Viva-Voce Questions 2023 PDF

VIVA – VOCE QUESTIONS - 2023 The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the (a) Prime Minister (b) Vice- President (c) Chief Minister (d) Chief Justice Answer: Prime Minister The President gives his resignation to the (a) Chief Justice (b) Parliament (c) Vice President...

VIVA – VOCE QUESTIONS - 2023 The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the (a) Prime Minister (b) Vice- President (c) Chief Minister (d) Chief Justice Answer: Prime Minister The President gives his resignation to the (a) Chief Justice (b) Parliament (c) Vice President (d) Prime Minister Answer: Vice President 3. For what period does the Vice President of India hold office ? (a) 5 years (b) Till the age of 65 years (c) 6 years (d) 2 years Answer: 5 years Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President ? (a) Governor (b) Election Commissioner (c) Speaker of Lok Sabha (d) Prime Minister Answer: Governor 5. Which of the following is not true regarding the payment of the emoluments of the President ? (a) They can be reduced during a Financial Emergency. (b) They are shown separately in the budget. (c) They are charged on the Contigency Fund of India. (d) They do not require any parliament sanction. Answer: They are charged on the Contigency Fund of India. 6. The total number of members nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is (a) 16 (b) 18 (c) 14 (d) 12 Answer: 14 7. Which one of the following does not constitute the electoral college for electing the President of India ? (a) Elected members of Lok Sabha (b) Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of each state. (c) Elected members of the Legislative Council (d) Elected members of Rajya Sabha Answer: Elected members of the Legislative Council 8. The council of Ministers in a Parliamentary type of Government can remain in office till it enjoys the support of the (a) Minority of members of the Upper House of Parliament (b) Majority of the members of the Upper House of Parliament (c) Minority of members of the Lower House (d) Majority of the members of the Lower House of Parliament Answer: Majority of the members of the Lower House of Parliament 9. Which of the following appointments is not made by the President of India ? (a) Chief of the Army (b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (c) Chief Justice of India (d) Chief of the Air Force Answer: Speaker of the Lok Sabha 10. Who appoints the Prime Minister of India ? (a) Lok Sabha (b) President (c) Parliament (d) Citizens of India Answer: President 11. The first woman Governor of a state in free India was (a) Mrs. Indira Gandhi (b) Mrs. Vijaya Laxmi Pandit (c) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu (d) Mrs. Sucheta Kripalani Answer: Mrs. Sarojini Naidu 12. Minimum age required to contest for Presidentship is (a) 23 years (b) 21 years (c) 35 years (d) 30 years Answer: 35 years 13. The charge of impeachment against the President of India for his removal can be preferred by (a) Both Houses of Parliament (b) Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha (c) Rajya Sabha (d) Lok Sabha Answer: Both Houses of Parliament 14. The Chief Minister of a Union Territory where such a set up exists, is appointed by the (a) Lt. Governor (b) Majority party in Legislature (c) President (d) Prime Minister Answer: Lt. Governor 15. Who was the first Prime Minister of India ? (a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Mrs. Indira Gandhi (c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (d) Mahatma Gandhi Answer: Jawaharlal Nehru 16. In case a President dies while in office, the vice President can act as President for a maximum period of (a) 1 years (b) 3 months (c) 6 months (d) 2 years Answer; 6 months 17. The Union Council of Ministers consists of (a) Cabinet Ministers, Minister of State and Deputy Ministers (b) Cabinet Ministers and Chief Ministers of the States (c) Prime Minister (d) Cabinet Ministers Answer: Cabinet Ministers, Minister of State and Deputy Ministers 18. Who administers the oath of office to the President of India before he enters upon the office ? (a) Chief Justice (b) Speaker (c) Vice President (d) Prime Minister Answer: Chief Justice 19. Who among the following enjoys the rank of a Cabinet Minister of the Indian Union? (a) None of the Above (b) Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission (c) Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha (d) Secretary to the Government of India Answer: Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission 20. A person who is not a member of Parliament can be appointed as a Minister by the President for a maximum period of (a) 9 months (b) 3 months (c) 12 months (d) 6 months Answer: 6 months 21. When can a President use his discretion in appointing the Prime Minister ? (a) When no political oarty enjoys a clear majority in the Lok Sabha. (b) Only when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved. (c) In all circumstances (d) In no circumstances Answer: When no political oarty enjoys a clear majority in the Lok Sabha. 22. If in a country there happens to be the office of monarchy as well as a Parliamentary form of government this monarch will be called (a) Head of the State (b) Head of the Cabinet (c) Head of the government (d) Both Head of the government and State Answer: Head of the State 23. One feature distinguishing the Rajya Sabha from the Vidhan Parishad is (a) Power of impeachment (b) Indirect election (c) Nomination of members (d) Tenure of membership Answer: Power of impeachment 24. Chief Ministers of all the states are ex-officio members of the (a) Planning Commission (b) National Development Council (c) Inter State Council (d) Finance Commission Answer: Inter State Council 25. Who, among the following, has the final right to sanction the expenditure of public money in India ? (a) Speaker (b) President (c) Prime Minister (d) Parliament Answer: President 26. Which of the following is not an essential qualification for appointment as a Governor ? (a) He must not be a member of either House of Parliament. (b) He should be a domicile of the state to which he is being appointed. (c) He should be a citizen of India. (d) He must have completed the age of 35 years Answer: He should be a domicile of the state to which he is being appointed. 27. The President nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha according to (a) Their performance as office bearers of cultural societies. (b) The recommendations made by the Vice President. (c) Their role played in political set up of the country. (d) Their distinction in the field of science, art, literature and social service. Answer: Their distinction in the field of science, art, literature and social service. 28. Which Article of the Constitution empowers the President to appoint a Commission to investigate the condition of backward classes in general and suggest ameliorative measures? (a) Art 342 (b) Art 344 (c) Art 340 (d) Art 339 Answer: Art 340 29. