VOL 1-4 URES PDF Air Force Unit Review Exercises

1–21 Unit Review Exercises Note to Student: Consider all choices carefully, select the best answer to each question, and circle the corresponding letter. When you have...

1–21 Unit Review Exercises Note to Student: Consider all choices carefully, select the best answer to each question, and circle the corresponding letter. When you have completed all unit review exercises, transfer your answers to the Field-Scoring Answer Sheet. Do not return your answer sheet to the AFCDA. 1. (001) What is outlined in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 36–2101, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted)? a. Duties and responsibilities for the Air Force Reserve and Air National Guard only. b. Duties and responsibilities for each Air Force career field or specialty. c. Career progression for the materiel management career field. d. Career progression for each military service agent. 2. (001) Materiel management specialists are not responsible for a. providing support to maintenance activities. b. directing policy and guidance for career field. c. researching and identifying materiel requirements. d. preparing, analyzing, and evaluating reports, procedures, and policy data. 3. (002) The purpose of the Air Force Logistics Career Broadening Program is to promote a better understanding of the whole materiel management system through the cross-utilization of training, knowledge, experience, and a. interfaces. b. processes. c. perspectives. d. provisioning. 4. (002) To be eligible for the Logistics Career Broadening Program, you must be a technical sergeant or master sergeant with less than how many years of time-in-service? a. 9. b. 11. c. 13. d. 15. 5. (002) What two organizations provide wholesale logistics experience for selected materiel management noncommissioned officers (NCO)? a. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) and General Services Administration (GSA). b. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) and AFMC. c. GSA and Materiel Management System. d. Materiel Management System and DLA. 6. (003) Which Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century (eLog21) effect ensures logistics decisions are made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force? a. One: Enterprise View. b. Two: Integrated Processes. c. Three: Optimized Resources. d. Four: Integrated Technology. 1–22 7. (003) In support of the Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century’s (eLog21) Integrated Processes, which is not a resource? a. Financial. b. Acquisition. c. Technology. d. Infrastructure. 8. (004) Which source of supply provides wholesale support to all government agencies? a. General Services Administration (GSA). b. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC). c. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA). d. Local manufacturers. 9. (004) Local manufacture is a term that describes an item a. designed by a local commodity center. b. sourced from another branch of service. c. fabricated by a maintenance activity on base. d. purchased by an organization using the government purchase card (GPC). 10. (004) Which section gives maintenance repair functions in a single facility? a. Local purchase (LP). b. Local manufacture (LM). c. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA). d. Centralized repair facility (CRF). 11. (004) Who serves as the primary point of contact for interfacing with the Air Force Sustainment Center (AFSC) on behalf of maintenance customers? a. Flight Service Center. b. Centralized Repair Facility. c. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA). d. Decentralized materiel support (DMS). 12. (004) Who is required to notify the flightline expediter of all back ordered parts in accordance with AFI 21–101? a. Decentralized materiel support (DMS) personnel. b. Individual Protective Equipment (IPE) personnel. c. Document Control personnel. d. Storage and Issue personnel. 13. (004) Which references govern the Repair Network Integration (RNI) process? a. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 21–177 and Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 21–188. b. AFI 20–117 and AFMAN 20–118. c. AFMAN 21–112 and AFI 21–113. d. AFMAN 20–122 and AFI 20–133. 14. (005) What best describes supply Class I items? a. Petroleum, oil, and lubricants (POL). b. Subsistence. c. Construction. d. Ammunition.  1–23 15. (005) Which class of supply includes weapons? a. II. b. IV. c. VI. d. VIII. 16. (005) Which class of supply consists of ammunition? a. III. b. V. c. VII. d. IX. 17. (005) What best describes supply Class III items? a. Subsistence. b. Ammunition. c. Construction. d. Petroleum, oil, and lubricants (POL). 18. (005) What best describes supply Class VI items? a. Ammunition. b. Major end items. c. Medical materiel. d. Personal demand items. 19. (005) Which class of supply consists of major end items? a. II. b. IV. c. VI. d. VII. 20. (005) Which class of supply consists of medical materiel? a. VII. b. VIII. c. IX. d. X. 21. (005) What best describes supply Class X items? a. Repair parts. b. Major end items. c. Medical materiel. d. Materiel to support nonmilitary programs. 22. (005) What provides a unique framework that links performance metrics, processes, best practices, and people into a unified structure? a. Supply-chain operations reference (SCOR). b. Air Expeditionary Forces (AEF). c. Unit type code (UTC). d. Operation plan. 23. (006) Which specialized center is the hub for the integration and management of maintenance/supply chain capabilities? a. Air Force Test Center (AFTC). b. Air Force Research Laboratory (AFRL). c. Air Force Sustainment Center (AFSC). d. Air Force Nuclear Weapons Center (AFNWC). 1–24 24. (006) The Air Force Sustainment Center’s (AFSC) mission is to a. provide research and technology development. b. validate and improve weapon system capabilities. c. provide acquisition management for weapon systems. d. sustain weapon system readiness to generate airpower for America. 25. (006) How many primary subordinate units (PSU) make up the foundation of the Air Force Installation & Mission Support Center (AFIMSC)? a. Six. b. Seven. c. Four. d. Five. 26. (007) Which maintenance process updates various basic and support records, such as item records, routing identifier records, and warehouse locations? a. Interchangeable and substitute group (I&SG). b. Miscellaneous file maintenance. c. Follow-up. d. Status. 27. (007) Which type of reports provide information about the overall management of the supply system? a. Daily. b. Monthly. c. Quarterly. d. Utility. Please read the unit menu for unit 2 and continue   3–9 Unit Review Exercises Note to Student: Consider all choices carefully, select the best answer to each question, and circle the corresponding letter. When you have completed all unit review exercises, transfer your answers to the Field-Scoring Answer Sheet. Do not return your answer sheet to the AFCDA. 49. (016) The operating principle of no-profit/no-loss best describes the a. management analysis programs. b. Office of Management and Budget (OMB). c. Air Force working capital fund (AFWCF). d. Supply Management Activity Group-Retail (SMAG-R). 50. (016) When the cost of an item is transferred from the customer’s funds into the Supply Management Activity Group-Retail (SMAG-R) account, what type of fund is created? a. Debit. b. Saving. c. Storing. d. Revolving. 51. (016) Which is not a division within the Supply Management Activity Group-Retail (SMAG-R)? a. Medical-Dental. b. General Support. c. United States Air Force Academy. d. Air Force working capital fund (AFWCF). 52. (016) Which item falls under the scope of the Consolidated Sustainment Activity Group-Supply (CSAG-S)? a. Base-managed expense items. b. Wholesale-managed items. c. War reserve materiel (WRM). d. Classified materiel. 53. (017) The quality assurance (QA) program helps identify any area, program, or equipment and system that is not compliant with a. guidelines. b. principles. c. standards. d. quality. 54. (017) Which section has oversight of the self-inspection program? a. Training. b. Quality assurance (QA). c. Customer support. d. Resource management. 55. (017) Who selects highly experienced materiel management personnel for customer support visits? a. Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) leadership. b. Supply Management Activity Group (SMAG). c. Customer support section. d. Training section. 3–10 56. (018) When the materiel management system does not process or update transactions as it should, which Air Force form is used to report the problem? a. 1810, Assurance Activity. b. 1815, Difficulty Report (DIREP) Worksheet. c. 1820, Supply Management Report. d. 1825, Supply Command. 57. (018) Which activity within the Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) supply chain management –retail (SCM-R) community is responsible for submitting, controlling, and monitoring difficulty reports? a. Stock control. b. Quality assurance (QA). c. Computer operations. d. Information technology. 