Dentistry Practice Questions PDF

LG SURGERY 1. The most common tooth to be impacted is: a. Lower 8 b. Upper 8 c. Upper 3 d. Lower PM  A 2. All of these are local factors to e ology of impac on except: a. Cyst b. Tumor c. Cle d. Supernumer...

LG SURGERY 1. The most common tooth to be impacted is: a. Lower 8 b. Upper 8 c. Upper 3 d. Lower PM  A 2. All of these are local factors to e ology of impac on except: a. Cyst b. Tumor c. Cle d. Supernumerary  C 3. What is the most common indica on for removal of impacted tooth: a. Preven on or rx of dental disease b. Pericoroni s c. Ortho (crowding) d. Root resopr on of adjacent teeth  B 4. If a pa ent comes with symptom of shoo ng or stabbing pain, what would be your diagnosis? a. Facial nerve paralysis b. IAN injury c. Trigeminal neuralgia d. None of the above  C 5. What is the most common contraindica on for extrac on of impacted tooth? a. Surgical damage to adjacent structures b. Immunocompromised pa ent c. Fully impacted 8 d. Advanced age >40y  D 6. All of these are indica ons for extrac ng 8 except? a. Recurrent pericoroni s b. Deep PDL pockets >4mm c. Advanced age d. Associated pathology  C  LG 7. Based on impacted lower 8 Pell and Gregory classifica on, what classifica on would be hardest to extract? a. A3 / 3A b. B3 / 3B c. C3 / 3C d. All of the above  C 8. In Pell & Gregory the classifica on is based on: a. Angula on of impacted tooth b. Rela onship of 8 to anterior border of ramus c. Rela onship of 8 to adjacent 2nd molar d. Both B & C  D 9. Regarding Winter’s classifica on of impacted lower 8 molar, which is the easiest to extract? a. Mesioangular b. Distoangular c. Horizontal d. Ver cal  A 10. Which of these would be the most difficult to extract based on Winter’s classifica on of lower 8 impacted molar? a. Mesioangular b. Distoangular c. Horizontal d. Ver cal  B 11. If an impacted lower third molar is anterior to the ascending border of ramus and its occlusal plane is halfway between the occlusal plane and CEJ of the adjacent 7 what would its classifica on of Pell and Gregory be? a. A1 / 1A b. A2 / 2A c. B1 /1B d. B2 / 2B  C  LG 12. Type of impac on based on winters classifica on? a. Mesioangular b. Distoangular c. Ver cal d. Horizontal  D 13. All of these are considered difficult factors for extrac ng impacted teeth except: a. Low bone density b. Obesity c. Loca on of sinus, nerve d. Gag reflex  A 14. All of these are true for risk of injury to LN while extrac ng lower 8 except: a. Risk is 0.5-2% and most resolve within 6 months b. Pt age and operator experience are risk factors c. Must remove bone lingually while extrac ng impacted lower 8 to avoid injury of LN d. Lingual plate integrity is the anatomical risk factor of LN injuries  C; remove bone buccally 15. All the following are true for incidence of impacted upper canine except: a. More common in females b. More common in maxilla c. Mainly bilateral d. Usually palatal  C; unilateral mainly 16. What is the first method to determine loca on of impacted upper canine? a. Checking for bulge b. Periapical x-ray c. Panorama d. CBCT  A 17. All of these are true for open technique of extrac ng impacted canine except: a. Full thickness flap b. Best for labially impacted canine c. We use bracket / chain d. Apically suture, tooth brings a ached ssue  A; APF Apically posi oned flap  LG 18. All of these are advantages of apically posi oned flap except? a. Maintains kera nized band of gingiva b. Uncomplicated bonding of ortho c. Feasible when tooth is high in alveolus d. Orthodon st has direct visual access  C 19. All of these are disadvantages of closed technique for impacted upper canine except: a. Difficult to isolate when trying to bond ortho device b. Orthodon st does not have direct visual access c. Not indicated when tooth is located very high in alveolus labially or clinically not palpable palatally d. In labially posi oned canines, if the ortho appliance becomes dehisced superior to MGJ it may cause loss of kera nized gingival or a perio defect as the tooth is guided into place.  