Vision 2025 Prelims Test 1 PDF

VISIONIAS www.visionias.in Test Booklet Series TEST BOOKLET GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2025...

VISIONIAS www.visionias.in Test Booklet Series TEST BOOKLET GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2025 – Test – 4701 C Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200 INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TURN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. Do NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (Questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response with you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See direction in the answers sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. Attempt all items. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct responses marked by you in the answer sheet. For every incorrect response 1/3rdof the allotted marks will be deducted. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the answer sheets as per instruction sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all responses on the answer sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to Invigilator only the answer sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO 1 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS 1. Consider the following statements regarding 4. Which of the following best describes the the identities provided by the Constitution: concept of Constitutionalism? 1. A constitution provides a collective (a) It is an ideology which promotes identity to people when they agree to supremacy of a written Constitution. basic norms. (b) It means the Constitution is necessary in 2. Constitutional norms provide a political a democratic country. identity but not a moral one. (c) It denotes the principle that the Which of the statements given above is/are government derives its authority from a correct? body of fundamental law and is limited (a) 1 only by it. (b) 2 only (d) It means that the Constitution must (c) Both 1 and 2 provide certain inalienable rights to the (d) Neither 1 nor 2 citizens. 2. How many of the following protections are 5. Which of the following is the objective of “Operation AMRITH”? available as a fundamental right under the (a) To clean the waters of the rivers of constitution to a person detained under a Himalayas. preventive detention law? (b) To prevent the overuse of antibiotics. 1. The grounds of detention should be (c) To build houses for the poorest of poor. communicated to the detenu even if it is (d) To clean the roads of the metro cities. against the public interest. 2. The detenu must be released after 24 6. Which among the following is the hours unless the magistrate authorises fundamental objective of Directive Principle further detention. of State Policy? 3. The detenu must be offered an (a) Equality of status and opportunity opportunity to make a representation (b) Political Justice against the detention order. (c) Social and Economic Democracy Select the correct answer using the code (d) Liberty of Faith given below. (a) Only one 7. Consider the following statements regarding (b) Only two the National Commission of Scheduled (c) All three Tribes (NCST): (d) None 1. It was created through the 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003. 3. Which among the following is not a feature 2. The conditions of service and tenure of of Directive Principles of State Policy the Chairperson and members are (DPSP)? determined by the President. (a) It is the duty of the State to apply these 3. The Commission, while inquiring into principles in making laws. any complaint, has all the powers of a (b) They help the courts in examining and civil court. determining the constitutional validity of How many statements given above are a law. correct? (c) They operate as limitations on the (a) Only one tyranny of the executive and arbitrary (b) Only two laws of the legislature. (c) All three (d) All statements (a), (b) and (c) are (d) None features of DPSP. 2 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS 8. How many of the following are the Socialist 11. Himalayan Wolf was in the news recently. In principles that are reflected in the Directive this context, which of the following Principles of State Policy? statements regarding the Himalayan Wolf is 1. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor. correct? 2. To organise village panchayats and (a) It is the only species of wolf that is enable them to function as units of self- found in India. government. 3. To make provision for just and humane (b) It is naturally found in the Trans- conditions for work and maternity relief. Himalayan region only. Select the correct answer using the code (c) It has been categorised as ‘Endangered’ given below. (a) Only one on the International Union for (b) Only two Conservation of Nature Red List of (c) All three Threatened Species (IUCN). (d) None (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) 9. How many of the following Directive are correct. Principles were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976? 1. To secure opportunities for the healthy 12. Consider the following statements with development of children. respect to the Central Bureau of 2. To promote equal justice and to provide Investigation (CBI): free legal aid to the poor. 3. To minimise inequalities in income, 1. It derives its powers from the Delhi status, facilities and opportunities. Special Police Establishment Act, of Select the correct answer using the code 1946. given below. 2. It functions under the Prime Minister's (a) Only one (b) Only two Office. (c) All three 3. It investigates crimes of corruption and (d) None economic offenses. 10. A new state can be formed by uniting two or Which of the statements given above are more states through a bill passed by: correct? (a) A simple majority in Parliament (a) 1 and 2 only (b) A simple majority in state assemblies of both the states (b) 2 and 3 only (c) A Special majority in the parliament and (c) 1 and 3 only ratification by half of the states (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Presidential resolution 3 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS 13. In context to the Akash-NG (New 16. With reference to the President's rule in a Generation) missile, consider the following state, consider the following: statements: 1. Reduction of powers of the concerned 1. Akash-NG is a surface-to-air missile. 2. The missile system is equipped with a state high court ramjet engine. 2. Dismissal of the state council of 3. It is indigenously designed and ministers developed solely by the Defence Research and Development 3. Curtailment of Fundamental rights of Organisation. citizens under Article 19 4. The missile system can be launched How many of the above are necessarily the from both stationary and mobile platforms. consequence of the proclamation of How many of the statements given above are President's rule in a state? correct? (a) Only one (a) Only one (b) Only two (b) Only two (c) Only three (c) All three (d) All four (d) None 14. Consider the following pairs: Body Chairperson 17. How many of the following options the 1. State Disaster : Chief Minister President has with regards to the Management Authority Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by 2. NITI Aayog : Prime Minister both the Houses of Parliament? 3. National Disaster : Union Home Management Authority Minister 1. He can withhold the assent of the bill. How many of the above pairs are correctly 2. He can return the bill for matched? reconsideration. (a) Only one (b) Only two 3. He gives assent to the bill (c) All three Select the correct answer using the code (d) None given below. 15. How many of the following Supreme Court (a) Only one cases are related to disputes/conflicts (b) Only two between Fundamental Rights and Directive (c) All three Principles of State Policy? (d) None 1. IR Coehlo Case, 2007 2. Golaknath case, 1967 3. Maneka Gandhi case, 1980 18. Which of the following has defined what 4. Minerva Mill Case, 1980 constitutes the ‘Doctrine of Basic Structure’? Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) Parliament (a) Only two (b) Supreme Court (b) Only three (c) Constitution of India (c) All four (d) None (d) None of the above 4 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS 19. Which of the following functions are 21. Which of the following statements best performed by the National Commission of describes the relation between liberty and Scheduled Castes (NCSC)? equality? 1. To investigate and monitor all matters (a) Without equality, liberty would produce relating to the legal safeguards for the the supremacy of the few over the many. SCs (b) Equality is a hindrance to liberty 2. To provide safeguards against the (individual freedom). exploitation of the Anglo-Indian (c) Liberty and equality are mutually community exclusive; one cannot coexist with the 3. To report to the President on the other. working of constitutional safeguards (d) Equality is only necessary for the provided for SCs privileged few, whereas liberty benefits Select the correct answer using the code everyone. given below. (a) 1 and 2 only 22. The term "Operation Prosperity Guardian" (b) 2 and 3 only was recently seen in the news. It is aimed at (c) 1 and 3 only aiding the safe movement of ships in: (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Indian Ocean (b) Red Sea 20. It separated, for the first time, the legislative (c) South China sea and executive functions of the Governor- (d) Baltic Sea General’s council. In other words, it established a separate Governor-General’s 23. Consider the following: legislative council which came to be known 1. President as the Indian (Central) Legislative Council. 2. Lok Sabha This legislative wing of the council 3. Rajya Sabha functioned as a mini-parliament, adopting 4. Legislative assemblies the same procedures as the British 5. Legislative councils Parliament. How many of the above are compulsorily Which of the following Acts has been involved in all the constitutional amendment described by the passage given above? processes? (a) Government of India Act, 1858 (a) Only two (b) Charter Act, 1853 (b) Only three (c) Indian Councils Act, 1861 (c) Only four (d) Government of India Act, 1919 (d) All five 5 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS 24. Consider the following statements with 26. Consider the following corporations/ respect to the members of the Central authorities: 1. Reserve Bank of India Vigilance Commission (CVC): 2. Food Corporation of India 1. The members of the CVC are appointed 3. State Bank of India by the President by warrant under his 4. Life Insurance Corporation of India hand and seal. How many of the above are totally and 2. The members of the CVC hold office for directly audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)? a term of six years or until they attain the (a) Only two age of seventy, whichever is earlier. (b) Only three 3. The president can also remove the (c) All four Central Vigilance Commissioner on the (d) None grounds of proven misbehavior or 27. Consider the following events: incapacity. 1. Goa was conferred full statehood How many of the statements given above are 2. Creation of the state of Haryana correct? 3. Inclusion of the state of Sikkim in the (a) Only one Indian Union (b) Only two 4. Formation of the state of Nagaland Arrange the above given events in the (c) All three correct chronological order of their (d) None occurrence. (a) 1-3-4-2 25. With reference to national emergency, (b) 4-2-3-1 consider the following statements: (c) 2-4-1-3 (d) 1-2-3-4 1. The Center becomes entitled to give executive directions to a state on any 28. Consider the following statements with matter. reference to the post-independence 2. The legislative power of a state reorganization of states: legislature is suspended. 1. The States Reorganisation Commission accepted the theory of ‘one language one 3. The power to modify the constitutional state’. distribution of revenues between the 2. Andhra Pradesh was the first state center and the states is vested in created after the acceptance of the Parliament. recommendations of the state How many statements given above are reorganization committee. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? correct? (a) Only one (a) 1 only (b) Only two (b) 2 only (c) All three (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None 6 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS 29. Consider the following functions: 33. Consider the following statements regarding 1. Ratification of India's membership of the the reorganization of the states: Commonwealth 1. An Indian territory can be ceded to a 2. Adopting the National Anthem of India foreign country by a constitutional 3. Enactment of ordinary laws How many of the above functions were amendment. performed by the Constituent Assembly of 2. A boundary dispute settlement between India? India and another country does not (a) Only one require a constitutional amendment. (b) Only two Which of the statements given above is/are (c) All three not correct? (d) None (a) 1 only 30. What is common between Bailadila, (b) 2 only Kudremukh and Mayurbhanj? (c) Both 1 and 2 (a) They are gold mining sites. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) They are sites having bauxite reserves. (c) They are sites of iron ore reserves. (d) They are are sites of natural gas 34. With respect to the writ jurisdiction, reserves. consider the following statements: 1. The writ of habeas corpus cannot be 31. How many of the following are envisaged as issued against the private individuals. the Right against Exploitation in the 2. The writ of prohibition is available only Constitution of India? against the judicial bodies. 1. Protection against arrest and detention 2. Prohibition of employment of children in 3. The writ of quo-warranto can be sought factories. even by a non-aggrieved person. 3. Prohibition of traffic in human beings How many statements given above are and forced labour correct? Select the correct answer using the code (a) Only one given below. (a) Only one (b) Only two (b) Only two (c) All three (c) All three (d) None (d) None 35. Consider the following features: 32. Which of the following are examples of 1. Single Citizenship White Goods? 1. Washing machines 2. Written Constitution 2. Alcohol 3. Integrated Judiciary 3. Air conditioners 4. Rigidity of the Constitution 4. Luxury cars How many of the above are federal features Select the correct answer using the code of the Indian Constitution? given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (a) Only one (b) 2, 3, and 4 only (b) Only two (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) Only three (d) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) All four 7 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS 36. An Indian citizen may lose his/her 39. Consider the following statements with citizenship when he/she: respect to Freedom of Religion enshrined in 1. Acquires the citizenship of any other the Constitution: foreign state during war. 1. It includes the freedom to not follow any 2. Unlawfully trades or communicates with the enemy during a war. religion. 3. Has been imprisoned in any country for 2. It bars all religious conversions. two years after becoming a naturalized 3. It is not applicable to foreign nationals citizen within five years. residing within Indian territory. Select the correct answer using the code given below. How many statements given above are (a) Only one correct? (b) Only two (a) Only one (c) All three (b) Only two (d) None (c) All three 37. According to the Preamble of the (d) None Constitution, as adopted by the Constituent Assembly, how many of the following 40. Which of the following is the latest addition adjectives were used to define the Indian to the list of fundamental duties under the Republic? 1. Socialist Constitution of India? 