58. (018) A category III difficulty report does not stop computer system processing and is corrected a. as workload permits. b. in the next scheduled release. c. on an Air Force suggestion form. d. over the phone with the materiel management system control center. 59. (019) Which analysis method do you use most often for recurring reports or for comparing statistical data with standards and norms? a. Trend analysis. b. Special studies. c. Problem analysis. d. Document analysis. 60. (019) Which analysis method do you use most often to satisfy a one-time requirement or solve a specific problem? a. Trend analysis. b. Special studies. c. Problem analysis. d. Document analysis. 61. (019) Who works with logistics readiness squadron (LRS) quality assurance (QA) to develop local programs for solving problems identified by management? a. Training. b. Stock control. c. Customer service. d. Resource management. 62. (019) What section of the materiel management analysis program is tasked with assigning meaning to raw data and providing information that can be used to determine the account’s effectiveness? a. Training. b. Customer service (CS). c. Quality assurance (QA). d. Resource management (RM).  3–11 63. (019) What is used to help logistics readiness squadron (LRS) leadership know what an organization has done in the past and how it is doing at the present before directing future efforts? a. Analysis program. b. Difficulty reports (DIREP). c. Training requirements. d. Customer support visits. Please read the unit menu for unit 4 and continue  4–14 Unit Review Exercises Note to Student: Consider all choices carefully, select the best answer to each question, and circle the corresponding letter. When you have completed all unit review exercises, transfer your answers to the Field-Scoring Answer Sheet. Do not return your answer sheet to the AFCDA. 64. (020) Which is not an example of a source document? a. Issues. b. Receipts. c. Reports. d. Returns. 65. (020) Which is not required when comparing information between the document control record (DCR) and source document? a. System designator. b. Nomenclature. c. Stock number. d. Quantity. 66. (020) How often does document control perform a validation of who is authorized to receipt for classified property? a. Monthly. b. Quarterly. c. Semiannually. d. Annually. 67. (020) What type of materiel management source documents are not placed in a permanent document file? a. Transaction identification codes (TRIC) FIC and FCU. b. Source documents with file indicator D. c. TRIC FCU. d. TRIC FIC. 68. (020) How long are transactions retained when documents are processed through the materiel management automated tracking system? a. 12 months. b. 24 months. c. 48 months. d. 75 months. 69. (020) When does a document become delinquent after processing the information from the document control record (DCR) document? a. 6th calendar day. b. 10th calendar day. c. 6 months. d. 1 year.  4–15 70. (020) How often does document control hold a meeting to discuss document delinquent status? a. Daily. b. Monthly. c. Quarterly. d. Annually. 71. (021) Which materiel management register may be prepared to replace the Daily Transaction Register (D06)? a. Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) (M10). b. Daily Document Control (D04), part 1. c. Consolidated Transaction (M19). d. Conversion Audit List (R22). 72. (021) Which materiel management register lists information from the transactions stored in the daily transaction history area of the materiel management database? a. Priority Monitor Report (D18). b. Daily Document Control (D04). c. Consolidated Transaction (M19). d. Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) (M10). 73. (021) The Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) Register (M10) must contain an entry for each adjustment transaction appearing on what two registers? a. D04 and D05. b. D04 and D06. c. D05 and D08. d. D06 and D08. 74. (022) What is the purpose of the Shipment-Suspense Program? a. Hold an item that has not been confirmed. b. Determine whether an item is lost. c. Ensure an item has been shipped. d. Put an item on backorder. 75. (022) All shipments and transfers processed through the logistics readiness squadron (LRS) produce what type of detail? a. Registered Equipment Management (REM) vehicles-only or special-spares. b. Special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM). c. Shipment-suspense or shipped not credited (SNC). d. Shipment inventory. 76. (022) Which transaction identification code is used to update the shipment-suspense detail? a. SSC. b. SSG. c. SCG. d. SCS. 77. (022) Which listing is used to manage delinquent shipment suspense details? a. R04. b. R23. c. R40. d. R43. 4–16 78. (023) Which transaction identification code is used for an automated reverse-post (RVP) transaction? a. 1AM. b. 1CC. c. 1TK. d. 1WC. 79. (023) What information is required to process an automated reverse-post (RVP) input? a. Transaction serial number, quantity, and type transaction phrase code (TTPC). b. Transaction serial number, quantity, and date. c. Transaction serial number, TTPC, and date. d. Quantity, TTPC, and date. 1–20 Unit Review Exercises Note to Student: Consider all choices carefully, select the best answer to each question, and circle the corresponding letter. When you have completed all unit review exercises, transfer your answers to the Field-Scoring Answer Sheet. Do not return your answer sheet to the Air Force Career Development Academy (AFCDA). 1. (201) The materiel management system uses which issue request code to select the correct internal program to process an input transaction? a. Transaction identification code (TRIC). b. Transaction exception (TEX) code. c. Issue exception (IEX) code. d. System designator. 2. (201) What one-position alpha code is used to indicate how the materiel management system accumulates demand data for stock leveling and due-in from maintenance (DIFM) control? a. Demand code. b. Transaction code. c. Force Activity Designator. d. Urgency justification code. 3. (201) Organizations may identify their issue requests to base supply using either a a. stock number or commercial and government entity (CAGE) number. b. part number or transportation control number (TCN) number. c. part number or document number. d. stock number or part number. 4. (201) What letter is entered in position 8 on the AF Form 2005 for a part number request? a. X. b. R. c. B. d. P. 5. (201) What is the next step in the ordering process after gathering and documenting data on the AF Form 2005? a. Enter data into materiel management system. b. Review management notices for availability. c. Increase the cost of priority requirements. d. Reduce the number of supply transactions. 6. (202) What may be produced after processing an order request that notifies further actions are required? a. Inquiry. b. History. c. Management notice. d. Stock control levels. 7. (202) Which management notice is the result of issue processing and reflects issue, kill, or backorder quantity status? a. I004. b. I005. c. I007. d. I023.  1–21 8. (202) An I007 management notice is produced when a a. part number request can be converted to a single stock number under program control. b. part number request cannot be converted to a stock number under program control. c. stock number request can be converted to multiple part numbers. d. stock number request cannot be converted to a part number. 9. (202) What transaction exception code is used to reprocess an issue request when the customer requests a backorder? a. 1. b. 2. c. M. d. P. 10. (203) Which base-wide organization uses the Integrated Maintenance Data System Central Database (IMDS CDB) to interface with materiel management system? a. Base supply. b. Maintenance. c. Civil engineering. d. Vehicle maintenance. 11. (203) What materiel management system output notifies the Integrated Maintenance Data System Central Database (IMDS CDB) of changes in due-out status? a. DUO. b. 1SH. c. CSU. d. ISU. 12. (203) When the materiel management system detects an Integrated Maintenance Data System Central Database (IMDS CDB) transaction error, the image is a. deleted from IMDS CDB. b. returned to IMDS CDB. c. forwarded to supply interface file system (SIFS). d. returned to SIFS. 13. (204) What Air Force Sustainment Center (AFSC) entity is responsible for mission capable (MICAP) management? a. Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management-Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Weapon System Support Activity (WSSA). b. Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management-Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Stock Control Activity. c. Source of Supply. d. Base level. 14. (204) When spares support is required, the Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management-Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Weapon System Support Activity (WSSA) is the primary interface for the a. EME. b. LRS. c. SOS. d. MAJCOM. 15. (204) What response is sent to the materiel management computer system when a mission capable (MICAP) requisition is transmitted to the source of supply when assets are immediately available? a. Follow-up. b. Cancellation. c. Positive Status. d. Negative Status. 