Astronomy 101 Sample Second Midterm Exam PDF

Astronomy 101 – Sample Second Midterm Exam San Diego State University, Prof. Douglas Leonard To assist with the overarching goal of providing as many “tools” as possible to succeed in this course, here is a complete second midterm exam that was given in a previous semester...

Astronomy 101 – Sample Second Midterm Exam San Diego State University, Prof. Douglas Leonard To assist with the overarching goal of providing as many “tools” as possible to succeed in this course, here is a complete second midterm exam that was given in a previous semester of Astronomy 101. By making this exam available to you, I hope to: 1. Provide you with a true testing and learning experience, to allow you to better prepare for the actual exam. (Note that these goals are very distinct from the actual exam, which is solely a testing experi- ence – i.e., it is not a learning experience – all of the learning should have taken place beforehand!!) 2. Help further remove any remaining “mystery” about what this midterm exam will be “like”. 3. Give you one additional tool to unearth potential “weaknesses” in your exam preparation. Given these goals, here now is some advice – my opinion – on how to best use (and, not use) this sample exam to maximize its potential benefit to you. Best Way to Use the Sample Midterm Exam Want to make best use of this additional “tool” to help you prepare for your midterm exam? Then: 1. Study all of the material listed in the “Second Midterm Exam Guide”, in the manner suggested by the “General Midterm Exam Guide”. (All documents are available on Canvas.) 2. Get assistance to clarify any uncertain topics. 3. Simulate the actual exam experience by: (a) Printing out this entire document. (b) Giving yourself 70 minutes of clear, uninterrupted time. (c) Closing all books and notes. (d) Detaching the printed “Bubble Sheet” form from the end of this packet. (e) Taking the exam as though it is an actual exam. 4. Grade your Bubble Sheet using the provided “Answers and Primary Content Source(s) for Each Question: Astronomy 101, (Sample) Midterm Exam #2” sheet provided in this document. Mark any question number that you got wrong on your Bubble Sheet. Then for each question that you got wrong: (a) Do not reread the question! Rather – and this is very important – look at the primary content source(s) listed for each question, to see where the content for the question itself was drawn from. (This is usually a section from the textbook or Required Reading from the Course Reader or, perhaps, some slides from the Course Reader.) Then... (b) Re-study this material completely and thoroughly, seeking help as needed. When you are com- pletely finished (re-)studying all of the material, and not before... (c) Look again at the actual question itself, and see if you can now see what the correct answer is without any doubt; repeat this process until you are sure you have it right! The key point here is to focus on re-studying the problematic material, NOT re-taking the specific question that you got incorrect – more on the philosophy behind this, below. (d) Check to see that you got it correct now! When you are all through...  5. Be self-critical and ask yourself: What has this practice exam taught me about my preparation for the actual exam? Would I be happy with a similar performance on the real exam? If “yes”, that’s great – focus in on clarifying any remaining difficulties in the time that you have left. If “no”, reflect now on all of the questions that you got incorrect, and ask yourself: What was it about my preparation that left me “a bit short” in the end? Work now to correct this before the actual exam takes place, and... 6. Don’t be afraid to get help, from either the TAs (during the Astronomy Help Room hours), or from your professor (during his office hours). We’re here to assist you! So, that’s my best advice. Want to know what not to do? Poor Way to Use the Sample Midterm Exam Here’s my thoughts on how, specifically, I would recommend to not to use the sample exam (besides, of course, not looking at it at all!). 1. Take sample exam. 2. Grade exam. 3. Look up the answers to any specific question you got wrong. 