Alternate modes? [FCOM 7.20.4]  N1 and N2 redline overspeed protection 26. Does the EEC provide EGT exceedance protection? [FCOM 7.20.4]  No  EGT limit must be observed by the crew because the EEC does not provide EGT redline exceedance protection, except during a ground start 27. Where is Full Rated thrust for the installed engine available? [FCOM 7.20.3]  At a thrust lever position less than the forward stop 28. When does the EEC automatically switch from NORMAL to SOFT ALTERNATE Mode? [FCOM 7.20.3]  If required signals are not available to operate in the normal mode 29. With a loss of either Display Processing Computer (DPC) what happens to the EECs? [FCOM 7.20.3]  Loss of either DPC results in a loss of signal to both EECs  EEC ALTN lights illuminate and each EEC reverts to the alternate mode to prevent the engines from operating on a single source of data  ENGINES & APU 30. What indicates the EECs are in SOFT ALTERNATE mode? [FCOM 7.10.19]  Both ON and ALTN displayed in the EEC guarded pushbuttons 31. What does the EEC use to define engine parameters in the SOFT ALTERNATE mode? [FCOM 7.20.3]  The last valid flight conditions 32. In which ALTERNATE Mode can thrust rating shortfalls or exceedances occur as ambient conditions change? [FCOM 7.20.3]  SOFT ALTERNATE 33. How is HARD ALTERNATE Mode automatically selected? [FCOM 7.20.3]  When the Thrust Levers are moved to Idle while in SOFT ALTERNATE mode 34. What are the possible EEC modes with the Engine EEC switch showing both the ON (white) and ALTN (amber) displays illuminated? [FCOM 7.20.4]  SOFT ALTERNATE Mode  HARD ALTERNATE Mode if HARD ALTERNATE Mode was entered by reducing the thrust lever to idle while in SOFT ALTERNATE Mode 35. How can HARD ALTERNATE Mode be manually selected? [FCOM 7.20.3]  Pressing the EEC switches on the engine panel 36. How do you know if HARD ALTERNATE Mode has been entered manually? [FCOM 7.20.4]  When ALTN is selected manually, the ON indication is blanked 37. How is engine thrust calculated in HARD ALTERNATE Mode? [FCOM 7.20.4]  EEC reverts to the alternate mode thrust schedule  Hard alternate mode thrust is always equal to or greater than the normal mode thrust for the same lever position  EEC limiting is not provided in the hard alternate mode and maximum rated thrust may be reached at a thrust lever position less than full forward 38. What causes the illumination of the REVERSER COMMAND light on the Engine Panel? [FCOM 7.10.18]  Reverse lever is not in the down position in-flight (inhibited on the ground) 39. What causes the illumination of the REVERSER AIR/GRD light on the Engine Panel? [FCOM 7.10.18]  Thrust Reverse Air/Ground logic has failed 40. What causes the illumination of the REVERSER LIMITED light on the Engine Panel? [FCOM 7.10.18]  On the ground: A fault has occurred in the thrust reverser system  In flight: A fault in the thrust reverser system limits Reverse Thrust (Thrust Reverse may not deploy or be limited to Idle) 41. What causes the illumination of the ENGINE CONTROL light on the Engine Panel? [FCOM 7.10.18, 7.10.19]  Fault(s) in the Engine Control System (not dispatchable)  Light operates when: Engine is operating and Airplane on ground and: Below 80 kts prior to takeoff or Approximately 30 seconds after touchdown 42. During the Before Start flow, the CENTER FUEL PUMPS should be selected ON if the center tank fuel quantity exceeds _______?  1,000 lbs 43. When does the testing of Thrust Control Malfunction Accommodation (TCMA) occur? [FCOM 7.20.9]  During Engine Start  ENGINES & APU 44. What does Thrust Control Malfunction Accommodation (TCMA) do? [FCOM 7.20.4]  Provides protection against idle thrust asymmetry conditions while on the ground (RTO or landing roll)  EEC commands shutdown of the affected engine when the: Airplane is on the ground and Thrust lever is at idle and Engine is above idle speed and not decelerating normally 45. What does Electronic Overspeed System (EOS) do? [FCOM 7.20.4]  EOS is an EEC function that provides protection against the exceedance of engine structural design limits  If an uncontrollable N2 overspeed condition is detected in flight, the EEC automatically shuts off fuel to the affected engine 46. What are the four possible “Idle” settings available through the EEC? [FCOM 7.20.5]  Ground Minimum Idle  Flight Minimum Idle  Icing Idle  Approach Idle 47. What is the purpose of Approach Idle? [FCOM 7.20.5]  Improves engine acceleration time in the event of a go–around 48. What determines which ignitors are used during engine starts?  