C 20. All are true for differences between enuclea on and marsupializa on except: a. Enuclea on is removal of en re pathological ssue while marsupializa on is opening a window in the cyst and leaving its internals open to oral cavity b. Enuclea on is intended for small cysts while marsupializa on is indicated for large cysts c. Enuclea on is indicated when there is no rela on to vital structures while marsupializa on is when there is rela on between cyst and vital structures d. Healing is more rapid and requires less follow up in marsupializa on than in enuclea on  D 21. Which of these is a sign of IAN involvement? a. Diversion of path of canal by root b. Darkening and narrowing of root c. Deflec on of roots at region of canal d. Narrowing of canal outlines e. All of the above  E 22. All of these are pre-op anatomical factors associated w/ IAN injury except? a. Exposure of IAC b. M3 angula on c. Lingual posi on of IAC d. Close anatomical rela on between roots and canal  A; it’s an intra-op anatomical factor  LG 23. All of these are false for incision principles except one: a. Should be placed on movable bone b. Close to surgical area c. Firm con nuous stroke d. Sharp angles e. No need to maintain integrity of interdental papilla  C 24. Which of the following is a complica on that occurs AFTER extrac on? a. Trismus b. Bleeding c. Pain and swelling d. Alveolar ostei s e. All of the above  E 25. What is the most effec ve and common way to stop bleeding a er extrac on? a. Applying pressure and gauze for 30-45 min b. Debridement and inspec on of socket c. Intra-alveolar haemosta c agents d. An fibro cs  A 26. While extrac ng an upper first molar you no ce an oroantral communica on greater than 5mm in the sinus, what should you do? a. Close site with figure of 8 suture b. Collagen plug and observe c. Surgical approach and mucosal transposi onal flap d. None of the above  C 27. In cases where a foreign body was aspirated during extrac on, where is it most likely to end up? a. Right lung b. Le lung c. Abdomen d. Both A&B have same incidence  A  LG 28. What are associated risks for developing dry socket? a. Pt age b. Smoking c. Length and difficulty of extrac on d. Premature mouth rinsing and hot liquids e. All of the above  E  LG CONS & PROSTHO 1. What is the cri cal pH of enamel? What is the cri cal pH of den n? a. 5.5 enamel / 6.2 den n b. 6.2 enamel / 5.5 den n c. Both enamel and den n 5.5 d. Both enamel and den n 6.2  A 2. Which of these caries appears smooth, shiny and black? a. Ac ve b. Arrested c. Incipient d. Hidden  B 3. While incipient and hidden caries have many differences, what is the common factor between them? a. They both occur in enamel b. They both have intact surfaces c. They both appear clinically d. They both require opera ve restora on  B 4. Which bacteria are mainly responsible for enamel caries and which are for root caries? a. S. mutans for both enamel and root b. Lactobacilli for both enamel and root c. S. mutans for enamel and lactobacilli for root d. Lactobacilli for enamel and S. mutans for root  C 5. Which of these carious lesions does not require opera ve treatment? a. Ac ve b. Incipient c. Advanced d. Hidden  B  LG 6. Which zone of den n has two types: reac onary and repara ve? a. Demineralized b. Translucent or sclero c den n c. Sound den n d. Ter ary den n  D 7. Based on caries grades on radio, which grade/grades need opera ve treatment? a. Grade 1 b. Grade 2 c. Grade 3 d. Grade 4 e. Both C & D are true  E 8. What is a disadvantage of GIC? a. Chemical adhesion to tooth structure b. Fluoride release c. Exposure to water leads to dissolu on d. High compressive strength  C 9. What is not an advantage of amalgam? a. Low cost b. Ease of manipula on c. Marginal seal d. Corrosion e. Adequate strength  D 10. What is the cavosurface angle in amalgam enamel wall prep and does it need beveling? a. 90 degrees, no