Science 7 2nd Quarter Final RUQA PDF

Regional Unified Quarterly Assessment Second Quarter SCIENCE 7 Direction: Encircle the letter of your best answer. (For numbers 1 – 5) Analyze the given diagram below and answer the following questions: 1. Based on the given diagram,...

Regional Unified Quarterly Assessment Second Quarter SCIENCE 7 Direction: Encircle the letter of your best answer. (For numbers 1 – 5) Analyze the given diagram below and answer the following questions: 1. Based on the given diagram, this shows a device that is used to ________. a. form magnified images of distant objects b. form magnified images from bigger objects c. see organisms or objects that are too small to be seen by the naked eye d. see planets and other heavenly bodies in the outer space 2. The following are the labeled parts of the microscope paired with its function correctly, EXCEPT. a. Label A : where the viewer looks the magnified image of the specimen b. Label D : it collects and focuses the light from the mirror to the specimen c. Label F : where the mounted slide is placed. d. Label G : it reflects light from an external light source  3. Which of the following labeled parts of the microscope play a key role in the magnification of the specimen? a. Labels A and D b. Labels F and G c. Labels E and I d. Labels H and I 4. What will happen to the microscope if you will remove its part labeled with F? a. It cannot hold the different objective lens and facilitate the changing of objectives. b. The magnification of the specimen cannot be done. c. It cannot tilt at a certain angle for comfortable viewing of the specimen. d. There will be no surface for the specimen to be placed. 5. Can the microscope still be in function if you remove the part labeled with G? a. Yes, because the light will automatically reflect towards the objective lens even without this part. b. No, because this part plays a role in reflecting the light source towards the specimen. c. Yes, because this part is not necessary for the microscope thus removing it is a must. d. No, because there will be no surface for the specimen to be placed if we remove this Part. 6. Suppose you borrow a compound microscope in the Science laboratory for your performance task. Upon borrowing the compound microscope, you noticed that there is moisture found in the eyepiece. Which of the following is the BEST thing you should do? a. Wipe its moisture with old T-shirt before using it b. Wipe its moisture using the lens paper before using it c. Report it immediately to the Laboratory-in-charge and ask for new compound microscope d. Ignore the problem and continue on using the compound microscope (For numbers 7 – 10) Suppose that your science teacher gives you a task on observing 2 different cells (cells A and B) under a microscope. Before you can observe its part, you must need to achieve the image as shown below: Cells A Magnification = 400X Cells B Magnification = 400X Source: https://fankhauserblog.wordpress.com/1993/09/25/cells-the-functional-units-of-organisms/ Source:https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:Human_Cheek_Cells_%28Methylene_Blue_Stain%29.jpg 7. Which part of the microscope should be adjusted? a. Mirror b. Iris diaphragm c. Objective lens d. Inclination joint 8. What are the lenses with corresponding magnifying power should be used in order to achieve its magnification? a. Eyepiece (10x) and Low Power Objective Lens (10x)  b. Eyepiece (10x) and Oil Immersion Objective Lens (100x) c. Eyepiece (10x) and High Power Objective Lens (35x) d. Eyepiece (10x) and High Power Objective Lens (40x) 9. Upon observing the image in cells A and B in a compound microscope, there is a dark stained dot found inside each of the following cells. This feature refers to a part of a cell called ____. a. nucleus b. cell membrane c. cytoplasm d. vacuole 10. The following are correct conclusions with respect to cells A and B, EXCEPT a. Cells A are plant cells because they have irregular in shape and don’t have cell wall as observed in the microscope b. Cells A are plant cells because they have distinct boundaries and are closely packed to each other as observed in the microscope c. Cells B are animal cells because there are no distinct cell walls as observed in the microscope d. Cells B are animal cells because their shapes are irregular as observed in the microscope 11. When preparing a slide for microscopy, which of the following techniques would best enhance the visibility of cell structures? a. Using a thicker layer of the specimen b. Staining the specimen with a specific dye c. Increasing the light intensity without adjusting the diaphragm d. Observing the specimen under a low magnification only 12. After observing a cell under a microscope, you notice certain organelles are not clearly visible. Which adjustment would likely provide the best improvement in clarity and