The Ignition Select switch is moved to IGN L, IGN R, or BOTH 49. What are the functions of the Engine Start switch in the GRD position? [FCOM 7.10.16]  Opens start valve  Closes engine bleed valve  For ground starts, arms selected igniter(s) to provide ignition when Engine Start Lever is moved to IDLE  For inflight starts, arms both igniters to provide ignition when Engine Start Lever is moved to IDLE  Releases to OFF after starter cutout 50. What is displayed on the N2 gauge between 18% and 24% N2 while Bowed Rotor Motoring (BRM) is active? [FCOM 7.20.9]  MOTORING 51. What is the purpose of Bowed Rotor Motoring (BRM)? [FCOM 7.20.9]  Straightens the N1 and N2 rotor shafts which will bow due to thermal buildup after the engine is shutdown 52. How long is the Bowed Rotor Motoring (BRM) active? [FCOM 7.20.9]  6-90 seconds  On the ground only 53. What is the recommended N2 value for moving the Engine Start Lever to Idle during engine start? [FCOM 7.20.9]  25% or max motoring (if less than 25%)  Maximum motoring occurs when N2 acceleration is less than 1% in approximately 5 seconds 54. What triggers the test of the TCMA and EOS functions during engine start? [FCOM 7.20.9]  Moving the Engine Start Lever to IDLE 55. What happens during the TCMA and EOS test? [FCOM 7.20.9]  Fuel Flow will indicate zero and the Engine Fuel Shutoff Valve will open and close repeatedly  ENG VALVE CLOSED light will illuminate and remain bright blue during this logic test, and will extinguish when the test is complete  ENGINES & APU 56. During ground starts, what does the EEC monitor and detect? [FCOM 7.20.9]  Wet starts  Engine Stalls  Impending Hot Starts  EGT start limit exceedances 57. When will the EEC abort a start? [FCOM 7.20.9]  Only during ground starts  Wet starts  Engine Stalls (compressor stall)  Impending Hot Starts (rapid rise in EGT or EGT approaching start limit)  EGT start limit exceedances 58. What is a Wet Start? [FCOM 7.20.10]  EGT does not rise after the Engine Start Lever is moved to IDLE 59. If a Wet Start is detected during engine start, what does the EEC do? [FCOM 7.20.10]  Turns off the ignition and shuts off fuel to the engine 15 seconds after the Engine Start Lever is moved to IDLE 60. What is the indication of Compressor Stall or Impending Hot Start during engine start? [FCOM 7.20.9]  White box surrounding the EGT digital readout flashes white  EEC software automatically shuts off fuel for: Compressor Stall or Impending Hot Start during ground starting 61. What is indicated if the EGT dial and box readout turn RED during the engine start? [FCOM 7.20.10]  EGT has exceeded the starting limit 62. If the EGT exceeds the starting limit during engine start, what does the EEC do? [FCOM 7.20.9]  Automatically turns off the ignition and shuts off fuel to the engine 63. Does the EEC provide red line EGT exceedance protection other than on the ground during engine start? [FCOM 7.20.9]  No  The EGT limit must be observed by the crew 64. Is abnormal start protection available for In-flight engine starts? [FCOM 7.20.9]  No  Abnormal start protection is available on ground starts only 65. What is the approximate Starter Cutout N2? [FCOM 7.20.9]  63% 66. What does the EGT Start Limit redline indicate? [FCOM 7.10.6]  Start EGT Limit (displayed until the engine achieves stabilized idle at approximately 66% N2)  For ground starts and some in-flight starts as determined by the EEC 67. How long after takeoff is the display of EGT exceedances inhibited? [FCOM 7.10.6]  5 minutes 68. How is an Engine Flameout sensed? [FCOM 7.20.10]  Uncommanded rapid decrease in N2 occurs or  N2 is below idle RPM  ENGINES & APU 69. With the Engine Start switch in the OFF position, what happens in flight with the Engine Start Lever in IDLE and there is an uncommanded rapid decrease in N2? [FCOM 7.10.16]  Both igniters are activated when Engine Start Lever is in IDLE 70. What are the two conditions for an ENG FAIL alert to be displayed? [FCOM 7.10.7]  Engine operating below sustainable idle and Engine Start Lever in the IDLE position  Alert remains until: Engine recovers Engine Start Lever moved to CUTOFF Engine Fire switch pulled 71. What are the 2 methods of starting the engines in-flight? [FCOM 7.20.10]  Windmill  Crossbleed 72. When is X-BLD displayed above the N2 indications? [FCOM 