4. Feel confident that you have now completely mastered all of the course material and are completely prepared for the actual exam, since it should “cover the same material”. Why is this such a poor way to use the sample exam in my opinion? Because 50 questions can not possibly encompass all of the course material that is covered by the midterm! This gets to the heart of what an exam actually is: It’s a “test” designed to provide an estimate of how well a student (i.e., you) has learned (and, understood) the course material. By its very nature, such a (time-limited) exam can not possibly examine all of the material. Rather, it has to “randomly sample” it, and hope that this “random sample” provides a fair evaluation of the student’s mastery of all of the topics. To put it more concretely, consider that each major section of the textbook that we covered probably has about a dozen “testable topics” in it, for which maybe 30 good, independent questions could, in principle, be written. Imagine then that about two or three such questions are picked from each section – at random – out of this group of 30 to put on the exam. After all sections’ questions are combined, we have an “exam” of 50 questions. Do they alone entirely cover all of the material? No way – they just sample it! Thus, learning just the single piece of information covered by the specific question(s) of the sample exam (or, Weekly Reading Quizzes, for that matter) is not the way to go, since it is highly unlikely that that same, specific topic (let alone question) would appear on another exam (i.e., your actual exam) covering the “same material”. In other words, I strongly advise you to let this sample exam assist you by pointing out the general subject areas – i.e., sections of the textbook, for the most part – for which your studying was, evidently, inadequate. Then comprehensively restudy those sections; this will be a much more valuable technique than focusing all of your attention squarely on “getting the answers” to the specific questions, themselves. OK, enough philosophy, onto the sample exam!  [YOUR NAME HERE] Astronomy 101: (Sample) Midterm Exam #2 Professor Douglas Leonard CLOSED BOOK, NO CALCULATORS, NO CELL PHONES, NO HATS Carefully detach the “Bubble Sheet” from the end of this exam packet, and then carefully print your name and write your RED ID number on it. No cell phones. All cell phones must be completely out of sight (e.g., in a closed backpack). No hats with forward-facing brims are permitted. Mark all answers on the “Bubble Sheet” with a pencil. Completely fill in the appropriate bubble. Be sure to thoroughly erase all altered answers and stray marks! For true-false questions: mark bubble A if the statement is true, and bubble B if false. For multiple choice questions: mark the bubble corresponding to the single best answer. All questions carry equal weight. Read each question very carefully before answering. There is no penalty for guessing. Be sure to answer all questions! Time limit: 70 minutes – budget your time appropriately! Don’t spend too much time agonizing over a tough question. Make a note of it on your exam (you may write in your exam booklet) and return to it after you have finished the others. Do not remove this exam booklet from the classroom. Failure to leave your test booklet on your desk will result in receiving a 0% grade for the exam. So: No stray marks, one answer per question, answer all questions, and leave the exam booklet on your desk when finished! DO NOT OPEN THIS EXAM UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO!! When you are finished, simply place the following TWO things in a stack on your desk: Test booklet (TOP of stack) Bubble-Sheet (BOTTOM of stack) → You may quietly and carefully leave the exam room when you are finished. GOOD LUCK!!! Print your name: Sign your name: Astronomy 101 – (Sample) Midterm Exam #2 Multiple Choice/True-False Select the best answer for each of the following questions, and indicate your choice by filling in the appropriate bubble on your Bubble Sheet. Be sure to read all answers before making a selection. For true-false questions, mark bubble A if the statement is true, and bubble B if it is false. 1. The sketch below shows Isaac Newton’s drawing of his experiment that used a glass prism to spread the Sun’s light out into a rainbow of colors. This act of separating the different colors of light through being refracted by different amounts is known as (a) reflection. (b) precession. (c) apparent brightness. (d) rarification. (e) dispersion. 