2. Sovereign (a) To protect and improve the natural 3. Secular environment including forests, lakes, 4. Democratic rivers and wildlife and to have Select the correct answer using the code compassion for living creatures. given below. (a) Only one (b) To develop scientific temper, humanism (b) Only two and the spirit of inquiry and reform. (c) Only three (c) To provide opportunities for education (d) All four to his child or ward between the age of 38. 'Bubble Baby' syndrome was in the news. In six and fourteen years. this context, consider the following (d) To strive towards excellence in all statements regarding the Bubble baby spheres of individual and collective syndrome (BBS): activity. 1. It is a heart disease seen in the babies and children affected by COVID-19. 2. The only treatment for BBS is a heart 41. Which of the following gives effect to the transplant. objective of the Preamble to secure for all its Which of the statements given above is/are citizen equality, liberty and justice? correct? (a) Fundamental Rights (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (b) Directive Principles of State Policy (c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Fundamental Duties (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Power of Judicial Review 8 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS 42. Consider the following statements regarding 45. World Economic Situation and Prospects is the Urea gold: published by: 1. It is a sulphur-coated Urea. (a) World Bank 2. Sulphur coating ensures faster release of (b) United Nations Department of Economic nitrogen. and Social Affairs Which of the statements given above is/are (c) International Monetary Fund correct? (d) World Economic Forum (a) 1 only (b) 2 only 46. Which of the following happened earliest in (c) Both 1 and 2 the process of state reorganization after (d) Neither 1 nor 2 independence? 43. Consider the following statements regarding (a) Formation of S K Dhar committee the Financial Intelligence Unit of India: (b) Formation of Andhra Pradesh 1. It is a central national agency (c) Formation of JVP committee responsible for receiving, processing, (d) Enactment of the State Reorganization analyzing and disseminating information Act relating to suspect financial transactions. 2. It reports directly to the Economic 47. In the context of Indian polity, consider the Intelligence Council (EIC) headed by the following: Finance Minister. 1. Absence of special privileges for any Which of the statements given above is/are person correct? 2. Reasonable classification of persons (a) 1 only 3. Equality of treatment under equal (b) 2 only circumstances (c) Both 1 and 2 How many of the above is/are ensured by (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Article 14 of the Indian Constitution? 44. In order to ensure the independent and (a) Only one impartial functioning of the Election (b) Only two Commission of India (ECI), which of the (c) All three following provisions was/were incorporated (d) None in the Constitution of India? 1. The Consitution has debarred the retiring 48. Attorney General of India: election commissioners from any further 1. Has the right of an audience in all courts appointment by the government. in India. 2. The Chief Election Commissioner can 2. Is debarred from private legal practice. be removed in the same manner and on 3. Has the right to speak and vote in both the same grounds as a judge of the houses of Parliament. Supreme Court. 4. Enjoys all privileges and immunities that 3. The Constitution has specified the term are available to a member of Parliament. of all the members of ECI. Which of the statements given above are Select the correct answer using the code correct? given below. (a) 2 only (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 9 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS 76. Consider the following statements with 78. Consider the following statements regarding the Government of India Act, 1919: respect to the Comptroller and Auditor 1. It introduced bicameralism in the Central General of India (CAG): Legislative Council. 1. CAG is the head of the Indian Audit and 2. It provided separate electorates for Anglo-Indians and Europeans. Account Department. 3. It created a new office of the High 2. Removal of CAG does not require the Commissioner for India in London. approval of the Parliament. How many of the above statements are correct? 3. The President prescribes the duties and (a) Only one powers of the CAG in relation to (b) Only two accounts of the Union and of the states. (c) All three (d) None How many statements given above are correct? 79. Which of the following statement best (a) Only one describes “Totalisation Agreement” which was recently seen in the news? (b) Only two (a) It is an agreement through which two (c) All three countries provide greater market access (d) None to each other through various measures like lower or zero tariff. (b) It is an agreement between two countries 77. Consider the following statements: that eliminates dual social security 1. The constitution of India envisages a deductions between two countries. (c) It is an agreement between two countries dual polity but single citizenship, unlike to prevent Base Erosion And Profit the US where there is a provision of dual Shifting. citizenship. (d) It ensures elimination of non-tarrif barrier like sanitary and phytosanitary 2. While all citizens of India, irrespective (SPS) measures. of the state in which they are born or reside, enjoy the same political and civil 80. Consider the following statements regarding the Constitution: rights of citizenship, in the United States 1. It determines the relationship among discrimination can be based on state citizens and also between citizens and the government. citizenship. 2. It specifies who has the power to make Which of the statements given above is/are decisions in a society. correct? Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 15 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS 81. Consider the following statements with 84. Consider the following pairs: respect to the Advocate General of a state: Committees of Chairman 1. The Advocate General must be a person Constituent Assembly who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the high court. 1. States Committee : Jawaharlal 2. The remuneration and conditions of Nehru service are determined by the legislative 2. Rules of Procedure : Vallabhbhai assembly of the concerned state. Committee Patel 3. She/he holds office at the pleasure of the 3. Steering Committee : Rajendra governor. Prasad How many of the statements given above are Which of the pairs given above is/are correct? correctly matched? (a) Only one (a) 2 only (b) Only two (b) 1 and 2 only (c) All three (c) 1 and 3 only (d) None (d) 1, 2 and 3 82. Consider the following statements regarding 85. Consider the following statements: the Constituent Assembly of India: 1. The idea of a Constituent Assembly for Statement-I: India can acquire a foreign India was put forward for the first time territory or it can cede a part of its territory by M. N. Roy. in favor of a foreign state. 