SY0-701-222q-Dump-25-June.pdf

CompTIA SY0-701 CompTIA Security+ Exam 2024 Version: 6.0 [ Total Questions: 222] Web: www.dumpsmate.com Email: [email protected] IMPORTANT NOTICE Feedback We hav...

CompTIA SY0-701 CompTIA Security+ Exam 2024 Version: 6.0 [ Total Questions: 222] Web: www.dumpsmate.com Email: [email protected] IMPORTANT NOTICE Feedback We have developed quality product and state-of-art service to ensure our customers interest. If you have any suggestions, please feel free to contact us at [email protected] Support If you have any questions about our product, please provide the following items: exam code screenshot of the question login id/email please contact us at [email protected] and our technical experts will provide support within 24 hours. Copyright The product of each order has its own encryption code, so you should use it independently. Any unauthorized changes will inflict legal punishment. We reserve the right of final explanation for this statement. Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 Question #:1 Which of the following would be the best ways to ensure only authorized personnel can access a secure facility? (Select two). A. Fencing B. Video surveillance C. Badge access D. Access control vestibule E. Sign-in sheet F. Sensor Answer: C D Explanation Badge access and access control vestibule are two of the best ways to ensure only authorized personnel can access a secure facility. Badge access requires the personnel to present a valid and authenticated badge to a reader or scanner that grants or denies access based on predefined rules and permissions. Access control vestibule is a physical security measure that consists of a small room or chamber with two doors, one leading to the outside and one leading to the secure area. The personnel must enter the vestibule and wait for the first door to close and lock before the second door can be opened. This prevents tailgating or piggybacking by unauthorized individuals. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 4, pages 197-1981 Question #:2 Which of the following agreement types defines the time frame in which a vendor needs to respond? A. SOW B. SLA C. MOA D. MOU Answer: B Explanation A service level agreement (SLA) is a type of agreement that defines the expectations and responsibilities between a service provider and a customer. It usually includes the quality, availability, and performance metrics of the service, as well as the time frame in which the provider needs to respond to service requests, Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 1 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 incidents, or complaints. An SLA can help ensure that the customer receives the desired level of service and that the provider is accountable for meeting the agreed-upon standards. References: Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications, under “About the exam”, bullet point 3: “Operate with an awareness of applicable regulations and policies, including principles of governance, risk, and compliance.” CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, page 14: “Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are contracts between a service provider and a customer that specify the level of service expected from the service provider.” Question #:3 A U.S.-based cloud-hosting provider wants to expand its data centers to new international locations. Which of the following should the hosting provider considerfirst? A. Local data protection regulations B. Risks from hackers residing in other countries C. Impacts to existing contractual obligations D. Time zone differences in log correlation Answer: A Explanation Local data protection regulations are the first thing that a cloud-hosting provider should consider before expanding its data centers to new international locations. Data protection regulations are laws or standards that govern how personal or sensitive data is collected, stored, processed, and transferred across borders. Different countries or regions may have different data protection regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) in the European Union, the Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA) in Canada, or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA) in the United States. A cloud-hosting provider must comply with the local data protection regulations of the countries or regions where it operates or serves customers, or else it may face legal penalties, fines, or reputational damage. Therefore, a cloud-hosting provider should research and understand the local data protection regulations of the new international locations before expanding its data centers there. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 7, page 269. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1, page 14. Question #:4 A client demands at least 99.99% uptime from a service provider's hosted security services. Which of the following documents includes the information the service provider should return to the client? A. MOA B. Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 2 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 B. SOW C. MOU D. SLA Answer: D Explanation A service level agreement (SLA) is a document that defines the level of service expected by a customer from a service provider, indicating the metrics by which that service is measured, and the remedies or penalties, if any, should the agreed-upon levels not be achieved. An SLA can specify the minimum uptime or availability of a service, such as 99.99%, and the consequences for failing to meet that standard. A memorandum of agreement (MOA), a statement of work (SOW), and amemorandum of understanding (MOU) are other types of documents that can be used to establish a relationship between parties, but they do not typically include the details of service levels and performance metrics that an SLA does. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 16-17 Question #:5 A small business uses kiosks on the sales floor to display product information for customers. A security team discovers the kiosks use end-of-life operating systems. Which of the following is the security team most likely to document as a security implication of the current architecture? A. Patch availability B. Product software compatibility C. Ease of recovery D. Cost of replacement Answer: A Explanation End-of-life operating systems are those that are no longer supported by the vendor or manufacturer, meaning they do not receive any security updates or patches. This makes them vulnerable to exploits and attacks that take advantage of known or unknown flaws in the software. Patch availability is the security implication of using end-of-life operating systems, as it affects the ability to fix or prevent security issues. Other factors, such as product software compatibility, ease of recovery, or cost of replacement, are not directly related to security, but rather to functionality, availability, or budget. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 29 1 Question #:6 Which of the following security concepts is the best reason for permissions on a human resources fileshare to follow the principle of least privilege? A. Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 3 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 A. Integrity B. Availability C. Confidentiality D. Non-repudiation Answer: C Explanation Confidentiality is the security concept that ensures data is protected from unauthorized access or disclosure. The principle of least privilege is a technique that grants users or systems the minimum level of access or permissions that they need to perform their tasks, and nothing more. By applying the principle of least privilege to a human resources fileshare, the permissions can be restricted to only those who have a legitimate need to access the sensitive data, such as HR staff, managers, or auditors. This can prevent unauthorized users, such as hackers, employees, or contractors, from accessing, copying, modifying, or deleting the data. Therefore, the principle of least privilege can enhance the confidentiality of the data on the fileshare. Integrity, availability, and non-repudiation are other security concepts, but they are not the best reason for permissions on a human resources fileshare to follow the principle of least privilege. Integrity is the security concept that ensures data is accurate and consistent, and protected from unauthorized modification or corruption. Availabilityis the security concept that ensures data is accessible and usable by authorized users or systems when needed. Non-repudiation is the security concept that ensures the authenticity and accountability of data and actions, and prevents the denial of involvement or responsibility. While these concepts are also important for data security, they are not directly related to the level of access or permissions granted to users or systems. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 16-17, 372-373 Question #:7 A company is planning a disaster recovery site and needs to ensure that a single natural disaster would not result in the complete loss of regulated backup data. Which of the following should the company consider? A. Geographic dispersion B. Platform diversity C. Hot site D. Load balancing Answer: A Explanation Geographic dispersion is the practice of having backup data stored in different locations that are far enough apart to minimize the risk of a single natural disaster affecting both sites. This ensures that the company can recover its regulated data in case of a disaster at the primary site. Platform diversity, hot site, and load Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 4 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 balancing are not directly related to the protection of backup data from natural disasters. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 449; Disaster Recovery Planning: Geographic Diversity Question #:8 Which of the following threat actors is the most likely to be hired by a foreign government to attack critical systems located in other countries? A. Hacktivist B. Whistleblower C. Organized crime D. Unskilled attacker Answer: C Explanation Organized crime is a type of threat actor that is motivated by financial gain and often operates across national borders. Organized crime groups may be hired by foreign governments to conduct cyberattacks on critical systems located in other countries, such as power grids, military networks, or financial institutions. Organized crime groups have the resources, skills, and connections to carry out sophisticated and persistent attacks that can cause significant damage and disruption12. References = 1: Threat Actors - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 2.1 2: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide Question #:9 A company that is located in an area prone to hurricanes is developing a disaster recovery plan and looking at site considerations that allow the company to immediately continue operations. Which of the following is the best type of site for this company? A. Cold B. Tertiary C. Warm D. Hot Answer: D Explanation For a company located in an area prone to hurricanes and needing to immediately continue operations, the best type of site is a hot site. A hot site is a fully operational offsite data center that is equipped with hardware, software, and network connectivity and is ready to take over operations with minimal downtime. Hot site:Fully operational and can take over business operations almost immediately after a disaster. Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 5 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 Cold site:A basic site with infrastructure in place but without hardware or data, requiring significant time to become operational. Tertiary site:Not a standard term in disaster recovery; it usually refers to an additional backup location but lacks the specifics of readiness. Warm site:Equipped with hardware and connectivity but requires some time and effort to become fully operational, not as immediate as a hot site. Question #:10 Malware spread across a company's network after an employee visited a compromised industry blog. Which of the following best describes this type of attack? A. Impersonation B. Disinformation C. Watering-hole D. Smishing Answer: C Explanation A watering-hole attack is a type of cyberattack that targets groups of users by infecting websites that they commonly visit. The attackers exploit vulnerabilities to deliver a malicious payload to the organization’s network. The attack aims to infect users’ computers and gain access to a connected corporate network. The attackers target websites known to be popular among members of a particular organization or demographic. The attack differs from phishing and spear-phishing attacks, which typically attempt to steal data or install malware onto users’ devices1 In this scenario, the compromised industry blog is the watering hole that the attackers used to spread malware across the company’s network. The attackers likely chose this blog because they knew that the employees of the company were interested in its content and visited it frequently. The attackers may have injected malicious code into the blog or redirected the visitors to a spoofed website that hosted the malware. The malware then infected the employees’ computers and propagated to the network. References1: Watering Hole Attacks: Stages, Examples, Risk Factors & Defense … Question #:11 An analyst is evaluating the implementation of Zero Trust principles within the data plane. Which of the following would bemostrelevant for the analyst to evaluate? A. Secured zones A Is the Correct Answer B. Subject role Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 6 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 C. Adaptive identity D. Threat scope reduction Answer: D Explanation The data plane, also known as the forwarding plane, is the part of the network that carries user traffic and data. It is responsible for moving packets from one device to another based on the routing and switching decisions made by the control plane. The data plane is a critical component of the Zero Trust architecture, as it is where most of the attacks and breaches occur. Therefore, implementing Zero Trust principles within the data plane can help to improve the security and resilience of the network. One of the key principles of Zero Trust is to assume breach and minimize the blast radius and segment access. This means that the network should be divided into smaller and isolated segments or zones, each with its own security policies and controls. This way, if one segment is compromised, the attacker cannot easily move laterally to other segments and access more resources or data. This principle is also known as threat scope reduction, as it reduces the scope and impact of a potential threat. The other options are not as relevant for the data plane as threat scope reduction. Secured zones are a concept related to the control plane, which is the part of the network that makes routing and switching decisions. Subject role is a concept related to the identity plane, which is the part of the network that authenticates and authorizesusers and devices. Adaptive identity is a concept related to the policy plane, which is the part of the network that defines and enforces the security policies and rules. References = https://bing.com/search?q=Zero+Trust+data+plane https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/security/zero-trust/deploy/data Question #:12 An enterprise has been experiencing attacks focused on exploiting vulnerabilities in older browser versions with well-known exploits. Which of the following security solutions should be configured to best provide the ability to monitor and block these known signature-based attacks? A. ACL B. DLP C. IDS D. IPS Answer: D Explanation An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is a security device that monitors network traffic and blocks or modifies Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 7 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 malicious packets based on predefined rules or signatures. An IPS can prevent attacks that exploit known vulnerabilities in older browser versions by detecting and dropping the malicious packets before they reach the target system. An IPS can also perform other functions, such as rate limiting, encryption, or redirection. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 3: Securing Networks, page 132. Question #:13 Which of the following security concepts is accomplished with the installation of a RADIUS server? A. CIA B. AAA C. ACL D. PEM Answer: B Explanation The installation of a RADIUS server (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is primarily associated with the security concept of AAA, which stands for Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting. RADIUS servers are used to manage user credentials and permissions centrally, ensuring that only authenticated and authorized users can access network resources, and tracking user activity for accounting purposes. Authentication:Verifies the identity of a user or device. When a user tries to access a network, the RADIUS server checks their credentials (username and password) against a database. Authorization:Determines what an authenticated user is allowed to do. After authentication, the RADIUS server grants permissions based on predefined policies. Accounting:Tracks the consumption of network resources by users. This involves logging session details such as the duration of connections and the amount of data transferred. Question #:14 Which of the following is thebestway to consistently determine on a daily basis whether security settings on servers have been modified? A. Automation B. Compliance checklist C. Attestation D. Manual audit Answer: A Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 8 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 Explanation Automation is the best way to consistently determine on a daily basis whether security settings on servers have been modified. Automation is the process of using software, hardware, or other tools to perform tasks that would otherwise require human intervention or manual effort. Automation can help to improve the efficiency, accuracy, and consistency of security operations, as well as reduce human errors and costs. Automation can be used to monitor, audit, and enforce security settings on servers, such as firewall rules, encryption keys, access controls, patch levels, and configuration files. Automation can also alert security personnel of any changes or anomalies that may indicate a security breach or compromise12. The other options are not the best ways to consistently determine on a daily basis whether security settings on servers have been modified: Compliance checklist: This is a document that lists the security requirements, standards, or best practices that an organization must follow or adhere to. A compliance checklist can help to ensure that the security settings on servers are aligned with the organizational policies and regulations, but it does not automatically detect or report any changes or modifications that may occur on a daily basis3. Attestation: This is a process of verifying or confirming the validity or accuracy of a statement, claim, or fact. Attestation can be used to provide assurance or evidence that the security settings on servers are correct and authorized, but it does not continuously monitor or audit any changes or modifications that may occur on a daily basis4. Manual audit: This is a process of examining or reviewing the security settings on servers by human inspectors or auditors. A manual audit can help to identify and correct any security issues or discrepancies on servers, but it is time-consuming, labor-intensive, and prone to human errors. A manual audit may not be feasible or practical to perform on a daily basis. References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 1022: Automation and Scripting – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 5.1, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 974: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 98. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 99. Question #:15 A security analyst reviews domain activity logs and notices the following: Which of the following is thebestexplanation for what the security analyst has discovered? A. The user jsmith's account has been locked out. B. A keylogger is installed on [smith's workstation C. Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 9 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 C. An attacker is attempting to brute force ismith's account. D. Ransomware has been deployed in the domain. Answer: C Explanation Brute force is a type of attack that tries to guess the password or other credentials of a user account by using a large number of possible combinations. An attacker can use automated toolsor scripts to perform a brute force attack and gain unauthorized access to the account. The domain activity logs show that the user ismith has failed to log in 10 times in a row within a short period of time, which is a strong indicator of a brute force attack. The logs also show that the source IP address of the failed logins is different from the usual IP address of ismith, which suggests that the attacker is using a different device or location to launch the attack. The security analyst should take immediate action to block the attacker’s IP address, reset ismith’s password, and notify ismith of the incident. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1, page 14. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1, page 2. Threat Actors and Attributes – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 1.1 Question #:16 The CIRT is reviewing an incident that involved a human resources recruiter exfiltration sensitive company data. The CIRT found that the recruiter was able to use HTTP over port 53 to upload documents to a web server. Which of the following security infrastructure devices could have identified and blocked this activity? A. WAF utilizing SSL decryption B. NGFW utilizing application inspection C. UTM utilizing a threat feed D. SD-WAN utilizing IPSec Answer: B Explanation An NGFW (Next-Generation Firewall) utilizing application inspection could have identified and blocked the unusual use of HTTP over port 53. Application inspection allows NGFWs to analyze traffic at the application layer, identifying and blocking suspicious or non-standard protocol usage, such as HTTP traffic on DNS port 53. NGFW utilizing application inspection:Inspects traffic at the application layer and can block non-standard protocol usage, such as HTTP over port 53. WAF utilizing SSL decryption:Focuses on protecting web applications and decrypting SSL traffic but may not detect the use of HTTP over port 53. UTM utilizing a threat feed:Provides comprehensive security but may not focus specifically on application layer inspection. Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 10 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 SD-WAN utilizing IPSec:Enhances secure WAN connections but is not primarily designed to inspect and block specific application traffic. Question #:17 A security analyst scans a company's public network and discovers a host is running a remote desktop that can be used to access the production network. Which of the following changes should the security analyst recommend? A. Changing the remote desktop port to a non-standard number B. Setting up a VPN and placing the jump server inside the firewall C. Using a proxy for web connections from the remote desktop server D. Connecting the remote server to the domain and increasing the password length Answer: B Explanation A VPN is a virtual private network that creates a secure tunnel between two or more devices over a public network. A VPN can encrypt and authenticate the data, as well as hide the IP addresses and locations of the devices. A jump server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a user and a target server, such as a production server. A jump server can provide an additional layer of security and access control, as well as logging and auditing capabilities. A firewall is a device or software that filters and blocks unwanted network traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can protect the internal network from external threats and limit the exposure of sensitive services and ports. A security analyst should recommend setting up a VPN and placing the jump server inside the firewall to improve the security of the remote desktop access to the production network. This way, the remote desktop service will not be exposed to the public network, and only authorized users with VPN credentials can access the jump server and then the production server. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Secure Protocols and Services, page 382-383 1; Chapter 9: Network Security, page 441-442 1 Question #:18 After a security awareness training session, a user called the IT help desk and reported a suspicious call. The suspicious caller stated that the Chief Financial Officer wanted credit card information in order to close an invoice. Which of the following topics did the user recognize from the training? A. Insider threat B. Email phishing C. Social engineering D. Executive whaling Answer: C Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 11 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 Explanation Social engineering is the practice of manipulating people into performing actions or divulging confidential information, often by impersonating someone else or creating a sense of urgency or trust. The suspicious caller in this scenario was trying to use social engineering to trick the user into giving away credit card information by pretending to be the CFO and asking for a payment. The user recognized this as a potential scam and reported it to the IT help desk. The other topics are not relevant to this situation. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 19 1 Question #:19 A company is planning to set up a SIEM system and assign an analyst to review the logs on a weekly basis Which of the following types of controls is the company setting up? A. Corrective B. Preventive C. Detective D. Deterrent Answer: C Explanation A detective control is a type of security control that monitors and analyzes events to detect and report on potential or actual security incidents. A SIEM system is an example of a detective control, as it collects, correlates, and analyzes security data from various sources and generates alerts for security teams. Corrective, preventive, and deterrent controls are different types of security controls that aim to restore, protect, or discourage security breaches, respectively. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 33; What is Security Information and Event Management (SIEM)? Question #:20 A technician is opening ports on a firewall for a new system being deployed and supported by a SaaS provider. Which of the following is a risk in the new system? A. Default credentials B. Non-segmented network C. Supply chain vendor D. Vulnerable software Answer: C Explanation A supply chain vendor is a third-party entity that provides goods or services to an organization, such as a SaaS Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 12 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 provider. A supply chain vendor can pose a risk to the new system if the vendor has poor security practices, breaches, or compromises that could affect the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the system or its data. The organization should perform due diligence and establish a service level agreement with the vendor to mitigate this risk. The other options are not specific to the scenario of using a SaaS provider, but rather general risks that could apply to any system. Question #:21 While troubleshooting a firewall configuration, a technician determines that a “deny any” policy should be added to the bottom of the ACL. The technician updates the policy, but the new policy causes several company servers to become unreachable. Which of the following actions would prevent this issue? A. Documenting the new policy in a change request and submitting the request to change management B. Testing the policy in a non-production environment before enabling the policy in the production network C. Disabling any intrusion prevention signatures on the 'deny any* policy prior to enabling the new policy D. Including an 'allow any1 policy above the 'deny any* policy Answer: B Explanation A firewall policy is a set of rules that defines what traffic is allowed or denied on a network. A firewall policy should be carefully designed and tested before being implemented, as a misconfigured policy can cause network disruptions or security breaches. A common best practice is to test the policy in a non-production environment, such as a lab or a simulation, before enabling the policy in the production network. This way, the technician can verify the functionality and performance of the policy, and identify and resolve any issues or conflicts, without affecting the live network. Testing the policy in a non-production environment would prevent the issue of the ‘deny any’ policy causing several company servers to become unreachable, as the technician would be able to detect and correct the problem before applying the policy to the production network. Documenting the new policy in a change request and submitting the request to change management is a good practice, but it would not prevent the issue by itself. Change management is a process that ensures that any changes to the network are authorized, documented, and communicated, but it does not guarantee that the changes are error-free or functional. The technician still needs to test the policy before implementing it. Disabling any intrusion prevention signatures on the ‘deny any’ policy prior to enabling the new policy would not prevent the issue, and it could reduce the security of the network. Intrusion prevention signatures are patterns that identify malicious or unwanted traffic, and allow the firewall to block or alert on such traffic. Disabling these signatures would make the firewall less effective in detecting and preventing attacks, and it would not affect the reachability of the company servers. Including an ‘allow any’ policy above the ‘deny any’ policy would not prevent the issue, and it would render the ‘deny any’ policy useless. A firewall policy is processed from top to bottom, and the first matching rule is applied. An ‘allow any’ policy would match any traffic and allow it to pass through the firewall, regardless of Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 13 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 the source, destination, or protocol. This would negate the purpose of the ‘deny any’ policy, which is to block any traffic that does not match any of the previous rules. Moreover, an ‘allow any’ policy would create a security risk, as it would allow any unauthorized or malicious traffic to enter or exit the network. References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification StudyGuide, page 204-205; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 2.1 - Network Security Devices, 8:00 - 10:00. Question #:22 An enterprise is trying to limit outbound DNS traffic originating from its internal network. Outbound DNS requests will only be allowed from one device with the IP address 10.50.10.25. Which of the following firewall ACLs will accomplish this goal? A. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 10.50.10.25/32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 B. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0/0 10.50.10.25/32 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 C. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0/0 10.50.10.25/32 port 53 D. Access list outbound permit 10.50.10.25/32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Answer: D Explanation A firewall ACL (access control list) is a set of rules that determines which traffic is allowed or denied by the firewall. The rules are processed in order, from top to bottom, until a match is found. The syntax of a firewall ACL rule is: Access list To limit outbound DNS traffic originating from the internal network, the firewall ACL should allow only the device with the IP address 10.50.10.25 to send DNS requests toany destination on port 53, and deny all other outbound traffic on port 53. The correct firewall ACL is: Access list outbound permit 10.50.10.25/32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 The first rule permits outbound traffic from the source address 10.50.10.25/32 (a single host) to any destination address (0.0.0.0/0) on port 53 (DNS). The second rule denies all other outbound traffic on port 532. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, page 175. Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 14 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 Question #:23 Which of the following describes the maximum allowance of accepted risk? A. Risk indicator B. Risk level C. Risk score D. Risk threshold Answer: D Explanation Risk threshold is the maximum amount of risk that an organization is willing to accept for a given activity or decision. It is also known as risk appetite or risk tolerance. Risk threshold helps an organization to prioritize and allocate resources for risk management. Risk indicator, risk level, and risk score are different ways of measuring or expressing the likelihood and impact of a risk, but they do not describe the maximum allowance of accepted risk. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 34; Accepting Risk: Definition, How It Works, and Alternatives Question #:24 An engineer needs to find a solution that creates an added layer of security by preventing unauthorized access to internal company resources. Which of the following would be thebestsolution? A. RDP server B. Jump server C. Proxy server D. Hypervisor Answer: B Explanation = A jump server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a user and a target system. A jump server can provide an added layer of security by preventing unauthorized access to internal company resources. A user can connect to the jump server using a secure protocol, such as SSH, and then access the target system from the jump server. This way, the target system is isolated from the external network and only accessible through the jump server. A jump server can also enforce security policies, such as authentication, authorization, logging, and auditing, on the user’s connection. A jump server is also known as a bastion host or a jump box. References = CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.3: Given a scenario, implement secure network architecture concepts. CompTIA Security+ Study Guide(SY0-701), Chapter 3: Network Architecture and Design, page 101. Other Network Appliances – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.3, Video 3:03. CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam SY0-701 Practice Test 1, Question 2. Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 15 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 Question #:25 Which of the following describes the category of data that is most impacted when it is lost? A. Confidential B. Public C. Private D. Critical Answer: D Explanation The category of data that is most impacted when it is lost is "Critical." Critical data is essential to the organization’s operations and often includes sensitive information such as financial records, proprietary business information, and vital operational data. The loss of critical data can severely disrupt business operations and have significant financial, legal, and reputational consequences. Confidential:Refers to data that must be protected from unauthorized access to maintain privacy and security. Public:Refers to data that is intended for public disclosure and whose loss does not have severe consequences. Private:Typically refers to personal data that needs to be protected to ensure privacy. Critical:Refers to data that is essential for the operation and survival of the organization, and its loss can have devastating impacts. Question #:26 A company is planning to set up a SIEM system and assign an analyst to review the logs on a weekly basis. Which of the following types of controls is the company setting up? A. Corrective B. Preventive C. Detective D. Deterrent Answer: C Explanation A detective control is a type of control that monitors and analyzes the events and activities in a system or a Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 16 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 network, and alerts or reports when an incident or a violation occurs. A SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) system is a tool that collects, correlates, and analyzes the logs from various sources, such as firewalls, routers, servers, or applications, and provides a centralized view of the security status and incidents. An analyst who reviews the logs on a weekly basis can identify and investigate any anomalies, trends, or patterns that indicate a potential threat or a breach. A detective control can help the company to respond quickly and effectively to the incidents, and to improve its security posture and resilience. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions:Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1, page 23. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.3, page 14. Question #:27 A security analyst is investigating an alert that was produced by endpoint protection software. The analyst determines this event was a false positive triggered by an employee who attempted to download a file. Which of the following is the most likely reason the download was blocked? A. A misconfiguration in the endpoint protection software B. A zero-day vulnerability in the file C. A supply chain attack on the endpoint protection vendor D. Incorrect file permissions Answer: A Explanation The most likely reason the download was blocked, resulting in a false positive, is a misconfiguration in the endpoint protection software. False positives occur when legitimate actions are incorrectly identified as threats due to incorrect settings or overly aggressive rules in the security software. Misconfiguration in the endpoint protection software:Common cause of false positives, where legitimate activities are flagged incorrectly due to improper settings. Zero-day vulnerability:Refers to previously unknown vulnerabilities, which are less likely to be associated with a false positive. Supply chain attack:Involves compromising the software supply chain, which is a broader and more severe issue than a simple download being blocked. Incorrect file permissions:Would prevent access to files but not typically cause an alert in endpoint protection software. Question #:28 A systems administrator would like to deploy a change to a production system. Which of the following must the administrator submit to demonstrate that the system can be restored to a working state in the event of a performance issue? A. Backout plan Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 17 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 B. Impact analysis C. Test procedure D. Approval procedure Answer: A Explanation To demonstrate that the system can be restored to a working state in the event of a performance issue after deploying a change, the systems administrator must submit a backout plan. A backout plan outlines the steps to revert the system to its previous state if the new deployment causes problems. Backout plan:Provides detailed steps to revert changes and restore the system to its previous state in case of issues, ensuring minimal disruption and quick recovery. Impact analysis:Evaluates the potential effects of a change but does not provide steps to revert changes. Test procedure:Details the steps for testing the change but does not address restoring the system to a previous state. Approval procedure:Involves obtaining permissions for the change but does not ensure system recovery in case of issues. Question #:29 Employees in the research and development business unit receive extensive training to ensure they understand how to best protect company data. Which of the following is the type of data these employees aremostlikely to use in day-to-day work activities? A. Encrypted B. Intellectual property C. Critical D. Data in transit Answer: B Explanation Intellectual property is a type of data that consists of ideas, inventions, designs, or other creative works that have commercial value and are protected by law. Employees in the research and development business unit are most likely to use intellectual property data in their day-to-day work activities, as they are involved in creating new products or services for the company. Intellectual property data needs to be protected from unauthorized use, disclosure, or theft, as it can give the company a competitive advantage in the market. Therefore, these Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 18 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 employees receive extensive training to ensure they understand how to best protect this type of data. References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 90; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 1.2 - Security Concepts, 7:57 - 9:03. Question #:30 A company hired a consultant to perform an offensive security assessment covering penetration testing and social engineering. Which of the following teams will conduct this assessment activity? A. White B. Purple C. Blue D. Red Answer: D Explanation A red team is a group of security professionals who perform offensive security assessments covering penetration testing and social engineering. A red team simulates real-world attacks and exploits the vulnerabilities of a target organization, system, or network. A red team aims to test the effectiveness of the security controls, policies, and procedures of the target, as well as the awareness and response of the staff and the blue team. A red team can be hired as an external consultant or formed internally within the organization. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1, page 18. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.8, page 4. Security Teams – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 1.8 Question #:31 An attacker posing as the Chief Executive Officer calls an employee and instructs the employee to buy gift cards. Which of the following techniques is the attacker using? A. Smishing B. Disinformation C. Impersonating C Is the Correct Answer D. Whaling Answer: D Explanation Whaling is a type of phishing attack that targets high-profile individuals, such as executives, celebrities, or politicians. The attacker impersonates someone with authority or influence and tries to trick the victim into Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 19 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 performing an action, such as transferring money, revealing sensitive information, or clicking on a malicious link. Whaling is also called CEO fraud or business email compromise2. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 3, page 97. Question #:32 Which of the following would be best suited for constantly changing environments? A. RTOS B. Containers C. Embedded systems D. SCADA Answer: B Explanation Containers are a method of virtualization that allows applications to run in isolated environments with their own dependencies, libraries, and configurations. Containers are best suited for constantly changing environments because they are lightweight, portable, scalable, and easy to deploy and update. Containers can also support microservices architectures, which enable faster and more frequent delivery of software features. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 10: Mobile Device Security, page 512 1 Question #:33 A software developer released a new application and is distributing application files via the developer's website. Which of the following should the developer post on the website to allow users to verify the integrity of the downloaded files? A. Hashes B. Certificates C. Algorithms D. Salting Answer: A Explanation To verify the integrity of downloaded files, a software developer should post hashes on the website. A hash is a fixed-length string or number generated from input data, such as a file. When users download the application files, they can generate their own hash from the downloaded files and compare it with the hash provided by the Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 20 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 developer. If the hashes match, it confirms that the files have not been altered or corrupted during the download process. Hashes:Ensure data integrity by allowing users to verify that the downloaded files are identical to the original ones. Common hashing algorithms include MD5, SHA-1, and SHA-256. Certificates and Algorithms:Are more related to ensuring authenticity and securing communications rather than verifying file integrity. Salting:Is a technique used in hashing passwords to add an additional layer of security, not for verifying file integrity. Question #:34 To improve the security at a data center, a security administrator implements a CCTV system and posts several signs about the possibility of being filmed. Which of the following best describe these types of controls? (Select two). A. Preventive B. Deterrent C. Corrective D. Directive E. Compensating F. Detective Answer: B F Explanation The CCTV system and signs about the possibility of being filmed serve as both deterrent and detective controls. Deterrent controls:Aim to discourage potential attackers from attempting unauthorized actions. Posting signs about CCTV serves as a deterrent by warning individuals that their actions are being monitored. Detective controls:Identify and record unauthorized or suspicious activity. The CCTV system itself functions as a detective control by capturing and recording footage that can be reviewed later. Preventive controls:Aim to prevent security incidents but are not directly addressed by the CCTV and signs in this context. Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 21 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 Corrective controls:Aim to correct or mitigate the impact of a security incident. Directive controls:Provide guidelines or instructions but are not directly addressed by the CCTV and signs. Compensating controls:Provide alternative measures to compensate for the absence or failure of primary controls. Question #:35 Which of the following is the most common data loss path for an air-gapped network? A. Bastion host B. Unsecured Bluetooth C. Unpatched OS D. Removable devices Answer: D Explanation An air-gapped network is a network that is physically isolated from other networks, such as the internet, to prevent unauthorized access and data leakage. However, an air-gapped network can still be compromised by removable devices, such as USB drives, CDs, DVDs, or external hard drives, that are used to transfer data between the air-gapped network and other networks. Removable devices can carry malware, spyware, or other malicious code that can infect the air-gapped network or exfiltrate data from it. Therefore, removable devices are the most common data loss path for an air-gapped network. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 9: Network Security, page 449 1 Question #:36 An organization wants a third-party vendor to do a penetration test that targets a specific device. The organization has provided basic information about the device. Which of the following best describes this kind of penetration test? A. Partially known environment B. Unknown environment C. Integrated D. Known environment Answer: A Explanation Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 22 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 A partially known environment is a type of penetration test where the tester has some information about the target, such as the IP address, the operating system, or the device type. This can help the tester focus on specific vulnerabilities and reduce the scope of the test. A partially known environment is also called a gray box test1. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 10, page 543. Question #:37 A company is required to use certified hardware when building networks. Which of the following best addresses the risks associated with procuring counterfeit hardware? A. A thorough analysis of the supply chain B. A legally enforceable corporate acquisition policy C. A right to audit clause in vendor contracts and SOWs D. An in-depth penetration test of all suppliers and vendors Answer: A Explanation Counterfeit hardware is hardware that is built or modified without the authorization of the original equipment manufacturer (OEM). It can pose serious risks to network quality, performance, safety, and reliability12. Counterfeit hardware can also contain maliciouscomponents that can compromise the security of the network and the data that flowsthrough it3. To address the risks associated with procuring counterfeit hardware, a company should conduct a thorough analysis of the supply chain, which is the network of entities involved in the production, distribution, and delivery of the hardware. By analyzing the supply chain, the company can verify the origin, authenticity, and integrityof the hardware, and identify any potential sources of counterfeit or tampered products. A thorough analysis of the supply chain can include the following steps: Establishing a trusted relationship with the OEM and authorized resellers Requesting documentation and certification of the hardware from the OEM or authorized resellers Inspecting the hardware for any signs of tampering, such as mismatched labels, serial numbers, or components Testing the hardware for functionality, performance, and security Implementing a tracking system to monitor the hardware throughout its lifecycle Reporting any suspicious or counterfeit hardware to the OEM and law enforcement agencies References = 1: Identify Counterfeit and Pirated Products - Cisco, 2: What Is Hardware Security? Definition, Threats, and Best Practices, 3: Beware of Counterfeit Network Equipment - TechNewsWorld, : Counterfeit Hardware: The Threat and How to Avoid It Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 23 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 Question #:38 Which of the following is the phase in the incident response process when a security analyst reviews roles and responsibilities? A. Preparation B. Recovery C. Lessons learned D. Analysis Answer: A Explanation Preparation is the phase in the incident response process when a security analyst reviews roles and responsibilities, as well as the policies and procedures for handling incidents. Preparation also involves gathering and maintaining the necessary tools, resources, and contacts for responding to incidents. Preparation can help a security analyst to be ready and proactive when an incident occurs, as well as to reduce the impact and duration of the incident. Some of the activities that a security analyst performs during the preparation phase are: Defining the roles and responsibilities of the incident response team members, such as the incident manager, the incident coordinator, the technical lead, the communications lead, and the legal advisor. Establishing the incident response plan, which outlines the objectives, scope, authority, and procedures for responding to incidents, as well as the escalation and reporting mechanisms. Developing the incident response policy, which defines the types and categories of incidents, the severity levels, the notification and reporting requirements, and the roles and responsibilities of the stakeholders. Creating the incident response playbook, which provides the step-by-step guidance and checklists for handling specific types of incidents, such as denial-of-service, ransomware, phishing, or data breach. Acquiring and testing the incident response tools, such as network and host-based scanners, malware analysis tools, forensic tools, backup and recovery tools, and communication and collaboration tools. Identifying and securing the incident response resources, such as the incident response team, the incident response location, the evidence storage, and the external support. Building and maintaining the incident response contacts, such as the internal and external stakeholders, the law enforcement agencies, the regulatory bodies, and the media. References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 6: Architecture and Design, Section 6.4: Secure Systems Design, p. 279-280 Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 24 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3: Architecture and Design, Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, implement secure network architecture concepts, Sub-objective: Incident response, p. 16 Question #:39 A systems administrator is working on a solution with the following requirements: Provide a secure zone. Enforce a company-wide access control policy. Reduce the scope of threats. Which of the following is the systems administrator setting up? A. Zero Trust B. AAA C. Non-repudiation D. CIA Answer: A Explanation Zero Trust is a security model that assumes no trust for any entity inside or outside the network perimeter and requires continuous verification of identity and permissions. Zero Trust can provide a secure zone by isolating and protecting sensitive data and resources from unauthorized access. Zero Trust can also enforce a company-wide access control policy by applying the principle of least privilege and granular segmentation for users, devices, and applications. Zero Trust can reduce the scope of threats by preventing lateral movement and minimizing the attack surface. References: 5: This source explains the concept and benefits of Zero Trust security and how it differs from traditional security models. 