detail? a. Switching to a lower power objective lens b. Adjusting the condenser to focus the light more effectively c. Moving the slide rapidly to find a different area d. Decreasing the illumination by closing the diaphragm 13. You are tasked with comparing the structures of plants and animal cells using a microscope. Which approach would most effectively facilitate this comparison? a. Observing only one type of cell at a time b. Using a prepared slide of each cell type side by side c. Focusing solely on the nucleus of each cell d. Sketching the cells from memory after viewing them 14. When observing a plant cell under a microscope, you notice distinct green structures. What is the best explanation for this observation? a. They are cell walls providing support. b. They are ribosomes involved in protein synthesis. c. They are chloroplasts responsible for photosynthesis. d. They are mitochondria producing energy. (For nos. 15-18). Read the text below. About 4 billion years ago, the first tiny, single-celled organisms, like bacteria, appeared in the oceans. As time went on, these simple cells became more complex, leading to the rise of eukaryotes. Around 1 billion years ago, some of these cells began to aggregate and specialize, forming simple multicellular organisms that could collaborate to perform various functions. This teamwork allowed for the development of more complex creatures, like sponges and algae, about 600 million years ago. Today, both single-celled and many-celled organisms thrive, showing the amazing variety of life on Earth. 15. What key event occurred around 1 billion years ago that marked a significant step in the evolution of life? a. The formation of Earth’s primordial soup b. The emergence of complex eukaryotic cells c. The beginning of multicellularity with cells aggregating and forming colonies d. The appearance of diverse life forms like whales 16. How did the evolution of eukaryotic cells contribute to the development of multicellular organisms? a. Their complexity allowed for cooperation and specialization among cells. b. They remained isolated and unchanged. c. They created a hostile environment for unicellular organisms. d. They only reproduced through binary fission. 17. In what way does the timeline of unicellular and multicellular organisms illustrate the concept of evolution? a. It shows that all life began as multicellular organisms. b. It highlights the gradual changes and adaptations over billions of years. c. It indicates that unicellular organisms are now extinct. d. It suggests that life on Earth has remained unchanged for millions of years. 18. Considering the diversity of life today, what might be the ecological impact of having both unicellular and multicellular organisms coexisting? a. Unicellular organisms will outcompete multicellular ones and lead to their extinction. b. The interaction between both types of organisms can create balanced ecosystems. c. Multicellular organisms will completely dominate and eliminate unicellular ones. d. There is no significant impact since they occupy different environments. 19. As part of the special science project, you were asked to design an experiment to investigate how a unicellular organism and a multicellular organism respond to a change in their environment. What do you predict the outcomes will be, and why? a. Both will respond the same way due to similar structures b. The unicellular organism will adapt more quickly due to its simple structure c. The multicellular organism will adapt more quickly due to its complex structure d. Neither will adapt to environmental changes 20. What characteristic distinguishes eukaryotic cells from the earlier unicellular organisms? a. They lack a nucleus. b. They are always multicellular. c. They have a defined nucleus and more complex structures. d. They do not reproduce. 21. Which statement best explains why multicellular organisms can perform specialized functions? a. All cells in a multicellular organism perform the same functions. b. Some cells can take on specific roles, allowing for increased efficiency. c. Multicellular organisms are always larger than unicellular ones. d. Specialization is not necessary for survival in multicellular organisms. 22. Why was the development of multicellular organisms a significant evolutionary step? a. It allowed organisms to reproduce more quickly. b. It enabled greater complexity and adaptability in various environments. c. It marked the end of unicellular organisms. d. It reduced competition among cells. 