1–22 16. (204) Who confirms an end-item is not mission capable and verifies all local resources are exhausted prior to submitting a MICAP request? a. Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) base level. b. Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management-Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Weapon System Support Activity (WSSA). c. Source of supply (SOS). d. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC). 17. (204) Who will the aircraft parts store (APS) or customer support liaison contact to verify a mission capable (MICAP) condition exists? a. Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management-Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Stock Control Activity. b. Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management-Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Quality Control Activity. c. Maintenance production superintendent. d. Source of supply. 18. (204) What information needs to be aggressively monitored and updated on a mission capability (MICAP) requirement? a. Status. b. Follow-up. c. Cause code. d. Delete code. 19. (204) What mission capability (MICAP) report (DIC B9*) code identifies the reason for terminating a MICAP condition? a. Reason why. b. Report. c. Delete. d. Cause. 20. (205) What is processed in the materiel management system to satisfy a mission capability (MICAP) condition and allow MICAP reporting to be initiated? a. Status. b. Cancellation. c. Due-out. d. Due-in. 21. (205) What transaction can be processed on an existing requisition that will initiate mission capability (MICAP) reporting? a. Upgrade. b. Downgrade. c. Follow-up. d. Cancellation. 22. (205) What output is produced to report the applicable change of a mission capable (MICAP) condition each time transaction NOR is processed? a. MICAP status report (E40). b. MICAP report (B9*). c. MICAP report (NOR). d. MICAP report (D9*). 23. (205) Y-type details are internally established and maintained in the supply computer for how many days after a mission capability (MICAP) termination? a. 30. b. 45. c. 60. d. 90.  1–23 Please read the unit menu for unit 2 and continue  2–18 Unit Review Exercises Note to Student: Consider all choices carefully, select the best answer to each question, and circle the corresponding letter. When you have completed all unit review exercises, transfer your answers to the Field-Scoring Answer Sheet. Do not return your answer sheet to AFCDA. 24. (206) What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to end the repair cycle process? a. DOC. b. DOR. c. ISU. d. TIN. 25. (206) Which activity is responsible for providing repair cycle support with new status and location for a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) detail? a. Logistics readiness squadron (LRS). b. Source of supply (SOS). c. Maintenance. d. Customer support. 26. (206) What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to process the updated status and location for a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) record? a. DOC. b. DFM. c. ISU. d. SPR. 27. (206) Which listing is used to perform the due-in from maintenance (DIFM) reconciliation? a. D19. b. D20. c. D23. d. Q04. 28. (206) What is the purpose of performing a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) reconciliation between the logistics readiness squadron (LRS) and the maintenance activities? a. Ensure maintenance activities physically have all the DIFM items. b. Ensure a replacement request is submitted to LRS. c. To load a multiple DIFM flag indicator to the item record. d. To inventory all expendable items in stock. 29. (207) Within how many duty days from the date of issue will a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) item that was not inducted into maintenance repair be returned to the LRS? a. 2. b. 4. c. 10. d. 30. 30. (208) How are time compliance technical order (TCTO) items identified on the item record? a. Other assets indicator 5. b. Other assets indicator 4. c. Numeric parts preference code (NPPC) 5. d. Numeric parts preference code (NPPC) 4.  2–19 31. (208) What condition tag is used to label a time compliance technical order (TCTO) item that was modified and returned from the maintenance function? a. DD Form 1574 (Yellow tag). b. DD Form 1575 (Brown tag). c. DD Form 1576 (Orange tag). d. DD Form 1577 (Gray tag). 32. (208) What is entered in the “remarks” block of the DD Form 1574 (yellow tag)? a. Time compliance technical order (TCTO) number. b. Time compliance technical order (TCTO) flag. c. Quality control flag. d. Quality control number. 33. (209) What code is used on a turn-in request for DIFM item indicating what actions were taken by maintenance and logistics readiness squadron (LRS)/materiel management activity? a. Demand. b. Action taken. c. Issue exception. d. Mission capable (MICAP) delete. 34. (209) Which action taken code indicates an item is condemned? a. F. b. 1. c. 9. d. A. 35. (209) What will the materiel management information technology system scan for in its internal records after an item was repaired and turned in as serviceable? a. Due-outs. b. Due-ins. c. Follow ups. d. Cancellation. 36. (209) Where are serviceable condition returns forwarded after a “notice to stock” document is received? a. Source of supply (SOS). b. Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Service (DLADS). c. Return to customer. d. Appropriate storage facility. 37. (209) What is produced after processing an unserviceable turn-in for an asset that cannot be repaired at base level? a. Shipment document. b. Notice to stock document. c. DOR. d. ISU. 38. (210) Time change assets are replaced on what type of schedule? a. Daily or weekly. b. Daily or hourly. c. Calendar or monthly. d. Calendar or hourly. 2–20 39. (210) Who appoints the time change manager? a. First sergeant or equivalent. b. Director of operations or equivalent. c. Materiel management flight chief or equivalent. d. Materiel management supervisor or equivalent. 40. (211) Failure to process turnaround (TRN) data in a correct and timely manner results in reduced base stock levels and incomplete reports from which buy, repair, and distribution decisions are made by a. Headquarters Air Force Materiel Command (HQ AFMC). b. Cataloging and Standardization Office (CASO). c. Government Services Administration (GSA). d. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA). 41. (211) Which update is prepared and processed by repair cycle support (RCS) to update demand data on the item record and repair cycle data on the repair cycle record? a. Calibration. b. Turnaround. c. Repair cycle. d. Cannibalization. 42. (211) Where does Supply obtain data used to process turnaround transactions? a. Department of Defense (DD) Form 1348–1A, Issue release/receipt document. b. Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 350, Reparable Item Processing Tag. c. Air Force (AF) Form 2005, Issue/Turn-in Request. d. I122 management notice. 43. (212) Which management notice is produced reflecting stock awaiting disposition instructions after an unserviceable turn-in process? a. I004. b. I007. c. I012. d. I023. 44. (212) What transaction identification code (TRIC) is not an option for processing after dispositions instructions for an unserviceable asset has been received? a. ISU. b. TRM. c. MSI. d. SHP. 45. (213) Who maintains ownership of supply point assets until they are used? a. Logistics readiness squadron (LRS). b. Source of supply (SOS). c. Maintenance. d. Equipment element. 46. (213) Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load, change, or delete supply point details? a. MSI. b. ISU. c. FSP. d. DFM.  2–21 47. (213) Which listing is used to verify balances during a supply point reconciliation? a. D04. b. Q13. c. R14. d. S07. 48. (213) What transaction identifier code (TRIC) is processed when the on-hand quantity is less than the authorized quantity after a supply point reconciliation? a. DOC. b. DOR. c. ISU. d. SPR. Please read the unit menu for unit 3 and continue   3–25 Unit Review Exercises Note to Student: Consider all choices carefully, select the best answer to each question, and circle the corresponding letter. When you have completed all unit review exercises, transfer your answers to the Field-Scoring Answer Sheet. Do not return your answer sheet to AFCDA. 49. (214) Who will continuously monitor requirements supporting Air Force war plans and ensure the validity of all war reserve materiel (WRM) requirements? a. Bases. b. Source of supply. c. MAJCOMs. d. AFMC. 50. (214) Who is responsible for physical materiel handling, receiving, storing, and processing of war reserve materiel (WRM) shipment requests? a. Bases. b. Source of supply. c. Major commands (MAJCOMs). d. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC). 51. (214) Which Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) system includes facilities, equipment, and supplies necessary to establish and support aircraft flight-related operations and maintenance activities for an initial aircraft squadron deployed to a bare base location? a. Housekeeping support. b. Industrial operations. c. Initial flightline. d. Follow-on flightline. 