SURAT Prelims mcqs 2 PDF Pharmacology Practice Questions 2024

## Department Of Pharmacology ### Government Medical College, Surat **Phase II M.B.B.S.- Batch 104** **Preliminary Theory Examination - Paper - 1** **14th November 2024** **Q-1 Multiple Choice Question (MCQs)** **Instructions:** - Encircle the single most appropriate answer. - Each question c...

## Department Of Pharmacology ### Government Medical College, Surat **Phase II M.B.B.S.- Batch 104** **Preliminary Theory Examination - Paper - 1** **14th November 2024** **Q-1 Multiple Choice Question (MCQs)** **Instructions:** - Encircle the single most appropriate answer. - Each question carries one mark and there is no negative marking. - Overwriting is not allowed. *** **➤ 'Essential drugs' are:** - Lifesaving drugs - Drugs that meet the priority health care needs of the population - Drugs that must be present in the emergency bag of a doctor - Drugs that are listed in the pharmacopeia of a country **➤ Which of the following adverse drug reactions is due to a specific genetic abnormality?** - Tetracycline induced sunburn like skin lesions - Quinidine induced thrombocytopenia - Metoclopramide induced muscle dystonia - Primaquine induced massive haemolysis **➤ The following attribute of a drug tends to reduce its volume of distribution:** - High lipid solubility - Low ionisation at physiological pH values - High plasma protein binding - High tissue binding **➤ Therapeutic drug monitoring of plasma concentration of antihypertensive drugs IS NOT practiced because:** - Determination of plasma level of these drugs is quite tedious and long process - It is easier to measure the effect of these drugs - Antihypertensive effect do not increase linearly with the dose - All antihypertensive drugs are prodrugs **➤ The mechanism by which Botulinum toxin produces skeletal muscle paralysis is by:** - Enhancing release of norepinephrine - Inhibiting release of acetylcholine - Direct damage to nerve endings - Producing haemolysis **➤ Neostigmine is preferred over physostigmine for treating myasthenia gravis because:** - It is better absorbed orally - It has longer duration of action - It has additional direct agonistic action on Nm receptors - It penetrates blood-brain barrier **➤ Which of the following anticholinergic drugs is primarily used in preanesthetic medication and during surgery?** - Glycopyrrolate - Pipenzolate methyl bromide - Isopropamide - Dicyclomine **➤ Which drug demonstrates tachyphylaxis?** - Tamoxifen - Ephedrine - Morphine - Chlorpromazine **➤ Phentolamine test is considered positive for pheochromocytoma if there is a:** - Rise in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and 25 mm Hg diastolic - Rise in systolic but fall in diastolic BP - Fall in both systolic and diastolic BP by less than 20 mm Hg - Fall in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and more than 25 mm Hg diastolic **➤ Which of the following analgesics itself frequently causes frontal headache as a side effect?** - Indomethacin - Mefenamic acid - Piroxicam - Metamizole **➤ The following antitussive is present in opium but has no analgesic or addicting properties:** - Noscapine - Pholcodine - Codeine - Ethyl morphine **➤ Relatively higher dose of theophylline is required to attain therapeutic plasma concentration in:** - Smokers - Congestive heart failure patients - Those receiving erythromycin - Those receiving cimetidine **➤ 'Second gas effect' is exerted by the following gas when co administered with halothane:** - Nitrous oxide - Cyclopropane - Nitrogen - Helium **➤ The following drug is used to reverse the CNS depression produced by diazepam:** - Dexamphetamine - Naloxone - Physostigmine - Flumazenil **➤ Olanzapine has the following features EXCEPT:** - It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action - It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions - It lowers seizure threshold - It reduces the patient's body weight **➤ Postoperative muscle soreness may be a side effect of the following neuromuscular blocker:** - d-tubocurarine - Succinylcholine - Pancuronium - Atracurium **➤ An opioid analgesic is preferred over aspirin like analgesic in the following condition:** - Acute gout - Burn - Toothache - Neuralgia **➤ Choose the correct statement about the use of propranolol in anxiety:** - Being non sedative, it is the drug of choice in chronic anxiety states - It suppresses the psychological component of anxiety - It suppresses the autonomic manifestations of acutely stressful situations - Both 'B' and 'C' are correct **➤ Indications of tricyclic antidepressants include the following EXCEPT:** - Attention deficit-hyperactive disorder in children - Mania - Prophylaxis of migraine - Panic disorder **➤ Dopamine is preferred in treatment of shock because of:** - Renal vasodilatory effect - Decreased cardiac output - Peripheral vasoconstriction - Prolonged action *** ## Department of Pharmacology, GMC, Surat **2nd MBBS (Batch 104),** **Preliminary Examination** **Date: 16th November 2024** **Q 1.: Multiple choice question** **Time: 20 Minutes** **Marks: 20** **Which of the following is not the use of acetazolamide?