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India ? (a) Either House of Parliament (b) Any Vidhan Sabha (c) Only Lok Sabha (d) Rajya Sabha Answer: Either House of Parliament 30. Who was the member of the Rajya Sabha when first appointed as the Prime Minister of India? (a) Lal Bahadur Shastri (b) Charan Singh (c) Morarji Desai (d) Indira Gandhi Answer: Indira Gandhi 31. What is the minimum age for appointment as a Governor ? (a) 35 years (b) 40 years (c) 25 years (d) 30 years Answer: 35 years 32. Chief Minister of a State is responsible to (a) Prime Minister (b) Rajya Sabha (c) Legislative Assembly (d) Governor Answer; Legislative Assembly 33. The administrative and operational control of the Armed Forces is exercised by the (a) Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs with Prime Minister as the Chairman (b) Ministry of Defence (c) Three Chiefs of the Army, Navy and Air Force Staff (d) President Answer: Ministry of Defence 34. What is the position of a Minister of State in the Central Government ? (a) He is a Minister of Central Government but not a member of the Cabinet. (b) He looks after the interests of the State Cabinet. (c) He is the nominee of the State Governor. (d) He is the nominee of the State Cabinet. Answer: He is a Minister of Central Government but not a member of the Cabinet. 35. Who among the following is directly responsible to Parliament for all matters concerning the Defence Services of India ? (a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) Defence Minister (d) Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs Answer: Defence Minister 36. How many times the President of India can seek re-election to his post ? (a) Once (b) 3 times (c) 2 times (d) Any number of times Answer; Any number of times 37. Who among the following has the power to form a new state within the Union of India ? (a) Speaker of Lok Sabha (b) President (c) Prime Minister (d) Supreme Court Answer: President 38. Is the Prime Minister bound to advise the President on matters on which his advice is sought ? (a) If the Council of Ministers so desires. (b) Yes (c) No (d) It is discretionary Answer: Yes 39. When the Vice President officiates as President he draws the salary of (a) Chairman of Rajya Sabha (b) Both (A) and ( C ) (c) President (d) Member of Parliament Answer: President 40. Who among the following can attend meetings of the Union Cabinet ? (a) President (b) Cabinet Ministers (c) Ministers of State (d) Deputy Ministers Answer: Cabinet Ministers 41. Who among the following has the Constitutional authority to make rules and regulations fixing the number of members of the UPSC (a) Vice- President (b) President (c) Home Ministry (d) Cabinet Secretary Answer: President 42. Under whose advice the President of India declares Emergency under Article 352 ? (a) Chief Ministers of all states (b) Prime Minister (c) Cabinet (d) Council of Ministers Answer: Cabinet 43. Who acts as the President of India when neither the President nor the Vice President is available ? (a) Seniormost Governor of a State (b) Chief Justice of India (c) Speaker of Lok Sabha (d) Auditor General of India Answer: Chief Justice of India 44. A proclamation of emergency issued under Article 36 must be approved by the Parliament within (a) 3 months (b) 2 months (c) 1 Month (d) 6 weeks Answer: 2 months 45. The Union Council of Ministers is appointed by the (a) President of India according to his discretion (b) President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister (c) Prime Minister of India (d) Parliament Answer: President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister 46. The President can proclaim emergency on the written advice of the (a) Speaker of Lok Sabha (b) Prime Minister (c) Chief Justice of India (d) Union Cabinet Answer: Prime Minister 47. The Union Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to (a) Rajya Sabha (b) President (c) House of the People (d) Prime Minister Answer: House of the People 48. Article 78 of the Constitution deals with (a) President's power to get information from the Council of Ministers. (b) Prime Minister's duty regarding keeping the President informed about the government's decisions and policies. (c) Emergency powers of the President (d) President's power to send advisory messages to the Parliament. Answer: President's power to send advisory messages to the Parliament. 49. The maximum duration for which the Vice President may officiate as the President, is (a) 1 year (b) 6 months (c) 4 months (d) 9 months Answer: 6 months 50. The President's Rule in a State can be continued for a maximum period of (a) 2 years (b) 1 year (c) 6 months (d) 2 1/2 years Answer: 6 months 51. The Chairman and members of State Public Service Commission are appointed by the (a) President (b) Chairman, UPSC (c) Governor (d) Prime Minister Answer: Prime Minister 52. When a State Governor dies or resigns, who normally exercises his functions till a new Governor is appointed ? (a) Chief Justice of the High Court (b) Advocate General of the State (c) Secretary General of the Governor (d) A person designated by State Cabinet Answer; Chief Justice of the High Court 53. When a financial emergency is proclaimed (a) Union budget will not be presented (b) Salaries and allowances of any class of employees may be reduced (c) Repayment of government debts will stop (d) Payment of salaries to public servants will be postponed Answer: Salaries and allowances of any class of employees may be reduced 54. Who appoints the Chairman of the UPSC ? (a) President (b) Speaker of Lok Sabha (c) Chief Justice of India (d) Prime Minister Answer: President 55. Which of the following is correct regarding the Governor of a State ? (a) All of the above (b) He can recommend to the President to impose President's Rule in the State. (c) No money bill can be introduced in the State Legislature without his prior permission. (d) He has the power of issuing ordinances when the legislature is not in session. Answer: All of the above 56. If the President wants to resign from office, he may do so by writing to the (a) Chief Justice of India (b) Speaker of Lok Sabha (c) Prime Minister (d) Vice- President Answer: Vice- President 57. Is the Prime Minister bound to advise is sought ? (a) Yes, if the Council of Ministers so desires (b) Yes (c) No (d) It is discretionary Answer: Yes 58. The five year term of the President is calculated from the (a) First day of the month following the month he assumes charge (b) Date of his election result (c) Day he assumes charge (d) First day of the month he assumes charge Answer: Day he assumes charge 59. Who is the ex- officio Chairman of the Council of States ? (a) Vice- President (b) Leader of the opposition (c) President (d) Speaker Answer: Vice- President 60. Under which Article of the Constitution is the President's rule promulgated on any state in India? (a) 326 (b) 370 (c) 380 (d) 356 Answer: 356 61. At a time, President's rule can be imposed on a state for a maximum period of (a) 1 year (b) 5 years (c) 2 years (d) 4 years Answer: 1 year 62. The Chairman of the Planning Commission in India is the (a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) Minister of Planning (d) Finance