23. What role do unicellular organisms play in today's ecosystems alongside multicellular organisms? a. They compete with multicellular organisms for resources only. b. They are insignificant and do not affect the ecosystem. c. They only exist in extreme environments. d. They contribute to nutrient cycling and support various food webs. (For nos. 24-27). Read the scenario below. Students are tasked with observing two types of cells under a microscope: a plant cell from a leaf and an animal cell from a cheek swab. As they compare the two, they notice the plant cell’s rigid cell wall and green chloroplasts, which gleam under the light, indicating its ability to photosynthesize. In contrast, the animal cell appears more irregular in shape, with no cell wall, showcasing its flexibility. One student points out the large central vacuole in the plant cell, explaining how it helps maintain turgor pressure, while other highlights the numerous mitochondria in the animal cell, emphasizing its role in energy production. Together, they discuss how these structural differences reflect each cell's unique functions and adaptations in their respective environments. 24. Reflecting on the role of chloroplasts in plant cells, how might the absence of chloroplasts impact a plant’s survival in an environment with limited sunlight? a. The plant would grow larger to capture more light. b. The plant would struggle to produce energy through photosynthesis, affecting its growth and reproduction.  c. The plant would rely solely on soil nutrients for energy. d. The absence would have little impact, as plants can adapt to any condition. 25. Considering the function of the cell wall in plant cells, how would the absence of this structure affect a plant's interaction with its environment during a storm? a. The plant would be able to bend easily without breaking. b. The plant would thrive by absorbing more water. c. The absence of a cell wall would make the plant grow faster. d) The plant would likely sustain severe damage due to lack of structural support. 26. How does the presence of mitochondria in animal cells support their ability to perform high-energy activities compared to plant cells? a. Mitochondria provide structural support during movement. b. They generate ATP efficiently, enabling rapid energy release needed for active processes. c. Mitochondria are not involved in energy production; animal cells rely on chloroplasts. d. Mitochondria allow animal cells to photosynthesize like plant cells. 27. In what ways do the different roles of vacuoles in plant and animal cells reflect their adaptations to environmental challenges? a. Plant vacuoles provide energy storage, while animal vacuoles are mainly for digestion. b. Vacuoles are irrelevant to cell survival in both plant and animal c cells. c. The large central vacuole in plant cells maintains turgor pressure, while animal vacuoles help in waste management and nutrient storage, allowing both to survive in varying conditions. d. Both types of vacuoles function identically, only varying in size. (For nos. 28-32). Refer to the diagram below. https://www.google.com/url?dreamstime.com 28. Based on the picture shown, which cell represents the animal cell? a. Cell A b. Cell B c. Cell C d. Both Cell A & Cell C 29. What structures are present in the three cells? a. nucleus, cytoplasm, mitochondria b. cytoplasm, cell membrane, ribosomes c. cell wall, nucleus, vacuole d. endoplasmic reticulum, flagella, chloroplast 30. Which structure represents nucleus? a. 1 and 5 b. 2 and 6 c. 3 and 4 d. 7 and 2 31. What characteristic is true about vacuoles in plant and animal cells? a. Both cell types have large central vacuoles. b. Plant cells have one large vacuole, while animal cells have smaller, multiple vacuoles. c. Animal cells have a large central vacuole, while plant cells do not. d. Vacuoles are absent in both plant and animal cells. 32. If you were to look at a microscopic image of an animal cell, which of the following features would you most likely identify? a. Large central vacuole c. Chloroplasts b. Irregular shape without a rigid structure d. Cell wall (For nos. 33-35).Mitosis divides a eukaryotic cell’s chromosomes into two identical daughter cells, wherein mitotic cell division produces the cells needed for growth, development, and tissue repair. Mitosis is divided into four stages. 33. Which phase of mitosis is characterized by the chromosomes aligning at the cell's equator? a. Prophase b. Metaphase c. Anaphase d. Telophase 34. During which phases of mitosis do the following events occur: the nuclear envelope breaks down, chromosomes separate to opposite poles, and the cell splits into two daughter cells? a. Prophase, Anaphase, Telophase b. Metaphase, Anaphase, Cytokinesis c. Prophase, Metaphase, Telophase d. Prophase, Telophase, Cytokinesis 35. During the process of cell division, chromosomes undergo significant changes in structure and position, particularly during anaphase. Explain how these changes ensure the accurate distribution of genetic material to the daughter cells. a. Chromosomes condensed to form visible structures. b. Chromosomes line up at the equator. c. Sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles, ensuring each daughter cell receives an identical set of chromosomes. d. The nuclear envelope re-forms around each set of chromosomes. (For nos.36-42). Meiosis is a type of cell division in sexually reproducing organisms that reduces the number of chromosomes in gametes (the sex cells, or egg and sperm). Meiosis contains two separate cell divisions, meaning that one parent cell can produce four gametes (eggs in females, sperm in males). In each round of division, cells go through four stages: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. Meiosis I is the first round of cell division, in which the goal is to separate homologous pairs. The second round of cell division is meiosis II, in which the goal is to separate sister chromatids. 