2. In the early days of our Universe (i.e., ∼ 14 billion years ago), the only elements that scientists believe existed were (a) oxygen, hydrogen, and carbon. (b) oxygen, hydrogen, and iron. (c) hydrogen, helium, and lithium. (d) hydrogen, helium, and iron. (e) cadmium and zinc. 3. Through which one of the following measurements will an astronomer be able to most accurately determine the distance to a very nearby star? (a) By carefully measuring the wavelength at which the star’s continuous spectrum peaks. (b) By very accurately measuring the position of the nearby star in the sky relative to more distant stars over the course of six months. (c) By taking the star’s spectrum and carefully measuring the Doppler shifts of its spectral lines. (d) By measuring the star’s proper motion. (e) None of the above — at this time, astronomers have no reliable techniques to measure distances to even the closest stars. 4. The diagrams below represent different stages of evolution in the lives of stars, where the chemical symbols indicate the primary constituent of each layer of the star (that is, H = hydrogen, He = helium, C = carbon, O = oxygen, Ne = neon, Si = silicon, and Fe = iron), and arrows (→) indicate layers in which one element is being actively fused into another element. Of the choices given below (labeled ‘a’ through ‘e’), which one do astronomers believe most accurately represents the current structure of our Sun? 5. Light bulb ‘A’ is a 50-watt light bulb. Light bulb ‘B’ is a 100-watt light bulb. Both light bulbs are turned on, and are located at a distance of 10 meters from an observer. Which one of the following statements is TRUE? (a) Light bulbs ‘A’ and ‘B’ will have identical apparent brightnesses at the location of the observer. (b) Light bulb ‘A’ has 1/8 the luminosity of light bulb ‘B’. (c) Light bulb ‘B’ will have four times the apparent brightness of Light bulb ‘A’ at the location of the observer. (d) Light bulb ‘B’ will have twice the apparent brightness of Light bulb ‘A’ at the location of the observer. (e) Light bulbs ‘A’ and ‘B’ have identical luminosities. 6. T or F. Astronomers currently believe that elements heavier than iron (i.e., with more protons in their nuclei) can be produced in the cores of low-mass stars during the final years of their lives.  7. As defined by astronomers, a standard candle is: (a) An object of known surface temperature. (b) An object of known luminosity. (c) An object of known mass. (d) An object of known apparent brightness. (e) An object of known density. 8. Samantha is generating waves on the surface of a pond by tapping her finger into the water two times per second. This creates a series of waves in which the individual wave crests are 30 centimeters apart. With what velocity are the waves traveling through the water? (a) 2 centimeters per second. (b) 15 centimeters per second. (c) 30 centimeters per second. (d) 60 centimeters per second. (e) It is impossible to determine the velocity of the waves from the given information. 9. Which of the following is a correctly ordered listing of some of the regions of the electromagnetic spectrum, progressing from shorter to longer wavelengths? (a) radio waves, gamma rays, X-rays, ultraviolet rays, visible light, infrared rays. (b) ultraviolet rays, infrared rays, visible light, gamma rays, X-rays, radio waves. (c) gamma rays, X-rays, ultraviolet rays, visible light, infrared rays, radio waves. (d) X-rays, ultraviolet rays, visible light, infrared rays, radio waves, gamma rays. (e) gamma rays, X-rays, ultraviolet rays, infrared rays, visible light, radio waves. 10. Which of the following evolutionary stages do we not expect our own Sun to go through? (a) Spending billions of years as a main-sequence star. (b) Expanding to become red giant. (c) Giving off a planetary nebula. (d) Exploding as a Type II supernova. (e) Fusing helium into carbon and oxygen in its core. 11. Which one of the following is NOT a “rule” that electrons in atoms must obey, according to the quantum model of the atom? (a) Electrons can only exist in “allowed” orbits around an atom’s nucleus. (b) Electrons can “jump” between orbits only by absorbing or emitting photons. (c) Only two electrons are allowed in each orbital. (d) Electrons prefer to be in the smallest possible orbits, the ones with the lowest energies that are available to them. (e) The energies of the allowed electron orbits are the same for all elements. 