2. It was formed under the scheme Statement-II: Sovereign in the Preamble to formulated by the Wavell Plan in 1945. the Indian Constitution means ‘there is no 3. Its members were elected indirectly by authority above India and is free to conduct the Central Legislative Council. its affair’. How many of the above statements are Which one of the following is correct in correct? respect of the above statements? (a) Only one (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (b) Only two correct and Statement-II is the correct (c) All three explanation for Statement-I (d) None (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the 83. Which of the following is an essential correct explanation for Statement-I feature of democracy? (c) Statement-I is correct Statement-II is (a) Written constitution incorrect (b) Free and fair election (d) Statement-I incorrect but Statement-II is (c) Parliamentary system of Government correct (d) Republic form of Government 16 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS 86. Consider the following: 89. Which of the following statements is not 1. Federal Public Service correct regarding the Indian Independence 2. Dyarchy at the center Act of 1947? (a) It abolished the office of the secretary of 3. Establishment of Reserve Bank of India state of India and transferred its 4. All-India Federation functions to the Governor general of How many of the above were provided in the India. Government of India Act, of 1935? (b) It empowered the Constituent Assembly (a) Only one to do ordinary legislations till the new (b) Only two constitution was drafted and enforced. (c) Only three (c) It abolished the office of viceroy and (d) All four provided a governor-general, who was to be appointed by the British King. (d) It granted freedom to the Indian princely 87. How many of the following are not states either to join the Dominion of Fundamental Duties under Part IV-A of the India or Dominion of Pakistan or to Indian Constitution? remain independent. 1. To safeguard public property 2. To renounce practices derogatory to the 90. The Government of India, with the approval dignity of women of the President of India, has constituted the 3. To create opportunities for healthy Sixteenth Finance Commission recently. It development of children was set up under which of the following article of the Constitution of India? 4. Promotion of international peace and (a) Article 150 security (b) Article 370 Select the correct answer using the code (c) Article 280 given below. (d) Article 110 (a) Only two (b) Only three 91. Consider the following statements: (c) All four Statement I: The Election Commission of (d) None India is responsible for holding elections to panchayats and municipalities. Statement-II: Article 324 of the Constitution 88. Consider the following statements with of India provides that the power of reference to Green Fuel Alliance India: superintendence of elections to the Election 1. It is a joint partnership between India Commission of India. and UAE launched on the sidelines of Which one of the following is correct in CoP28 of UNFCCC in Dubai. respect of the above statements? 2. One of its primary objectives is reducing (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are India's dependence on imported crude oil correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I from West Asian countries. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Which of the statements given above is/are correct and Statement-II is not the correct? correct explanation for Statement-I (a) 1 only (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is (b) 2 only incorrect (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II (d) Neither 1 and 2 is correct 17 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS 92. Consider the following benefits: 94. Recently, the restructuring of Coal Controller Organisation has been approved 1. More accountable form of government by Ministry of Finance. In this context, 2. Improved quality of decision-making consider the following functions of the Coal 3. Resolve conflicts in a better way than Controller Organisation: 1. To act as the appellate authority in case others of dispute between consumers and How many of the above can be considered as owner arising out of declaration of grade benefits of democracy? and size of coal. 2. To regulate disposal of stock of coal or (a) Only one the expected output of coal in the (b) Only two colliery. 3. To grant opening / re-opening (c) All three permission of coal mine, seam or a (d) None section of seam or to sub-divide a mine. 4. Submission of monthly coal data to different ministries of Central and State 93. In the context of the Indian Polity, the Union Government, national and international Public Service Commission (UPSC) is organization. consulted on which of the following matters? Which of the statements given above are correct? 1. While making reservations in favor of a (a) 1, 2 and 3 only backward class of citizens (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only 2. Selection for the chairmanship of (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 tribunals 3. All matters relating to methods of 95. Consider the following: 1. Children of foreign diplomats posted in recruitment to civil services India Select the correct answer using the code 2. Enemy aliens given below. 3. A child of an illegal migrant How many of the above mentioned persons (a) 3 only would get citizenship by birth in India? (b) 1 and 2 only (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) 1 and 3 only (c) All three (d) 2 and 3 only (d) None 18 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS 96. Recently, India Meteorological Department 98. Consider the following: (IMD) celebrated 150th Year of its 1. Influence of the Government of India establishment. In this context, consider the Act of 1935 following statements regarding IMD: 2. Single constitution for both Centre and 1. It is the nodal agency of the Government of India for monitoring earthquake states activity in the country. 3. Catering to the needs of a huge 2. It is headquartered at New Delhi. population of the country 3. It comes under the Ministry of Earth How many of the above are reasons for the Sciences. elephantine size of our Constitution? How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (a) Only one (b) Only two (b) Only two (c) All three (c) All three (d) None (d) None 97. With reference to Financial Emergency, 99. How many of the following elements form a consider the following statements: part of the ‘Basic Structure of the 1. Once approved by the Parliament, the Constitution’ as laid down by various court Financial Emergency continues judgments? indefinitely till it is revoked. 1. Secular character of the Constitution 2. The satisfaction of the President in declaring a Financial Emergency is not 2. Separation of powers between the questionable in any court. legislature and the executive 3. Resolution to revoke Financial 3. Effective access to justice Emergency requires approval of the Lok 4. Writ jurisdiction of the Supreme court Sabha by a simple majority. 5. Socialist state 4. No Financial Emergency has been declared so far. Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above are given below. correct? (a) Only two (a) 1 and 4 only (b) Only three (b) 2 and 3 only (c) Only four (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) All five 19 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS 100. With reference to Article 12 of the Constitution, the term ‘State’ includes how many of the following? 1. Parliament and legislature of states. 2. Union executive and executive of the state governments. 3. Municipalities and Panchayats 4. Authorities like LIC and ONGC. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four 20 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS  VISIONIAS www.visionias.in ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS GENERAL STUDIES (P) TEST – 4701 (2025) Q 1.A Fundamental identity of a people. o A constitution expresses the fundamental identity of a people. This means the people as a collective entity come into being only through the basic constitution. o It is by agreeing to a basic set of norms about how one should be governed, and who should be governed that one forms a collective identity. o The constitution expresses the fundamental identity of a people, and this collective identity comes into being when individuals agree to a basic set of norms on governance and authority. Hence statement 1 is correct. o One has many sets of identities that exist before a constitution. However, the constitution provides two identities. They are ✓ Political Identity: People by agreeing to certain basic norms and principles one constitute one‘s basic political identity. ✓ Moral Identity: Constitutional norms are the overarching framework within which one pursues individual aspirations, goals, and freedoms. The Constitution sets authoritative constraints upon