7.10.12]  When crossbleed is recommended for Inflight start when airspeed is too low for windmilling start 73. When the Standby Hydraulic System is used, does the affected Thrust Reverser deploy at a normal rate? [FCOM 7.20.11]  No  Affected Thrust Reverser deploys and retracts at a slower rate and some thrust asymmetry can be anticipated 74. What are the conditions required for Thrust Reverser deployment? [FCOM 7.20.12]  Either Radio Altimeter senses less than 10 feet altitude  Forward thrust levers are in the idle position  Air/Ground safety sensor in the ground mode 75. What does amber REV indicate? [FCOM 7.10.5]  Thrust Reverser is moved from stowed position 76. What does green REV indicate? [FCOM 7.10.5]  Thrust Reverser is deployed 77. What are the functions of the Engine Start switch in the CONT position? [FCOM 7.10.16]  Provides ignition to selected igniters when engine is operating and Engine Start Lever is in IDLE  In flight - provides ignition to both igniters when N2 is below idle and Engine Start Lever is in IDLE 78. What are the functions of the Engine Start switch in the FLT position? [FCOM 7.10.16]  Provides ignition to both igniters when Engine Start Lever is in IDLE  Operates both igniters regardless of the selected igniter 79. What happens to the ENG and SPAR Valves when the respective Engine Fire switch is pulled? [FCOM 7.20.7]  Both CLOSE 80. What position must the BATTERY switch, APU Fire switch and APU Fire Ground Control Handle be in, to start and run the APU? [FCOM 7.30.2]  Battery switch must be ON  APU fire switch on the overheat/fire panel must be IN  APU fire control handle on the APU ground control panel must be IN 81. Which Electrical source powers the APU Starter? [FCOM 7.30.2]  No. 1 Transfer Bus or the airplane Battery  ENGINES & APU 82. What does the APU DOOR light mean? [FCOM 7.10.22]  APU door is open when APU is shut down (in air or on ground)  In flight - door is not in flight position  On ground - door is not in ground position 83. How long can an APU Start take? [FCOM 7.30.3]  120 seconds 84. What does illumination of the APU GEN OFF BUS signal indicate? [FCOM 7.30.3]  APU is ready to accept a Bleed Air or Electrical Load 85. How would you know if an APU start failed? [FCOM 7.30.3]  The APU GEN OFF BUS light fails to illuminate by the end of the start cycle  The FAULT light illuminates 86. What happens if the APU Fire switch is pulled during APU operation? [FCOM 7.30.3]  APU shuts down immediately 87. What will cause the APU to shut down automatically? [FCOM 7.30.4]  LOW OIL PRESSURE Light  FAULT Light  OVERSPEED Light 88. What does the APU LOW OIL PRESSURE light mean? [FCOM 7.10.22]  Illuminated during start until the APU oil pressure is normal  Oil pressure is low causing an automatic shutdown (after start cycle is complete)  Light is disarmed when APU switch is in OFF position  If light is illuminated when APU switch is placed to OFF, light extinguishes after 5 minutes 89. What does the APU FAULT light mean? [FCOM 7.10.22]  A malfunction exists causing APU to initiate an automatic shutdown  The light is disarmed when APU switch is in OFF position  If light is illuminated when APU switch is placed to OFF, light extinguishes after 5 minutes 90. What does the APU OVERSPEED light mean? [FCOM 7.10.22]  APU RPM limit has been exceeded resulting in an automatic shutdown  Overspeed shutdown protection feature has failed a self–test during a normal APU shutdown  The light is disarmed when the APU switch is in OFF position  If light is illuminated when APU switch is placed to OFF, light extinguishes after 5 minutes 91. How does the APU Electronic Control Unit (ECU) prioritize Electrical and Bleed requirements during engine starting? [FCOM 7.30.4]  When electrical load and air extraction raise the EGT above acceptable levels during engine starting, electrical load shedding occurs prior to reducing bleed air 92. How does the APU Electronic Control Unit (ECU) prioritize Electrical and Bleed requirements during flight? [FCOM 7.30.4]  When electrical load and air extraction raise the EGT above acceptable levels the inlet guide vanes move toward a closed position, reducing bleed air extraction while maintaining electrical load 93. What does selecting the OFF position of the APU switch do when the APU is running? [FCOM 7.10.22]  Trips APU generator off the bus(es), if connected  Closes APU bleed air valve  APU continues