52. (214) Which Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) system includes facilities, equipment, and supplies necessary to establish and support flight operations and maintenance needs for a second and subsequent squadrons deployed to an austere base? a. Housekeeping support. b. Industrial operations. c. Initial flightline. d. Follow-on flightline. 53. (214) Mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) assets are designed to allow support of a weapon system in a deployed location for how many days before resupply is necessary? a. 30. b. 60. c. 90. d. 120. 54. (214) Who will authorize allocation of readiness spares packages (RSP) to specific units/bases? a. Logistics readiness squadron (LRS). b. Source of supply (SOS). c. Major command (MAJCOM). d. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC). 3–26 55. (214) What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load the serial number/control record for readiness spares package (RSP) authorizations? a. ISU. b. MSI. c. 1EB. d. 1UB. 56. (214) In the master file, what format is readiness spares package (RSP) data authorization input records received from the major command (MAJCOM)? a. FKD. b. XSF. c. XVF. d. 1EB. 57. (214) What program performs the readiness spares package (RSP) reconciliation? a. Q05. b. S05. c. R07. d. S07. 58. (214) What process involves shelf life controls and other inspection functions for readiness spares package (RSP) assets? a. Total asset visibility (TAV). b. Supply interface file system (SIFS). c. Care of supplies in storage (COSIS). d. Difficulty report (DIREP). 59. (214) What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to issue mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) assets to users? a. ISU. b. MSI. c. 1EB. d. 1UB. 60. (214) What asset status flag reflects mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) assets are deployed? a. D. b. F. c. M. d. T. 61. (214) The decision to transfer mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) accountability rests with the host and the a. losing accountable officer. b. losing major command (MAJCOM). c. gaining major command (MAJCOM). d. gaining accountable officer. 62. (214) What transaction identification code (TRIC) do you use to transfer mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) accountability? a. FKD. b. FME. c. 1EB. d. 1WD.  3–27 63. (214) What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to transfer assets between mobility readiness spares packages (MRSP) and war reserve materiel (WRM) detail records? a. DOR. b. ISU. c. 1EB. d. 1KT. 64. (214) What action code is used when transferring multiple quantities from a mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) or war reserve materiel (WRM) detail record? a. A. b. B. c. M. d. S. 65. (214) Which current listing/listings must be obtained prior to shipping out readiness spares package (RSP) assets? a. D04 and/or D20. b. M01 and/or M20. c. R14 and/or R15. d. R43 and/or R52. 66. (214) What wartime capability system is used to conduct wartime assessments? a. Readiness Assessment Module (RAM). b. Logistics Module-Base (LOGMOD-B) level. c. Sustainability Assessment Module (SAM). d. Personal Computer-Aircraft Sustainability Model (PC-ASM). 67. (214) What system is used to access the War Consumable Distribution Objective (WCDO)? a. Department of Defense (DOD) Readiness Reporting System (DRRS). b. Joint Contingency and Sustainment Processing System (JCSPS). c. Joint Acquisition CBRN Knowledge System (JACKS). d. Logistics Feasibility Analysis Capability (LOGFAC). 68. (214) Which listing provides a management product for special spares authorizations, assets, and products? a. Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23). b. Daily Document Register (D04). c. Special Spares Report (R34). d. Consolidate Custody Receipt Listing (R23). 69. (215) The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) is structured and executed under three principles transparency, predictability, and a. reports. b. response. c. automatically. d. equitability. 70. (215) Which of the following identifies the first three positions of a materiel management unit type code (UTC)? a. JFA. b. JFB. c. UFM. d. XFH. 3–28 71. (215) What system captures unit type code (UTC) assessments, identifies suitable UTCs to satisfy taskings, and helps forecast shortfalls? a. Weapon System Management Information System (WSMIS). b. Logistics Module-base (LOGMOD-B) level. c. Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) Unit Type Code (UTC) Reporting Tool (ART). d. Personal Computer–Aircraft Sustainability Model (PC–ASM). 72. (215) What code reflected in the operation plan (OPLAN) or time phased force deployment data (TPFDD) defines the number of passengers and/or amount of cargo that must be moved to meet a wartime tasking? a. Transaction identification code (TRIC). b. Time-phased deployment list (TPFDL). c. Controlled item code (CIC). d. Unit type code (UTC). 73. (215) What was established as the sole readiness reporting system for the Department of Defense? a. Weapon System Management Information System (WSMIS). b. Mobility Readiness Reporting System (MRRS). c. Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) Reporting Tool (ART). d. Defense Readiness Reporting System (DRRS). 74. (216) What section stores small arms for mobility use? a. Storage element. b. Supply point element. c. Security forces element. d. Individual protective equipment element. 75. (216) What number must be annotated on all documentation for small arms? a. Container. b. Model. c. Serial. d. Load. 76. (216) What Air Force (AF) Form will requesting individuals provide prior to being issued a weapon? a. AF Form 522. b. AF Form 931. c. AF Form 1297. d. AF Form 2005. 77. (216) Who must ensure that additional controls are exercised over all weapons movements, marshaling, and deployments at the deployed location? a. Resource advisor. b. Maintenance supervisor. c. Security forces. d. Accountable officer (AO) or commander. 78. (216) At a minimum, how often are mobility assets inventoried? a. Weekly. b. Monthly. c. Quarterly. d. Annually.  3–29 79. (216) Who performs warehouse validations prior to inventorying mobility assets? a. Individual protective equipment personnel. b. Inventory personnel. c. Maintenance. d. Commander. 80. (216) Which type mobility bag (MOBAG) contains cold weather equipment? a. A. b. B. c. C. d. D. 81. (216) Which type mobility bag (MOBAG) contains chemical warfare defense equipment? a. A. b. B. c. C. d. D. 82. (216) What is available to allow Individual Protective Equipment (IPE) element personnel to put away, redistribute, ship, and mange shipment discrepancies within Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Mobility? a. Mobility dashboards. b. Inventory planning. c. Shelf life forecast. d. Inventory count. 83. (216) Shelf life assets are tracked in ES-S Mobility by a. National stock number. b. Serial number. c. Contract/lot number. d. Part number. 84. (216) What is used to determine bulk stock requirements and are the basis for placing mobility stock orders based on mission support requirements? a. Mobility shopping list. b. Mobility audit trail. c. Mobility stock details. d. Mobility item activity. 85. (216) Which function in Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Mobility gives Individual Protective Equipment (IPE) element personnel the ability to view and update customer information and manage assets currently in possession by customers? a. Issue items. b. View site details. c. Shelf life activities. d. Authorized quantities details. 86. (216) Which capability gives Individual Protective Equipment (IPE) element personnel the ability to check stock availability that is either on hand in mobility warehouse locations or in the possession of mobility customers? a. Mobility data query. b. Mobility work products. c. Property stock site. d. Property balance location. 3–30 87. (216) What information is entered when returning mobility items through Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Mobility? a. National stock number (NSN). b. Issue document number. c. Warehouse badge number identification code. d. Electronic data interchange personal identifier (EDIPI). 88. (216) What does Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Mobility asset management programmatically search for and detect in relation to gas masks? a. Rejected service life dates. b. Renewed service life dates. c. Expired service life dates. d. Extended service life dates. 1–20 Unit Review Exercises Note to Student: Consider all choices carefully, select the best answer to each question, and circle the corresponding letter. When you have completed all unit review exercises, transfer your answers to AFCDA Form 34, Field Scoring Answer Sheet. Do not return your answer sheet to AFCDA. 1. (401) Where are the equipment requests forwarded after being reviewed and validated by the equipment accountability element (EAE)? a. Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management-Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Stock Control Activity. b. AFMC SCM-R Equipment Activity. c. AFMC. d. Major command (MAJCOM). 