** - Glaucoma - Essential hypertension - Absence seizures - Acute mountain sickness **Which of the following toxicity increased when fibrates are used in combination with statins.** - Nephrotoxicity - Myopathy - Cholelithiasis - Dyspepsia **Which of the following agent is used for treatment of acute iron poisoning?** - Defepirome - Desferioxamine - Defrasirox - Sodium edetate **Which of the following fibrinolytic has more risk of bleeding?** - Urokinase - Duteplase - Alteplase - Tenecteplase **Digoxin toxicity is increased by:** - Hyperkalaemia - Hypokalaemia - Hypocalcaemia - Hypermagnesaemia **All of the following are the adverse effects of amiodarone EXCEPT** - Pulmonary fibrosis - Hypothyroidism - Systemic lupus erythematosus - Hyperthyroidism **Which of the following antihypertensive drug causes sedation?** - Clonidine - Hydralazine - Candesartan - Amlodipine **Which of the following flouro quinolone raises the concentration of warfarin?** - Ciprofloxacin - Levofloxacin - Sparfloxacin - Gemifloxacin **Which of the following antimicrobial agent is not active against pseudomonas aeruginosa?** - Ceftazidime - Aztreonam - Cefixime - Ceftolozane **Which of the following aminoglycoside is used for hepatic coma?** - Amikacin - Neomycin - Kanamycin - Arbekacin **Which of the following anti-TB drug is avoided in children less than 5 years of age?** - Isoniazid - Ethambutol - Rifampicin - Pyrazinamide **Testosterone is useful in all of the following conditions EXCEРТ** - Male infertility - Muscle wasting - Prostatic hypertrophy - Osteoporosis **Which of the condition is prevented by oral contraceptive pills?** - Ovarian cancer - Hepatic carcinoma - Cancer Cervix - Thrombosis **Which of the following calcium preparation is used by IV route?** - Calcium carbonate - Calcium lactate - Calcium gluconate - Calcium Citrate **Which of the following drug do not cause diarrhoea?** - Metoclopramide - Cefoperazone - Verapamil - Colchicine **All of the following antiemetic may cause acute muscle dystonia EXCEPT** - Chlorpromazine - Promethazine - Metoclopramide - Ondansetron **Drug causing osmotic diuresis is** - Mannitol - Isosorbide - Glycerol - All of the above **Methotrexate is used for the management of all of these conditions EXCEPT** - Rheumatoid arthritis - Psoriasis - Sickle cell anaemia - Organ transplantation **Mesalamine is used in** - Ulcerative colitis - Diabetes mellitus - Erectile dysfunction - Tinea corporis **Bisphosphonates acts by:** - Increasing the osteoid formation - Increasing the mineralization of osteoid - Decreasing osteoclast mediated resorption of bone - Decreasing parathyroid hormone secretion *** ## Microbiology Department ### Government Medical College, Surat **Preliminary Examination - November 2024** **SECOND MBBS** **MICROBIOLOGY (PAPER - 1)** **(Total: 100 marks)** **(Time: Three Hours)** **Instructions:** - Draw label diagram wherever required. - Write each section on separate supplementary. **Q.1 MCQ (1 mark× 20 MCQS)** **Section 1** **1) The resolving power of a microscope depends upon the:** - Focal length and aperture of the eye lens - Focal length and objective of the eye lens - Apertures of the objective and the eye lens - Wavelength of light illuminating the object **2) Which of the following bacteria resist decolourisation with 5% sulphuric acid in acid-fast staining?