Minister Answer: Prime Minister 63. When Parliament is not in session, the President can promulgate an ordinance which is to be ratified by the Parliament within (a) 6 weeks from the reassembly of Parliament (b) 6 months from the reassembly of the Parliament (c) 6 weeks from the date of issue of ordinance. (d) 3 months from the date of issue of the ordinance. Answer: 6 weeks from the reassembly of Parliament 64. The President of India is elected by an electoral college comprising of (a) Elected members of Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. (b) Elected member of both Houses of Parliament and State Legislative Assembly (c) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament. (d) Elected member of State Legislative Assemblies Answer; Elected member of both Houses of Parliament and State Legislative Assembly 65. If the office of the President of India falls vacant, within what time should the next President be elected ? (a) Within 2 months (b) Within 1 year (c) Within 6 months (d) Immediately Answer: Within 6 months 66. The President can proclaim a state of emergency in case of (a) All of the above (b) Threat to financial stability of the country. (c) External aggression or internal disturbances threatening the security of the country. (d) Failure of Constitutional machinery in a particular state. Answer: All of the above 67. In the election of the President, the value of the vote of the Lok Sabha members (a) Differs according to the geographical size of the respective state. (b) None of these (c) Differs according to the number of votes a member represents. (d) is same Answer: Differs according to the number of votes a member represents. 68. The Indian President is (a) None of these (b) Titular executive (c) Real executive (d) Real/Titular executive Answer; Titular executive 69. The minimum age required for becoming the Prime Minister of India is (a) 30 years (b) 35 years (c) 40 years (d) 25 years Answer: 25 years 70. The President may for violation of the Constitution be removed from the office by (a) The Prime Minister (b) The Electoral College consisting of members of Parliament and the State Legislatures. (c) Impeachment (d) A no- confidence vote Answer: Impeachment 71. In which of the following situations does the President act in his own discretion ? (a) In returning a proposal to the Council of Ministers for reconsideration (b) None of the Above (c) In appointing the Prime Minister (d) Both of these Answer: In returning a proposal to the Council of Ministers for reconsideration 72. The Prime Minister, Union Cabinet Minister, Chief Minister and Council of Ministers are all members of (a) National Development Council (b) Regional Council (c) Planning Commission (d) Zonal Council Answer: National Development Council 73. The President's Rule in a state means that the state is ruled by (a) A caretaker government (b) The Chief Minister nominated by the President (c) The Governor of the State (d) The President directly Answer: The Governor of the State 74. The Chief - Minister of a Union Territory whenever such a set up exists, is appointed by (a) The Lt. Governor (b) The majority party in the legislature (c) The President (d) The Prime Minister Answer: The Lt. Governor 75. Under what article of the Constitution of India can the President take over the administration of a state in case its constitutional machinery breaks down ? (a) Art 352 (b) Art 343 (c) Art 356 (d) Art 83 Answer: Art 356 76. The President can make laws through ordinances (a) Only on subjects contained in the concurrent list (b) Under no circumstances (c) On certain subjects even when Parliament is in session. (d) During the recess of the Parliament Answer; During the recess of the Parliament 77. Which of the following qualification is not essential for a person to become the VicePresident ? (a) He must be an Indian. (b) He must be qualified to be a member of the Rajya Sabha. (c) He must not be less than 35 years. (d) He must be a graduate. Answer: He must be a graduate. 78. How many types of Emergency have been visualised in the Constitution of India ? (a) Four (b) Three (c) One (d) Two Answer: Three 79. The impeachment proceedings against the Vice- President can be initiated (a) Only in Lok Sabha (b) In neither Hosue of Parliament (c) In either House of Parliament (d) Only in Rajya Sabha Answer: Only in Rajya Sabha 80. Who appoints the Lt. Governor of Jammu and Kashmir? (a) Chief Minister of the State (b) Prime Minister (c) Chief Justice of the High Court (d) President Answer: President 81. The President of India can be removed from his office by the (a) Parliament (b) Chief Justice of India (c) Prime Minister (d) Lok Sabha Answer: Parliament 82. If the President returns a Bill sent to him for his assent and the Parliament once again passes the Bill in its original form, then the President (a) Can seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on the bill (b) Gives assent to the bill (c) Can once again return the bill for further reconsideration (d) Can ask for a referendum on the bill Answer: Gives assent to the bill 83. If a Minister loses a no- confidence motion, then (a) Lok Sabha is dissolved (b) Only Prime Minister and that Minister resigns. (c) The whole Council of Ministers resigns (d) The Minister resigns Answer: The whole Council of Ministers resigns 84. The only instance when the President of India exercised his power of veto related to the (a) Indian Post Office (Amendment Bill) (b) Dowry Prohibition Bill (c) Hindu Code Bill (d) PEPSU Appropriation Bill Answer: Indian Post Office (Amendment Bill) 85. The control of the preparation of electoral rolls for parliament and legislature vests with the (a) President (b) Election Commission (c) Cabinet (d) Prime Minister Answer: Election Commission 86. What is contained in the tenth schedule of the constitution ? (a) Languages recognised by constitution (b) Forms of oath or affirmation (c) Laws that cannot be challenged in any court of law (d) Provision regarding disqualification on grounds of defection Answer: Provision regarding disqualification on grounds of defection 87. The Election commision holds election for (a) The Parliament, State Legislature and the posts of the president and the Vice-President (b) The parliament, State legislative Assemblies and the State Council (c) The Parliament (d) The parliament and the State Legislative Assemblies Answer: The Parliament, State Legislature and the posts of the president and the Vice-President 88. For Election to the lok sabha, a nomination paper can be field by (a) Any citizen of India (b) Any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a Constituency (c) Anyone residing in India (d) A resident of the Constituency from which the election to be contested Answer: Any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a Constituency 89. In India, political parties are given recognition by (a) Election Commission (b) Speaker of Lok Sabha (c) President (d) Law Commission Answer: Election Commission 90. The Vice President is elected by an Electoral College consisting of members of (a) Both Houses of Parliament and state legislative (b) Both Houses of Parliament (c) Lok Sabha (d) Rajya Sabha Answer: Both Houses of Parliament 91. The election Commision dose not conduct the elections to the (a) Lok Sabha (b) President's election (c) Rajya Sabha (d) Local Bodies Answer: Local Bodies 92. The maximum age prescribed for election as president is (a) No such Limit (b) 62 years (c) 58 years (d) 60 years Answer: No such Limit 93. The power to decide an election petition is vested in the (a) High Court (b) Election Commission (c) Parliament (d) Supreme Court Answer: Election Commission 94. To elect the President of India, which one of the following election procedures is used ? (a) System of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote (b) Secondary voting system (c) Proportional representation through list system (d) Collective Voting system Answer: System of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote 95. In which year were the first general election held in India ? (a) 1950-51 (b) 1948-49 (c) 1951-52 (d) 1947-48 Answer: 1951-52 96. Election to the house of the people and the Legislative Assemblies of States in India are conducted on the basis of (a) Single Transferable vote (b) Propotional Representation (c) Limited sufferage (d) Adult Franchise Answer: Adult Franchise 97. Who appoint the Chief Election Commissioner of India ? (a) Chief Justice of India (b) President (c) Prime Minister (d) Parliament Answer: President 98. Which among the following is not a part of the electoral reforms ? (a) Installation of electronic voting machines (b) Appoinment of election Commissioner (c) Registration of Political parties (d) Disquallifying the offenders Answer: Installation of electronic voting machines 99. Recognition to a political party is accorded by (a) The Election Commision (b) A Committee of Whips (c) The ministry of parliament Affours (d) The speaker of the Lok Sabha in the case of national Parties and the Speaker of Legislative assemblies in the case of regional parties Answer: The Election Commision 100. The Chief Minister of a state in India is not eligible to vote in the Presidential election if (a) He is a member of the Upper House of the State Legislature (b) He is a caretaker Chief Minister (c) He himself is a candidate (d) He is yet to prove his majority on the floor of the Lower House of the state Legislature Answer: He is a member of the Upper House of the State Legislature 1) Clause (4) of Article 15 has been added to the Constitution by (A) The Constitution First Amendment Act. (B) The Constitution Second Amendment Act (C) The Constitution Fourth Amendment Act. (D) The Constitution Sixth Amendment Act. Answer: (A) 2- The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout the territory of India as per (A) Article 40 (B) Article 43 (C) Article 44 (D) Article 48 Answer: (C) 3- In India sovereignty lies with (A) The Constitution (B) The Supreme Court (C) The Parliament (D) The People Answer: (D) 4- The Supreme Court of India formulated the doctrine of eclipse in (A) Bhikaji Narain Dhakras Vs State of M.P.www.netugc.com (B) Bashesharnath Vs Income Tax Commissioner. (C) State of W.B. Vs Anwar Ali Sarkar (D) Maneka Gandhi Vs Union of India Answer: (A) The satisfaction of the President means the satisfaction of the Council of Ministers and not his personal satisfaction, held in (A) Samsher Singh Vs State of Punjab (B) U.N. RaoVs Indira Gandhi (C) Ram Jawaya Kapoor Vs State of Punjab (D) Sardar Lal Vs Union Government Answer: (A) 6- The Concurrent List was described as a ‘Twilight Zone’, as it were for both the Union and the States are competent to legislate in this field without coming in to conflict” is stated by (A) Basu, D.D. (B) Dicey, A.V. (C) Pyle, M.V. (D) Ambedkar, B. Answer: (C) 7- Article 360 has been invoked (A) Only one time. (B) two times. (C) three times. (D) Never invoked Answer: (D) 8- The Supreme Court held in which of the following cases that preamble is not the part of the Constitution of India (A) Berubari case (B) A. K. Gopalan case (C) Balaji Case (D) Minerva Mill’s case Answer: (A) 9- Article 16(4A) which gives power to the State to make laws regarding reservation in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was added by the (A) 75th Amendment to the Constitution of India. (B) 76th Amendment to the Constitution of India. (C) 77th Amendment to the Constitution of India. (D) 78th Amendment to the Constitution of India. Answer: (C) 10- The protection and improvement of environment including forests and wild life of the country is (A) Directive Principle of State Policy (B) Fundamental National Policy (C) Fundamental Duty of a Citizen (D) Both Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duty of a Citizen Answer: (D) 11- Originally the Supreme Court consisted of a Chief Justice and (A) Seven other judges (B) Twelve other judges (C) Thirteen other judges (D) Fifteen other judges Answer: (A) 12- A resolution passed under Clause (1) of Article 249 shall remain in force for such period not exceeding (A) Three months (B) Six monthswww.netugc.com (C) Nine months (D) Twelve months Answer: (D) 13- The President’s rule under Article 356 of the Constitution of India remains valid in the State for maximum period of (A) One month (B) Three months (C) Six months (D) One year Answer: (B) 14- The power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution of India is a constituent power laid down in Article 368 by (A) Twenty Fourth Amendment Act (B) Twenty Sixth Amendment Act (C) Forty Second Amendment Act (D) Forty Fourth Amendment Act Answer: (A) 15- Social, economic and political Justice is (A) an idea enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India (B) guaranteed by Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India (C) a Directive Principle of State Policy taken into consideration while making enactments (D) guaranteed to the people by the writs issued by the High Courts and Supreme Court Answer: (A) 16- Without paying proper remuneration, labour taken from the prisoners is ‘forced labour’ and violation of (A) Art. 20 of the Constitution of India (B) Art. 21 of the Constitution of India (C) Art. 22 of the Constitution of India (D) Art. 23 of the Constitution of India Answer: (D) 17- Art. 51A of the Constitution of India provides for the Fundamental Duties of (A) Citizens of India (B) Public Servants (C) All those who run public and private sectors (D) Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers Answer: (A) 18- The appropriate writ issued by Supreme Court to quash the appointment of a person to a public office is (A) Certiorari (B) Mandamus (C) Prohibition (D) Quo-Warranto Answer: (D) 19- The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a (A) Legislative power (B) Executive power (C) Quasi-judicial power (D) Judicial power Answer: (A) 20- The jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India may be enlarged by (A) The President of India (B) The Parliament by resolution (C) The Parliament by Law (D) The President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India Answer: (C) 21- At the first instance, the President can issue a proclamation of financial emergency for a period ofwww.netugc.com (A) Fifteen days (B) Two months (C) One month (D) Six months Answer: (B) 22- “It is likely that free India may befederal India, though in any event there would be a great deal of Unitary Control.” This statement was made by (A) Sir Alladi Krishna Swami Iyyer (B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (C) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru (D) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel Answer: (C) 23- Judicial Review in the Constitution of India is based on (A) Precedents and conventions (B) Rule of law (C) Due process of law (D) Procedure established by law Answer: (D) 24. The Constitution of India embodies the parliamentary form of government because: (A) The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. (B) The Council of Ministers is responsible to Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. (C) The President, the head of the executive, is answerable to Parliament. (D) The Prime Minister, the Head of the Cabinet, is accountable to Parliament. Answer: (A) 25- The Supreme Court held that Election Commissioners cannot be placed on par with the Chief Election Commissioner in terms of power and authority in the following case: (A) S.S. Dhannoa Vs Union of India (B) T.N. Seshan Vs Union of India (C) A.C. Jose Vs Sivan Pillai (D) Venkatachalam Vs A. Swamickan Answer: (A) 26- The maximum interval between the two sessions of each House of Parliament is (A) Three months (B) Four months (C) Five months (D) Six months Answer: (D) 27-. The Supreme Court observed that “Parliamentary proceedings are not subject to Fundamental Rights” in the following case: (A) Keshav Singh Vs Speaker, U.P. Assemblywww.netugc.com (B) Gunapati Vs Habibul Hasan (C) M.S.M. Sharma Vs Srikrishna Sinha (D) State of Punjab Vs Satpal Dang Answer: (C) 28- For the purpose of creating a new State in India an amendment to the Constitution of India must be passed by (A) 2/3rd majority of the members of both Houses of Parliament present and voting. (B) 2/3rd majority of the members of both Houses of Parliament and ratification by not less than 2/3rd majority of the States. (C) A simple majority in Parliament and ratification by not less than half of the States. (D) A simple majority by the Parliament. Answer: (D) 29- The word ‘Secular’ was added in the Preamble to the Constitution of India by (A) First Amendment Act (B) Seventh Amendment Act (C) Forty-Second Amendment Act (D) Forty-Fourth Amendment Act Answer: (C) 30- Article 15(1) prohibits discrimination against any citizen on the grounds of (A) Religion, race and caste only. (B) Religion, caste and sex only. (C) Religion, caste, sex and place of birth only. (D) Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them. Answer: (D) 31- Which provision of the Constitution imposes a duty on the Union to ensure that the Government of every State is carrying on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution? (A) Article 352 (B) Article 355 (C) Article 356 (D) Article 360 Answer: (B) 32- ‘Right to life’ under Article 21 of the Constitution does not include ‘right to die’. This observation was made by the Supreme Court in (A) P. Rathinam V. Union of India (B) Gian Kaur V. State of Punjab (C) Both (A) and (B) above. (D) None of the above. Answer: (B) 33- A Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from his office on the ground(s) of (A) Proved misbehaviour or incapacity. (B) Violation of the Constitution. (C) Both (A) and (B) above. (D) None of the above. Answer: (A) 34- Parliament has power to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List, provided it is in the (A) Public interest (B) National interest (C) Both (A) and (B) above (D) None of the above Answer: (B) 35-The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office under Article : (A) 125 (B) 352 (C) 226 (D) 324 Answer: (D) Unsolved 1- What is the percentage fixed by the constitution regarding the strength of the Ministers including the chief minister in a state ? (A) 10% (B) 12% (C) 15% (D) 16% 2- Which one of the following is mainly associated with Panchayati Raj in tribal areas ? (A) P.K. Thungan committee (B) Dilip Singh Bhuria committee (C) Sadiq Ali committee (D) Doomarlal Baitha committee 3- Arrange the following writs in the correct sequence as given in the Indian Constitution : i. Certiorari ii. Habeas Corpus iii. Quo Warranto iv. Prohibition v. Mandamus Codes : (A) i, iii, v, ii, iv (B) ii, iv, iii, i, v (C) ii, v, iv, i, iii (D) iii, i, ii, iv, v 4. Arrange the following in their chronological sequence : i. Cripps Mission ii. Montague Chelmsford Report iii. Simon Commission iv. Morley – Minto Reforms Codes : (A) ii, iii, i, iv (B) iv, ii, iii, i (C) iii, i, ii, iv (D) i, iv, iii, ii 5. Which one of the following was denounced by congress as “inadequate, unsatisfactory and disappointing” ? (A) Indian Councils Act, 1909 (B) Montague Chelmsford Report, 1918 (C) Simon commission Report, 1930 (D) Communal Award, 1932 6. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) : Assertion (A) : A federal arrangement aims at reconciling freedom with unity and diversity of political cultures and identities with effective collective action. Reason (R) : India opted for a pluralistic model of nation building. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct. (D) (R) is correct, but (A) is not correct. 7. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) : Assertion (A) : Bulk of the provisions of the constitution of India were adopted from the Government of India Act of 1935. Reason (R) : The congress party passed a resolution adopting the government of India Act of 1935 as the basis of the constitution. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true but (R) is false. (D) (R) is true, but (A) is false. 8- Which one of the following was the first state to establish the institution of the Lokayukta in India ? (A) Rajasthan (B) Bihar (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Maharashtra 9- Article 19 Constitution of India protects trade and business a. True b. False c. Only trade d. only Business 10. Which of the following is not related to electoral reforms in India ? (A) Santhanam Committee (B) Tarkunde Committee (C) Indrajeet Gupta Committee (D) Dinesh Goswami Committee 11- Given below are two statements one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) : Assertion (A) : Parliamentary form of government is the most acceptable system in the entire world today. Reason (R) : In the parliamentary system, ministers get their democratic legitimacy from the legislature and are accountable to it. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 12- In which one of the following cases the supreme court of India held that both Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of state policy are equally important and one cannot be sacrificed for the other ? (A) S.R. Bommai v/s Union of India (B) Balaji v/s State of Mysore (C) Minerva Mills v/s Union of India (D) A.K.Gopalan v/s State of Madras 13- Who one of the following was not a member of states reorganization commission, 1953 ? (A) Fazl Ali (B) H.N. Kunzru (C) V.P. Menon (D) K.N. Panikkar 14- In which case the Supreme Court decided that the confidence of the house in the ministry should be tested on the floor of the house itself ? (A) B.R. Kapoor v/s State of Tamil Nadu (B) S.R.Bommai v/s Union of India (C) Jagdambika Pal v/s Union of India (D) Shamsher singh v/s State of Punjab 15- Different parts of the constitution will act and react on each other and the (supreme) court will have to decide questions arising from such a situation…discharging its duties as perhaps no other court has so far been called upon to do. Whose statement is this ? (A) Justice Patanjali Sastri (B) Justice Harilal Kania (C) Justice P.B. Gajendragadkar (D) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar 16- Which one among the following authorities has the power to declare a caste, race or tribe or part of group within the caste as scheduled castes in relation to a state or union territory ? (A) Prime Minister (B) Parliament (C) Judiciary (D) President of India 17- Which one of the following is the chief function of the inter-state council ? (A) To settle inter-state river water disputes (B) To settle disputes relating to the movement of good between states (C) To debate on reforming centre state relations (D) To act as a forum for settling inter-state boundary disputes 18- Which one of the following was the first committee to demand constitutional recognition for Panchayats ? (A) Balwantrai Mehta Committee (B) Ashok Mehta Committee (C) Santhanam Committee (D) G.V.K. Rao Committee 19. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) : Assertion (A) : The Central service officers are not all India service officers, but the nature of their job and postings make them truly all India in character. Reason (R) : Unlike officers of the All-India services, central service officer’s do not work under the state governments while working in the states. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 20- Which one of the following is not a function of the UPSC ? (A) Advise the union government on all matters relating to the method of recruitment and principles to be followed in making appointments to civil service. (B) Advise the government on the suitability of candidates for promotion. (C) Advise the government on disciplinary matters affecting civil servants. (D) Advise the government on all matters relating to the transfer of civil servants. 21. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Official Language? a. XVII b. XVI c. X d. XV Part XVII of the Indian Constitution incorporates Articles 343 to Article 351 has provisions to deal with the official language of India. 22. Which Article of the Indian Constitution directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State? a. Article 58 b. Article 44 c. Article 52 d. Article 50 23. Article 50 of the Indian Constitution includes the Separation of Judiciary from the executive. 24.What is the quorum to constitute a meeting of Lok Sabha? a. Half of the total members of the House b. A quarter of the total members of the House c. One- fifth of the total members of the House d. One-tenth of the total members of the House. The quorum to constitute a sitting of the House is One-tenth of the total members of the House. 25.How many Fundamental Rights have been provided by the Constitution of India? a. Eight a. Nine a. Five b. Six The Constitution of India has provided six Fundamental Rights. 26.These are the given six fundamental rights provided by the Indian Constitution. o Right to equity  o Right to Liberty o Right against exploitation o Right to freedom of religion o Cultural and educational rights o Right to Constitutional remedy 27.Who is the Constitutional head of the state governments? a. Chief Minister of the State a. High court judge b. Governor c. Health Minister of the State The Constitutional head of the state government is Governor. 28.How many fundamental duties are noticed in the Constitution of India? a. Nine a. Eleven b. Eight c. Eleven Eleven fundamental duties are noticed in the Indian Constitution. The Fundamental duties are included in article 51A (Part IV A), which the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 has incorporated. 29.Which of the given schedules of the Indian Constitution includes the Provision regarding Anti-Defection Law? a. Sixth schedule a. Seventh schedule b. Tenth schedule c. Eleventh schedule 30.The tenth schedule of the Indian Constitution contains Provisions regarding Anti-Defection Law." It was put by the 52nd Amendment of the Constitution in 1985. The foundation of the Finance commission is laid down under which of the given articles? a. Article 202 a. Article 280 b. Article 263 c. Article 231 31. The foundation of the Finance commission is laid down under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution. Articles 264 - 300 relate to Finance property, contracts, and suits. The tenure of the Finance Commission is five years. 32.Which of the Indian Constitution's given Article has the right to privacy been incorporated as fundamental rights? a. Article 15 a. Article 17 b. Article 21 c. Article 23 Article 21 (Right to Freedom) of the Indian Constitution has the right to privacy been incorporated as fundamental rights. The right to privacy is a basic part of Article 2 that protects the life and liberty of the citizens. 33.Which of the given Article of the Indian Constitution prescribes for the submission of an annual report of the work done by the State Public Service Commission? a. Article 320 a. Article 323 b. Article 326 c. Article 330 34.Article 323 Article of Indian Constitution prescribes for the submission of annual report of the work done by the State Public Service Commission to the Governor of the State. 35.Who among the given has the right to summon the Parliament? a. Prime minister a. President b. Speaker of Rajya Sabha c. Vice President President has the right to summon the Parliament. The term 'Summon' means "to call." The president time to time, summons each House of the Parliament. The maximum gap between two sessions of Parliament can not exceed more than six months. There are three sessions in a year, The Budget Session, The Monsoon Session, and The Winter Session. 36.Habeas Corpus is associated with which of the given part of the Indian Constitution? a. Preamble a. Fundamental Rights b. Directive Principles of State Policy c. Fundamental Duties Habeas Corpus is associated with the Fundamental Rights of the Indian Constitution. Fundamental Rights are mentioned in Part III of the Indian Constitution from Articles 12 to 35. This concept is taken from the USA. 37.Federalism is taken in the Indian Constitution form which of the following countries? a. Germany a. Canada b. Australia c. Italy 38.Federalism taken in the Indian Constitution form Canada. 