2. (401) The selection of property custodians requires mutual agreement between the a. equipment accountability element (EAE) and organization commanders. b. previous custodian and equipment management element (EME). c. organization commanders and the previous custodian. d. accountable officer and organization commanders. 3. (402) What is used to determine which equipment items organizations are authorized to purchase and maintain? a. Allowance standard (AS) and basis of issue (BOI). b. Property accountability. c. AS and configuration data. d. BOI. 4. (402) Which item describes the items and quantities of equipment Air Force activities and individuals normally require to carry out their mission? a. Configuration data. b. Allowance standards (AS). c. Authorization details. d. Equipment management codes (EMC). 5. (402) What element within an allowance standard (AS) establishes the number of items that can be issued to an individual, activity, or military organization? a. AS. b. Authorization. c. BOI. d. Unit of issue. 6. (402) Which expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD) identifies non- equipment authorization inventory data (non-EAID) equipment items? a. NF1. b. ND1. c. XB3. d. XD2.  1–21 7. (402) Which Air Force form is used to request a change to an allowance standard (AS) or to request an item that requires approval under miscellaneous allowance source code (ASC)? a. 600. b. 601. c. 2001. d. 2005. 8. (402) Which Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS) computer screen provides an automated method for submitting and evaluating allowance change requests? a. CA/CRL. b. ERRCD. c. TACR. d. EAID. 9. (402) Which FCI format within the Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS) is used to load, change, or delete equipment authorized/in-use details? a. 4. b. 3. c. 2. d. 1. 10. (403) Which turn-in method to the logistics readiness squadron (LRS) is used to process the turn- in before picking up the property? a. Directed. b. Automatic. c. Degraded operations. d. Pre-degraded operations. 11. (403) Which activity code is used to process non-equipment authorization inventory data (non- EAID) equipment turn-ins to the logistics readiness squadron (LRS)? a. E. b. P. c. R. d. X. 12. (403) Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to transfer equipment from one custodian account to another? a. FIC. b. FIS. c. FET. d. FEX. 13. (404) Which management listing helps ensure that equipment authorizations are maintained within prescribed allowances? a. Equipment out-of-balance listing. b. Allowance source code (ASC) listing. c. Document control register. d. Stock number directory. 14. (404) Which management listing is used to identify out-of-balance conditions? a. Q10. b. Q09. c. M14. d. D04. 1–22 15. (404) Which management listing provides visibility for high dollar value non-equipment authorization inventory data (non-EAID) items? a. R15, Organizational visibility listing. b. Q09, Allowance source code listing (ASC). c. Q10, Equipment-out-of-balance listing. d. R14, Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL). 16. (404) Which system is used to globally distinguish one item from all other items that the Department of Defense (DOD) buys or owns? a. Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS). b. Combat Supplies Management System. c. Item Unique Identification (IUID). d. Bare Base System. 17. (404) Who mandated the Item Unique Identification (IUID) compliance process for equipment assets with an acquisition cost of over $5,000? a. Major command (MAJCOM). b. Department of Defense (DOD). c. Headquarters Air Force (HQ AF). d. Command equipment management office (CEMO). 18. (404) Equipment accountability element (EAE) personnel use which method to conduct physical inventories? a. Sample. b. Partial. c. Floor to book. d. Floor to warehouse. 19. (404) Who ensures chief financial officer (CFO) data is loaded in the applicable Materiel Management information technology system? a. Quality assurance. b. Major command (MAJCOM). c. Equipment accountability element (EAE). d. Command equipment management office (CEMO). 20. (404) Which system is used to report any equipment item exceeding $100,000? a. Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS). b. Combat Supplies Management System. c. Item Unique Identification (IUID). d. Bare Base System. 21. (405) Which special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) asset categories are defined in the –21 technical order (TO)? a. Maintenance protection equipment. b. Crew and passenger support (CPS) equipment. c. Alternate mission equipment (AME) and CPS equipment. d. Maintenance and safety protection (MSP) equipment, AME, and CPS equipment. 22. (405) Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load a special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) detail? a. 1XA. b. 1WD. c. 1UB. d. 1BS.  1–23 23. (405) Which report provides a listing of all items authorized, on-hand, and due-out, for organizations authorized special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets? a. D04. b. M10. c. R25. d. R43. 24. (406) How often must you reconcile base weapons detail records with the central file at Warner Robins Air Logistics Complex (WR-ALC)? a. Weekly. b. Monthly. c. Semiannually. d. Annually. Please read the unit menu for unit 2 and continue  2–28 Unit Review Exercises Note to Student: Consider all choices carefully, select the best answer to each question, and circle the corresponding letter. When you have completed all unit review exercises, transfer your answers to the Field-Scoring Answer Sheet. Do not return your answer sheet to AFCDA. 25. (407) Who works hand-in-hand with the logistics readiness squadron (LRS) to support mission requirements? a. Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management-Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Stock Control Activity. b. AFMC SCM-R Equipment Activity. c. Air Combat Command (ACC). d. Mission Support Group (MSG). 26. (407) Which stock leveling term identifies the repair rate for the current and past four quarters? a. Demand level. b. Daily demand rate (DDR). c. Repair cycle quantity (RCQ). d. Average percent of base repair (PBR). 27. (407) What stock leveling term represents the maximum quantity that should be on-hand or on order to sustain current operations? a. Economic order quantity (EOQ). b. Condemned quantity (NCQ). c. Requisition objective (RO). d. Safety-level quantity (SLQ). 28. (407) Which stock leveling term identifies quantities required to be on hand to permit continuous operation during minor interruptions of normal replenishment or unpredictable increases in demands? a. Safety level quantity (SLQ). b. Repair cycle quantity (RCQ). c. Economic order quantity (EOQ). d. Order and shipping time quantity (O&STQ). 29. (407) What must be established anytime stock is authorized for nonexpendable (equipment) items? a. Safety level. b. Adjusted level. c. Economic order quantity (EOQ). d. Order and shipping time quantity (O&STQ). 30. (408) When one-for-one stock requisitioning is not needed, which adjusted minimum level should be used? a. D. b. C. c. B. d. A.  2–29 31. (408) Which type of adjusted stock level (ASL) is assigned to an item to ensure the requisitioning objective remains constant and does not fluctuate due to demand patterns? a. Fixed. b. Special. c. Minimum. d. Maximum. 32. (408) Which materiel management system program is used to review and validate adjusted stock levels (ASL)? a. R26. b. R35. c. R43. d. R45. 33. (408) Which stock level is derived from a mathematical technique used to determine the lowest total variable costs to order and hold inventory? a. Economic order quantity (EOQ). b. Repair cycle quantity (RCQ). c. Requisition objective (RO). d. Reorder level (ROL). 34. (409) Which materiel management system listing is used to identify a possible readiness-based level (RBL) misallocation? a. R35. b. R39. c. R43. d. R47. 35. (409) Which technology enables logisticians to identify, categorize, and locate assets? a. Total asset visibility (TAV). b. Readiness-based levels (RBL). c. Radio frequency identification (RFID). d. Customer oriented leveling technique. 36. (409) What process has the overall goal to have the capability to provide users with timely and accurate information on the location, movement, status, and identity of units, personnel, equipment, materiel, and supplies? a. Customer oriented leveling technique. b. Proactive demand leveling. c. Readiness-based level (RBL). d. Total asset visibility (TAV). 37. (410) What document identification code (DIC) indicates a denial to a redistribution order (RDO) sent by Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) item managers (IM)? a. B7*. b. BLO. c. FTR. d. RDO. 38. (410) Which shipment exception (SEX) code is used for do not ship—assets frozen? a. A. b. 1. c. 2. d. 3. 