** - Nocardia - Legionella - Mycobacterium leprae - Mycobacterium tuberculosis **3) Incubation period refers to time duration:** - Between entry of pathogen and exit of pathogen in body - Between entry of pathogen in vector and entry in the host - Between entry of pathogen and manifestation of symptoms or signs in the host - Between entry of pathogen and its detection in the host **4) The rigidity of fungal cell walls is due to presence of:** - Protein - Chitin - Teichoic acid - Lipopolysaccharide **5) The most common direct microscopy method to visualise fungal elements from clinical samples is:** - KOH preparation - LPCB staining - Iodine mount - Albert stain **6) Trematodes are:** - Leaf-like, flat, unsegmented worms - Viviparous in nature - Need only one host to complete their life cycle - A body cavity is present between the body wall and intestine **7) Jumping genes are:** - Episomes - Plasmids - Transposons - Transfer factor **8) Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in polymerase chain reaction (PCR):** - Extraction, denaturation, annealing, extension - Denaturation, extraction, extension, annealing - Extension, annealing, denaturation, extraction - Annealing, extraction, denaturation, extension **9) Which of the following is a phenotypic method for microbial characterisation?** - Polymerase chain reaction - Microbial array - Ribotyping - Serotyping **10) Attenuation of a microorganism means:** - Enhancement of ils virulence - Reduction of its virulence - Its ability to produce teratogenicity - Ability of a microorganism to produce disease **11) What is a graft transplant between two genetically non-identical members of the same species called?** - Autograft - Isograft - Allograft - Xenograft **12) Which of the following fungus is capsulated?** - Candida - Rhodotorula - Pneumocystis - Cryptococcus **13) Which of the following is a dimorphic fungus?** - Histoplasma capsulatum - Cryptococcus neoformans - Candida albicans - Mucor species **14) 'Traveller's diarrhoea' is caused by:** - EPEC - ETEC - EIEC - EHEC **15) A 22-year-old man presents with complaints of acute-onset nausea and vomiting. His last meal was dinner ordered from a Chinese restaurant. What is the most likely etiological agent?** - Bacillus cereus - Clostridium botulinum - Salmonella Typhimurium - Staphylococcus aureus **16) Which helminth infection can be diagnosed using cello tape?** - Pinworm - Hookworm - Whipworm - Roundworm **17) Which of the following is the infectivity marker in hepatitis B infection?** - HBsAg - Anti-HBs - HBeAg - Anti-HBeAg **18) Cholangiocarcinoma is a complication of infection caused by:** - Plasmodium species - Entamoeba histolytica - Schistosomes - Clonorchis sinensis **19) The habitat of Fasciola hepatica is:** - Bile ducts and gall bladder - Small intestine - Large intestine - Duodenum **20) PAIR stands for:** - Puncture, aspiration, injection, and reaspiration - Puncture, aspiration, inspiration, and reaspiration - Penetration, aspiration, injection, and reaspiration - Puncture, aspiration, injection, and reinjection *** ## Microbiology department ### Government Medical College, Surat **Preliminary Examination - November 2024** **SECOND MBBS** **MICROBIOLOGY (PAPER - II)** **(Total: 100 marks)** **(Time: Three Hours)** **SECTION 01** **(Infections of skin soft tissues, musculoskeletal systems & Respiratory system Infections of the central nervous system, genitourinary system, Hospital-acquired Infections, Miscellaneous)** **Q.1 MCQS** **(1 x 20 = 20 marks)** **1) Which of the following specimens should be sent for the culture to diagnose catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI)** - Catheter Tip - Urine specimen from the urine bag - Urine specimen from a sample pot in the catheter tube - All of the above **2) Bipolar staining is characteristic of:** - Shigella - Klebsiella - Proteus - Yersinia pestis **3) What is the correct unidirectional workflow followed in the central sterile supply department (CSSD)?** - Decontamination area, Sterilization area, Packaging area, Sterile storage area. - Collection area, Decontamination area, Sterilization area, Sterile storage area. - Decontamination area, Packaging area, Sterilization area, Sterile storage area. - Decontamination area, Sterilization area, Sterile storage area, Packaging area,. **4) Highest risk of carcinoma cervix (squamous cell) is associated with which of the following Human papilloma virus serotypes?** - Serotypes 2 and 4 - Serotypes 27 and 57 - Serotypes 6 and 11 - Serotypes 16 and 18 **5) Which part of the hands is most frequently missed during handwashing?** - Palms - Fingertips and nails - Wrists - Thumb **6) Before the segregation of microbiological wastes, pre-treatment with what hypochlorite concentration is recommended?** - 1-2% - 5% - 10% - 15% **7) A patient presents with a frothy, yellowish-green vaginal discharge and itching. She also has a Strawberry appearance of vaginal mucosa. Which type of vulvovaginitis is most likely?** - Bacterial vaginosis - Vulvovaginal candidiasis - Trichomonal vaginitis - Atrophic vaginitis **8) Which of the following vaccines should be given to children older than 5 years as prophylaxis against whooping cough?