36. In prophase I of meiosis, what significant event occurs that contributes to genetic diversity? a. Chromosomes line up at the equator. b. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes. c. Sister chromatids separate. d. Nuclear membrane reforms. 37. Describe the sequence of events that occur during meiosis I, focusing on the key features of prophase I, metaphase I, anaphase I, and telophase I. a. Chromosomes condense, homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange segments, homologous pairs align at the equator, homologous chromosomes separate to opposite poles, cells divide. b. Chromosomes condense, sister chromatids align at the equator, sister chromatids separate to opposite poles, cells divide. c. Chromosomes replicate, homologous chromosomes align randomly, homologous chromosomes separate, cells divide. d. Chromosomes condense, homologous chromosomes align at the equator, sister chromatids separate to opposite poles, nuclear envelope reforms. 38. How do the processes of metaphase I and anaphase I in meiosis contribute to genetic variation in the resulting gametes? a. Homologous chromosomes align randomly at the equator during metaphase I, and then homologous chromosomes are pulled to opposite poles during anaphase I, resulting in a mix of maternal and paternal chromosomes in each gamete. b. Sister chromatids align at the equator during metaphase I, and sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles during anaphase I, ensuring genetic diversity. c. Homologous chromosomes align in pairs at the equator during metaphase I, and sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles during anaphase I, increasing genetic variation.  d. Chromosomes replicate during metaphase I, and then homologous chromosomes are pulled to opposite poles during anaphase I, ensuring that each gamete receives an identical set of chromosomes. 39. Imagine a situation where nondisjunction occurs during anaphase I or anaphase II of meiosis. Predict and explain the potential consequences of such errors on the genetic makeup of the resulting gametes and, ultimately, the offspring. a. Nondisjunction during anaphase I would result in gametes with missing or extra chromosomes, potentially leading to disorders like Down syndrome or Turner syndrome in the offspring. b. Nondisjunction during anaphase II would have no effect on the genetic makeup of the gametes or the offspring. c. Nondisjunction during anaphase I or II would result in genetically identical gametes, increasing the likelihood of inherited disorders. d. Nondisjunction would cause all gametes to have identical chromosome numbers, leading to normal offspring. 40. How many cell divisions occur during meiosis? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four 41. Which statement accurately describes the type of cells produced by mitosis and meiosis? a. Mitosis produces four identical gametes; meiosis produces two somatic cells. b. Mitosis produces two identical somatic cells; meiosis produces four genetically diverse gametes. c. Mitosis produces two genetically diverse somatic cells; meiosis produces four identical gametes. d. Mitosis produces four somatic cells; meiosis produces two genetically identical gametes. (For nos. 42-44) Refer to the situation below. Imagine a child who has fallen and scraped their knee. The wound starts as a small cut, but the body's immediate response involves a crucial process—mitosis. As the cells at the site of the injury begin to divide, they produce new cells to replace the damaged ones, effectively closing the wound and restoring the skin's integrity. This process of mitosis is not just about repairing the cut; it's essential for overall growth and maintaining healthy tissue. Without efficient mitosis, the healing process would be significantly delayed, and proper tissue regeneration would be compromised. Mitosis ensures that the cells required for growth, repair, and maintenance are consistently produced, keeping the body functional and resilient. 