bevel b. 90 degrees, bevel c. 60 degrees, no bevel d. 60 degrees, bevel  A  LG 11. Which of these is not true for class 2 cavity prepara on? a. Floor should extend into den n 1.5-2mm with well-defined internal angles b. Buccal and lingual walls are // or slightly convergent towards occlusal c. Isthmus should be beveled d. There is no need to extend gingival floor and break contact with adjacent tooth gingivally e. Axial wall is convex following contour of proximal surface  D 12. Which of these is not true for class 3 cavity prepara on? a. Palatal approach for maxillary teeth and facial approach for mandibular teeth b. We should extend to include contact area incisally c. Gingival extension should break the contact d. ½ mm 45 degrees beveled cavosurface  B 13. Which of these is the most commonly used etching genera on system? a. 4th gen b. 5th gen c. 6th gen d. 7th gen  B 14. If a composite color shade is said to be A2 in Vita Classic shade system, what does the le er A stand for and what does the number 2 stand for? a. Le er is hue, number is chroma b. Le er is chroma, number is hue c. Le er is hue, number is value d. Le er is value, number is hue e. None of the above are true  A 15. What is the most successful method of isola on in den stry? a. Rubber dam b. Co on rolls c. Cellulose wafers d. Suc on  A  LG 16. If we want to place clamp before RD sheet which clamp is best to use for this case? a. Winged b. Wingless c. Anterior d. Both A&B  B 17. What type of impression material do we use for secondary impression? a. Alginate b. Agar c. Polyether d. Vinyl polysiloxane or addi on silicone  D 18. Which of these is not true for temporiza on? a. It seals den n and protects pulp b. It indicates undercuts and underprepared surfaces c. It stabilizes gingiva d. It avoids overerup on and l ng e. It’s only done for vital teeth as it avoids pain and sensi vity  E 19. Axial wall inclina on has to be kept at minimum so as to not increase total occlusal convergence which would lower the reten on. How many degrees per wall is the maximum inclina on allowed to not lose reten on? a. 6 degrees per wall b. 7 degrees per wall c. 8 degrees per wall d. 9 degrees per wall  A 20. If we are to create a finish line on a posterior tooth where esthe cs are not a concern, what finish line would be best and most hygienic? a. Supragingival b. Equigingival c. Subgingival d. Both A&C  A  LG 21. What is the best type of finish line for all-metal crown? All-ceramic or porcelain? a. Shoulder for all-metal, chamfer for all-ceramic/porcelain b. Chamfer for all-metal, shoulder for all-ceramic c. Bevel for all-metal, shoulder for all-ceramic d. Shoulder for all ceramic, bevel for all metal  B 22. Which of these metals is/are duc le and malleable and less strong than the rest? a. Pla num b. Palladium c. Gold d. Both A&B  C 23. Where do we mainly use non-noble metals because of their strength and oxidiza on proper es? a. All metal crowns b. PFM crowns c. All-ceramic d. Both A&C  B 24. What is the biggest disadvantage of Zirconia? a. Strength b. Esthe cs c. Biocompa bility d. Hard to cement  D 25. What would be the most ideal all-ceramic material to use for an anterior 3-unit bridge? a. IPS Empress b. IPS Emax c. Solid Zirconia d. Layered Zirconia  B  LG 26. Which of these is not true for zirconia? a. It requires acid etching with hydrofluoric acid b. It requires sandblas ng or air abrasion w/ aluminum oxide and MDP primer to increase bonding c. It is hard to cement d. It is the least esthe c compared to IPS empress and IPS emax  A 27. Which of these materials is the most conserva ve regarding finish line prepara on and only requires feather-edge? a. Metal/gold b. PFM c. IPS Emax d. Zirconia  A 28. For Zirconia prepara on, how much reduc on of incisal/occlusal surface is required? a. 0.3-0.5mm b. Minimum of 1mm c. 1-1.5 d. 1.5-2mm  B 29. Pregnant pt came with yellowing and wear of palatal surfaces of her anterior teeth. She has been puking more