8: This source provides an overview of Zero Trust identity security and how it can help verify the identity and integrity of users and devices. Question #:40 Which of the following is used to add extra complexity before using a one-way data transformation algorithm? A. Key stretching Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 25 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 B. Data masking C. Steganography D. Salting Answer: D Explanation Salting is the process of adding extra random data to a password or other data before applying a one-way data transformation algorithm, such as a hash function. Salting increases the complexity and randomness of the input data, making it harder for attackers to guess or crack the original data using precomputed tables or brute force methods. Salting also helps prevent identical passwords from producing identical hash values, which could reveal the passwords to attackers who have access to thehashed data. Salting is commonly used to protect passwords stored in databases or transmitted over networks. References = Passwords technical overview Encryption, hashing, salting – what’s the difference? Salt (cryptography) Question #:41 Which of the following describes a security alerting and monitoring tool that collects system, application, and network logs from multiple sources in a centralized system? A. SIEM B. DLP C. IDS D. SNMP Answer: A Explanation SIEM stands for Security Information and Event Management. It is a security alerting and monitoring tool that collects system, application, and network logs from multiple sources in a centralized system. SIEM can analyze the collected data, correlate events, generate alerts, and provide reports and dashboards. SIEM can also integrate with other security tools and support compliance requirements. SIEM helps organizations to detect and respond to cyber threats, improve security posture, and reduce operational costs. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 10: Monitoring and Auditing, page 393. CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 10: Monitoring and Auditing, page 397. Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 26 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 Question #:42 An accounting clerk sent money to an attacker's bank account after receiving fraudulent instructions to use a new account. Which of the following would most likely prevent this activity in the future? A. Standardizing security incident reporting B. Executing regular phishing campaigns C. Implementing insider threat detection measures D. Updating processes for sending wire transfers Answer: D Explanation To prevent an accounting clerk from sending money to an attacker's bank account due to fraudulent instructions, the most effective measure would be updating the processes for sending wire transfers. This can include implementing verification steps, such as requiring multiple approvals for changes in payment instructions and directly confirming new account details with trusted sources. Updating processes for sending wire transfers:Involves adding verification and approval steps to prevent fraudulent transfers. Standardizing security incident reporting:Important for handling incidents but not specifically focused on preventing fraudulent wire transfers. Executing regular phishing campaigns:Helps raise awareness but may not directly address the process vulnerability. Implementing insider threat detection measures:Useful for detecting malicious activities but does not directly prevent fraudulent transfer instructions. Question #:43 The local administrator account for a company's VPN appliance was unexpectedly used to log in to the remote management interface. Which of the following would have most likely prevented this from happening'? A. Using least privilege B. Changing the default password C. Assigning individual user IDs D. Reviewing logs more frequently Answer: B Explanation Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 27 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 Changing the default password for the local administrator account on a VPN appliance is a basic security measure that would have most likely prevented the unexpected login to the remote management interface. Default passwords are often easy to guess or publicly available, and attackers can use them to gain unauthorized access to devices and systems. Changing the default password to a strong and unique one reduces the risk of brute-force attacks and credential theft. Using least privilege, assigning individual user IDs, and reviewing logs more frequently are also good security practices, but they are not as effective as changing the default password in preventing the unexpected login. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 116; Local Admin Accounts - Security Risks and Best Practices (Part 1) Question #:44 A company prevented direct access from the database administrators’ workstations to the network segment that contains database servers. Which of the following should a database administrator use to access the database servers? A. Jump server B. RADIUS C. HSM D. Load balancer Answer: A Explanation A jump server is a device or virtual machine that acts as an intermediary between a user’s workstation and a remote network segment. A jump server can be used to securely access servers or devices that are not directly reachable from the user’s workstation, such as database servers. A jump server can also provide audit logs and access control for the remote connections. A jump server is also known as a jump box or a jump host12. RADIUS is a protocol for authentication, authorization, and accounting of network access. RADIUS is not a device or a method to access remote servers, but rather a way to verify the identity and permissions of users or devices that request network access34. HSM is an acronym for Hardware Security Module, which is a physical device that provides secure storage and generation of cryptographic keys. HSMs are used to protect sensitive data and applications, such as digital signatures, encryption, and authentication. HSMs are not used to access remote servers, but rather to enhance the security of the data and applications that reside on them5. A load balancer is a device or software that distributes network traffic across multiple servers or devices, based on criteria such as availability, performance, or capacity. A load balancer can improve the scalability, reliability, and efficiency of network services, such as web servers, application servers, or database servers. A load balancer is not used toaccess remote servers, but rather to optimize the delivery of the services that run on them. References = How to access a remote server using a jump host Jump server Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 28 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 RADIUS Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) Hardware Security Module (HSM) [What is an HSM?] [Load balancing (computing)] [What is Load Balancing?] Question #:45 A company is expanding its threat surface program and allowing individuals to security test the company’s internet-facing application. The company will compensate researchers based on the vulnerabilities discovered. Which of the followingbestdescribes the program the company is setting up? A. Open-source intelligence B. Bug bounty C. Red team D. Penetration testing Answer: B Explanation A bug bounty is a program that rewards security researchers for finding and reporting vulnerabilities in an application or system. Bug bounties are often used by companies to improve their security posture and incentivize ethical hacking. A bug bounty program typically defines the scope, rules, and compensation for the researchers. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1, page 10. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1, page 2. Question #:46 Which of the following vulnerabilities is exploited when an attacker overwrites a register with a malicious address? A. VM escape B. SQL injection C. Buffer overflow D. Race condition Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 29 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 Answer: C Explanation A buffer overflow is a vulnerability that occurs when an application writes more data to a memory buffer than it can hold, causing the excess data to overwrite adjacent memory locations. A register is a small storage area in the CPU that holds temporary data or instructions. An attacker can exploit a buffer overflow to overwrite a register with a malicious address that points to a shellcode, which is a piece of code that gives the attacker control over the system. By doing so, the attacker can bypass the normal execution flow of the application and execute arbitrary commands. References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2: Threats, Attacks, and Vulnerabilities, Section 2.3: Application Attacks, Page 76 1; Buffer Overflows - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 2.3 2 Question #:47 Which of the following would most likely mitigate the impact of an extended power outage on a company's environment? A. Hot site B. UPS C. Snapshots D. SOAR Answer: B Explanation A UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply) would most likely mitigate the impact of an extended power outage on a company's environment. A UPS provides backup power and ensures that systems continue to run during short-term power outages, giving enough time to perform an orderly shutdown or switch to a longer-term power solution like a generator. Hot site:A fully operational offsite data center that can be used if the primary site becomes unavailable. It’s more suitable for disaster recovery rather than mitigating short-term power outages. UPS:Provides immediate backup power, protecting against data loss and hardware damage during power interruptions. Snapshots:Used for data backup and recovery, not for power outage mitigation. SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response):A platform for automating security operations, not related to power outage mitigation. Question #:48 Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 