12. T or F. According to theoretical calculations, if our Sun had been born with only half the amount of mass that it actually does have, it would never have been able to generate power through nuclear fusion, and thus would not have become a star.  The Spectrum of the Sun 1.0 0.8 Relative Brightness 0.6 0.4 ↑ 0.2 0.0 3000 4000 5000 6000 7000 8000 9000 Wavelength (Å) Questions 13 – 15 refer to the figure above, which shows a portion of the Sun’s spectrum, plotted with relative brightness on the Y-axis and wavelength (in Angstrom units, Å) on the X-axis. Note, in particular, the spectral “feature” that is indicated by the arrow; it occurs precisely at a wavelength of λ = 6563 Å. 13. By determining the wavelength at which maximum brightness occurs in the spectrum of the Sun (i.e., the broad “peak” of the spectrum shown in the figure, located around λ ≈ 4700 Å) astronomers are able to directly determine which one of the following properties of the Sun? (a) The total mass of the Sun. (b) The temperature of the Sun’s photosphere. (c) The rate at which nuclear fusion is occurring in the Sun’s core. (d) The density of the material in the Sun’s atmosphere. (e) The velocity with which the Sun is moving through space, relative to the Earth. 14. The spectral “feature” that is indicated by the arrow in the figure is most generally referred to as (a) an absorption line. (b) an emission line. (c) a continuous line. (d) a Doppler line. (e) a dense line. 15. The measurement that the spectral “feature” that is indicated by the arrow in the figure occurs right at a wavelength of λ = 6563 Å allows astronomers to conclude which of the following? (a) That the Sun’s atmosphere contains the element hydrogen. (b) That the Sun must have been moving very rapidly towards the earth when this spectrum was taken. (c) That the Sun’s core must be fusing helium into carbon and oxygen. (d) That the Sun’s core must have a temperature of about 15,000,000 K. (e) Both choices (a) and (b) can be concluded from this measurement. 16. What supports a white dwarf star against gravitational collapse? (a) Gas pressure resulting from the ongoing fusion of hydrogen to produce helium in its core. (b) Neutron degeneracy pressure. (c) Radiation pressure resulting from the recently started fusion of helium to produce carbon and oxygen in its core. (d) Electron degeneracy pressure. (e) Both (a) and (d) are responsible for supporting a white dwarf star against gravitational collapse. 17. The scientist whose PhD thesis in 1925 laid the foundations for our current understanding of the precise chemical composition of the Sun was (a) Isaac Newton. (b) Neils Bohr. (c) Cecilia Payne-Gaposchkin. (d) Albert Einstein. (e) Raymond Davis. 18. The very short-range but powerful attractive force that binds protons and neutrons together is known as the (a) electric force. (b) magnetic force. (c) strong nuclear force. (d) gravitational force. (e) weak nuclear force. 19. Which one of the following things was first discovered to exist in nature before it had even been proposed to exist by scientists? (a) A neutron star. (b) A white dwarf star. (c) A neutrino. (d) The planet Neptune. (e) None of the above is correct, since all of these things were proposed to exist before they were actually found in nature. 20. Which one of the following is NOT a property of neutrinos? (a) Neutrinos rarely interact with matter. (b) Neutrinos come in 3 types. (c) Neutrinos can transform from one type into another. (d) Neutrinos travel at nearly the speed of light. (e) Neutrinos are extremely massive particles, estimated (although not known precisely) to have a mass greater than 100 times the mass of a proton. 21. T or F. Every star, regardless of its initial mass, spends the majority of its life as a “main-sequence” star. 22. T or F. The proportion of “heavy” elements (that is, elements with more protons in their nuclei than the element hydrogen) in our Universe is predicted to be decreasing with time. 23. When does fusion end in the core of a “high-mass” star? (a) After production of the elements carbon and oxygen. (b) At the moment there is no more hydrogen available. (c) After production of the element uranium, the “heaviest” naturally occurring element. (d) After production of the element iron. (e) None of the above is correct, since “high-mass” stars are powered by nuclear fission, not fusion. 