what one may or may not do. It defines the fundamental values that we may not trespass. So the constitution also gives one a moral identity. Hence statement 2 is not correct. Q 2.A Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained. Detention is of two types, namely, punitive and preventive. Punitive detention is to punish a person for an offence committed by him after trial and conviction in a court. Preventive detention, on the other hand, means detention of a person without trial and conviction by a court. Its purpose is not to punish a person for a past offence but to prevent him from committing an offence in the near future. The Article 22 has two parts—the first part deals with the cases of ordinary law and the second part deals with the cases of preventive detention law. The second part of Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained under a preventive detention law. This protection is available to both citizens as well as aliens and includes the following: o The detention of a person cannot exceed three months unless an advisory board reports sufficient cause for extended detention. The board is to consist of judges of a high court. o The grounds of detention should be communicated to the detenu. However, the facts considered to be against the public interest need not be disclosed. Hence statement 1 is not correct. o The detenu should be afforded an opportunity to make a representation against the detention order. Hence statement 3 is correct. o A person has the right to be released after 24 hours (unless the magistrate authorises further detention) only if he is arrested under ordinary law. It is not applicable in case of preventive detention law. Hence statement 2 is not correct. Q 3.C The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature, that is, they are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation. Therefore, the government (Central, state and local) cannot be compelled to implement them. Nevertheless, the Constitution (Article 37) itself says that these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws. 1 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS  The Commission presents an annual report to the President. It can also submit a report as and when it is necessary. The President places all such reports before the Parliament, along with a memorandum explaining the action taken on the recommendations made by the Commission. The Commission is vested with the power to regulate its own procedure. The Commission, while investigating any matter or inquiring into any complaint, has all the powers of a civil court trying a suit. Hence statement 3 is correct. Q 8.B The following principles reflect the ideology of socialism as they lay down the framework of a democratic socialist state, aim at providing social and economic justice, and set the path towards the welfare state. They direct the state: o To promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order permeated by justice— social, economic and political—and to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities (Article 38). o To secure (a) the right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizens; (b) the equitable distribution of material resources of the community for the common good; (c) prevention of concentration of wealth and means of production; (d) equal pay for equal work for men and women; (e) preservation of the health and strength of workers and children against forcible abuse; and (f) opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39). o To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A). o To secure the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement (Article 41). o To make provision for just and humane conditions for work and maternity relief (Article 42). o To secure a living wage, a decent standard of life and social and cultural opportunities for all workers (Article 43). o To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A). o To raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and to improve public health (Article 47). To organise village panchayats and enabling them to function as units of self-government is a Gandhian principle (Article 40). Hence option (b) is the correct answer. Q 9.B Hence option (b) is the correct answer. 3 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS  The Akash NG is a major improvement over the older Akash. Its weight has been halved to 350 kilogrammes (kg) from the Akash’s 700 kg. It surpasses Akash by achieving a higher altitude ceiling of over 20 km, a notable improvement from Akash’s limit, along with an extended range beyond 25 km. It has a two-pulse, solid rocket motor that replaces the old ramjet on the legacy Akash missile. Hence statement 2 is not correct. Akash - New generation abbreviated as Akash-NG is a medium-range mobile surface-to-air missile defence system developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and produced by Bharat Dynamics Limited and Bharat Electronics. Hence statement 3 is not correct. The Akash-NG system is a state-of-the-art missile for intercepting high-speed, agile aerial threats. It can fly to Mach 2.5 (2.5 times the speed of sound) and strike targets at around 60 km. It can be launched from both stationary and mobile platforms like battle tanks or wheeled trucks and has a nearly 90% kill probability. Hence statement 4 is correct. Hence option (b) is the correct answer. Q 14.B After the Indian Ocean tsunami of 2004, the Government of India took a defining step in the legislative history of the country by enacting the Disaster Management Act, 2005. The Act provided for the creation of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) to spearhead and implement a holistic and integrated approach to disaster management in the country. The NDMA consists of a chairperson and other members, not exceeding nine. The Prime Minister is the ex-officio chairperson of the NDMA. The other members are nominated by the chairperson of the NDMA. The chairperson of the NDMA designates one of the members as the vice-chairperson of the NDMA. The vice- chairperson has the status of a Cabinet Minister while the other members have the status of a Minister of State. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched. Every state government should establish a State Disaster Management Authority (SDMA) for the state. An SDMA consists of a chairperson and other members, not exceeding nine. The Chief Minister of the state is the ex-officio chairperson of the SDMA. Hence pair 1 correctly matched. The composition of the NITI Aayog is as follows: o Chairperson: The Prime Minister of India. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched. o Governing Council: It comprises the Chief Ministers of all the States, Chief Ministers of Union Territories with Legislatures (i.e., Delhi, Puducherry and Jammu and Kashmir) and Lt. Governors of other Union Territories. o Full-time Organisational Framework: It comprises, in addition to the Prime Minister as the Chairperson: ✓ Vice-Chairperson: He is appointed by the Prime Minister. enjoys the rank of a Cabinet Minister. ✓ Members: Full-time. They enjoy the rank of a Minister of State ✓ Part-time Members: Maximum of 2, from leading universiti research organisations and other relevant institutions in an officio capacity. Part-time members would be on a rotation. ✓ Ex-Officio Members: Maximum of 4 members of the Union Council of Ministers to be nominated by the Prime Minister. ✓ Chief Executive Officer: He is appointed by the Prime Minis for a fixed tenure, in the rank of Secretary to the Government India. Q 15.A Cases related to dispute/conflict between Fundamental Right and Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs): o Champakam Dorairajan Case, 1951: In this case, Supreme Court ruled that in case of any conflict between FRs and DPSPs, FRs would prevail. It declared that DPSPs have to conform to and run as subsidiary to the fundamental right. However, it also held that FRs could be amended by the Parliament through constitutional amendment acts. This led to First, Fourth and Seventeenth Amendment Act to implement some of the DPSPs. o Golak Nath case, 1967: In this case, Supreme Court held that Parliament can‘t take away or abridge any of the Fundamental Rights, which are ‘sacrosanct‘ in nature. Hence, court held that Fundamental Rights can‘t be amended for the implementation of DPSPs. This led to enactment of 24th Amendment Act and 25th Amendment Act which inserted a new article 31C. Hence option 2 is correct. o Kesavanand Bharti case, 1973: In this case, Supreme Court declared the second provision of Article 31C as unconstitutional and invalid on the ground that judical review is a basic feature of Constitution. This led to enactment of 42nd Amendment Act which gave legal primacy and supremacy to the DPSPs over FRs conferred by article 14, 19 and 21. 