regularly. What tooth wear is it most likely to be? a. A ri on b. Abrasion c. Erosion d. Abfrac on  C  LG ENDO 1. Which of these are steps of diagnosis? a. Chief complaint b. Medical and dental history c. Oral examina on d. Treatment Plan e. All of the above  E 2. A er opening access, pa ent comes with pain and swelling also known as inter- appointment flare-up. What is the management of such a case? a. Instrumenta on and irriga on of tooth b. Incision and drainage of abscess c. Both A & B d. Leave tooth and prescribe an bio cs  C 3. Which of these cases cause referred pain to teeth? a. TMJ pain b. Sinusi s c. Cardiac problems d. All of the above e. None of the above  D 4. Which of these statements is false regarding endo rx? a. If not sure about diagnosis, it is be er to postpone rx b. An bio cs given to suscep ble pt to prevent infec ve endocardi s c. There are no medical problems that contraindicate endo rx d. Isolated lower 6, poor OH, and advanced PD disease is a good candidate for endo rx e. In cases where pts are taking bisphosphonates or have jaw osteonecrosis risk, we prefer to do endo rx over extrac on  D 5. There are nocicep ve fibers that innervate the pulp. If we have inflammatory mediators present, which of these fibers is most likely responsible for rxn? a. A-delta fibers b. A-beta fibers c. C fibers d. None of the above  C  LG 6. Which of these is false regarding differences between A delta fibers and C fibers? a. A-delta fibers are located apically while C fibers are located coronally b. A-delta fibers cause fast, short and well-localized pain while C fibers cause slow, lingering, poorly localized pain c. A-delta fibers usually indicate reversible pulpi s while C fibers indicate irreversible pulpi s d. A-delta fibers are s mulated by air, cold, heat and sweet while C fibers are mainly affected by heat and mechanical deforma on e. All of the above are true  A 7. Which of the following defines recruitment of non-pain fibers? a. Central Sensi za on b. Allodynia c. Hyperalgesia d. Convergence  B 8. Where do the sensory afferent nerves of trigeminal N. first converge? a. Trigeminal ganglia b. Trigeminal thalamic tract c. Thalamus d. Cerebral cortex  A 9. What causes pain referral? a. Central sensi za on b. Allodynia c. Hyperalgesia d. Convergence  D 10. Which of these is not true for difference between celluli s and abscess? a. Celluli s is chronic while abscess is acute b. Celluli s is larger than abscess c. Celluli s is doughy and indurated while abscess is fluctuant d. Celluli s is more serious than abscess e. Celluli s has aerobic bacteria while abscess has anaerobic bacteria  A  LG 11. We might see extraoral draining sinus tract in? a. Acute apical abscess b. Chronic apical abscess c. Celluli s d. All of the above  B 12. Which test is used when did previous tests and results are inconclusive? It requires drilling into tooth without giving anaesthesia? a. Transillumina on b. Cold test c. Hot test d. Selec ve anesthesia e. Test Cavity / Den n s mula on  E 13. Sensibility test includes all except? a. Endo-ice b. Thermal test c. Electric test d. LDF or laser doppler flowmetry test  D; vitality test 14. If we get severe, intense response that con nues a er removal of s mulus it is most likely? a. Normal pulp b. Reversible pulpi s c. Irreversible pulpi s d. Necro c pulp  C 15. What is SLOB rule? a. Same lingual, opposite buccal b. Same buccal, opposite lingual c. Same mesial, opposite distal d. Same distal, opposite buccal  A 16. What is this? a. External resorp on b. Internal Resorp on c. Pulp stone d. Calcific metamorphosis  B  LG 17. What is/are rx op ons for symptoma c irreversible pulpi s? a. Vital pulp therapy VPT b. RCT c. Only B d. Both A&B  D 18. How to help gag reflex pts? a. Rubber dam b. Benzocaine topical gel on hard palate c. Metoclopramide 1hr before rx d. All of the above  D 19. Which of these cases needs referral? a. Severe gag reflex b. Placement of MTA plug in open apex immature tooth