24. Which one of the following statements about planetary nebulae is FALSE? (a) With few exceptions, the pictures scientists have taken of all planetary nebulae look very similar to one another. (b) The spectrum of a planetary nebula is an emission spectrum. (c) The material that makes up a planetary nebula comes from mass-loss of a star. (d) A planetary nebula is made up primarily of gas. (e) A planetary nebula is ejected into space by a low-mass star that is nearing the end of its life. 25. Stephanie observes a binary star system in which stars Oliver and Jasper are orbiting around a common “center of mass”. Stephanie determines that the “center of mass” of the binary star system is much closer to star Oliver than it is to star Jasper. From this, she can conclude that (a) Star Oliver has a higher surface temperature than star Jasper. (b) Star Oliver has a greater density than star Jasper. (c) Star Oliver has a greater radius than star Jasper. (d) Star Oliver contains more mass than star Jasper. (e) Both choices (b) and (d) can be concluded from the given information. 26. The main reason that the strength of gravity at the surface of the star Sirius B (a white dwarf) is so much stronger than the strength of gravity at the Earth’s surface is that (a) Sirius B has a much smaller radius than Earth does. (b) Sirius B contains much more mass than Earth does. (c) Sirius B has a much larger radius than Earth does. (d) Sirius B has a different chemical composition than Earth does. (e) Sirius B is has a much higher temperature than Earth does. 27. When high-mass stars die, which types of objects do astronomers believe they leave behind? (a) White dwarfs and neutron stars. (b) Black holes and white dwarfs. (c) Neutron stars and black holes. (d) Red supergiant stars. (e) Main-sequence stars. 28. T or F. The Orion Nebula is a vast region of space in which a thin, low-density gas is being heated by hot, young stars. When Armando takes a spectrum of the hot, low-density, glowing gas of the Orion Nebula, he will see a spectrum that is commonly referred to as a “continuous” spectrum. 29. T or F. Red light has a lower frequency than blue light does. 30. T or F. The Sun, like the Earth, is mainly made up of the elements iron and oxygen. 31. The basic physical principle that astronomers believe explains why neutron stars are typically “born” spinning very rapidly is known as (a) the conservation of angular momentum. (b) Fraunhofer’s Third Law of spectral analysis. (c) Einstein’s mass-energy relation: E = mc2. (d) the conservation of energy. (e) Newton’s version of Kepler’s Third Law. 32. When a white dwarf experiences a typical “nova” explosion, what do astronomers believe has just happened? (a) A burst of fission of the element uranium on the surface of the white dwarf. (b) A burst of fusion of the element iron on the surface of the white dwarf. (c) A burst of fusion of the element hydrogen on the surface of the white dwarf. (d) A brief episode of “neutron bombardment” of heavy atomic nuclei on the surface of the white dwarf. (e) A thermonuclear runaway that began in the center of the white dwarf, and has now destroyed the entire star. 33. Hydrostatic equilibrium refers to (a) the fact that the Earth pulls on the moon with exactly the same force that the moon exerts on the Earth. (b) the fact that equal and opposite forces are exerted by the strong nuclear force and the electric force in the atomic nucleus. (c) the state of equilibrium that exists between the positively charged atomic nucleus and the negatively charged electrons that “orbit” it. (d) the condition of matter that exists when the temperature approaches 0 K. (e) a state of equilibrium in a star in which the inward pull of gravity is just balanced by the outward forces of gas and radiation pressure. 