Total Practice Test.docx

**[Law\_]**\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ 1. A knife is considered a deadly weapon unless it is a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ or \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ knife. A. hunting / pocket B....

**[Law\_]**\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ 1. A knife is considered a deadly weapon unless it is a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ or \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ knife. A. hunting / pocket B. box / fillet C. kitchen / butcher D. table/antique 2. Serious physical injury creates a substantial risk of death. Under what age can the risk be less to meet the criteria? A. \ A. Death, Serious Physical Injury B. Death, Physical injury, Disfigurement, Pain or Bruising C. Death, Serious Physical Injury, Disfigurement, Distress D. Death, Serious Physical Injury, Disfigurement, Extreme Pain, extreme emotional distress. 5. How many persons must have common elements of interest to form a criminal gang? A. 10 or more B. 25 or more C. 3 or more D. 5 or more 6. What would be the appropriate charge for leaving a child inside of a vehicle overnight in temperatures below freezing that resulted in the death of the child? A. Murder 1st B. Manslaughter 2nd C. Manslaughter 3rd D. Reckless Homicide 7. In order to place the charge of Strangulation in the first degree, the suspect must have intentionally impeded the normal breathing or circulation of blood by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ or \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Applying pressure to the head or neck B. Blocking the nose or mouth C. Applying pressure on the throat or neck D. Both B and C are correct A. Kidnapping 3^rd^ B. Contempt of Court D. Unlawful Transaction with a Minor 9. In the event a suspect physically forces sexual intercourse with a person under the age of 12 or physically helpless, what charge is appropriate? A. Rape 1st B. Sodomy 1st C. Rape 2nd D. Sodomy 2^nd^ 10. In the charge of rape 2^nd^, what age restrictions are in place for this charge? A. 18 and over has sexual intercourse with 10 and under B. 21 and over has sexual intercourse with 16 and under C. 18 and over has sexual intercourse with 16 and under D. 18 and over has sexual intercourse with 14 and under 11. In the event of a of a Department of Corrections employee having sexual intercourse with an inmate, what is the appropriate charge? A. Sexual Misconduct B. Rape 1^st^ C. Rape 2^nd^ D. Rape 3^rd^ 12. In order for a sexual crime to meet the criteria for sodomy what two body parts must have been in use? A. Genitals and Anus B. Mouth and Anus C. Mouth and Genitals D. Fingers and Genitals 13. Burglary in the 1^st^ degree charge is reserved for persons who are A. Armed with explosives or deadly weapon, Causes physical injury to a non-participant, Threatens the use of dangerous instrument against a non-participant B. Armed with a gun or knife and forces or threatens their use C. Enter a dwelling unlawfully with intent to commit a crime D. Both B and C 14. What kind of structure is used for Burglary 1^st^ to be charged? A. Dwelling B. Building C. Residence D. Business 15. What kind of structure is used for Burglary 2^nd^ to be charged? A. Dwelling B. Building C. Residence D. Business 16. What kind of structure is used for Burglary 3^rd^ to be charged? A. Dwelling B. Building C. Residence D. Business 17. Criminal Trespass in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ degree is reserved for unlawfully entering and remaining in a dwelling. A. 3rd B. 2nd C. 1st D. 4^th^ 18\. Criminal Mischief is separated by degrees based on which dollar amounts of the damaged property. A. 10,000 or more for 1^st^ 5,000 for 2^nd^ B. 5,000 or more for 1^st^ 2,500 for 2^nd^ 500 for 3^rd^ C. 100 or more for 1^st^ D. 1,000 or more for 1^st^ 500 for 2^nd^ All others for 3^rd^. 19. If a person sets fire to a building with intent to destroy or damage to collect insurance money for them or another person what charge is appropriate? 