to run for a 60 second cooling period  APU air inlet door automatically closes after shutdown  ENGINES & APU 94. Does the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharge if a fire is detected? No [INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK]  AIR SYSTEMS 1. Which systems rely on bleed air for operation? [FCOM 2.20.1]  Air Conditioning/Pressurization  Wing and Engine thermal anti-icing  Engine starting  Hydraulic reservoirs pressurization  Water tank pressurization  Nitrogen Generation System 2. What would cause an engine BLEED light to illuminate? [FCOM 2.10.2, 2.20.2]  Excessive engine bleed air temperature, over-pressure or under-pressure  Failure within the bleed air system  Incorrect bleed air configuration after takeoff or go around, light illuminates 45 seconds after Flaps are up 3. When in the AUTO position, when does the isolation valve automatically open? [FCOM 2.10.1, 2.20.2]  If either engine BLEED air or air conditioning PACK switch is positioned OFF (any of the four corner switches) 4. What must the engine thrust be limited to with the DUAL BLEED light illuminated? [FCOM 2.20.3]  Idle 5. When does the DUAL BLEED light illuminate? [FCOM 2.10.1, 2.20.3]  APU bleed valve is open and either the ENGINE 1 BLEED air switch is ON or  ENGINE 2 BLEED air switch is ON with the ISOLATION VALVE open 6. What is the purpose of the DUAL BLEED light? [FCOM 2.20.3]  Call attention to the position of the APU bleed air valve, engine bleed air switches and isolation valve that would permit possible back pressure of the APU 7. Is it sometimes normal to see the DUAL BLEED light and, if so, when are you likely to see this light on in normal operations?  Yes  This would be a normal indication at times during the engine start sequence 8. Can a single pack maintain pressurization and acceptable temperatures throughout the airplane maximum certified altitude? [FCOM 2.30.1]  Yes, only in high flow 9. Can you operate both packs with APU bleed air inflight? [FCOM 2.30.1]  No  You can only operate a single pack inflight with APU bleed air 10. Can you operate both packs on the ground from one engine bleed air? [FCOM 2.30.1]  No  On the ground do not operate more than one pack from one engine 11. What conditions would cause the PACK light to illuminate? [FCOM 2.10.6, 2.30.3]  Pack trip off or failure of both primary and standby pack controls or  Failure of the Flow Control Valve to open when commanded on or  Incorrect pack switch configuration after takeoff (both pack lights illuminate if both pack switches are in the OFF position 45 seconds after the Flaps are up following takeoff) 12. What determines pack output air temperature? [FCOM 2.30.5]  The packs produce an air temperature that satisfies the zone which requires the most cooling  AIR SYSTEMS 13. How are zone temperatures controlled and regulated as the packs produce the coldest air? [FCOM 2.30.5]  By introducing the proper amount of trim air to the zone supply ducts  The quantity of trim air is regulated by individual trim air modulating valves 14. What is the function of the TRIP RESET switch? [FCOM 2.10.6]  If the fault condition is corrected, pushing the trip reset switch: Resets BLEED, PACK or ZONE TEMP lights Related engine bleed air valve opens, or related pack valve opens, or related trim air modulating valve opens 15. If a single Integrated Air Supply Controller (IASC) fails, do you lose complete temperature control? [FCOM 2.30.5]  Automatic transfer of control to the opposite IASC occurs  Flight deck (CONT CAB) temperature is operated normally  FWD CAB and AFT CAB temperature settings will be averaged 16. If all the Zone Temperature Selectors are positioned OFF, the IASCs will command the packs to output what temperature? [FCOM 2.30.6]  Left Pack: 75° F  Right Pack: 65° F 17. What would cause a ZONE TEMP light to illuminate? [FCOM 2.10.5]  CONT CAB indicates a duct temperature overheat or failure of the flight deck primary and standby temperature control  FWD CAB or AFT CAB indicates duct temperature overheat 18. What is the purpose of the recirculation fans? [FCOM 2.30.8]  Reduces the air conditioning system pack load and the engine bleed air demand 19. How many fans does the equipment cooling system contain? [FCOM 2.30.8]  Both the supply and exhaust duct each have a normal and an alternate fan 20. What happens when smoke is detected within the equipment cooling system? [FCOM 2.30.8]  