2–30 39. (411) Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to process a special requisition (SPR)? a. DOR. b. ISU. c. SPR. d. TRM. 40. (411) Program control uses which system to assign a requisition priority for each requisition? a. Integrated Maintenance Data System—Central Database (IMDS CDB). b. Military Standard Tracer Reconciliation Program. c. Military Standard Requisitioning and Issue Procedures (MILSTRIP). d. Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS). 41. (411) Who does the source of supply (SOS) owe an item to when a due-in detail is established after being requisitioned? a. Item manager (IM). b. Requisitioning activity. c. Major command (MAJCOM). d. Headquarter United States Air Force (HQ USAF). 42. (411) What part of the due-in document identifies the base that placed the requisition? a. Service. b. Type account. c. Address code. d. Serial number. 43. (411) How often are requisition exception (REX) codes reviewed and validated? a. Monthly. b. Quarterly. c. Semiannually. d. Annual. 44. (411) Which requisition exception (REX) code is assigned under program control due to military standard requisitioning and issue procedures (MILSTRIP) status? a. 1. b. 4. c. 5. d. A. 45. (412) Which code is assigned to the item record to indicate the source of supply (SOS) has cancelled a requisition? a. SPC 5. b. SPC 1. c. REX 5. d. REX 1. 46. (412) Which type of military standard requisitioning and issue procedures (MILSTRIP) status results from out-of-stock conditions, new requirements, and other conditions that stop the supply source from filling the requisition exactly as it was requested? a. Positive. b. Cancellation. c. Exception/other. d. In transit/shipped.  2–31 47. (413) Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to request an improved estimated availability date or estimated shipment date for priority 01–08 requisitions? a. AFC. b. ISU. c. SPR. d. TRM. 48. (413) What reconciliation flag on the status detail record indicates that AFC action was taken to request improved status on a requisition? a. A. b. C. c. F. d. R. 49. (413) Supply difficulty for Air Force-managed items is reported on Air Force Form a. 1230. b. 1250. c. 1530. d. 1667. 50. (413) Supply difficulty reports must be processed within how many calendar days? a. 3. b. 7. c. 10. d. 15. 51. (414) Which listings are used to perform due-out review and validation? a. D18 and R01. b. Q12 and R01. c. Q12 and M37. d. M37 and D18. 52. (414) How often are urgency of need (UND) C due-outs validated? a. Daily. b. Weekly. c. Monthly. d. Quarterly. 53. (414) Which transaction is processed to change various data elements on retail materiel management system due-in details? a. Due-in/due-out (DIT). b. Due-out release (DOR). c. Turn-in to supply. d. Receipt. 54. (414) What cancellation status code indicates that a due-in cancellation request was generated by off-line action? a. BS. b. CA. c. ZC. d. ZD. 2–32 55. (414) How many days will local purchase (LP) items appear on the listing after the vendor bill is received and processed for billed-not-received (BNR) transactions? a. 5. b. 7. c. 10. d. 30. 56. (414) Which detail is created by the materiel management system whenever a referral order is honored and a credit is given to the shipping base? a. Due-in. b. Billed-not-received (BNR). c. Received-not-billed (RNB). d. Shipped-not-credited (SNC). Please read the unit menu for unit 3 and continue  3–22 Unit Review Exercises Note to Student: Consider all choices carefully, select the best answer to each question, and circle the corresponding letter. When you have completed all unit review exercises, transfer your answers to the Field-Scoring Answer Sheet. Do not return your answer sheet to AFCDA. 57. (415) Which interactive query screen in Web Federal Logistics Information System (WebFLIS) provides the option to select more or less information to include in a search? a. Commercial and government entity (CAGE) code search. b. Part number search. c. Item name search. d. Search Selection Menu. 58. (415) Which search screen in Web Federal Logistics Information System (WebFLIS) allows users to locate manufacturer names for the code entered? a. CAGE. b. Part number. c. Stock number. d. Output selection. 59. (415) Which system provides Air Force personnel with on-line cataloging, standardization, and other logistics management data for Air Force-managed or user items? a. D043A. b. Integrated Logistics System-Supply (ILS-S). c. Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS). d. Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES). 60. (416) Illustrated parts breakdowns (IPB) are normally identified and published in a. figure and index. b. model number and series. c. –4 series of technical orders (TO). d. –7 series of TOs. 61. (416) Which section of the illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) provides a sequential listing of all part numbers appearing in the IPB a. Group assembly parts list. b. Next higher assembly (NHA) list. c. Numerical index. d. Introduction. 62. (417) The transaction identification code (TRIC) FIL input establishes what type of record(s)? a. Repair cycle record only. b. Item record only. c. Repair cycle and constant records. d. Item and repair cycle records.  3–23 63. (417) An expendable item is identified by which code used in the first position of an expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost (ERRC) designator? a. D. b. E. c. N. d. X. 64. (417) What transaction identification code (TRIC) establishes the part number record? a. FIL or 1AA. b. FIC or 1AA. c. FIL or FCU. d. FIC or FCU. 65. (417) What purpose does the part number detail record serve? a. Automates the part number to stock number cross-reference file. b. Eliminates searches in Web Federal Logistics Information System (WebFLIS). c. Provides a record of past part number requirements. d. Provides manual research capability. 66. (417) What noncataloged (NC) number position indicates which Air Logistics Complex (ALC) assigned the number? a. Position 6. b. Position 7. c. Position 8. d. Position 9. 67. (418) Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to change the stock number; expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD), equipment management code (EMC), routing identifier (RID), and budget code on the item record? a. FCU. b. FIC. c. FID. d. FNL. 68. (418) What is the maximum number of characters for the descriptive nomenclature field on the item record? a. 18. b. 24. c. 32. d. 48. 69. (418) For internal records, what transaction identification code (TRIC) changes the unit price, unit of issue, and quantity unit pack (except for local purchase [LP] items) fields? a. FCU. b. FIC. c. FID. d. FNL. 70. (419) What computer system provides interchangeable and substitute group (I&SG) information? a. D143B. b. D043B. c. D071. d. C001. 3–24 71. (419) Which code identifies the order in which items within interchangeability and substitution grouping (I&SG) are substituted or issued? a. Subgroup. b. Order of use. c. Issue exception. d. Parts preference. 72. (419) What transaction identification code (TRIC) code is used to load, change, or delete interchangeable and substitution group (I&SG) items? a. FCU. b. FID. c. FIS. d. FIX. 73. (419) Who must justify in writing the request to load, change, or delete interchangeable and substitution group (I&SG) items? a. Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF). b. Major command (MAJCOM). c. Item manager (IM). d. Using activity. 1–20 Unit Review Exercises Note to Student: Consider all choices carefully, select the best answer to each question, and circle the corresponding letter. When you have completed all unit review exercises, transfer your answers to the Field-Scoring Answer Sheet. Do not return your answer sheet to the Air Force Career Development Academy (AFCDA). 1. (601) Which item is not checked when off-loading property from a carrier? a. Production date. b. Shipping label. c. Obvious damage. d. Transportation control number. 2. (602) Who works with the in-checker to ensure items are correctly identified and the appropriate condition tags or labels are used on the assets? a. Customer. b. Inspector. c. Item manager. d. Commander. 3. (602) Which block of the AF Form 2005 will the inspector sign or stamp after the in-checker has signed and dated the form? a. A. b. B. c. C. d. D. 4. (603) Which operation includes verifying identity, security classification, condition, status, markings, tagging, and labeling for property? a. Storage operations. b. Inspection operations. c. Receiving operations. d. Inventory operations. 5. (603) Who is responsible for overseeing the Care of Supplies in Storage (COSIS) program? a. Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander. b. Materiel management inspectors. c. LRS deputy commander. d. Chief inspector. 6. (604) What three things are used to identify an item? a. Reference number, item number, and stock number. b. Stock number, nomenclature, and item description. c. Stock number, item description, and specifications. d. Reference number, stock number, and item description. 7. (604) Which Department of Defense (DD) form is red and is used to identify property that is unserviceable and uneconomical to repair? a. DD Form 1576, Test Modification Tag. b. DD Form 1577, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag. c. DD Form 1577–2, Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag. d. DD Form 1577–3, Unserviceable (Reparable) Label.  