30 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 Which of the following security concepts is being followed when implementing a product that offers protection against DDoS attacks? A. Availability B. Non-repudiation C. Integrity D. Confidentiality Answer: A Explanation When implementing a product that offers protection against Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks, the security concept being followed is availability. DDoS protection ensures that systems and services remain accessible to legitimate users even under attack, maintaining the availability of network resources. Availability:Ensures that systems and services are accessible when needed, which is directly addressed by DDoS protection. Non-repudiation:Ensures that actions or transactions cannot be denied by the involved parties, typically achieved through logging and digital signatures. Integrity:Ensures that data is accurate and has not been tampered with. Confidentiality:Ensures that information is accessible only to authorized individuals. Question #:49 An organization’s internet-facing website was compromised when an attacker exploited a buffer overflow. Which of the following should the organization deploy tobestprotect against similar attacks in the future? A. NGFW B. WAF C. TLS D. SD-WAN Answer: B Explanation A buffer overflow is a type of software vulnerability that occurs when an application writes more data to a memory buffer than it can hold, causing the excess data to overwrite adjacent memory locations. This can lead to unexpected behavior, such as crashes, errors, or code execution. A buffer overflow can be exploited by an attacker to inject malicious code or commands into the application, which can compromise the security and functionality of the system. An organization’s internet-facing website was compromised when an attacker Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 31 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 exploited a buffer overflow. To best protect against similar attacks in the future, the organization should deploy a web application firewall (WAF). A WAF is a type of firewall that monitors and filters the traffic between a web application and the internet. A WAF can detect and block common web attacks, such as buffer overflows, SQL injections, cross-site scripting (XSS), and more. A WAF can also enforce security policies and rules, such as input validation, output encoding, and encryption. A WAF can provide a layer of protection for the web application, preventing attackers from exploiting its vulnerabilities and compromising its data. References = Buffer Overflows – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 2.3, Web Application Firewalls – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 –2.4, [CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition] Question #:50 An organization would like to calculate the time needed to resolve a hardware issue with a server. Which of the following risk management processes describes this example? A. Recovery point objective B. Mean time between failures C. Recovery time objective D. Mean time to repair Answer: D Explanation Mean time to repair (MTTR) describes the time needed to resolve a hardware issue with a server. MTTR is a key metric in risk management and maintenance that measures the average time required to repair a failed component or system and restore it to operational status. Recovery point objective (RPO):Defines the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. It is the point in time to which data must be restored after a disaster. Mean time between failures (MTBF):Measures the average time between failures of a system or component, indicating reliability. Recovery time objective (RTO):Defines the maximum acceptable length of time to restore a system after a disaster or disruption. Mean time to repair (MTTR):Measures the average time required to repair a failed component or system. Question #:51 An organization is struggling with scaling issues on its VPN concentrator and internet circuit due to remote work. The organization is looking for a software solution that will allow it to reduce traffic on the VPN and internet circuit, while still providing encrypted tunnel access to the data center and monitoring of remote employee internet traffic. Which of the following will help achieve these objectives? A. Deploying a SASE solution to remote employees Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 32 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 B. Building a load-balanced VPN solution with redundant internet C. Purchasing a low-cost SD-WAN solution for VPN traffic D. Using a cloud provider to create additional VPN concentrators Answer: A Explanation SASE stands for Secure Access Service Edge. It is a cloud-based service that combines network and security functions into a single integrated solution. SASE can help reduce traffic on the VPN and internet circuit by providing secure and optimized access to the data center and cloud applications for remote employees. SASE can also monitor and enforce security policies on the remote employee internet traffic, regardless of their location or device. SASE can offer benefits such as lower costs, improved performance, scalability, and flexibility compared to traditional VPN solutions. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 457-458 1 Question #:52 Which of the following describes the process of concealing code or text inside a graphical image? A. Symmetric encryption B. Hashing C. Data masking D. Steganography Answer: D Explanation Steganography is the process of hiding information within another medium, such as an image, audio, video, or text file. The hidden information is not visible or noticeable to the casual observer, and can only be extracted by using a specific technique or key. Steganography can be used for various purposes, such as concealing secret messages, watermarking, or evading detection by antivirus software12 References: 1: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 5: Cryptography and PKI, page 233 2: CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 5: Cryptography and PKI, page 235 Question #:53 During a recent breach, employee credentials were compromised when a service desk employee issued an MFA bypass code to an attacker who called and posed as an employee. Which of the following should be used Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 33 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 to prevent this type of incident in the future? A. Hardware token MFA B. Biometrics C. Identity proofing D. Least privilege Answer: C Explanation To prevent the issuance of an MFA bypass code to an attacker posing as an employee, implementing identity proofing would be most effective. Identity proofing involves verifying the identity of individuals before granting access or providing sensitive information. Identity proofing:Ensures that the person requesting the MFA bypass is who they claim to be, thereby preventing social engineering attacks where attackers pose as legitimate employees. Hardware token MFA:Provides an additional factor for authentication but does not address verifying the requester's identity. Biometrics:Offers strong authentication based on physical characteristics but is not related to the process of issuing MFA bypass codes. Least privilege:Limits access rights for users to the bare minimum necessary to perform their work but does not prevent social engineering attacks targeting the service desk. Question #:54 Which of the following threat actors is themostlikely to use large financial resources to attack critical systems located in other countries? A. Insider B. Unskilled attacker C. Nation-state D. Hacktivist Answer: C Explanation A nation-state is a threat actor that is sponsored by a government or a political entity to conduct cyberattacks against other countries or organizations. Nation-states have large financial resources, advanced technical skills, and strategic objectives that may target critical systems such as military, energy, or infrastructure. Nation-states are often motivated by espionage, sabotage, or warfare12. References = 1: Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 34 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 542: Threat Actors – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 2.1, video by Professor Messer. Question #:55 Which of the following tools can assist with detecting an employee who has accidentally emailed a file containing a customer’s PII? A. SCAP B. Net Flow C. Antivirus D. DLP Answer: D Explanation DLP stands for Data Loss Prevention, which is a tool that can assist with detecting and preventing the unauthorized transmission or leakage of sensitive data, such as a customer’s PII (Personally Identifiable Information). DLP can monitor, filter, and block data in motion (such as emails), data at rest (such asfiles), and data in use (such as applications). DLP can also alert the sender, the recipient, or the administrator of the data breach, and apply remediation actions, such as encryption, quarantine, or deletion. DLP can help an organization comply with data protection regulations, such as GDPR, HIPAA, or PCI DSS, and protect its reputation and assets. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 78. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.5, page 11. Question #:56 A cyber operations team informs a security analyst about a new tactic malicious actors are using to compromise networks. SIEM alerts have not yet been configured. Which of the followingbestdescribes what the security analyst should do to identify this behavior? A. [Digital forensics B. E-discovery C. Incident response D. Threat hunting Answer: D Explanation Threat hunting is the process of proactively searching for signs of malicious activity or compromise in a Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 35 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 network, rather than waiting for alerts or indicators of compromise (IOCs) to appear. Threat hunting can help identify new tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) used by malicious actors, as well as uncover hidden or stealthy threats that may have evaded detection by security tools. Threat hunting requires a combination of skills, tools, and methodologies, such as hypothesis generation, data collection and analysis, threat intelligence, and incident response. Threat hunting can also help improve the security posture of an organization by providing feedback and recommendations for security improvements. References = CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 4.1: Given a scenario, analyze potential indicators of malicious activity. CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 4: Threat Detection and Response, page 153. Threat Hunting – SY0-701 CompTIA Security+ : 4.1, Video 3:18. CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam SY0-701 Practice Test 1, Question 3. Question #:57 A company's end users are reporting that they are unable to reach external websites. After reviewing the performance data for the DNS severs, the analyst discovers that the CPU, disk, and memory usage are minimal, but the network interface is flooded with inbound traffic. Network logs show only a small number of DNS queries sent to this server. Which of the following best describes what the security analyst is seeing? A. Concurrent session usage B. Secure DNS cryptographic downgrade C. On-path resource consumption D. Reflected denial of service Answer: D Explanation A reflected denial of service (RDoS) attack is a type of DDoS attack that uses spoofed source IP addresses to send requests to a third-party server, which then sends responses to the victim server. The attacker exploits the difference in size between the request and the response, which can amplify the amount of traffic sent to the victim server. The attacker also hides their identity by using the victim’s IP address as the source. A RDoS attack can target DNS servers by sending forged DNS queries that generate large DNS responses. This can flood the network interface of the DNS server and prevent it from serving legitimate requests from end users. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 215-216 1 Question #:58 An IT manager informs the entire help desk staff that only the IT manager and the help desk lead will have access to the administrator console of the help desk software. Which of the following security techniques is the IT manager setting up? A. Hardening B. Employee monitoring C. Configuration enforcement D. Least privilege Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 36 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 Answer: D Explanation The principle of least privilege is a security concept that limits access to resources to the minimum level needed for a user, a program, or a device to perform a legitimate function. It is a cybersecurity best practice that protects high-value data and assets from compromise or insider threat. Least privilege can be applied to different abstraction layers of a computing environment, such as processes, systems, or connected devices. However, it is rarely implemented in practice. In this scenario, the IT manager is setting up the principle of least privilege by restricting access to the administrator console of the help desk software to only two authorized users: the IT manager and the help desk lead. This way, the IT manager can prevent unauthorized or accidental changes to the software configuration, data, or functionality by other help desk staff. The other help desk staff will only have access to the normal user interface of the software, which is sufficient for them to perform their job functions. The other options are not correct. Hardening is the process of securing a system by reducing its surface of vulnerability, such as by removing unnecessary software, changing default passwords, or disabling unnecessary services. Employee monitoring is the surveillance of workers’ activity, such as by tracking web browsing, application use, keystrokes, or screenshots. Configuration enforcement is the process of ensuring that a system adheres to a predefined set of security settings, such as by applying a patch, a policy, or a template. References = https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Principle_of_least_privilege https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Principle_of_least_privilege Question #:59 Which of the following risk management strategies should an enterprise adopt first if a legacy application is critical to business operations and there are preventative controls that are not yet implemented? A. Mitigate B. Accept C. Transfer D. Avoid Answer: A Explanation Mitigate is the risk management strategy that involves reducing the likelihood or impact of a risk. If a legacy application is critical to business operations and there are preventative controls that are not yet implemented, the enterprise should adopt the mitigate strategy first to address the existing vulnerabilities and gaps in the Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 37 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 application. This could involve applying patches, updates, or configuration changes to the application, or adding additional layers of security controls around the application. Accept, transfer, and avoid are other risk management strategies, but they are not the best options for this scenario. Accept means acknowledging the risk and accepting the consequences without taking any action. Transfer means shifting the risk to a third party, such as an insurance company or a vendor. Avoid means eliminating the risk by removing the source or changing the process. These strategies may not be feasible or desirable for a legacy application that is critical to business operations and has no preventative controls in place. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 1221; A Risk-Based Framework for Legacy System Migration and Deprecation2 Question #:60 A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) wants to explicitly raise awareness about the increase of ransomware-as-a-service in a report to the management team. Which of the following best describes the threat actor in the CISO's report? A. Insider threat B. Hacktivist C. Nation-state D. Organized crime Answer: D Explanation Ransomware-as-a-service is a type of cybercrime where hackers sell or rent ransomware tools or services to other criminals who use them to launch attacks and extort money from victims. This is a typical example of organized crime, which is a group of criminals who work together to conduct illegal activities for profit. Organized crime is different from other types of threat actors, such as insider threats, hacktivists, or nation-states, who may have different motives, methods, or targets. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 17 1 Question #:61 A company's marketing department collects, modifies, and stores sensitive customer data. The infrastructure team is responsible for securing the data while in transit and at rest. Which of the following data roles describes the customer? A. Processor B. Custodian C. Subject D. Owner Answer: C Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 38 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 Explanation According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, data subjects are the individuals whose personal data is collected, processed, or stored by an organization. Data subjects have certain rights and expectations regarding how their data is handled, such as the right to access, correct, delete, or restrict their data. Data subjects are different from data owners, who are the individuals or entities that have the authority and responsibility to determine how data is classified, protected, and used.Data subjects are also different from data processors, who are the individuals or entities that perform operations on data on behalf of the data owner, such as collecting, modifying, storing, or transmitting data. Data subjects are also different from data custodians, who are the individuals or entities that implement the security controls and procedures specified by the data owner to protect data while in transit and at rest. ReferencesCompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2: Data Security, page 511 Question #:62 A systems administrator is configuring a site-to-site VPN between two branch offices. Some of the settings have already been configured correctly. The systems administrator has been provided the following requirements as part of completing the configuration: Most secure algorithms should be selected All traffic should be encrypted over the VPN A secret password will be used to authenticate the two VPN concentrators Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 39 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 40 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 41 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 42 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 See the Explanation part for all the Solution. Explanation To configure the site-to-site VPN between the two branch offices according to the provided requirements, here are the detailed steps and settings that need to be applied to the VPN concentrators: Most secure algorithms should be selected. All traffic should be encrypted over the VPN. A secret password will be used to authenticate the two VPN concentrators. Peer IP address:5.5.5.10 (The IP address of VPN Concentrator 2) Auth method:PSK (Pre-Shared Key) Negotiation mode:MAIN Encryption algorithm:AES256 Hash algorithm:SHA256 DH key group:14 Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 43 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 Mode:Tunnel Protocol:ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) Encryption algorithm:AES256 Hash algorithm:SHA256 Local network/mask:192.168.1.0/24 Remote network/mask:192.168.2.0/24 Peer IP address:5.5.5.5 (The IP address of VPN Concentrator 1) Auth method:PSK (Pre-Shared Key) Negotiation mode:MAIN Encryption algorithm:AES256 Hash algorithm:SHA256 DH key group:14 Mode:Tunnel Protocol:ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) Encryption algorithm:AES256 Hash algorithm:SHA256 Local network/mask:192.168.2.0/24 Remote network/mask:192.168.1.0/24 Peer IP Address:Set to the IP address of the remote VPN concentrator. Auth Method:PSK for using a pre-shared key. Negotiation Mode:MAIN for the initial setup. Encryption Algorithm:AES256, which is a strong and secure algorithm. Hash Algorithm:SHA256, which provides strong hashing. DH Key Group:14 for strong Diffie-Hellman key exchange. Phase 2 Protocol:ESP for encryption and integrity. Updated Dumps | Pass 100% 44 of 159 Verified Questions and Answers CompTIA - SY0-701 Local and Remote Networks:Properly configure the local and remote network addresses to match each branch office subnet. Requirements:VPN Concentrator 1 Configuration:Phase 1:Phase 2:VPN Concentrator 2 Configuration:Phase 1:Phase 2:Summary:By configuring these settings on both VPN concentrators, the site-to-site VPN will meet the requirements for strong security algorithms, encryption of all traffic, and authentication using a pre-shared key. Question #:63 A company is working with a vendor to perform a penetration test Which of the following includes an estimate about the number of hours required to complete the enga