E/E Cooling Supply Fan(s) turn OFF for approximately 5 minutes (OFF light for the supply fan does not illuminate)  Overboard Exhaust Valve opens to the smoke position  Recirculation fans turn off  Packs are automatically set to high flow 21. When would the OFF light illuminate on the EQUIP COOLING panel (SUPPLY/EXHAUST)? [FCOM 2.10.7, 2.30.8]  No airflow from selected cooling supply/exhaust fan 22. If on the ground and over temperature occurs within the equipment cooling system, how would the crew be alerted? [FCOM 2.30.8]  Through the crew call horn in the nose wheel well 23. How many automatic Cabin Pressure Controllers are there? [FCOM 2.40.1, 2.40.2]  2 24. What valves modulate for pressurization and ventilation purposes? [FCOM 2.40.1]  Outflow Valve  Overboard Exhaust Valve 25. During preflight what altitudes must be set in the pressurization control panel?  FLT ALT – (Fight or Cruise altitude)  LAND ALT (Landing or destination airport altitude)  AIR SYSTEMS 26. How do you manually swap Cabin Pressure Controllers? [FCOM 2.10.9, 2.10.11, 2.40.2]  Selecting ALTN on the cabin pressurization panel 27. When would the OFF SCHED DESCENT light illuminate? [FCOM 2.40.5, 2.10.9]  Airplane descended before reaching the planned cruise altitude set in the FLT ALT indicator 28. Would you have to reset the landing altitude in the cabin pressurization panel if the OFF SCHED DESCENT light was illuminated and you were returning back to the takeoff airport? [FCOM 2.40.5]  No  The controller programs the cabin to land at the takeoff field elevation without further pilot inputs  If the FLT ALT indicator is changed, the automatic abort capability to the original takeoff field elevation is lost 29. When would the AUTO FAIL light illuminate? [FCOM 2.40.6, 2.10.9]  Indicates a single controller failure when ALTN light is also illuminated  Indicates a dual controller failure when illuminated alone 30. If the Cabin Pressure Controller fails, does the pressure control automatically transfer to the other auto controller? [FCOM 2.40.6]  Yes  With illumination of the AUTO FAIL light, the pressure control automatically transfers to the other auto controller (ALTN mode) 31. When does the Overboard Exhaust Valve automatically open? [FCOM 2.40.3, 2.30.8]  Low differential pressure or  Either PACK switch is in HIGH and the right recirculation fan is off or  Smoke detected in the equipment cooling system or  Forward cargo fire alarm 32. In MAN pressurization mode, how is the Outflow Valve controlled? [FCOM 2.40.7]  The flight crew changes the position of the Outflow Valve using the Outflow Valve switch 33. In MAN pressurization mode, does the Outflow Valve DC motor operate at the same rate as automatic DC motors? [FCOM 2.40.7]  No  In MAN mode, a separate DC motor, powered by the DC standby system, drives the Outflow Valve at a faster rate than during AUTO or ALTN modes 34. In MAN pressurization mode, how long does it take for the Outflow Valve to go through its full range of motion? [FCOM 2.40.7]  20 seconds [INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK]  ANTI-ICE & RAIN 1. What will occur if the windshield wipers are operated on a dry windshield? [FCOM 3.20.3]  Windshield scratching 2. Which flight deck windows are heated? [FCOM 3.20.2]  Windows number 1 & 2 on each side 3. Besides window heat, what is another way to defog the number 1 flight deck windows? [FCOM 3.10.2, 3.20.3]  Pulling either the captain’s or first officer’s respective WINDSHEILD AIR control 4. What happens when an overheat condition is detected on windows number 1 or 2? [FCOM 3.20.2]  Power is automatically removed from those windows 5. What causes an OVERHEAT light to illuminate on the window heat panel? [FCOM 3.10.1]  Overheat condition is detected or  Electrical power to window(s) is interrupted 6. What does it mean if a window heat ON light extinguishes? [FCOM 3.10.1]  Switch is OFF or  Overheat is detected or  System failure has occurred or  System is at correct temperature 7. When would the PWR TEST be selected? [FCOM 3.10.1, 3.10.2]  When a confidence test is deemed necessary by either pilot to verify operation of the window heat system 8. What is the AUTO position used for on the probe heat panel? [FCOM 3.10.3]  Power is automatically supplied to both A and B probe heat systems when either engine is running 9. When the aircraft is on electrical standby power, which probe is heated? [FCOM 3.20.4]  Only the captain’s pitot probe is heated 10. When the aircraft is on electrical standby power, will the CAPT PITOT light illuminate for a failure? [FCOM 3.20.4]  No 11. With the engines running, what happens when you turn the ENG ANTI-ICE switch ON? [FCOM 3.10.4, 3.20.4]  Allows engine bleed air to flow through the cowl anti–ice valve for cowl lip anti–icing  Sets stall warning (stick shaker) logic for icing conditions  Sets engine idle speed  Green TAI indication shows on the engine display 12. What needs to be selected before turning on the ENG ANTI-ICE?  