34. Matthew is creating waves in a pool of water by tapping his finger once per second on the water’s surface. If Matthew wishes to increase the velocity with which the waves are traveling through the water, he should: (a) tap the water more forcefully. (b) increase the rate at which he’s tapping the water’s surface. (c) generate waves with a longer wavelength. (d) both choices given in answers (a) and (b) will increase the velocity of the waves. (e) None of the above answers is correct, since nothing that Matthew can do will change the velocity of the waves in the pool of water, since their velocity is completely determined by the medium through which they are traveling. 35. T or F. When an electron “jumps” from the n = 2 to the n = 1 energy state in a hydrogen atom, it emits a photon with a wavelength of λ = 1216 Å. When an electron “jumps” from the n = 3 to the n = 1 energy state in a hydrogen atom it emits a photon with a wavelength that is less than λ = 1216 Å. 36. T or F. The majority of the mass of an atom is contained in its nucleus. 37. T or F. Scientists believe that nuclear fusion is occurring throughout the Sun, from its core region all the way to its surface. 38. The diagram below shows a hot, opaque source of light (produced, for instance, by a solid object or a very dense gas) and a “cloud” of low-density gas nearby. Four different positions from which these objects may be viewed are indicated by arrows. (4) Cloud of low−density gas Hot Source (2) (1) (3) Which one of the following statements is FALSE? (a) If you observe the spectrum of the hot source from position (1), you will see a continuous spectrum. (b) If you observe the spectrum of the hot source from position (2), you will see a continuous spectrum with dark lines (i.e., an absorption spectrum). (c) If you observe the spectrum of the cloud of low-density gas from position (3), you will see a continuous spectrum along with several distinct bright (or, “emission”) lines. (d) The spectrum of the cloud of low-density gas observed from position (4) should be nearly the same as the spectrum observed from position (3). (e) Spectra obtained from positions (2), (3), or (4) should enable you to identify some of the chemical elements in the cloud of low-density gas. 39. An atom contains 1 proton and 1 neutron in its nucleus. What kind of element is this atom? (a) hydrogen. (b) helium. (c) oxygen. (d) iron. (e) It is not possible to tell what kind of element this atom is, without also being told how many electrons there are orbiting the nucleus. 40. T or F. The more mass a star is born with, the more luminous it will be when it is a main-sequence star. 41. T or F. Fewer than 1% of stars exist in binary star systems. 42. The end result of the proton-proton chain of nuclear fusion in the Sun is that hydrogen nuclei are converted into: (a) antimatter and nothing else. (b) pure energy, and nothing else. (c) iron nuclei, photons, neutrinos, and positrons. (d) helium nuclei, photons, neutrinos, and positrons. (e) helium nuclei, neutrinos, and nothing else. 43. A sunspot represents (a) a region of the Sun’s surface that is made out of nearly pure iron, unlike the rest of the Sun’s surface, which is largely made out of hydrogen. (b) a region in the Sun’s core in which nuclear fusion has stopped. (c) a region in the Sun’s photosphere in which nuclear fusion has stopped. (d) a region in the Sun’s photosphere that is significantly redshifted compared to the surrounding regions, making it appear less bright. (e) a region of the Sun’s surface that is cooler, and thus darker, than the surrounding regions. 44. The Hβ spectral line of the Balmer series of hydrogen has a wavelength of 4861 Angstroms for a hydrogen source that is at rest. Of the following, which observed wavelength of this line in a star’s spectrum would indicate that the star is approaching us (that is, moving towards us) at the greatest speed? (a) 4851 Angstroms. (b) 4860 Angstroms. (c) 4861 Angstroms. (d) 4871 Angstroms. (e) None of the above. It is not possible to answer this question with the information given, since astronomers can not tell how fast a star is moving towards them merely by examining the star’s spectrum. 