** - Whole-cell pertussis vaccine - Acellular pertussis vaccine - Live attenuated vaccine - all of the above **9) What is the recommended method for detecting the toxin produced by Corynebacterium diphtheriae?** - ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay) - Immunodiffusion test - Elek test - Western blot **10) Which antibiotic is commonly used for the treatment of Neisseria meningitis in Adults?** - Erythromycin - Amoxicillin - Ceftriaxone - Doxycycline **11) In a patient, corneal scraping reveals narrow, acute-angled septate hyaline hyphae, which of the following is likely an etiologic agent?** - Aspergillus - Mucor - Histoplasma - Candida **12) Which of the following is a characteristic of influenza A virus that allows it to cause pandemics?** - Antigenic drift - Antigenic shift - Stable genome - Lack of animal reservoir **13) Which test can be used as an alternative to the Tuberculin Skin Test (TST) for detecting latent TB infection?** - IGRA (Interferon-Gamma Release Assays) - Chest X-ray - Sputum culture - MRI **14) Infectious mononucleosis caused by Epstein-Barr virus is also referred to as :** - The kissing disease - Hand-foot-and-mouth disease - Fifth disease - chickenpox **15) Which of the following parasites produces non-bile-stained eggs?** - Enterobius vermicularis - Hymenolepis nana - Ancylostoma duodenale - Schistosoma haematobium **16) The generation time of Mycobacterium leprae is:** - 15-20 minutes - 15-20 seconds - 12-13 days - 12-13 hours **17) Which of the following organisms is most commonly associated with fungal meningitis in immunocompromised patients?** - Candida albicans - Aspergillus fumigatus - Cryptococcus neoformans - Histoplasma capsulatum **18) Significant bacteriuria is defined as** - 100 bacteria/ml of urine - 1000 bacteria/ml of urine - 10,000 bacteria/ml of urine - 100,000 bacteria/ml of urine **19) Tzanck cell is seen in infection with** - Rabies virus - Adenovirus - Herpes simplex virus(HSV) - Cytomegalovirus(CMV) **20) Which of the following amoebae is associated with both CNS infections and keratitis (eye infections)?** - Acanthamoeba - Naegleria fowleri - Entamoeba histolytica - Balamuthia mandrillaris *** ## GOVT.MEDICAL COLLEGE, SURAT. **SECOND YEAR M.B.B.S. EXAMINATION** **PATHOLOGY THEORY -1 (PRELIMINARY-2024)** **TIME: 20 MINUTES** **BATCH: 104** **DATE:11/11/2024** **TOTAL MARKS: 20** **ROLL NO: (20)** **Name:** **Section-I** **Q:1 Multiple choice questions (*no negative markings)** **Instructions:** - Each question carries one mark. - Encircle the correct answer. **1) Which among the following is not a neoplastic virus:** - Cytomegalovirus - Hepatitis B virus - Human papilloma virus - All of these **2) Most common vascular Tumor in AIDS patient is** - Chondrosarcoma - Lymphangiosarcoma - Kaposi sarcoma - Lymphoma. **3) Heart failure cells are seen in** - Chronic venous congestion Liver - Chronic venous congestion Lung - Acute venous congestion of Lung - Acute venous congestion of Liver **4) The excretion of less than 400 ml of urine per day is called.** - Anuria - Hypouria - Nocturia - Oliguria **5) A 60-year male presented with pain in chest, radiating to left arm. Treating cardiologist found occlusion of coronary vessels during angiography. Which type of necrosis is seen in heart this condition?** - Fat necrosis - Caseous necrosis - Coagulative necrosis - Colliquative necrosis **6) Eosinophils are activated by** - IL-1 - IL-4 - IL-5 - IL-6 **7) Hematoxylin bodies are seen in** - Systemic lupus erythematous - Polyarteritis nodosa - Rheumatoid arthritis - Wegener's granulomatosis **8) In Amyloidosis, Beta pleated sheet will be seen in** - X ray crystallography - Electron microscope - Spiral electron microscope - Congo red stain **9) Father of cellular pathology is:** - Carl Rokitansky - G. Morgagni - Rudolf Virchow - FT Schwann **10) The tumor suppressor gene p53 induces cell cycle arrest at:** - G2-M phase - S-G2 phase - G1-S phase - G0 phase **11) Calcification of soft tissue without any disturbance of calcium metabolism is called** - Inotrophic calcification - Monotrophic calcification - Dystrophic calcification - Calcium induced calcification **12) Line of Zahn occurs in.** - Post-mortem clot - Infarct - Embolus - Coralline thrombus **13) Lepromin test always positive in** - Lepromatous leprosy - Tuberculoid leprosy - Borderline Lepromatous leprosy - Indeterminate leprosy **14) The fixative used in histopathology** - 10% buffered neutral formalin - Bouin's fixative - Glutaraldehyde - Ethyl alcohol **15) Which of the following can be used to store blood for up to 35 days?