1–21 8. (604) What is the purpose of Department of Defense (DD) Form 2477, Inspection Extension? a. Updates inspection data. b. Identifies condemned items. c. Identifies property forwarded to maintenance. d. Identifies property in stock that has been suspended. 9. (605) What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to initiate a condition change? a. FCH. b. FCU. c. FCC. d. FCI. 10. (605) An organizational refusal would be a customer’s responsibility if the a. property was damaged. b. customer failed to cancel the due-out. c. property delivered was an unsuitable substitute. d. quantity issued was in excess of what the customer ordered. 11. (606) Who schedules and accomplishes an aggressive surveillance inspection program of all items in storage? a. Inspector. b. Logistics manager. c. Accountable officer. d. Warehouse supervisor. 12. (607) When is a supply discrepancy report (SDR) required? a. Assets involving local base or station deliveries to or returns from internal or satellite activities. b. Incorrect materiel, unacceptable substitutes, or duplicate shipments. c. Logistic readiness squadron (LRS) processed an issue request. d. LRS cancels an issue request. 13. (607) Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded when additional help is needed? a. Major command (MAJCOM). b. Stock control function. c. Accountable officer. d. Item manager. Please read the unit menu for unit 2 and continue   2–31 Unit Review Exercises Note to Student: Consider all choices carefully, select the best answer to each question, and circle the corresponding letter. 14. (608) At what temperature must a refrigerated storage chill space be maintained? a. Between 50 and 60°F. b. Between 32 and 50°F. c. Below 32°F. d. Below 0°F. 15. (608) At a minimum, how many feet must separate flammable storage facilities from other facilities? a. 25. b. 50. c. 75. d. 100. 16. (608) What is a major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage? a. Adverse weather. b. Wet ground conditions. c. Slipping on steel mat toppings. d. Limited use of materiel handling equipment (MHE). 17. (609) The basic resource of any materiel management and distribution operation is the a. materiel handling equipment. b. gross space available. c. storage space. d. storage plan. 18. (609) What must be planned before the actual start of the storage operation to assure the floor and cubic capacity of the warehouse will be used to the greatest extent possible? a. Bin rows. b. Storage areas. c. Item popularity. d. Item similarity. 19. (609) When you increase the amount of space for an item in a location to eliminate overflow into another item’s location, you are implementing what storage factor? a. Item quantity. b. Item similarity. c. Item popularity. d. Item size and weight. 20. (610) What is used to identify a bin subdivision in the warehouse location code 05C045F056D? a. 045. b. 056. c. F. d. D. 21. (610) Warehouse stockrooms are sequenced from a. left to right only. b. right to left only. c. left to right and front to rear. d. right to left and rear to front. 2–32 22. (610) What letter or symbol is entered in the “Warehouse Location Delete Flag” field when deleting a warehouse location? a. R. b. D. c. #. d. *. 23. (610) What item does the Air Force use to aid in inventory and warehouse validation? a. Storage bays. b. Corner markers. c. Bar-coded labels. d. Placement cards. 24. (611) Within how many workdays of the start of an inventory cycle should the storage activity complete scheduled validations? a. 3. b. 7. c. 10. d. 14. 25. (611) How many days prior to the start of a warehouse validation is a warehouse location parameter input prepared? a. 1. b. 3. c. 5. d. 7. 26. (611) What action is required prior to performing a validation to ensure a warehouse is in the best condition for an inventory? a. Inventory reserve assets. b. Prepare the warehouse area. c. Move assets to reserve location. d. Move assets to alternate warehouse. 27. (611) What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to move property to the correct location? a. ISU. b. FCS. c. SPR. d. TRM. 28. (612) The practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of storage space is called a. honeycombing. b. cross stacking. c. mezzanine storage. d. potential vacant space. 29. (612) Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be a. saved as historical data. b. obliterated. c. recycled. d. ignored.  2–33 30. (613) Which transaction identification code (TRIC) identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative data change? a. FCD. b. FIC. c. FCH. d. 1SC. 31. (614) What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to manually transfer nondirected assets to the Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services (DLADS)? a. A2*. b. FTR. c. SHP. d. TRM. 32. (614) What routing identifier code (RIC) is processed with a special requisition when property is available in Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services (DLADS)? a. AK1. b. B14. c. JBR. d. SMS. Please read the unit menu for unit 3 and continue  3–30 Unit Review Exercises Note to Student: Consider all choices carefully, select the best answer to each question, and circle the corresponding letter. 33. (615) What is used to identify hazards and safety measures associated with a particular product? a. Environmental Protection Agency guidance. b. The Materiel Management System. c. Safety data sheet (SDS). d. HAZMAT pharmacy. 34. (615) As a minimum, how often must a utility program be run to identify potentially hazardous item records that do not have an issue exception (IEX) code or health hazard flag (HHF) assigned? a. Daily. b. Weekly. c. Monthly. d. Quarterly. 35. (616) Flammable solids include chemicals that are solids at a minimum temperature of a. 80 degrees Fahrenheit (°F). b. 90°F. c. 100°F. d. 110°F. 36. (616) What type of material storage is best used for items such as pesticides, poisons, and certain batteries? a. High risk. b. Flammable. c. Corrosive. d. Low hazard. 37. (617) When chemical and petroleum products reach their retest dates, what transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to suspend the outdated materiel on an unserviceable detail and prevent reissue? a. FCA. b. FCB. c. FCC. d. FCD. 38. (618) Hazardous disposal can generally be grouped into how many categories? a. One. b. Two. c. Three. d. Four. 39. (618) Who is responsible for the costs of disposing of hazardous wastes? a. Defense Reutilization and Marketing Service (DRMS). b. Producing organization. c. Inspection element. d. Distribution officer.  3–31 40. (619) Which class of storage vault is used for storing secret and confidential materiel? a. A. b. B. c. C. d. D. 41. (619) Who is assigned as the installation Precious Metals Recovery Program (PMRP) manager/focal point for all matters concerning PMRP? a. Item manager. b. Maintenance supervisor. c. Materiel management flight chief inspector. d. Logistic readiness squadron (LRS) commander. 42. (619) Who is responsible for transferring precious metals-bearing metals to the nearest Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services (DLADS) facility? a. Department of Defense (DOD) activity. b. Major command (MAJCOM). c. Headquarters (HQ) USAF. d. Item manager. 43. (619) As a minimum, how often must the combination on padlocks be changed for classified storage? a. Monthly. b. Quarterly. c. Semiannually. d. Annually. 44. (620) How are electronic sensitive devices (ESD) identified on the item record? a. Issue exception (IEX) code 3. b. IEX code 4. c. Type cargo code 3. d. Type cargo code 4. 45. (620) What transaction identification code (TRIC) and activity code are used to process an electronic sensitive device (ESD) item from a detail record to maintenance for testing? a. ISU, E. b. MSI, E. c. ISU, C. d. MSI, C. 46. (620) If required, who can open an electrostatic discharge (ESD) item package? a. Item managers. b. ESD receiving personnel. c. Materiel management inspector. d. Logistics readiness squadron commander (LRS\CC). 47. (621) What markings on an item provides proof that a functional check was done? a. Base supply inspector’s stamp/signature. b. Base maintenance inspector’s stamp/signature. c. Maintenance point of contact stamp/signature. d. The words “Functional Check Performed” on the container. 3–32 48. (621) As a minimum, how often is a functional check listing produced? a. Weekly. b. Monthly. c. Semiannually. d. Annually. 49. (622) What type of shelf life coded item has a definite nonextendable shelf-life? a. Type A. b. Type B. c. Type I. d. Type II. 50. (622) How many days prior to the expiration date should type II shelf-life items be scheduled for serviceability testing? a. 10. b. 15 to 45. c. 60 to 90. d. 120. 51. (623) What computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag to an item record? a. FCC with suspect flag F. b. FCD with suspect flag F. c. FCC with suspect flag S. d. FCD with suspect flag S. 52. (624) What is employed to determine how counterfeit/discrepant materiel was procured to prevent reoccurrence? a. Risk-based approach. b. Safety-based approach. c. Leadership-based approach. d. Management-based approach. 