c. Cracked tooth d. Failure to heal even with no visible cause of failure e. All of the above  E 20. Which law relates to maintaining the marginal ridges integrity and star ng to work from the centre of the tooth? a. Law of centrality b. Law of symmetry c. Law of color change d. None of the above  A 21. Which of these is false regarding differences between Ni-Ti and stainless steel files? a. Ni-Ti is less flexible than stainless steel b. Ni-Ti conforms to canal curvature while stainless steel straightens canal c. Ni-Ti has plas c deforma on while stainless steel is permanent deforma on d. Ni-Ti has ^ fa gue resistance and is faster in shaping of canals and is be er for curved roots  A  LG 22. Which of these irrigants is most commonly used and is most effec ve in RCT? a. Sodium hypochlorite b. EDTA c. CHX d. Saline  A 23. Which of these irrigants is most commonly used to remove inorganic componenet of smear layer? a. Sodium hypochlorite b. EDTA c. CHX d. Saline  B 24. Why do some people have symptoma c IP while some experience asymptoma c IP? a. Central sensi za on b. Pain threshold differences c. Opioids released from pulp d. All of the above  D 25. Which of these is not true for crown down technique? a. It eliminates constric on in coronal region b. It requires shaping of coronal por on, then middle, then apical c. It increases effect of canal curvature d. It increases tac le awareness during apical prep e. It allows more effec ve irriga on  C 26. Which of these is not true in terms of advantages of crown down over step back technique? a. Crown down has enhanced volumes of irriga on b. Crown down has be er tac le sense c. Crown down gives more enhanced debris removal d. Crown down has more iatrogenic mishaps e. Crown down allows for more rapid instrumenta on  D  LG PEDO 1. When does evidence of development of human teeth appear? a. 4th week IU b. 6th week IU c. 11th week IU d. 14th week IU  B 2. When is the 1st macroscopic indica on of morphologic development? a. 4th week IU b. 6th week IU c. 11th week IU d. 14th week IU  C 3. Calcifica on of primary max central incisor happens? a. 4th week IU b. 6th week IU c. 11th week IU d. 14th week IU  D 4. Un l when does calcifica on process con nue for primary teeth? a. Directly a er erup on b. 6mo a er erup on c. 1y a er erup on d. 2 years a er erup on  D 5. An infant is categorized as what in terms of age? a. 0-2y b. 3-4y c. 5-6y d. 7+ year  A 6. When should the first dental visit be? a. Within 6mo of erup on of first primary tooth or first year of life b. At 2y c. At 3y d. At 4y  A  LG 7. Which of these is false regarding an cipatory guidance for parents of infants? a. Allow child to sleep with bo le b. Stop bo le use a er 1y c. Review pacifier use (end by 2y) d. Smear of fluoridated toothpaste  A 8. Which stage of tooth development is responsible for supernumerary teeth? a. Ini a on stage / bud stage b. Prolifera on / cap stage c. Histodifferen a on & morphodifferen a on (cap stage) d. Apposi on  A 9. Which stage of tooth development is responsible for odontoma? a. Ini a on stage / bud stage b. Prolifera on / cap stage c. Histodifferen a on & morphodifferen a on (cap stage) d. Apposi on  B 10. Which stage of tooth development is responsible for amelogenesis imperfecta? a. Ini a on stage / bud stage b. Prolifera on / cap stage c. Histodifferen a on & morphodifferen a on (cap stage) d. Apposi on e. Calcifica on  C 11. Which stage of tooth development is responsible for peg teeth? a. Ini a on stage / bud stage b. Prolifera on / cap stage c. Histodifferen a on & morphodifferen a on (cap stage) d. Apposi on e. Calcifica on  C 12. Which stage of tooth development is responsible for hypoplasia or fluorosis? a. Ini a on stage / bud stage b. Prolifera on / cap stage c. Histodifferen a on & morphodifferen a on (cap stage) d. Apposi on e. Calcifica on  D  LG 13. A 3y old child in Wright’s classifica on would fall under which category? a. Coopera ve b. Poten ally coopera ve c. Lacking in coopera ve ability  C 14. What is the gold standard rule in basic behavior guidance techniques? a. Tell-show-do b. Voice control c. Non-verbal communica on d. Posi ve and/or nega ve reinforcement e. Parental presence / absence  A 15. Which of these advanced behavior guidance techniques is indicated only in pt w/ uncontrolled movements due to disease or uncoopera ve pt who needs emergency or limited rx? a. Protec ve stabiliza on b. Seda on with nitrous oxide c. General anesthesia  A 16. What are the recommended % in nitrous oxide seda on? a. 70% nitrogen, 30% oxygen b. 30% nitrogen, 70% oxygen c. Both nitrogen and oxygen in equal amounts d. 20% nitrogen, 80% oxygen  B 17. In which of these acquired disturbances of teeth do we see lymphodenopathy and fistula? a. Acute alveolar abscess b. Chronic alveolar abscess c. Celluli s  B 18. What is the management for odontoma (developmental anomaly of teeth)? a. Leave in socket b. Cure e c. Surgical removal d. RCT  C  LG 19. Which of these causes early exfolia on of teeth? a. Hypophosphatasia b. Acrodynia c. Rickets d. Cherubism and cyclic neutropenia e. All of the above  E 20. What can cause enamel hypoplasia? a. Allergies or CLP b. Brain injury or neurologic defects c. Rubella or radia on d. Nutri onal deficiency e. All of the above  E 21. What is the erup on order of primary teeth? a. ABCDE b. ABDCE c. ABECD d. ACBDE  B 22. Which of these anomalies of tongue do we commonly see in down syndrome pts? a. Macroglossia b. Ankyloglossia c. Coated tongue d. Hairy tongue e. Strawberry tongue  A 23. Which of these is not a primary factor of dental caries forma on? a. Bacteria b. Diet or fermentable carbohydrates c. Suscep ble tooth d. Educa on e. Saliva and me  D  LG 24. Which of these is not a LOCAL factor of delayed erup on of teeth? a. Supernumerary b. Tumors and scars c. Lack of space d. Nutri onal deficiency e. Dilacera on and gingival fibromatosis  D 25. ECC or early childhood caries is the presence of 1 or more decayed, missing or filled tooth surface in any primary tooth in a child that is? a. 71 months or younger b. 71 months or older c. 24 months or younger d. 24 months or older  A 26. How long is the applica on of fluoride gel? a. 4min applica on and must not let child eat for 30 mins b. 10min applica on and must not let child eat for 30 mins c. 4min applica on and child can eat directly a er d. 10min applica on and child can directly eat a er  A 27. What is the concentra on of NaF in varnish and how many mes is it applied per year? a. 5%, once a year b. 5%, twice a year c. 10%, once a year d. 10%, twice a year  B 28. Most common source of fluoride readily available? a. Community water fluorida on b. Toothpaste c. Rinses d. Gels e. Varnish  A  LG 29. What is the % of fluoride in silver diamine fluoride? a. 5% b. 27% c. 38% d. 50%  C 30. When does fluorosis happen? a. Directly at birth b. First year of child’s life c. First 3y of child life d. Later in life when all permanent teeth erupt  C 31. What is the threshold dose of fluoride and what is the toxic dose? a. Threshold 0.1mg/kgwt while toxic is 10mg/kgwt b. Threshold 0.1mg/kgwt while toxic is 5mg/kgwt c. Threshold 5mg/kgwt while toxic is 10mg/kgwt d. Threshold is 2mg/kgwt while toxic is 5mg/kgwt  B 32. Which of these is NOT an indica on of stainless steel crown applica on? a. Extensive decay b. Pulp therapy c. Developmental defects d. Crown fracture or general anesthesia e. All of the above are indica ons  E 33. Which of these materials is made of calcium hydroxide and iodoform? a. Vitapex b. MTA c. Formocresol d. ZOE cement  A 34. Which of these pulp therapy management op ons requires only the removal of 1- 3mm of coronal pulp and is best indicated for trauma c exposure of vital immature permanent tooth? a. Pulp cap b. Par al or CVEK pulpotomy c. Total pulpotomy d. Pulpectomy  B  LG 35. Which of these is the process of inducing an MTA plug at apical barrier to help induce root closure of