21. Robbery 1^st^ occurs when in the course of committing a theft\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ A. Causes Serious Physical Injury to a non-participant, Is armed with a deadly weapon, Uses or threatens the immediate use of a dangerous instrument against a non-participant. B. Causes Physical injury to a non-participant, Is armed with a deadly weapon, Uses or threatens the immediate use of a dangerous instrument against a non-participant. C. Causes the death of a non-participant, Is armed with a deadly weapon, Uses or threatens the immediate use of a dangerous instrument against a non-participant. D. Causes the threat of danger of a non-participant, Is armed with a deadly weapon, Uses or threatens the immediate use of a dangerous instrument against a non-participant 22. Robbery 2^nd^ is based on the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ when committing a theft. A. Threat of death B. Threat of theft C. Threat of force D. Threat of retaliation 23. Tampering with a prisoner monitoring device is a Class \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ A. A misdemeanor B. A Felony C. B Felony D. D Felony 24. The difference in Escape 1^st^ and Escape 2^nd^ in regards to the suspect is A. Use of Force or Threat of force B. Level of facility in which escape is made C. If escapes Facilitated or not facilitated by corrections officer D. Type of Weapon used to escape 25. Promoting contraband 1^st^ and 2^nd^ is determined by A. The level of correction facility B. The original charges placed on the suspect C. The item being promoted D. The level of search conducted upon intake of the suspect **Contract**\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ 26. Bureau of Internal Affairs investigations shall be completed in \_\_\_\_ days. Beginning with the date the complaint is made and end on the date the investigation is submitted to the Chief of Police for review. A. 14 days B. 30 days C. 10 days D. 60 Days 27. When a formal complaint is filed the Member shall be provided a copy of the complaint in writing within \_\_\_\_ days A. 10 days B. 14 calendar days C. 14 business days D. 14 work days 28. If LFUCG determines layoffs are necessary, how many days in advance is a member notified? A. 7 B. 10 C. 14 D. 30 29. A maximum of \_\_\_\_ representatives from the lodge shall be granted paid leave for grievances in addition to the President. A. 2 Members B. 3 Members C. 6 Members D. 8 Members 30. How man representatives may be selected to attend KY General Assembly Meeting? A. 2 members B. 3 members C. 6 members D. 8 members 31. A finalized promotional ranking list SHALL be provided to the Lodge within \_\_\_\_ of certification of promotional lists. A. 5 days B. 5 calendar days C. 5 business day D. 5 working days 32. The Chief may temporarily assign a member to any vacancy for how long? A. 30 days B. 60 days C. 6 months D. 12 months 33. What is the minimum number of semester hours a SGT must have? A. 35 B. 63 C. 89 D. 92 34. Assessment measures will be based on the \_\_\_\_ for the position being tested. A. Job Task Analysis B. Community Partnerships C. Leadership Qualifications D. Training and Experience 35. A member shall have the right to view his own interview scores with a request within \_\_\_\_\_ days of the posting. A. 5 days B. 10 days C. 14 days D. 30 days 36. The final list of scores of the written exam will be posted for \_\_\_ days following the exam. A. 5 days B. 7 days C. 10 days D. 14 days 37. For a grievance you must notify your immediate supervisor orally within \_\_\_ days of the grieved event. He will then have \_\_\_\_ days from that presentation to respond orally. A. 14/7 B. 10/14 C. 7/10 D. 14/30 38. If the grievance is not settled after the immediate supervisor's action, how many days does the grievant have to notify who? A. 10 Days to notify LT B. 14 Days to notify LT C. 30 Days to notify Commander D. 14 Days to notify Commander 39. Members receive \_\_\_ at the first of each month for clothing. A. \$35 B. \$50 C. \$75 D. \$100 40. Members shall receive reimbursement for the cost of tuition and books for up to \_\_\_\_\_. A. \$1,000 B. \$1,500 C. \$2,000 D. \$2,500 41. Personally owned items shall not be reimbursed for more than \_\_\_\_ per item. A. \$100 B. \$300 C. \$500 D. \$1,000 42. Seniority shall be continuous unless a member is laid off for? A. 6 months B. 12 months C. 18 months D. 24 months 43. No member shall be required to work in excess of \_\_\_\_ hours unless it is for Roots and Heritage, New Year's Eve, July 4^th^ and exigent circumstances. A. 15 hours B. 16 hours C. 20 hours D. 24 hours 44. How long do you have to travel to use a trip car? A. 1 hour B. 4 hours C. 8 hours D. 12 hours 45. After travel you must complete an Expense Report within \_\_\_\_ days of return. A. 5 days B. 7 days C. 10 days D. 15 days 46. Who investigates sexual harassment complaints? A. Supervisor B. Bureau Commander C. PIU D. HR 47. The reason and identity of a requester for an open records request is not required unless for \_\_\_\_\_ purposes. A. Civil Trial B. Criminal Trial C. Commercial D. Personal 48. You are allowed to accept gifts from the public