53. (624) Which program reviews discrepant and suspected counterfeit materiel? a. Air Force Discrepancy Reporting System. b. Air Force Damage Reporting System. c. Joint Discrepancy Reporting System. d. Joint Damage Reporting System. 54. (625) The information that must be annotated on the receiving document of a warranty or guaranty item is the serial number, a. model, and manufacturer’s name. b. model, and manufacturer’s reference number. c. part number, and manufacturer’s name and address. d. part number, and manufacturer’s reference number. 55. (626) At a minimum, how frequently is the unserviceable storage area reviewed by storage personnel for validation purposes? a. Daily. b. Weekly. c. Monthly. d. Quarterly. Please read the unit menu for unit 4 and continue   4–17 Unit Review Exercises Note to Student: Consider all choices carefully, select the best answer to each question, and circle the corresponding letter. 56. (627) The inventory deadline date is the Julian date the actual count a. begins. b. ends. c. is scheduled. d. is verified. 57. (628) Who ensures the warehouse does not remain closed to normal receipts and issues for an unreasonable length of time and that all backlog transactions are processed upon completion of the inventory? a. Accountable officer. b. Warehouse supervisor. c. Maintenance supervisor. d. Item manager. 58. (628) When inventory count images are input, the computer compares the record balance with the a. unit price. b. unit of issue. c. controlled item code. d. physical count quantity. 59. (629) When performing an inventory on an equipment account, which product is used to record the out-of-balance conditions? a. Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL) (R14). b. Parameter inputs. c. 1GP output notice. d. Equipment listing. 60. (629) What document is used to clear the “I” freeze code suspense file? a. Reverse post output document. b. Inventory count record. c. Inventory recount image (IRC) output document. d. Annotated 1GP notice. 61. (630) An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when the record balance does not agree with the recount quantity and the dollar value of the adjustment is less than a. $25. b. $50. c. $100. d. $1,000. 62. (630) To indicate that additional research is needed, the modified recount image contains a research indicator of a. AC. b. AR. c. AT. d. AZ. 4–18 63. (630) At a minimum, how often will an inventory analysis be performed? a. Daily. b. Monthly. c. Semi-annual. d. Annual. 64. (630) Which listing has an intermediate inventory adjustment summary of the inventory analysis? a. D04. b. D06. c. M10. d. R14. 65. (630) Who initiates the deficiency report process to include the deficient property at the time of turn-in? a. Materiel management personnel. b. Maintenance personnel. c. Warehouse supervisor. d. Item manager. 66. (631) Which document is an official report of facts and circumstances supporting assessment of financial liability for the loss, damage, or destruction of Air Force property? a. Report of discrepancy. b. Report of survey. c. Supply discrepancy report. d. Deficiency evaluation report. 67. (631) Which individual is appointed by the unit commander to accept custodial responsibility for government property under their control? a. Item manager. b. Accountable officer. c. Property custodian. d. Maintenance supervisor. 68. (631) Which concept mandates all personnel are essential to conserve, protect, and maintain available government systems, equipment and supplies for operational requirements? a. Supply discipline. b. Inventory adjustment. c. Materiel deficiency report. d. Reports of survey. Please read the unit menu for unit 5 and continue   5–23 Unit Review Exercises Note to Student: Consider all choices carefully, select the best answer to each question, and circle the corresponding letter. 69. (632) The expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD) for bench stock items must be a. XB3. b. XF3. c. ND2. d. XD2. 70. (632) What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load the initial master bench stock details? a. 1BS. b. 2BS. c. 1F3. d. 1GP. 71. (633) Once the date of last demand has exceeded how many days are bench stock items recommended for deletion? a. 120. b. 180. c. 270. d. 360. 72. (633) Which product recommends items that qualify for addition to organizational bench stocks? a. M04. b. R26. c. R31. d. S04. 73. (633) How often must bench stock standard reporting designator (SRD) data and minimum reserve authorization (MRA) levels be validated? a. Monthly. b. Quarterly. c. Semiannually. d. Annually. 74. (634) Which principle of materiel handling obtains the greatest economy in moving materiel? a. Advanced planning. b. Use straight line flow. c. Least handling is the best handling. d. Volume dictates the method of handling. 75. (634) Which principle of materiel handling requires consideration of legal and physical restrictions concerning transportation? a. Advanced planning. b. Use straight line flow. c. Least handling is the best handling. d. Volume dictates the method of handling. 5–24 76. (634) What can increase productivity and utilization of warehouse space in addition to improving mission capability and enhancing safety? a. Honeycombing b. Storage aids systems. c. Support equipment. d. Packaging materials. 77. (635) Short-life reusable containers are expected to survive at least how many round-trips? a. 10. b. 25. c. 50. d. 100. 78. (635) Which action makes cargo loading and unloading as fast and easy as possible? a. Calibrate. b. Palletize. c. Refurbish. d. Demilitarize. 79. (636) Which element within the logistic readiness squadron (LRS) is responsible for providing secure storage for weapons? a. Mobility. b. Stock control. c. Storage and issue. d. Customer service. 80. (636) What is defined as materiel that requires a high degree of protection and control due to statutory requirements or regulations? a. Sensitive items. b. Classified items. c. Industrial supplies. d. General supplies. 81. (637) Identification of persons authorized to accept controlled material is done according to a. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 31–401, Information Security Program Management. b. Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 23–122, Materiel Management. c. AFI 16–1404, Air Force Information Security Program. d. AFI 23–2308, Management Program. 82. (638) Who is responsible for training logistics readiness squadron (LRS) personnel who will handle controlled materiel? a. Inventory section. b. Security forces. c. Chief inspector. d. Commander. 83. (638) Who will Air Force activities report to concerning all discrepancies involving classified items? a. Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander. b. Maintenance supervisor. c. Security manager. d. Item manager.  5–25 84. (638) What color of ink is used to stamp or write “Classified Item” on copies of source documents for classified items? a. Blue. b. Red. c. Black. d. Green. 85. (639) Who is responsible for the health of assigned items to meet mission requirements? a. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) item management team. b. Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander. c. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA). d. Item manager. 86. (639) Who accounts for threat reduction assets at both organic and contract repair facilities? a. Item manager. b. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA). c. Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander. d. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) item management team. Please read the unit menu for unit 6 and continue  6–22 93. (645) What on-line system combines the issue, shipment, receipt, and transfer of wholesale and retail materiel? a. Stock control system (SCS). b. Logistics Information Network (LINK). c. Visual Logistics Information Processing System (VLIPS). d. Standard Automated Materiel Management System (SAMMS). 94. (645) Which system provides the user with information on their requisitions, with emphasis placed on the flightline base level user? a. TRACKER. b. RAMPS. c. LINK. d. SCS. 95. (646) Which supports repair execution and item distribution, and manages flow of recoverable assets in and out of depot repair? a. Readiness Assessment Module. b. Propulsion Requirement System. c. Requirements/Execution Availability Logistics Module. d. Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System. 96. (647) The Supply Interface System residue images are considered delinquent after how many hours? a. 24. b. 36. c. 48. d. 72. 97. (647) How long are the Supply Interface System residue images kept before they are deleted? a. 5 days. b. 7 days. c. 10 days. d. 14 days. 98. (648) How can users request access to the logistics, installations & mission support-enterprise view (LIMS-EV)? a. Via the Air Force Portal. b. Through the Supply Interface System. c. Contacting the Defense Logistics Agency. d. Via the Logistics Information Network.