5 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS  Like any bill, after duly passed by both Houses of Parliament and ratified by the state legislatures, where necessary, the constitution amendment bill is presented to the president for assent. The president must give his assent to the bill (24th amendment of the constitution). He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament. Hence, the president also has a compulsory role in its passage. Hence option (b) is the correct answer. Q 24.B The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is a multi-member body consisting of a Central Vigilance Commissioner (chairperson) and not more than two vigilance commissioners. They are appointed by the president by warrant under his hand and seal on the recommendation of a three-member committee consisting of the prime minister as its head, the Union minister of home affairs and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha. Hence statement 1 is correct. They hold office for a term of four years or until they attain the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier. After their tenure, they are not eligible for further employment under the Central or a state government. Hence statement 2 is not correct. The president can remove the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any vigilance commissioner from office under the following circumstances: o If he is adjudged insolvent; or o If he has been convicted of an offence which (in the opinion of the Central government) involves a moral turpitude; or o If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or o If he is (in the opinion of the president), unfit to continue in office by the reason of infirmity of mind or body; or If he has acquired such financial or other interest as is likely to affect prejudicially his official functions. In addition to these, the president can also remove the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any vigilance commissioner on the grounds of proven misbehaviour or incapacity. However, in these cases, the president has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry. If the Supreme Court, after the enquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises so, then the president can remove him. Hence statement 3 is correct. Q 25.A While a proclamation of Emergency is in force, the normal fabric of the Centre-state relations undergoes a basic change. Executive: During a national emergency, the executive power of the Centre extends to directing any state regarding the manner in which its executive power is to be exercised. In normal times, the Centre can give executive directions to a state only on certain specified matters. However, during a national emergency, the Centre becomes entitled to give executive directions to a state on ‘any’ matter. Hence statement 1 is correct. Legislative: During a national emergency, the Parliament becomes empowered to make laws on any subject mentioned in the State List. Although the legislative power of a state legislature is not suspended, it becomes subject to the overriding power of the Parliament. Hence statement 2 is not correct. Financial: While a proclamation of national emergency is in operation, the President can modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the centre and the states. This means that the president can either reduce or cancel the transfer of finances from Centre to the states. Hence statement 3 is not correct. Q 26.D The role of CAG in the auditing of public corporations is limited. Broadly speaking, his relationship with the public corporations falls into the following three categories: Some corporations are audited totally and directly by the CAG, for example, Damodar Valley Corporation, Oil and Natural Gas Corporation, etc. Some other corporations are audited by private professional auditors who are appointed by the Central Government in consultation with the CAG. If necessary, the CAG can conduct a supplementary audit. Examples are Central Warehousing Corporation, Industrial Finance Corporation, and others. 9 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS Q 35.B Federal System with Unitary Bias o The Constitution of India establishes a federal system of government with a strong central Government. Federal Features: o Dual Polity: Union & states with separate sovereign powers for specific fields. o Written Constitution: Supreme law defining structure, powers, and functions of both tiers. Hence option 2 is a Federal Feature. o Division of Powers: Union List, State List, and Concurrent List for distinct competencies. o Supremacy of Constitution: Laws at both levels must comply, subject to judicial review. o Rigid Constitution: A special majority is needed to amend federal structure provisions. Hence option 4 is a Federal Feature. o Independent Judiciary: Protects Constitution and settles disputes between Union and states. o Bicameralism: Rajya Sabha represents states, balancing Lok Sabha's national representation. Unitary Features: o Strong Centre: More subjects and power in the Union List, overriding authority in the Concurrent List. o Destructible States: Parliament can unilaterally change states' boundaries or names. o Single Constitution: No separate state constitutions, except Jammu & Kashmir. o Flexible Constitution: Easier amendment process than other federations. o Unequal State Representation: Rajya Sabha membership varies based on population, not equal to the US Senate. o Emergency Provisions: The central government gains total control over states during emergencies. o Single Citizenship: All citizens have the same rights throughout India, unlike dual citizenship in some federations. Hence option 1 is not a Federal Feature. o Integrated Judiciary: A single court system enforces both Central and state laws, unlike separate federal and state judiciaries in the US. Hence option 3 is not a Federal Feature. o All-India Services: Shared public services between the Centre and states, violating federal principles. o Integrated Audit Machinery: Comptroller and Auditor-General audits both Centre and states, limiting state financial autonomy. Q 36.B The Citizenship Act (1955) prescribes three ways of losing citizenship whether acquired under the Act or prior to it under the Constitution, viz, renunciation, termination and deprivation: By Renunciation: Any citizen of India of full age and capacity can make a declaration renouncing his Indian citizenship. Upon the registration of that declaration, that person ceases to be a citizen of India. However, if such a declaration is made during a war in which India is engaged, its registration shall be withheld by the Central Government. Further, when a person renounces his Indian citizenship, every minor child of that person also loses Indian citizenship. However, when such a child attains the age of eighteen, he may resume Indian citizenship. By Termination: When an Indian citizen voluntarily (consciously, knowingly and without duress, undue influence or compulsion) acquires the citizenship of another country, his Indian citizenship automatically terminates. This provision, however, does not apply during a war in which India is