valued up to \$\_\_\_\_ a year. A. \$10 B. \$15 C. \$25 D. \$35 49. LFUCG shall provide a member with replacement body armor within how many years of the manufacturing date? A. 4 years B. 5 years C. 6 years D. 7 years 50. For a member to apply for FTO how much time must they have from hire date? A. 2 years B. 3 years C. 18 months D. 5 years **Policy**\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ a. Personal and interpersonal harassment b. Sexual and physical harassment c. Hostile environment and sexual harassment d. Individual and group harassment 52. What are the possible dispositions of a formal complaint investigation completed by the Public Integrity Unit? a. Proper conduct, improper conduct, insufficient evidence, unfounded, policy failure b. Good conduct, bad conduct, insufficient witnesses, unlawful, leadership failure c. Lawful conduct, unlawful conduct, insufficient sources, incorrect action, personal failure d. Okay conduct, not okay conduct, lack of evidence, didn't happen, situational failure 53. Gifts must not exceed what dollar amount? a. \$50 b. \$15 c. \$25 d. \$35 54. What is the out of county rate per mile for officers to take home their vehicles? e. \$0.25 f. \$0.50 g. \$0.15 h. \$1.00 55. What is the number of personnel a supervisor should be responsible for according to the span of control policy? i. 8 j. 12 k. 10 l. 5 56. Officer breaks may not be taken within what amount of time of coming on or going off duty? m. 1 hour n. 30 minutes o. 2 hours p. 1.5 hours 57. What is an examples of an exigent circumstance search? q. Hot pursuit r. Search to protect life and health s. Search incident to arrest t. All of the above 58. What is the amount of time for a temporary hold of a vehicle? u. 5 days or less v. 72 hours or less w. 1 week or less x. 48 hours or less 59. What are examples of permissible uses of seized assets? y. Law enforcement operations and investigations z. Money laundering operations a. Creation of scholarships b. Costs related to lawsuits c. 60. What are examples of the Ten Public Safety questions supervisors should ask a law enforcement officer immediately following an incident resulting in death or serious physical injury of another person? d. Are you injured? e. Are you aware of anyone else who is injured? f. In what direction did you fire your weapon? g. All of the above 61. Within what amount of time from the arrest must a juvenile detention hearing occur? h. 72 hours i. 24 hours j. 48 hours k. 96 hours 62. Who developed the Resistance Control Continuum used by the Lexington Police Department? l. The Kentucky Department of Criminal Justice Training m. Pressure Point Control Techniques Management Systems n. The Department of Justice o. The Kentucky State Police 63. What are examples of levels of resistance? p. Psychological intimidation q. Verbal non compliance r. Passive resistance s. All of the above 64. What are examples of levels of control? t. Soft empty hand techniques u. Heavy handed techniques v. Calculated force w. None of the above 65. What are some examples of informant motives? x. Revenge y. Egotistical z. Good citizen a. All of the above 66. What are some examples of NCIC sensitive reports? b. Missing animals, stolen livestock, stolen aircraft c. Missing persons, stolen firearms, stolen vehicles d. Missing jewelry, stolen money, stolen valor e. Missing pets, stolen valuables, stolen boats 67. What is the dollar amount of seized currency that requires a supervisor to witness the booking process and initial the seal? f. \$500 g. \$300 h. \$1000 i. \$750 68. What is the amount of time BWC video is held of a critical incident/response to resistance? j. 1 year k. 2 years l. 30 days m. 5 years 69. What increment are fractional hours worked based on? n. 10 minutes o. 3 minutes p. 5 minutes q. 7 minutes 70. What types of inspections are performed by the Lexington Police Department? r. Personnel s. Operations t. Administration u. All of the above 71. What is the max amount of time a detainee may remain in a temporary detention room without approval by a supervisor? v. 4 hours w. 30 hours x. 2 hours y. 1 hours 72. What level of supervisor can activate ERU? z. Any supervisor a. Lieutenant b. Commander c. Asst. Chief 73. What procedures should be completed prior to initiating a foot pursuit from a vehicle? d. Place the vehicle in park e. Remove the keys from the ignition f. Secure the vehicle g. All of the above 74. What medal is presented to an officer for extraordinary acts of heroism and personal courage? h. Medal of honor i. Medal of valor j. Professional esteem award k. Distinguished service award 75. When