45. Using a good pair of binoculars, you observe a section of the sky where there are stars of many different apparent brightnesses. You find one star that appears especially dim. From this observation, you can immediately conclude that this star looks dim because: (a) it is very far away. (b) it has a very low luminosity. (c) it is giving off most of its energy in the infrared region of the electromagnetic spectrum. (d) there is lots of interstellar dust along the line-of-sight to this star. (e) it could appear dim for more than one of the above reasons; there is no way to tell which answer is right without more a more detailed study of the star. 46. Deep inside a red supergiant star near the end of its life are several concentric shells of different ele- ments around a central core. What are the general trends seen in these layers, going from outside inward? (a) Element nuclei get heavier, temperature increases, and time for each layer to develop increases. (b) Element nuclei get heavier, temperature decreases, and time for each layer to develop decreases. (c) Element nuclei get heavier, temperature decreases, and time for each layer to develop increases. (d) Element nuclei get heavier, temperature increases, and time for each layer to develop decreases. (e) Element nuclei get lighter, temperature increases, and time for each layer to develop increases. 47. The type of star that astronomers currently believe can explode as a “Type Ia” supernova is (a) a red supergiant in a binary star system. (b) a white dwarf in a binary star system. (c) an isolated neutron star. (d) a high-mass, main-sequence star in a binary star system. (e) an isolated red giant star. 48. T or F. A white dwarf with a mass of 1.1 MSun has a smaller radius than a white dwarf with a mass of 0.7 MSun. 49. T or F. The planet Jupiter is technically considered to be a star since nuclear fusion does occur in its core, although at a greatly reduced rate compared with the Sun. 50. Of the following, which color of star has the highest surface temperature? (a) Yellow star. (b) Orange star. (c) Red star. (d) Blue star. (e) It is not possible to answer this question with the information given, since the color of a star tells us which elements are in its atmosphere, not what its surface temperature is. END OF EXAMINATION  Answers and Primary Content Source(s) for Each Question: Astronomy 101, (Sample) Midterm Exam #2 For each question in the Exam, here is the correct answer, as well as the location(s) of the primary source(s) for the information being tested. If you missed a question, your best way to “learn” from the mistake is to (re)study the material listed here, not simply look at the correct answer to that particular question. For all questions, “Text” refers to the course text (OpenStax Astronomy) and “Reader” refers to the Course Reader, from which “required reading” or “(Powerpoint) Slides” may be referenced. Note that text sections (not subsections) are given here; if not all subsections were assigned reading, the question will have been drawn from only those actually assigned – see the individual reading assignments for these cases. Note, of course, that additional information may have also been provided during the lectures, and that some questions require conceptual understanding in addition to factual knowledge. 1. E Text, §5.3 25. D Text, §18.2; Reader, slides 280, 281 2. C Text, §22.5; Reader, slide 150 26. B Text, §18.4, 23.1; Reader, slides 280 – 285 3. B Text, §19.2 27. C Text, §23.2, 23.3; Reader, slides 295, 297 4. A Text, §22.1; Reader, slides 259 – 267 28. B Text, §5.5; Reader, slide 168 5. D Text, §5.1; Reader, slide 151 29. A Text, §5.1, 5.2 6. B Text, §22.4 30. B Text, §15.1 7. B Text, §5.1; Reader, slide 151 31. A Text, §23.4 8. D Text, §5.1 32. C Text, §23.5 9. C Text, §5.2 33. E Text, §16.3 10. D Text, §22.1, 23.3 34. E Text, §5.1 11. E Text, §5.4; Reader, slide 212 35. A Text, §5.4, 5.5; Reader, slides 212, 213 12. B Reader, slide 259 36. A Text, §5.4 13. B Text, §5.3; Reader, slides 180, 185, 187, 218, 37. B Text, §16.2 222, 228 38. C Text, §5.5 14. A Text, §5.3; Reader, slides 180, 185, 187, 218, 39. A Text, §5.4 222, 228 40. A Text, §22.1; Reader, slide 259 15. A Text, §5.3; Reader, slides 180, 185, 187, 218, 222, 228 41. B Text, §18.2, 23.5 16. D Text, §23.1 42. D Text, §16.2 17. C Text, §15.1 43. E Text, §5.2, 15.1 18. C Text, §16.2 44. A Text, §5.6 19. B Text, §3.6, 16.2, 18.4, 23.4 45. E Text, §5.1, 5.2, 20.1 20. E Text, §16.2, 16.4.2; Reader, slides 245, 246 46. D Text, §23.2, 23.3 21. A Text, §22.1 47. B Text, §23.5 22. B Reader, slide 276 48. A Text, §23.1 23. D Text, §22.5; Reader, slide 293 49. B Text, §16.2 24. A Text, §22.4; Reader, slides 269 – 272 50. D Text, §5.2