SAMRAT SECURITY TRAINING SCHOOL (1).pdf

SAMRAT SECURITY TRAINING SCHOOL 1. Under Criminal law, the cases usually involve persons or groups liable for something being ordered to pay a sum of money to another person or group as a form of restitution? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 2. SPs must pr...

SAMRAT SECURITY TRAINING SCHOOL 1. Under Criminal law, the cases usually involve persons or groups liable for something being ordered to pay a sum of money to another person or group as a form of restitution? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 2. SPs must produce their security worker license only if requested by a police officer or a representative of a regulatory agency? A. True B. False C. All D. None 3. What does the term "Public Security" refer to? A. Contract security companies B. In - house security operations C. Police services provided by municipal, provincial, and federal government agencies D. All of the above 4. How should SPs begin every encounter with a subject? A. By describing the course of action that the SP would like the other person to take B. By correctly identifying themselves, including their functions and main concern C. By showing the subject who's the boss D. A and B 5. The term "static duties" means activities that an SPs performs within a building or complex? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 6. What regulatory agency is responsible for investigating public complaints against SP or security business? A. Justice institute B. Work Safe BC C. Security programs and Police Technology Division D. None of the above 7. The security provided by companies who sell their services to clients are called? A. Public security operations B. In-house security operations C. Environmental security operations D. D. None of the above 8. Under what conditions may the police enter private property? A. Executing a warrant to arrest B. Executing a search warrant C. Responding to a crime in progress D. All of the above 9. Human rights legislation can override other laws, including provincial and municipal statues? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 10. Section 7 of The Charter of Rights and Freedom states that everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of the person. This right also includes? A. The right to resist arrest B. The right not to be deprived of these rights C. The right to speak to a judge D. All of the above 11. Trespassing becomes an assault by a trespasser when the trespasser actively resists being removed from the property? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 12. The SPs need to complete what type of reports? A. Administrative B. Legal C. Operational D. A and C 13. If someone threatens to strike you in order to grab your wallet, what offense is that person committing? A. Assault B. Theft C. Robbery D. Assault with a weapon 14. Most encounters that SPs face may be resolved through? A. Presence B. Physical control C. Weaponless impact D. Communication 15. During conversations with his or her lawyer, what does an arrested person have the right to? A. Two free telephone calls B. Privacy C. A court recorder D. All Of the above 16. Which of the following are covered under the Security Service Act? A. Security Guard Service B. Locksmith C. Alarm Service D. All of the above 17. Before using force, what must SPs ensure? A. They are acting within their legal duty B. They have good reasons for their actions C. They use only reasonable force necessary to achieve their purpose D. All of the above 18. An arrest occurs when an SP deprives a person of his or her ______________ either temporarily or permanently? A. Identification documents B. Belongings C. Liberty D. Rights 19. When an SP arrests someone they must? A. Do riot as you do not have arrest powers B. Do it quickly and efficiently C. Read The Charter warning to the arrested person D. B and D 20. An SP must document a use of force incident only if the subject was seriously injured? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 21. What are the first steps in the incident response process in the correct order? A. Assess, negotiate, act B. Plan, assess, act C. Assess, plan, act D. Negotiate, assess, act 22. A person breaks a jewelry shop window and goes in and steals something from the shop. This is an example of? A. Robbery B. Break and enter C. Causing a disturbance D. Joy Riding 23. Ethical standards require that people act in a manner that is consistent with? A. A complete understanding of their lawful authority and professional responsibilities and a careful consideration of the facts of each situation B. Their own interests C. The team interests D. All of the above 24. Which of the following statement (s) is TRUE? A. The Criminal Code prohibits the use of deadly force B. The Criminal Code prohibits the use of excessive force C. The Criminal Code imposes limits on the use of deadly force D. B and C 25. SPs may continue to keep their security worker license even if they stop working in the field? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 26. When an SP arrests a person he is required to turn the arrested person over to the police? A. Within two hours B. Within 24 hours C. Immediately (Forthwith) D. If the offense committed was a dual offense 27. If a person is assaulting you, when can you use force? A. If the offense committed was a dual offense B. If the person is unlawfully assaulting, you C. You do not intend to cause death or serious pain and use only necessary amount of force to defend yourself D. All of the Above 28. A woman is confronted by her ex-husband in the lobby of a building, an argument arises between two of them and the two begin cursing and yelling at each other. This is an example of? A. Causing a disturbance B. Mischief C. Assault D. None of the above 29. Section 8 of The Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedom states that everyone has the right to? A. Speak their mind B. Obstruct a police investigation C. To form associations D. Be secure against unreasonable search and seizure 30. If an SP observes unethical or illegal acts by a colleague, what must he or she do? A. Talk with the employee B. Call The Police C. Inform the appropriate authority D. Ignore his or her acts 31. The key elements of The Charter warning are? A. Stating that you are placing the person under arrest B. Stating the reason for the arrest C. Stating that the person has the right to retain and instruct counsel without delay D. All of the above 32. What legislation enables the public to enjoy the equality rights guaranteed under The Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedom? A. Human Rights B. Discrimination C. Equality D. Charte 33. Which of the following governs the protection of human rights in BC? A. Good Samaritan Act B. BC Human Rights Code C. Canadian Human Rights Act D. B and C 34. The People who have internalized inaccurate beliefs about other people are? A. Diversity B. Problem solving approach C. Ethics D. Stereotype 35. Which of the following governs the actions of aggressive panhandlers? A. Good Samaritan Act B. Safe Streets Act C. Liability Act D. Youth Criminal Justice Act 36. What is a summary offense? A. An offense that is more serious than an indictable offense B. An offense that is less serious than an indictable offense C. A violation of provincial statutes D. A violation of municipal laws 37. A person is caught trying to pick the lock of a store. This is an example of break and enter? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 38. SPs are not generally permitted to search people? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 39. SPs must report hate crimes to the police? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 40. A person becomes a trespasser if his or her presence on a certain property has been? A. Received B. Denied C. Unintentional D. Documented 41. Which of the following statement (s) is TRUE? A. The term 'loiter' means hanging around an area without a specific purpose B. The offense known as trespassing at night involves loitering near a dwelling the property of another person C. A person who peers into the window of a ground floor apartment after midnight could be charged with trespassing a D. All of the above 42. SPs are prohibited from using firearms, but may use batons if necessary? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 43. It is said that theft is complete when a person steals an object with intentions? A. Moves the object B. Causes the subject to be moved C. Begins to cause the object to become movable D. All of the above 44. OHS regulations state that a person may refuse to do work if they consider it unsafe. A. True B. Not True C. False D. None of the above 45. Which of the following are qualifications required for a security worker license? A. Ability to speak English fluently enough to converse with the public while on duty B. Successful completion of BST C. Previous experience in the field D. A and B 46. SPs are not expected to document their interaction with regulatory agency personnel? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 47. Which of the following terms is SPs not allowed to use when describing their services. A. Detective B. Security Professional C. Peace Officer D. A and C 48. Which of the following statement (s) is TRUE? A. Doodles on the margins of an SP's notebook are considered a permanent part of the record B. Freedom of information rules do not apply to record stored in a home office C. Freedom of information rules apply to email and voicemail D. A and C 49. Is Joy riding an indictable offense? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 50. The security programs developed and operated exclusively for a company's own use are called? A. In-house security B. Public security C. Environmental security operations D. A and C 51. What is a crime? A. An act or omission contrary to municipal law B. An act or omission contrary to provincial law C. An act or omission contrary to federal law D. An act or omission contrary to any type of law 52. When should an SP call the police after arrest? A. Immediately B. Within 24 hours C. As soon as practicable D. Only after the SP has gathered witness to the incident 53. What are peer pressure, rationalization, and frustration with organizational practices? A. Stereotypes B. Instances of discriminatory behaviour C. Grounds for immediate dismissal D. Challenges to a person's ethical standards 54. When interacting with the emergency services the SPs must document the incident in his or her notebook. What information should be recorded? A. Name, rank and badge number B. Incident and case file number C. SP's assessment of service provided by the agency D. A and B 55. Aside from the Criminal Code of Canada, what other constraints exists regarding the use of force? A. Employer policies B. Municipal bylaws C. Provincial laws D. A and C 56. What should an SPs appearance, fitness level and physical stature help to establish? A. Physical control B. Presence C. Tactical communication D. Reasonable grounds 57. To whom does Public Security provide services? A. Client with multiple sites patrolling B. Specific client C. All members of the public D. All municipal agencies 58. The public perception of the SPs and their company is an element of? A. Physical control B. Communication C. Presence D. Weaponless impact 59. When protecting against hazards due to human actions an SP can assist police with information during the investigation? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 60. What is a Passive resistant subject? A. A "yes" person B. Does not physically interfere with the SPs attempts at control but does nothing to assist C. Responds positively to the SP's direction D. Attempts to seriously harm the SP 61. Recognizing one's moral duties and obligations are called? A. Professionalism B. Ethics C. Standards D. Discriminatory behaviour 62. Under the Safe Street Act Panhandling is absolutely prohibited? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 63. Under the Trespass Act which of the following is an offense? A. To ask a person for money while the person is in inceptive audience situation B. Remain on private property after being asked to leave by the property owner/renter or a representative of the owner C. Aggressively follow people while asking them for money D. All of the above 64. Under the law an intoxicated person must not be allowed to remain in a public place such as a nightclub or a bar? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 65. What consequences could SPs face for acting improperly or illegally? A. Being sued in a civil court B. Getting suspended or fired C. Being charged with a criminal offense D. All of the above 66. What is the objective of report writing? A. Impress the reader B. Entertain the reader C. Document the facts D. A and C 67. The way people conduct themselves is called? A. Stereotype B. Bias C. Deportment D. Professional 68. What are the two types of private security? A. In-house and Out-house security B. Contract and Public security C. Contract and in-house security D. Environmental and Public security 69. What information should you give the subject during the purpose phase of the initial intervention? A. Reason for your presence B. Reason for contact C. What is your professional role C. All of the above 70. What is the purpose of the National use of force model? A. Describes the process of continuous assessment B. Applies only to police officers C. Describes the range of force options that may be used in response to potentially violent situations D. A and C 71. The response option used by the SP is determined by the behavior of the subject? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 72. Disengaging is not acceptable in the security industry? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 73. The effective management of physical danger, legal risk, planning and loss through assessment and appropriate action is termed as? A. Ethics B. Operational policy C. Safety D. None of the above 74. Maintaining an appropriate reactionary gap means? A. Using interview position B. Keeping sufficient distance from the subject C. Initial intervention D. Defusing challenge 75. An SP must apply the safe interview stance only when getting information from a possible suspect? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 76. The safe interview position is outside range of the subject’s ability to kick the SP? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 77. On arrest everyone has the right? A. To be informed promptly of the reason therefore B. To retain and instruct counsel without delay C. A and B D. None of the above 78. Tempering with a fire hose is a mischief? A. False B. Not True C. True D. None of the above 79. Most of the commercial break ins are done through? A. Doors and Lockers B. Garage doors C. Windows and doors D. Adjoining Buildings 80. SPs can arrest a person if? A. The person is breaking the municipal law B. The person is committing an indictable offense C. The person is committing a summary conviction offense D. A and B 81. The "Teacher" technique in tactical communication involves? A. Explain why the person needs to do as you ask B. Allowing a passive resistant subject to save face C. Describe the subject's behavior that violates law, policy or procedures law/policy/procedures D. A and C 82. What is the regulatory agency responsible for issuing security worker license? A. Security Programs and Police Technology Division B. WorkSafeBC C. Ministry of Security Services D. Police department 83. Representatives of regulatory agencies may enter private property under certain conditions? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 84. As soon as reasonably possible means? A. Without waiting B. Quickly C. Without delay D. Promptly 85. As part of the customer service orientation an SP must provide a media representative with all the information they need regarding an incident at their location? A. True B. False C. Not True D. Not False 86. If an SP disengaged from a situation this would be considered abandonment of duty? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 87. SPs are not permitted to search people? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above  88. At an incident scene what should the SPs do? A. Walk through the evidence B. Ask the public to help for the evidence C. Collect all the evidence before the police arrives to speed up the investigation D. Avoid seizing or touching the evidence 89. In an emergency, an important first step that an SP should take to inform? A. Supervisor B. Local emergency response services C. The client D. All of the above 90. An SP is providing security in a building, one of the tenants goes to SP and accuses another tenant of breaking a mirror in the public washroom, the SP may? A. Lawfully arrest the accused person only after SP state the Charter rights of the person B. Lawfully arrest the accused person C. Not lawfully arrest the accused person because he was not Witness the breaking of the mirror D. Lawfully arrest the accused person only after calling the police 91. In a safe interview stance an SPs hands must be clenched to show superior physical strength? A. True B. False  C. None D. None of the above 92. Which of the following are elements of customer service orientation? A. Multiculturalism B. Appearance C. Demeanor D. B and C 93. A Person commits an assault when he or she applies force to another person? A. Intentionally B. Aggressively C. Progressively D. Biasly 94. As an SP what will be your goal in security to handle all encounters using presence and dialogue only? A. 80% B. 50% C. 100% D. 75% 95. The effective, organized, competent, and businesslike practitioner is called? A. Stereotype B. Professional C. Bias D. Deportment 96. The best position to gain control over the subject is position 2.5? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 97. Which agencies provide emergency response services? A. Police B. Fire Department C. BC Ambulance D. All of the above 98. When protecting against environmental hazards, the SPs main role is to keep the police informed about the status of the location? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 99. Position 1.5 is best used when communicating and interviewing a subject? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 100. What does blocking involve? A. Providing a counter argument for every argument that the subject raised B. Physical barrier between the SP and the subject C. Staying alert to encounter any physical attacks D. None of the above 101. The SPs should start assessing a situation? A. Upon arrival at the scene B. During the first approach C. While en route to the scene D. All of the above 102. Why should SPs consider the factors of time and distance when assessing the situation? A. These factors provide the clue to the subject's intentions B. These factors provide Information about the subject's motives C. These factors determine whether an SP must respond immediately or may employ a delayed response D. All of the above 103. What must an SP ensure before disengaging from a situation? A. Adequate control of the subject B. The safety of the public C. SPs own safety and that of the public D. None of the above 104. An appropriate notebook for SPs is a three-ring binder or other style of book from which page can be easily removed? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 105. Which of the following data should SPs record in their notebooks of every shift? A. Duration of assigned shift B. Location assigned C. Name of supervisor D. A and B 106. In which order should be the SPs notebook entries? A. Alphabetical B. Numerical C. Chronological D. Random 107. Are SPs allowed to state their personal opinions about the case in their notebooks? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 108. How should SPs correct errors in their notes? A. Use of an erasing fluid and write the correction on a blank space B. Blank out the error with a marking pen and write the correction on the next line C. Draw one line through the error initial the error, and rewrite the correction on a separate line D. None of the above 109. Which one of the following statements is FALSE? A. All notebook entries should be written in ink B. SPs should use only one notebook at a time C. SPs should have their notebook in their possession at all times while they are on duty D. None of the above 110. Which of the following may be given access to SPs notebook? A. Defense counsel B. Crown counsel C. A witness who gave a written or oral statement that is recorded in the notebook D. All of the above 111. The best position that an SP can take to a subject is a face-to-face position? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 112. When dealing with the media, the SPs prime responsibility is to protect the client's interests? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 113. What is effective communication? A. Your message is listen by another person B. You convey a message to another person C. Your conveyed message received by another person D. Your conveyed message interpreted to another person 114. A person who uses any piece of legitimate equipment in a threatening or aggressive manner may be charged with possession of a weapon? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 115. The SPs should constantly reassess the situation to which they must respond? A. To Create an opportunity for the situation to resolve itself B. To detect changing risks and potential problems C. To postpone having to take action D. A and B 116. Deflecting is a way of defusing challenges by allowing the subject to release energy through words? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 117. What is the goal of tactical communication? A. To ensure that all SPs on same shift use the same tactics when dealing with non-compliant subjects B. To gain voluntary compliance on the part of a subject by skillfully managing his or her behavior C. To ensure that all SPs go through a decision-making process before deciding how to deal with non-compliant subject D. All of the above 118. While testifying in Court an SP refers to his notebook if permitted by? A. Court clerk B. Defense lawyer C. Another SP D. None of the above 119. SPs must not use deadly force? A. Unless they are sure they will prevail over their opponent B. Unless they have a good reason to believe that it is necessary to save themselves from death or grievous bodily harm C. Unless the suspect is fleeting D. All of the above 120. While assessing a situation the SP should consider the number of subjects at the scene only if he or she is unsure of his or her own physical capabilities? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 121. Only the Police may keep records of the people who enter or exit an incident scene? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 122. How should the SPs maintain a controlled environment for custody? A. Make sure the room does not have items that could be used as weapons B. Keep other people out of the room if possible C. Keep the arrested person standing at all times D. A and B 123. In order to resist stereotypes, the SPs should? A. Be professional at all the times B. Treat all individuals with respect C. Recognize the challenges the stereotypes hold D. All of the above 124. What should an SP mention in the body of the Operational occurrence report? A. Only a summary of the incident B. Sequence of events in Chronological order C. Descriptive account that recreates the drama of the incident D. B and C 125. What are the examples of environmental hazards? A. Crime against property B. Civil disobedience C. Espionage D. None of the above 126. Human rights protection in BC? A. Youth Criminal justice act B. Good Samaritan act C. Mental Health act D. None of the above 127. The term Venting is the release of energy through words? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 128. SPs Notebook entries should be in blue ink? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 129. What is the purpose of the introduction of an operational occurrence report? A. To provide a list of reasons why the incident occurs B. To summarize the SPs recommendation on how to prevent similar incidents from happening in the future C. To briefly describe the events that led up to the main incident D. To describe each related event in chronological order 130. In every operational occurrence report what information should be included? A. Dates and time of the incident and related events B. Identifying information of witnesses, victims and parties of the investigation C. Description of the property D. All of the above 131. SPs must prepare reports with the knowledge that they are public documents? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 132. What is a balanced and protected position from which SPs can launch a quick response? A. Safe interview stance B. Physical control position C. Known risk position D. Strike position 133. To control a maximum violent situation an SP must stand as close to the subject as possible? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 134. The impairment of peripheral vision affects? A. You can see far B. You can not see far C. You can not see closer D. You can see closer 135. The three general strategies in tactical communication are? A. Eye contact, Persuasion, Rapport B. Initial intervention, Persuasion, defusing challenge C. Persuasion, Resolution, Bonding D. Negotiation, Persuasion, Purpose 136. The SPs should always position them for escape in a potential conflict situation? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 137. If a subject protests for long an SP should acknowledge his comments in order to show empathy? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 138. In a safe interview stance an SPs legs must be tensed and ready for action? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 139. From what two types of hazards an SPs protect their clients? A. Public security operations B. Environmental security operations C. Threats to people and threats to property D. Natural and man made 140. When should an SP call 911? A. When a crime has occured B. To ask directions C. To help in civil matter D. All of the above 141. Which of the following statement(s) is false? A. An SP can have access to reports made by fellow SP if he read and initialized the notes on which the report was made B. SPs have unlimited access to each other SPs reports C. The witness that gave the written and oral statement which is recorded in a report D. A and C 142. From which of the following situations an SPs is at high risk? A. During the first approach B. Multiple subjects are involved C. In a safe interview stance D.A and C 143. Which tactical communication technique involves turning aside the other person's comments and not reacting to them? A. Establishing rapport B. Deflecting C. Empathizing D. Bonding 144. When a subject is Venting the SP should move closer to the subject to show that the SP is sincerely listening to the subject's complaints? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 145. A set of facts is called reasonable grounds? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above 146. An SP sees a person with disabilities and he approaches him or her to offer his help but the person refuses the help but the SP insists him or her for help. Do the SPs allow this? A. True B. False C. None D. None of the above