using the language assist line, what statement is made by the officer upon completion of the call? l. Over and out m. End of service n. End of call o. Thank you **[Policy]** \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ 76. How often shall the Public Integrity Unit (PIU) conduct an analysis of all grievances as well as supporting policies and practices? p. Bi-annually q. Semi-annually r. Every 5 years s. Annually 77. The agency shall ensure that an administrative or criminal investigation is completed for all allegations of sexual abuse and/or sexual harassment and the agency shall retain all written reports for how long? t. For as long as the alleged abuser is incarcerated or employed by the agency, plus five years. u. For as long as the alleged abuser is incarcerated or employed by the agency, plus three years. v. Six years w. The written reports will be kept for as long at the victim is known to be alive 78. At lease how often shall the agency make all aggregated sexual abuse data from lockups under its direct control readily available to the public x. At least bi-annually through human resources y. At least quarterly z. Every six years a. at least annually through its website 79. The agency shall maintain sexual abuse data collected for at least....? b. 10 years after the date of the initial collection unless Federal, State or local law requires otherwise. c. 3 years after the date of the initial collection unless Federal, State or local law requires otherwise d. 5 years after the date of the initial collection unless Federal, State or local law requires otherwise e. 6 years after the date of the initial collection unless Federal, State or local law requires otherwise 80. The Public Integrity Unit Alert Report will identify those officers who generate the following during a two (2) month period: f. Five (5) or more BWC Activation Failure reports g. Three (3) or more BWC Activation Failure reports h. Four (4) or more BWC Activation Failure reports i. Seven (7) or more BWC Activation Failure reports 81. The Public Integrity Unit Alert Report will identify those officers who generate any of the following during a three (3) month period: j. Three (2) or more response to resistance reports, including discharging firearms Reports k. Three (1) or more vehicle pursuits l. Three (3) or more complaints of misconduct (Formal, Informal, or Inquiries) m. Five (3) or more of any combination of the above incidents. 82. The Public Integrity Unit Alert Report will identify those officers who generate the following during a twelve (12) month period: n. Two (2) at-fault collisions while on-duty or operating a department vehicle o. Three (3) at-fault collisions while on-duty or operating a department vehicle p. Four (4) at-fault collisions while on-duty or operating a department vehicle q. Five (5) at-fault collisions while on-duty or operating a department vehicle 83. The Public Integrity Unit Annual Report will identify those officers who generate which of the following during a twelve (12) month period: r. Three (2) or more at-fault collisions while on-duty or operating a department vehicle s. Six (2) or more response to resistance reports, including discharging firearms reports t. Six (3) or more complaints of misconduct u. Ten (10) or more of any combination of the selected Personnel Early Warning System criteria 84. The Kentucky Safe Infants Act allows a parent, or a person acting on behalf of the parent, of newborn babies to anonymously leave the infant at a safe place (e.g. police station, fire station, or a hospital) without fear of prosecution. How old is a newborn baby considered? v. Less than ten (10) days old w. Less than twenty (20) days old x. Less than thirty (30) days old y. Less than forty (40) days old 85. The officer or employee will also inform the parent that they may change their mind about giving up the baby within how long? z. 25 days a. 10 days b. 30 days c. 15 days 86. All state, county, or municipal police vehicles and all sheriffs\' vehicles used as emergency vehicles shall be equipped with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ flashing, rotating, or oscillating blue lights, visible under normal atmospheric conditions from a distance of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to the front of the vehicle d. Two (2) or more and five hundred (500) feet e. Three (3) or more and five hundred (500) feet f. One (1) or more and five hundred (500) feet g. One (1) or more and three hundred (300) feet 87. Unless circumstances dictate otherwise, a pursuit shall consist of how many vehicles? h. No more than two