39. What does the 10th Schedule of the Indian Constitution contain? a. Provisions relating to disqualification on the ground of defection a. Administration and control of Tribal Areas of Northeastern states b. Powers, authority, and responsibilities of municipalities c. Administration and control Schedule areas and Schedule Tribes The 10th Schedule of the Indian Constitution contain Provisions relating to disqualification on the ground of defection. It was included under the 52nd Constitution Amendment Act, also called Anti Defection Act (1985). Previously Indian Constitution had 22 parts, 8 Schedules, and 395 Articles, but presently, the Constitution had 12 Schedules, 448 Articles, and 25 Parts. The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution describes the Administration and control of Tribal Areas of Northeastern states. The Twelfth Schedule of the Indian Constitution describes the Powers, authority, and responsibilities of municipalities. The fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution describes the Administration and control Schedule areas and Schedule Tribes India is called a secular country because citizens have the fundamental right to a. freedom of speech and expression a. freedom to profess the religion of one's choice. b. assemble peaceably and without arms c. form associations or unions or co-operative societies The Secular term was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by 42nd Amendment 1976. Article 25 of the Indian Constitution: It guarantees the freedom of profession, practice, and propagation of religion to all citizens. Article 26 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the freedom to manage religious affairs. Article 27 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the freedom as to payment of taxes for the promotion of any particular religion. What is the meaning of the term 'Liberty'? a. Right to express anything a. Right to go anywhere b. Absence of restrictions c. Presence of restrictions The meaning of the term 'Liberty Liberty is the absence of restrictions on the activities of individuals. At the same time, it also means providing an opportunity for the growth of individuals. The preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of thought, belief, expression, faith, and worship. The Liberty term has been taken from the French revolution. The doctrine of "Basic Structure" was evolved in which of the given case? a. Madhav Jiwaji Rao Scindia case a. Kesavananda Bharti case b. Champakam Dorairajan case c. Golaknath case The doctrine of "Basic Structure" was evolved in the Kesavananda Bharti case. In the Kesavananda Bharti case (1973), the Supreme Court said that the Parliament under Article 368 can amend the Constitution but cannot change the basic doctrine of the Indian Constitution. The Golaknath case (1967) Supreme court that ParliamentParliament could not curtail any of the Fundamental Rights Which Article of the Indian Constitution describes the Taxes are levied and collected by the center but distributed between the Centre and the states? a. Article 322 a. Article 270 b. Article 318 c. Article 251 Article 270 of the Indian Constitution describes the Taxes are levied and collected by the Centre but distributed between the Centre and the states.  Sharing of proceeds of all Union taxes between the Centre and the states come under Article 270. Which of the given Articles of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to grant pardons to any person? a. Article 41 a. Article 72 b. Article 27 c. Article 91 Article 72 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to grant pardons to any person. It is granted to ant individuals in the case where- o Punishment is by the Military Court o Punishment or sentence is for an offense against a Union law. The pardoning power of the President does not depend upon the Judiciary, it is executive power. In the case of pardons, President is not bound to given any reasons for his order, but the power is to be exercised on the advice of the councils of ministers. Which of the given Articles of the Indian Constitution is regarding the duties of the Chief Minister with respect to the furnishing of information to the Governor? a. Article 167 a. Article 195 b. Article 187 c. Article 165 Article 167 of the Indian Constitution is regarding the duties of the Chief Minister with respect to the furnishing of information to the Governor. The law-making procedure in the Indian Constitution has been inconsiderably influenced by the Constitution of -----? a. Australia  a. Japan b. North Korea c. UK The law-making procedure in the Indian Constitution has been inconsiderably influenced by the Constitution of Japan. The "Procedural established by Law" was taken form the Japanese Constitution. An inter-state council may be established by a. The Prime Minister a. The Chief Justice of India b. The President c. The National Development Council An inter-state council may be established by the President. Who among the following appoints the Lokayukta and Uplokayukta? a. President a. Prime Minister b. Vice President c. Governor or Lieutenant Governor the concerned state/UT Governer or Lieutenant Governor the concerned state/UT appoints the Lokayukta and Uplokayukta. EVM (Electronic Voting Machine) was first used in which year? a. 1992 a. 1973 b. 1982 c. 1980 The EVMs (Electronic Voting Machines) was designed in 1980 by the Technical Experts Committee of the Election Commission in collaboration with Bharat Electronics Ltd, Bangalore, and Electronics Corporation of India Ltd, Hyderabad. The EVMs were used for the first time in 1982 during the by-election to North Paravur Assembly Constituency in Kerala. How much time did it take for the creation of the Indian Constitution? a. 2 years 3 months 26 days a. 2 years 11 months 18 days b. 2 years 6 months 23 days c. 2 years 5 months 11 days It took 2 years, 11 months 18 days to create the Indian Constitution. The process was initiated on 09 December 1946 and came to an end on 26 November 1949. Some provisions of the Indian Constitution came into force on 26 November 1949, while a major part came into force on 26 January 1950. 11 sessions covering 165 days were held in this duration. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution is about scheduled languages? a. X a. VIII b. IX c. VI VIII schedule of the Indian Constitution is about scheduled languages. The scheduled languages according to Indian Constitution: Hindi, Assamese, Bodo, Bengali, Gujarati, Urdu, Nepali, Punjabi, etc. There are 22 official languages in India, and they are covered under the 8th schedule of the Indian Constitution. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years for the Lok Sabha and state legislative assembly elections? a. 57th a. 48th b. 61st c. 49th 61st Constitutional Amendment reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years for the Lok Sabha and state legislative assembly elections. Which of the given amendment in the Indian Constitution led to the beginning of Panchayat Raj in India? a. 73rd  a. 64th b. 62nd c. 69th 73rd amendment in the Indian Constitution led to the beginning of Panchayat Raj in India. The Panchayati Raj system was giving Constitutional status by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment act of 1992. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the imposition of the President's rule? a. Article 344 a. Article 356 b. Article 375 c. Article 344 Article 356 of the Indian Constitution deals with the imposition of the President's rule. It gives the provision in a case of failure of Constitutional machinery in states. The provision of office of Vice President in the Indian Constitution is taken from which country? a. Russia a. Bangladesh b. America c. Italy The provision of office of Vice President in the Indian Constitution is taken from America. The office of Vice President is the second-highest rank in the precedence after President of India. It is taken from the American model of governance. Which of the given article of the Indian Constitution mentions the provision of Council of Minister for aid and advice of the President of India? a. Article 63 a. Article 74 b. Article 77 c. Article 66 Article 74 of the Indian Constitution mentions the provision of the Council of Minister for aid and advice of the President of India. Article 77 of the Indian Constitution conducts the functions of the government of India. The Rajya Sabha can delay the Money Bill sent for its consideration by the Lok Sabha for a maximum period of a. 16 days a. 14 days b. 10 days c. 7 days The Rajya Sabha can delay the Money Bill sent for its consideration by the Lok Sabha for a maximum period of 14 days. The money bill is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for consideration after it is first passed in the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha has limited powers in reference to a money bill, like it can not amend a money bill but can only make the recommendations and return the bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days. The number of Lok Sabha seats were raised from 525 to 545 by which of the given amendment? a. 56th a. 48th b. 31st c. 35th The number of Lok Sabha seats was raised from 525 to 545 in the 31st amendment of the Indian Constitution. The 31st Amendment was made in 1973. As per the 31st Amendment, the upper limit of representatives of the States goes up from 500 to 525, and that of the Union Territories decreases from 25 to 20. Which of the given article of the Indian Constitution deals with National Commission for Scheduled Castes? a. Article 343 a. Article 355 b. Article 338 c. Article 333 Article 338 article of the Indian Constitution deals with National Commission for Scheduled Castes. Hence, it is a Constitutional body. The 65th Amendment of the Constitution replaced the one-member system of Special Officer with a multi-member National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. The DPSP (Directive Principle of State Policy) in the Indian Constitution has been borrowed from which country? a. Australia a. USA b. Russia c. Ireland. The DPSP (Directive Principle of State Policy) in the Indian Constitution has been borrowed from Ireland. Which of the given Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the High court to issue writs? a. Article 223 a. Article 229 b. Article 232 c. Article 226 Article 226 of the Indian Constitution empowers the High court to issue writs. It allows High Court to issue orders for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights in the State and any other purposes. Article 32 of the Indian Constitution, the power of the High Court to issue writs is similar to the Supreme Court. The electoral college for the election of the Vice-President comprises of? a. All the members of the Lok Sabha a. Members of state Legislative assemblies b. All the members of the Rajya Sabha c. Both option a and c The electoral college for the election of the Vice-President comprises all the members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. As per Article 66 mentioned in Indian Constitution, the Vice President is elected by the electoral college comprised of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament. Which of the given article of the Indian Constitution, the provision of Election Commission is mentioned? a. Article 320 a. Article 324 b. Article 330 c. Article 336 In Article 324 of the Indian Constitution, the provision of the Election Commission is mentioned. Article 324 of the Indian Constitution provides that the Election Commission comprises the Chief Election Commissioner and other Commissioners. The Election Commission is an all-India institution, as it is common to both the State and Central government. In Article 324 of the Indian Constitution, the provision of the Election Commission is mentioned. Article 324 of the Indian Constitution provides that the Election Commission comprises the Chief Election Commissioner and other Commissioners. The Election Commission is an all-India institution, as it is common to both the State and Central government. The chairman of the Economic Intelligence Council (EIC) is the Central Finance Minister. It is the primary agency of which gathers negative activities and information occurring in the economic sector. The EIC was established in 1990. Which of the given schedule of the Indian Constitution is included the "Gram-Panchayats"? a. Schedule 10 a. Schedule 11 b. Schedule 12 c. Schedule 13 Schedule 11th of the Indian Constitution is included the "Gram-Panchayats. The 11th Schedule of the Indian Constitution describes the Powers, authority, and responsibilities of Gram Panchayat. In the 11th schedule, 29 subjects are listed. Panchayati Raj usually refers to the local self-government system in India incorporated by a Constitutional amendment in 1992. In ____________, the President of India can keep a bill for an indefinite period. a. Pocket Veto  a. Regular Veto b. Absolute Veto c. All of these In Pocket Veto, the President of India can keep a bill for an indefinite period. In Pocket Veto, the President of India kept the bill pending for an indefinite time. The President of India has three veto power; Pocket Veto Power, Absolute Veto Power, and Suspension Veto Power. As per the Indian Constitution, the retirement age of the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India is? a. 52 years a. 55 years b. 60 Years c. 65 years As per the Indian Constitution, the retirement age of the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India is 65 years. As per Article 124(4) of the Indian Constitution, Supreme Court judges can be removed by the President of India only on the basis of a resolution passed by the Parliament. Which Part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Government in the states? a. Part IV a. Part VI b. Part V c. Part IX Part VI of the Indian Constitution deals with the Government in the states. Part VI of the Constitution of India, Containing Article 153 - 167, deals with the Government in the States. It includes the Governor, Chief Ministers, Council of Ministers, Advocate General of the State. Article 153 - 162 Governor, Article 163 - 164 Council of Ministers, Article 165 Advocate General of the State. Article 166 - 167 Conduct of Government Business and Duties of Chief Minister.