non-vital immature permanent tooth? a. Pulpotomy b. Pulpectomy c. Apexifica on d. Apexogenesis  C 36. If we have extrusive or lateral luxa on of permanent teeth, what splint is preferred and for how long? a. Rigid splint 2w b. Flexible splint 2w c. Rigid splint 4w d. Flexible splint 4w  B 37. If we have coronal root fracture of permanent tooth, what splint is preferred and for how long? a. Rigid splint 2m b. Flexible splint 2m c. Rigid splint 4m d. Flexible splint 4m  C 38. What space maintainer is indicated if we have bilateral missing lower units? a. Band and loop b. Nance appliance c. Lingual arch d. Distal shoe appliance  C 39. For avulsion traumas, most important factor is ming since out of the socket. When is it okay to re-implant avulsed tooth? a. Less than 60 min b. Over 60 min c. Can re-implant any me as long as it was preserved  A  LG PERIO, OM, IMPLANTS 1) Which of these is mas catory or kera nized mucosa? a. Gingiva b. Buccal mucosa c. Floor of mouth d. Ventral tongue e. Ves bule  A 2) What is the part separa ng a ached gingiva from movable alveolar mucosa called? a. Marginal gingiva b. Free gingival groove c. Mucogingival junc on d. Interdental gingiva  C 3) Which of these is not a clinical factor of a healthy gingiva? a. Pink color b. Coronal to CEJ c. Firm and resilient d. No s ppling present e. Knife edge margins and pointed ID papilla  D 4) Which is a risk factor of gingivi s? a. Overhanging resto b. Calculus c. Smoking or DM d. Ortho brackets or crowding e. All of the above  E 5) In what stage of gingivi s do we see change in color, size and texture? a. Ini al b. Early c. Established  C  LG 6) In which classifica on in Miller’s classifica on does the recession reach the MGJ but there is no bone loss? a. Class 1 b. Class 2 c. Class 3 d. Class 4  B 7) In which classifica on regarding mobility is there severe horizontal mobility >2mm or ver cal mobility? a. Grade 1 b. Grade 2 c. Grade 3  C 8) Based on Glickman’s grading of furca on involvement, which grade has through and through loss of bone but no clinical exposure? a. Grade 1 b. Grade 2 c. Grade 3 d. Grade 4  C 9) A child pt came into the office with the following S/S: diffuse erythema, vesicular erup ons and vesicle ruptures leaving ulcers. What is your diagnosis? a. Herpe c gingivostoma s b. Apthous Stoma s c. Lichen Planus d. Candida  A 10) Which type of lichen planus is this? a. Re cular b. Plaque c. Erosive d. Bullous  A  LG 11) Which one of these is not a premalignant lesion? a. Leukoplakia b. Erythroplakia c. Lichen planus d. Discoid lupus erythematous e. Aphthous Ulcer  E 12) What is this? a. Lichen Planus b. Candida c. Herpe c gingivostoma s d. Leukoplakia  B 13) What is the ideal distance b/w 2 implants? a. 1mm b. 1.5mm c. 2mm d. 3mm  D 14) What is the ideal distance b/w an implant and a tooth? a. 1mm b. 1.5mm c. 2mm d. 3mm e. 5mm  B 15) What is the bone loss expected in the first year of implant placement? a. 0.5mm b. 1.2mm c. 2mm d. 3mm  B  LG ORTHO 1. If the central groove of the lower first molar is mesial to the MB cusp of the upper first molar, what is its angles classifica on? a. Class 1 b. Class 2 Div 1 c. Class 2 Div 2 d. Class 3  D 2. If the mandible is said to be retrognathic in rela on to the maxilla, what skeletal classifica on is this? a. Class 1 b. Class 2 c. Class 3  B 3. An ------------ refers to the horizontal distance between the upper and lower front teeth, while an ------------ refers to the ver cal overlap of the upper front teeth over the lower front teeth. a. Overjet / Overbite b. Overbite / overjet c. Crossbite / open bite d. Open bite / crossbite  A CYSTS 1. What is the most common inflammatory odontogenic cyst? a. Radicular / apical b. Den gerous c. Odontogenic keratocyst d. Lateral periodontal cyst  A 2. What is the most common developmental cyst, most commonly associated with impacted/unerupted tooth? a. Radicular / apical b. Den gerous / follicular c. Odontogenic keratocyst d. Lateral periodontal cyst  B