Engine Start Switch...... CONT 13. With the ENG ANTI-ICE ON, what speeds are adjusted by the stall warning logic? [FCOM 3.20.5]  Minimum Maneuver Speed  Stick Shaker Speed 14. When you turn OFF the ENG ANTI-ICE, what happens to the stall warning logic? [FCOM 3.20.5]  Stall warning logic, airspeed indications, and minimum maneuver speeds on the airspeed indicator return to normal if Wing Anti–Ice has not been used in flight 15. What part of the wing uses bleed air for anti-ice protection? [FCOM 3.20.6]  3 Inboard Leading Edge Slats  ANTI-ICE & RAIN 16. Inflight, what happens when you position the WING ANTI-ICE switch to the ON position? [FCOM 3.20.7]  Opens both control valves  Sets stall warning logic for icing conditions for the remainder of the flight 17. When is the Wing Anti-Ice required to be used on the ground? [FCOM SP.16.5]  Between engine start and takeoff when icing conditions exist or are anticipated 18. When would you not use the Wing Anti-Ice on the ground in the above situation? [FCOM SP.16.5]  If the airplane has been or will be protected by the application of fluid in compliance with an approved ground de-icing program 19. On the ground, if WING ANTI-ICE is ON, when do the wing anti-ice control valves automatically close? [FCOM 3.20.7]  If either engine thrust is above the takeoff warning setting or  Bleed air duct overtemperature 20. On the ground, if either engine is above the takeoff warning setting and the WING ANTI-ICE switch is ON, will the L VALVE and R VALVE lights illuminate? [FCOM 3.20.7]  No, they are inhibited 21. If takeoff was made with the WING ANTI-ICE ON, what happens to the WING ANTI-ICE switch after liftoff? [FCOM 3.20.7]  Automatically trips OFF at lift–off when the air-ground sensor goes to the air mode 22. What is the definition of icing conditions? [FCOM SP.16.2]  Icing conditions exist when OAT (on the ground) or TAT (in flight) is 10° C or below and any of the following exist: Visible moisture (clouds, fog with visibility of one statute mile (1600m) or less, rain, snow, sleet, ice crystals, and so on) is present, or Ice, snow, slush or standing water is present on the ramps, taxiways, or runways 23. Where would you find the quick reference De-Icing Charts?  Quick Reference Handbook (QRH) O.I.1.2 [INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK] LANDING GEAR 1. Landing gear extension/retraction is supplied by what hydraulic system? [FCOM 14.20.1]  Hydraulic System A 2. On the ground, what prevents the landing gear lever from being moved to the up position? [FCOM 14.20.1]  Landing gear lever lock 3. How is the landing gear lever lock automatically opened? [FCOM 14.20.1]  In flight, the air/ground system energizes a solenoid which opens the lever lock 4. Once the main gears are fully retracted, how are they held in place? [FCOM 14.20.1]  The main gears are held in place by mechanical uplocks 5. Once the nose gear is fully retracted, how is it held in place? [FCOM 14.20.1]  The nose gear is held in place by an overcenter lock and enclosed by doors which are mechanically linked to the gear 6. After the landing gear is retracted, does the landing gear system still have hydraulic pressure? [FCOM 14.20.1]  Hydraulic pressure is removed from the landing gear system by the proximity switch electronic unit (PSEU) 10 seconds after all gear are up and locked 7. How is a main gear tire with loose tread prevented from causing damage to the wheel well components? [FCOM 14.20.2]  When a spinning tire with loose tread impacts a fitting in the wheel well ring opening, that gear stops retracting and free falls back to the down position  The affected gear cannot be retracted until the fitting is replaced 8. How is the landing gear extended? [FCOM 14.20.3]  When the LANDING GEAR lever is moved to DN, Hydraulic System A pressure is used to release the uplocks  By hydraulic