** - Acid citrate dextrose - Citrate phosphate 2 dextrose - Citrate phosphate dextrose - Citrate phosphate dextrose adenine -1 **16) Most common blood transfusion reaction is** - Febrile non haemolytic reaction - Haemolysis - Transmission of infection - Electrolyte imbalance **17) Match the column and identify the correct answer** | | | |---|---| | a) PAS Stain | 1) Glycogen | | b) Oil Red O Stain | 2) Fat | | c) Congo Red Stain | 3) Melanin | | d) Fontana Masson Stain | 4) Amyloid | - a-2/b-3/c-1/d-4 - a-3/b-1/c-4/d-2 - a-1/b-2/c-4/d-3 - a-1/b-2/c-3/d-4 **18) Hyperacute rejection is due to** - Preformed antibodies - Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte mediated injury - Circulating macrophage mediated injury - Endotheliitis caused by donor antibodies **19) Specific binding of the HIV to the CD4 receptors occurs via which of these?** - gp120 - gp 41 - CCR5 - CXCR4 **20) Karyotyping is done for** - Chromosomal disorder - Autosomal recessive disorder - Autosomal dominant disorder - Linkage disorder *** ## GOVT.MEDICAL COLLEGE, SURAT. **SECOND YEAR M.B.B.S. EXAMINATION** **PATHOLOGY THEORY -2 (PRELIMINARY-2024)** **TIME: 20 MINUTES** **BATCH: 104** **DATE: 12/11/2024** **TOTAL MARKS: 20** **ROLL NO. (20)** **Name:** **Section- I** **Q:1 Multiple choice questions (*no negative markings)** **Instructions:** - Each question carries one mark - Encircle the correct answer. **1) Which of the following is true about Barrett's oesophagus?** - Squamous to columnar metaplasia - Columnar to squamous metaplasia - Does not increase risk of malignancy. - none of the above **2) Steatosis is not seen in :** - Hepatitis B infection - Hepatitis C infection - Alcoholic person - Protein malnutrition **3) All are germ cell tumors except:** - Seminoma - Leydig cell tumor - Embryonal carcinoma - Endodermal sinus tumor **4) Osmotic fragility is increased in:** - Sickle cell anemia - Thalassemia - Hereditary spherocytosis - Chronic lead poisoning **5) Based on epidemiological studies, which of the following has been found to be most protective against colon cancer?** - High fibre diet - Low fat diet - Low selenium diet - Low protein diet **6) A21-year-old female Hb- 8 g/dl, RBC count 5 million, MCV- 55 fl, total count- 8000, no history of blood transfusion. What is the diagnosis?** - Iron deficiency anemia - Thalassemia major - Thalassemia minor - Megaloblastic anemia **7) Ewing's sarcoma arises from:** - G cell - Totipotent cells - Neuroectodermal cells - Neurons **8) Krukenberg's adenocarcinoma of ovary can occur as a result of metastasis from all except:** - Stomach - Breast - Liver - Pancreas **9) The following type of carcinoma of breast is characterised by Indian file pattern of tumour cells:** - Medullary carcinoma - Invasive lobular carcinoma - Invasive ductal carcinoma - Paget's Carcinoma **10) Most common thyroid carcinoma post radiation exposure:** - Papillary carcinoma - Medullary carcinoma - Follicular carcinoma - None of the above **11) Which of the following carcinomas most frequently metastasizes to the brain?** - Prostate cancer - Small cell carcinoma of lung - Rectal carcinoma - Endometrial cancer **12) Flea bitten kidney is seen in all except :** - Subacute bacterial endocarditis - Malignant hypertension - Haemolytic uremic syndrome - Diabetic nephropathy **13) Libman sacks endocarditis is seen in:** - Rheumatoid arthritis - Systemic lupus erythematous - Rheumatic fever - Polyarteritis nodosa **14) Anthracosis is due to inhalation of:** - Coal dust - Asbestos dust - Silica dust - Beryllium dust **15) All are causes of splenomegaly except:** - Malaria - Kala azar - Hemolytic anemia - Aplastic anemia **16) Which of the following cause Laennec cirrhosis?** - Alcohol - Hemochromatosis - Hepatitis B - Hepatitis C **17) Most common type of carcinoma of lung is:** - Small cell carcinoma - Adenocarcinoma - Squamous cell carcinoma - Large cell carcinoma **18) Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children:** - Membranous glomerulonephritis - Minimal change disease - Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis - Rapid progressive glomerulonephritis **19) Syphilitic aneurysm mostly involves:** - Arch of aorta - Descending aorta - Abdominal aorta above renal arteries - Abdominal aorta below renal arteries **20) Auer rods are seen in:** - Lymphoblast - Myeloblast - Erythroblast - Megakaryoblast