department vehicles i. No more than three department vehicles j. No more than four department vehicles k. No more than two department vehicles and one shall be a supervisor 88. In controlling the pursuit, the monitoring supervisor is responsible for (on the radio by voice transmission): l. Approving or terminating a pursuit m. Directing pursuit vehicles or the Air Support Unit into or out of the pursuit n. Re-designating primary, secondary or other unit responsibilities o. All of the above 89. The monitoring supervisor may also approve support units to assist the primary and secondary pursuit units based upon an analysis of the following criteria: p. The number of suspects and other persons in the vehicle and/or any known propensity for violence. q. The number of officers needed to make arrest(s) at the end of the pursuit. r. Both a and b s. All pursuits should be terminated because of the risks involved 90. From what level of supervision do you need approval to deploy STOPSTICKS? t. Sergeant u. Lieutenant v. Commander w. AC 91. What role shall an officer take if an out of county agency's pursuit comes into Fayette County? x. Support only if approved by supervisor and if Out of county agency request support y. Observation only and the officer should not get involved z. Lead once the pursuit enters Fayette county a. Should drive in the opposite direction of the pursuit to avoid involvement 92. It is the responsibility of the supervisor to ensure who is notified during a pursuit? b. Sector commander c. Sector Lieutenant d. Assistant Chief e. Patrol Duty Commander 93. All recruit police officers will serve how long on probation and beginning at what time? f. 15-month probationary period beginning on the date of hire. g. 12-month probationary period beginning on the date of hire. h. 18-month probationary period beginning on the date of hire. i. 36-month probationary period beginning on the date of hire. 94. The probationary period may be extended how many times? j. Four in ninety (90) day increments for a total of an additional six (6) month period. k. Twice in ninety (90) day increments for a total of an additional six (6) month period. l. Three in ninety (90) day increments for a total of an additional six (6) month period. m. Twice in ninety (30) day increments for a total of an additional six (6) month period. 95. At a minimum of how many days will the Chief of Police notify the police trainee of any extension? n. at least ten (10) days prior to any extension in writing o. at least thirty (30) days prior to any extension in writing p. at least twenty (20) days prior to any extension in writing q. at least fifteen (15) days prior to any extension in writing 96. In regards to promotional process a lists of eligible applicants shall be effective for how long? r. Two (2) years, unless exhausted s. Three (3) years, unless exhausted t. Eighteen months (18), unless exhausted u. Four (4) years, unless exhausted 97. All personnel who are promoted will serve how long of probationary period? v. A four (4) month probationary period without exception. w. A six (6) month probationary period without exception. x. A ten (10) month probationary period without exception. y. A five (5) month probationary period without exception. 98. How often it is required for there to be a performance evaluation of department employees? z. Annually a. Bi-annually b. Every 6 months c. Every quarter 99. All performance evaluations completed shall be retained in the Personnel Records Unit for d. The duration of employment with the department. e. For eight months f. For one year g. For six year 100. Employers are required to provide how much time and for how long for an employee to express breast milk? h. 20 minutes for an employee to express breast milk for her nursing child for six months after the child's birth i. A reasonable break time for an employee to express breast milk for her nursing child for one year after the child's birth j. A reasonable break time for an employee to express breast milk for her nursing child for 6 months year after the child's birth k. 15 minutes for an employee to express breast milk for her nursing child for six months after the child's birth 101. When a person identifies himself/herself as a transgender you should: l. Identify them with whatever gender you deem appropriate m. Respect the expressed gender and do not question it. n. Question them further o. Only call them by their name on their identification cards 102. A transgender prisoner shall be transported p. Separately. q. With persons of the gender they identify r. Only genders similar to their identification