pressure, gravity and air loads 9. How is the landing gear held in place when fully extended? [FCOM 14.20.3]  Overcenter mechanical and hydraulic locks hold the gear at full extension 10. How are the landing gear indicator lights on the aft overhead panel different from the landing gear lights on the main center panel? [FCOM 14.10.2, 14.10.3]  The landing gear lights on the aft overhead panel are redundant and run through a separate circuit 11. Between both sets of landing gear indicator lights, how many lights do you need for each gear to confirm if it is down and locked? [FCOM 14.10.3]  Landing gear is down and locked as long as one green landing gear indicator light (center panel or overhead panel) for each gear is illuminated 12. How is the landing gear manually extended? [FCOM 14.20.3]  Manual gear releases in the flight deck are used to release uplocks that allow the gear to free–fall to the down and locked position  The forces that pull the gear down are gravity and air loads 13. What happens when you open the manual gear extension access door? [FCOM 14.10.3, 14.20.3]  Manual landing gear extension is possible with the landing gear lever in any position  Normal landing gear extension is possible if hydraulic system A pressure is available  Landing gear retraction is disabled 14. When is normal nose wheel steering available? [FCOM 14.20.4]  Nose wheel steering is available when the nose gear is in the down position and compressed by weight of the airplane LANDING GEAR 15. Which hydraulic systems provide hydraulic pressure for normal nose wheel steering and alternate nose wheel steering? [FCOM 14.20.4, 13.20.2]  Normal Nose Wheel Steering: Hydraulic System A  Alternate Nose Wheel Steering: Hydraulic System B 16. How is alternate nose wheel steering activated? [FCOM 14.20.4]  NOSE WHEEL STEER switch is placed to ALT  Normal quantity is in the system B reservoir and  The airplane is on the ground 17. How many degrees does the nose wheel steering wheel allow the nose wheel to turn? [FCOM 14.10.7, 14.10.8]  78 degrees in either direction 18. How much does the nose wheel turn with full rudder pedal deflection? [FCOM 14.10.6]  6 degrees in either direction 19. Which hydraulic systems provide hydraulic pressure for normal brakes and alternate brakes? [FCOM 14.20.4, 13.20.2]  Normal Brakes: Hydraulic System B  Alternate Brakes: Hydraulic System A 20. If hydraulic system B is low or fails, how is the alternate brake system activated? [FCOM 14.20.2]  Hydraulic system A automatically supplies pressure to the alternate brake system 21. Which hydraulic system pressurizes the brake accumulator? [FCOM 14.20.5]  System B 22. If both normal and alternate brake pressure is lost, do you still have braking? [FCOM14.20.5]  Yes  Trapped hydraulic pressure in the brake accumulator can still provide several braking applications or parking brake application 23. Which brake system provides antiskid protection? [FCOM 14.20.5]  All brake systems provide antiskid protection (normal, alternate, and accumulator) 24. With regards to antiskid protection, how are the normal and alternate brake systems different? [FCOM 14.20.5]  Normal Brake system provides each main gear wheel with individual antiskid protection  Alternate Brake system provides antiskid protection to main gear wheel pairs 25. What hydraulic system provides hydraulic pressure for the autobrakes? [FCOM14.20.5]  System B 26. During rejected takeoff with the autobrake switch in RTO, when do the autobrakes provide automatic braking? [FCOM 14.20.6]  Wheel speed above 88 kts  Forward thrust levers retarded to idle 27. If you takeoff with the autobrake switch in RTO, and then left the switch in RTO for the remainder of the flight, would you get maximum braking upon landing? [FCOM 14.20.6]  No 28. After landing, when do the autobrakes start to work? [FCOM 14.20.6]  Both forward thrust levers are retarded to IDLE  Main wheels spin–up LANDING GEAR 29. When does the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminate? [FCOM 14.10.4]  SPEED BRAKE lever moved to down detent during RTO or landing  Manual brakes applied during RTO or landing  Thrust lever(s) advanced during RTO or landing (except during first 3 seconds after touchdown for landing)  Landing made with RTO selected  RTO mode selected on ground (illuminates for one to two seconds then extinguishes)  A malfunction exists in automatic braking system 30. What h