42. Which process is primarily responsible for the generation of new cells to repair the torn muscle? a. Meiosis b. Mitosis c. Photosynthesis d. Respiration 43. In addition to muscle repair, which of the following are examples where mitosis plays a crucial role in cell growth and repair? (Choose all that apply) I. Skin regeneration after a cut  II. Formation of gametes III. Growth of plants IV. Healing of broken bones a. I,II,III b. I,II,IV c. I,III,IV d. II,III,IV 44. How does mitosis ensure proper healing of damaged tissues in the body, such as in the case of a torn muscle? a. By producing genetically identical cells that replace the damaged cells, ensuring tissue function is restored. b. By creating genetically diverse cells to replace the damaged ones, increasing the chance of successful repair. c. By eliminating damaged cells and preventing further damage without creating new cells. d. By forming gametes that will develop into new tissue. 45. A pharmaceutical company, BioTech Innovations, has developed a groundbreaking medication called MitosisMax that significantly enhances the speed of mitosis. This medication is designed to be administered to patients suffering from conditions that impair cell growth and repair, such as severe injuries, chronic wounds, or degenerative diseases. Predict and explain the potential benefits and risks of such a medication on cell growth and repair in the human body. a. The medication could significantly speed up healing processes, leading to faster recovery from injuries and surgeries, but it might also increase the risk of uncontrolled cell growth, potentially causing cancer. b. The medication would enhance genetic diversity in repaired tissues, improving their function and adaptability but might slow down the overall healing process. c. The medication would prevent any cell growth, leading to reduced risk of cancer, but would also hinder the body's ability to repair itself after injuries. d. The medication would have no impact on the healing process but would improve the overall strength of the cells. (For nos. 46-49 )Refer to illustration below. The process by which sperm are produced in male animals is called spermatogenesis. Spermatogenesis occurs in the testes (male reproductive organs). As illustrated in the figure below, a diploid cell first increases in size and becomes a large immature cell (germ cell). The large cell then undergoes meiosis I. Two cells are produced, each of which undergoes meiosis II to form a total of four haploid cells. The four cells change in form and develop a tail to become male gametes called sperm. 46. Which of the following correctly describes the result of spermatogenesis? a. One diploid cell produces two haploid sperm cells. b. One diploid cell undergoes meiosis to produce four diploid sperm cells. c. One diploid cell undergoes meiosis to produce four haploid sperm cells. d. Two diploid cells each undergo meiosis to produce four haploid sperm cells. 47. In terms of gamete production, how do the processes of spermatogenesis and oogenesis differ, and what implications do these differences have for reproductive biology? a. Both processes involve meiosis, but spermatogenesis produces four functional gametes from one diploid cell, while oogenesis produces one functional gamete and three non-functional polar bodies. This difference reflects the distinct roles each process plays in male and female reproduction. b. Spermatogenesis and oogenesis are identical processes, both resulting in four functional gametes. This similarity indicates that both sexes contribute equally to offspring development. c. While spermatogenesis produces two functional gametes from one diploid cell, oogenesis produces four functional gametes. This suggests that both processes are equally efficient in gamete production. d. Spermatogenesis involves the production of one functional gamete and three polar bodies, while oogenesis results in four functional gametes. This reflects the greater importance of spermatogenesis in overall reproductive success. 48. How many parents are involved in asexual reproduction? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four For no 49. A group of students are presented with a diagram illustrating the different levels of biological organization as shown below. 49. Which of the following represents the correct hierarchical order of biological organization from the smallest to the largest scale? a Cells, tissues, organs, biosphere b Organisms, populations, communities, ecosystems c. Cells, organs, organisms, biosphere d. Tissues, populations, ecosystems, biosphere For no 50. Refer to the illustration below on trophic level in a food chain. 50. Identify the different trophic levels in a food chain consisting of corn, chicken, snake, and eagle. a. Primary consumers, secondary consumers, tertiary consumers, decomposers b. Producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, tertiary consumers c. Autotrophs, herbivores, carnivores, omnivores d. Plants, insects, mammals, birds