cards s. With either gender so as to not show discrimination 103. Officers may stop individuals for the purpose of conducting a field interview only where t. Reasonable suspicion u. Intuition v. A mere hunch w. All of the above 104. A law enforcement officer has the right to perform a Terry Frisk of the outer garments of a suspect for weapons if x. \(1) the suspect has been legitimately stopped with reasonable suspicion and (2) only when the officer has reason to believe that the suspect possesses weapons on his or her person and poses a threat to the officer's or another person's safety. y. \(1) the suspect has been illegitimately stopped with reasonable suspicion and (2) only when the officer has reason to believe that the suspect possesses weapons on his or her person and poses a threat to the officer's or another person's safety. z. \(1) the suspect has been legitimately stopped with reasonable suspicion and (2) only when the officer has reason to believe that the suspect possesses weapons on his or her person and does not poses a threat to the officer's or another person's safety. a. \(1) the suspect has been legitimately stopped with a mere hunch and (2) only when the officer has reason to believe that the suspect possesses weapons on his or her person and poses a threat to the officer's or another person's safety. 105. In regards to EAP supervisory referral, Supervisors shall remember that it b. Remains the employee's decision whether to accept the supervisory referral and use the EAP. c. The employee has to accept the supervisory referral and attend all meetings d. Supervisor are not allowed to refer an employee to EAP e. The employee has no right to decline the referral 106. What kind of order is issued for Mandatory EAP Participation f. Emergency Code of Ethics Order g. Emergency Referral Order h. The Duty to Refer Order i. Sergeant's EAP Requirement order 107. In regards to the policy of recordings concerning the public, persons engaged in recording activities j. may obstruct police actions and interfere k. may not obstruct police actions but can interfere l. the publics phones should be immediately confiscated regardless of the situation m. may not obstruct police actions or interfere 108. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are authorized to call out an appropriate canine team, outside of their normal duty hours, to perform any of the duties discussed below. n. Sergeants o. Lieutenant p. Commander q. Patrol officer 109. Patrol canines may be utilized for tracking or searching for at-risk, injured or missing adults as circumstances warrant and with r. Supervisory approval s. Guardian approval t. Department of Cabinet and Family supervisor approval u. Canine officer approval 110. Tracks or searches involving at-risk, injured or missing children shall be conducted only in emergency cases, and must be approved by v. Patrol sergeant w. Either the Canine Unit supervisor or the Patrol Duty Commander prior to initiating the track x. The Assistant chief y. Guardian of the child 111. Regardless of arrest when a canine is deployed, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ will respond to the scene and will ensure that the individual's visible injuries are documented by the taking of photographs. z. A supervisor a. FSU b. SVS Detective c. Narcotics Detective 112. Who can approve Bereavement Leave after the initial 2 weeks surrounding the family members Death? d. Lieutenant e. Commander f. Assistant Chief g. Chief 1. 2. **A** 3. **B** 4. **B** 5. **D** 6. **C** 7. **B** 8. **D** 9. **C** 10. **A** 11. **D** 12. **D** 13. **B** 14. **A** 15. **B** 16. **A** 17. **B** 18. **C** 19. **D** 20. **D** 21. **A** 22. **B** 23. **C** 24. **D** 25. **A** 26. **C** 27. **D** 28. **B** 29. **D** 30. **B** 31. **A** 32. **A** 33. **B** 34. **B** 35. **A** 36. **A** 37. **B** 38. **A** 39. **C** 40. **C** 41. **C** 42. **B** 43. **D** 44. **A** 45. **C** 46. **D** 47. **D** 48. **C** 49. **D** 50. **B** 51. **B** 52. **C** 53. **A** 54. **D** 55. **A** 56. **C** 57. **D** 58. **D** 59. **B** 60. **A** 61. **D** 62. **C** 63. **B** 64. **D** 65. **A** 66. **D** 67. **B** 68. **A** 69. **D** 70. **B** 71. **D** 72. **C** 73. **A** 74. **D** 75. **B** 76. **C** 77. **D** 78. **A** 79. **D** 80. **A** 81. **A** 82. **C** 83. **A** 84. **D** 85. **C** 86. **C** 87. **C** 88. **A** 89. **D** 90. **C** 91. **A** 92. **A** 93. **D** 94. **C** 95. **D** 96. **A** 97. **A** 98. **B** 99. **A** 100. **A** 101. **B** 102. **B** 103. **A** 104. **A** 105. **A** 106. **A** 107. **B** 108. **D** 109. **A** 110. **A** 111. **B** 112. **A** 113. **A.**