engaged. By Deprivation: It is a compulsory termination of Indian citizenship by the Central government, if: o the citizen has obtained the citizenship by fraud: o the citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India: o the citizen has unlawfully traded or communicated with the enemy during a war; o the citizen has, within five years after registration or naturalisation, been imprisoned in any country for two years; and o the citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for seven years Continuously. Q 37.B The Preamble of the Constitution defines the Indian Republic as Sovereign, Socialist, Secular and Democratic. Of these, Sovereign and Democratic were part of the Preamble adopted by the Constituent Assembly. Hence option (b) is the correct answer. Socialist and Secular were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976. Also, the word 'integrity' was added by the same act. 13 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS Q 38.D 'Bubble baby syndrome,' known medically as Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) is very rare genetic disorder that causes life-threatening problems with the immune system. It is a type of primary immune deficiency. The disease is known as “living in the bubble” syndrome because living in a normal environment can be fatal to a child who has it. Hence statement 1 is not correct. SCID is a pediatric emergency. Without treatment, babies are not likely to survive past their first birthday. The most common treatment is a stem cell transplant (also called a bone marrow transplant). This means the child receives stem cells from a donor. The hope is that these new cells will rebuild the child's immune system. Hence statement 2 is not correct. SCID babies are extremely susceptible to infections because their immune systems are severely compromised or non-functional. This condition earned its nickname because affected infants must be kept in a sterile environment, resembling a "bubble," to protect them from infections. SCID is typically caused by mutations in genes responsible for the development and functioning of immune cells. Without a properly functioning immune system, even minor infections can become life-threatening for these infants. Q 39.A Freedom of Religion is a Fundamental Right provided under Articles 25-28 of the Constitution. Freedom of religion also includes the freedom of conscience. This means that a person may choose any religion or may choose not to follow any religion. Hence statement 1 is correct. Freedom of Religion includes the right to not just practice one‘s religion but also to propagate it. This includes persuading people to join one‘s religion and willful conversion from one religion to another. The Constitution bars forceful conversions and conversions done by inducements. Hence statement 2 is not correct. Freedom of Religion is available to not just Indian citizens but also to foreign nationals residing within Indian territory. Hence statement 3 is not correct. Q 40.C Though the rights and duties of the citizens are correlative and inseparable, the original constitution contained only the fundamental rights and not the fundamental duties. In other words, the framers of the Constitution did not feel it necessary to incorporate the fundamental duties of the citizens in the Constitution. However, they incorporated the duties of the State in the Constitution in the form of Directive Principles of State Polity. Later in 1976, the fundamental duties of citizens were added in the Constitution. In 2002, the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act made the following changes to give effect to the Right to Education in India: o A new article 21A was inserted below the Article 21 which made Right to Education a Fundamental Right for children in the range of 6-14 years. o One more Fundamental Duty was added - to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years. This duty was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002. Hence option (c) is the correct answer. Q 41.A In India, like most other democracies in the world, rights are mentioned in the Constitution. Some rights which are fundamental to our life are given a special status. They are called Fundamental Rights. The Preamble to our Constitution talks about securing for all its citizens equality, liberty and justice. Fundamental Rights put this promise into effect. They are an important basic feature of India‘s Constitution. Hence option (a) is the correct answer. Q 42.A Urea Gold: o Context: The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) approves the launch of Urea Gold o Urea gold will support the other initiative of the government in the sphere of Environmentally Friendly Fertilizers (EFFs). o Urea gold is a Sulphur-Coated Urea (SCU). Hence statement 1 is correct. o It is a non-organic slow-release fertilizer and is generally prepared by coating preheated urea granules with molten sulfur. o The sulfur coating ensures a more gradual release of nitrogen. Hence statement 2 is not correct. ✓ It prolongs the urea action, thus helping plants to stay greener for a longer time. 14 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS  Irish Constitution: o Directive Principles of State Policy; Nomination of Members to Rajya Sabha; Method of Election of President. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched. Canadian Constitution: o Federation with a Strong Centre; Vesting of Residuary Powers in the Centre; Appointment of State Governors by the Centre; Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched. Australian Constitution: o Concurrent List; Freedom of Trade, Commerce, and Intercourse; Joint Sitting of the Two Houses of Parliament Weimar Constitution of Germany: o Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency Soviet Constitution (now Russia): o Fundamental Duties; Ideal of Justice (Social, Economic, and Political) in the Preamble French Constitution: o Republic and the Ideals of Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity in the Preamble South African Constitution: o Procedure for Amendment of the Constitution; Election of Members of Rajya Sabha Japanese Constitution: o Procedure Established by Law Q 52.A The Protection of Human Rights Act of 1993 provides for the creation of not only the National Human Rights Commission but also a State Human Rights Commission at the state level. State Human Rights Commission can inquire into violation of human rights only in respect of subjects mentioned in the State List (List-II) and the Concurrent List (List-III) of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. However, if any such case is already being inquired into by the National Human Rights Commission or any other Statutory Commission, then the State Human Rights Commission does not inquire into that case. Hence statement 2 is not correct. The chairperson and members hold office for a term of three years or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier. They are eligible for re-appointment. After their tenure, the chairperson and members are not eligible for further employment under a state government or the Central government. Hence statement 3 is not correct. The Commission is vested with the power to regulate its procedure. It has all the powers of a civil court and its proceedings have a judicial character. It may call for information or reports from the state government or any other authority subordinate thereto. Hence statement 1 is correct. Q 53.B The Judiciary advanced the theory of the basic structure in the famous case of Kesavananda Bharati. This ruling has contributed to the evolution of the Constitution in the following ways: o It has set specific limits to Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution. It says that no amendment can violate the basic structure of the Constitution; o It allows Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution (within this limitation). Hence statement 1 is correct. It places the Judiciary as the final authority in deciding if an amendment violates basic structure and what constitutes the basic structure. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Supreme Court gave the Kesavananda ruling in 1973. In the past four decades, this decision has governed all interpretations of the Constitution and all institutions in the country have accepted the theory of basic structure. In fact, the theory of basic structure is itself an example of a living constitution. There is no mention of this theory in the Constitution. It has emerged from judicial interpretation. Thus, the Judiciary and its interpretation have practically amended the Constitution without a formal amendment. The Parliament reacted to this judicially innovated doctrine of ‘basic structure’ by enacting the 42nd Amendment Act (1976). This Act amended Article 368 and declared that there is no limitation on the constituent power of Parliament and no amendment can be questioned in any court on any ground including that of the contravention of any of the Fundamental Rights. However, the Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills case (1980) invalidated this provision as it excluded judicial review which is a ‘basic feature’ of the Constitution. 18 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS  o Republic Form of Government: ✓ A republic signifies a state where power ultimately resides with the people, regardless of the ruling head. This contrasts with a monarchy, where power stems from hereditary lineage. ✓ While a republic is often associated with democracy, it's not strictly essential. Some democratic systems, like ancient Athens, operated directly through citizen assemblies, without a single head of state. The crucial aspect lies in the power residing with the people, regardless of the governing structure. Q 84.C Major Committees of Constituent Assembly: o Union Powers Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru o Union Constitution Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru o Provincial Constitution Committee – Sardar Patel o Drafting Committee – Dr. B.R. Ambedkar o Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas – Sardar Patel. ✓ This committee had the following five sub-committees: ▪ Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee – J.B. Kripalani ▪ Minorities Sub-Committee – H.C. Mukherjee ▪ North-East Frontier Tribal Areas and Assam Excluded & Partially Excluded Areas Sub- Committee – Gopinath Bardoloi ▪ Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas (Other than those in Assam) Sub-Committee – A.V. Thakkar o Rules of Procedure Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched. o States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States) – Jawaharlal Nehru. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched. o Steering Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched. Q 85.A Statement 2 is correct - Sovereign means India is neither a dependency nor a dominion of any other state. There is no authority above it and it is free to conduct its affairs. Statement 1 is correct - Being a sovereign state, India can either acquire a foreign territory or cede a part of its territory in favor of a foreign state. Hence option (a) is the correct answer. Q 86.D Features of the Government of India Act, 1935: o All-India Federation: ✓ The Act proposed the establishment of an All-India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states as units. Hence option 4 is correct. ✓ However, this federation never came into being as the princely states did not join it. o Provincial Autonomy: ✓ Dyarchy at the provincial level was abolished and replaced with provincial autonomy. ✓ This gave provincial governments greater control over their internal affairs. o Dyarchy at the Centre: ✓ The Act envisaged dyarchy at the Centre, with federal subjects divided into reserved and transferred subjects. Hence option 2 is correct. ✓ However, this provision was never implemented. o Reserve Bank of India: ✓ The Act established the Reserve Bank of India to control the currency and credit of the country. Hence option 3 is correct.This remains a key institution in India's financial system today. o Public Service Commissions: ✓ The Act established a Federal Public Service Commission and also Provincial Public Service Commission. Hence option 1 is correct. ✓ Joint Public Service Commissions for two or more provinces were also possible. o Federal Court: ✓ The Act provided for the establishment of a Federal Court, which was set up in 1937. ✓ This court had appellate jurisdiction over the High Courts of the provinces and original jurisdiction in certain disputes between the Centre and the provinces. 28 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS  o Historical factors, e.g., the influence of the Government of India Act of 1935, which was bulky. Hence option 1 is correct. o Single Constitution for both the Centre and the states except Jammu and Kashmir. Hence option 2 is correct. o The dominance of legal luminaries in the Constituent Assembly led to comprehensive coverage of legal provisions in the Constitution. The population of India has nothing to do with the bulkiness of the Constitution. Rather it is the diversity of language, caste, and creed that our constitution aims to protect through the ideals of liberty, equality, and fraternity. Hence option 3 is not correct. It was also felt that the smooth functioning of infant democracy might be jeopardized unless the constitution mentioned in detail things that were left in other constitutions to ordinary legislation. This explains why we have a detailed provision about the organization of the judiciary, UPSC, Elections, etc. Q 99.C The Parliament under Article 368 can amend any part of the Constitution including the Fundamental Rights but without affecting the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. However, the Supreme Court has yet to define or clarify what constitutes the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. From the various judgments, the following have emerged as ‘basic features’ of the Constitution or elements of the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution: o Supremacy of the Constitution o Sovereign, democratic and republican nature of the Indian polity o Secular character of the Constitution o Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive o and the judiciary o Federal character of the Constitution o Unity and integrity of the nation o Welfare state (socio-economic justice) o Judicial review o Free and fair elections o Independence of Judiciary o Effective access to justice o Powers of the Supreme Court under Articles 32, 136, 141 and 142 o Powers of the High Courts under Articles 226 and 227. The Supreme Court has not adjudged 'socialist state' as envisaged in the preamble to be the basic structure of the constitution though it has adjudged the idea of the welfare state to be a part. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer. Q 100.D The term ‘State’ has been used in different provisions concerning the fundamental rights. Hence, Article 12 has defined the term for the purposes of Part III. According to it, the State includes the following: o Government and Parliament of India, that is, executive and legislative organs of the Union government. o Government and legislature of states, that is, executive and legislative organs of state government. o All local authorities, that is, municipalities, panchayats, district boards, improvement trusts, etc. o All other authorities, that is, statutory or non-statutory authorities like LIC, ONGC, SAIL, etc. Thus, State has been defined in a wider sense so as to include all its agencies. It is the actions of these agencies that can be challenged in the courts as violating the Fundamental Rights. According to the Supreme Court, even a private body or an agency working as an instrument of the State falls within the meaning of the ‘State’ under Article 12. Hence option (d) is the correct answer. 33 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS