Sample of Test PDF - Anatomy, Physiology, Kinesiology Questions

SAMPLE OF TEST Classification of test questions pages Part 1 Anatomy And Physiology And Kinesiology 21 Pages 200 Questions And Answers (42-62) Part 2 Pathology...

SAMPLE OF TEST Classification of test questions pages Part 1 Anatomy And Physiology And Kinesiology 21 Pages 200 Questions And Answers (42-62) Part 2 Pathology 12 Pages 100 Question And Answers (63-72) Part 3 Practicum Criteria(Assessment And Applications) 10 Pages 200 Questions And Answers (83-72) Part 4 Ethics And Professionalism 13 Pages 100 Questions And Answers (81-93) Part 5 Laws And Rules Pertaining To Massage Section A Jurisprudence Exam Of Washington State 16 questions 5 Pages Section B Rules And Regulations In Massage 18 questions (94-98) Part 6 Sample Of Midterm Test & Final Test Sample 22 Pages Section A Midterm Test Sample 100 Question And Answers (99-118) Section B Final Test Sample 100 Question And Answers Total questions 77 pages Part 1: Anatomy & physiology ,kinesiology DIRECTIONS: Each of the questions or statements below is followed by four suggested answers or completions. Select one answer that is best in each case. 1. The tricuspid valve is found B. 32 between the C. 33 D. 43 A. Right atrium and right ventricle B. Left ventricle and aorta 7. Which action does the SCM not C. Left ventricle and right ventricle perform? D. Right atrium and left atrium A. Neck flexion 2. Which structure supports the body B. Same side rotation in the sitting position? C. Opposite side rotation D. Protraction of the head A. Sacrum B. Coccyx 8. The meninges include C. Ischial tuberosity D. LS A. Spinal and cranial B. Cervical and abdominal 3. Which statement is TRUE about the C. Cervical and cranial Golgi tendon apparatus? D. Spinal and thoracic A. Found in joint capsules 9. The only joint in the upper body B. Detects overall tension in tendon where the axial skeleton articulates with C. Originates in Purkinje fibers the appendicular skeleton is the D. Activated by vagal reflex A. Sternoclavicular 4. Which muscles are major B. Glenohumeral adductors? C. Stemoscapular D. Scapularclavicular A. Pectoralis and deltoid B. Pectoralis and latissimus dorsi 10. Which muscle adducts and medially C. Deltoid and latissimus dorsi rotates the femur at the hip? D. Biceps and deltoid A. Gluteus medius 5. Which nerve supplies the lower limbs? B. Pectineus C. Quadratus femoris A. Dorsal primary rami D. Tensor fascia latae B. Sciatic nerve C. Lumbosacral plexus D. Femoral nerve 11. Which muscle is closest to the sciatic Nerve? A. Gracilis 6. There are _____ pairs of nerves B. Piriformis arising from the spinal cord. C. Gluteus medius D. Pectineus A. 31 1 12. Which is the most important 18. Which of the following factors element to combat infection? contribute to muscle fatigue? A. RBCs A. Insufficient oxygen B. Platelets B. Depletion of glycogen C. WBCs C. Lactic acid buildup D. Fibrinogen D. All of the above 13. Melatonin and serotonin are 19. A sudden involuntary contraction of produced in the a muscle is called a (an) A. Pituitary gland A. Levator B. Thyroid gland B. Proximal C. Sebaceous gland C. Isometric D. Pineal gland D. Spasm 14. The long tubules extending from the 20. Which type of Lever is arach­noid and pia mater that act as characterized as having the fulcrum one-way valves for the cerebrospinal between the effort and resistance? An fluid are the example is the head resting on the vertebral column A. Erector pili B. Intake channel A. First class C. Arachnoid villi B. Second class D. Pia mate C. Third class D. Fourth class 15. The movements at synovial joints may include flexion/extension, 21. The prefix ab means abduction/adduction, and A. Next to A. Rotation B. Away from B. Isolation C. Inner C. Dynamics D. Soreness D. Pivot 22. Which facial muscle attaches into 16. The pericardial cavity is located the mandible, angles of the mouth, and within the skin of the lower face? A. Abdominopelvic cavity A. Buccinator B. Cranial cavity B. Masseter C. Spinal cavity C. Levator labii superioris D. Thoracic cavity D. Platysma 17. A short, severe episode is referred 23. What is the spinal nerve to as contribution that composes the brachial plexus? A. Chronic B. Acute A. C1 - C4; T1 C. Terminal B. C5 - C8; T1 D. Minute C. C7 - C8; T1 2 D. T2 - T12; L1 30. The primary flexor of the distal 24. The prefix macro means phalanges of the fingers is A. Little A. Flexor carpi ulnaris B. Big B. Pollicis longus C. Death C. Flexor digitorum profundus D. Bacteria D. Flexor carpi radialis 25. Which of the following muscles are 31. Inguinal nodes serve the purpose of forearm flexors at the elbow joint? draining lymph from the A. Biceps brachii, brachialis, triceps brachii A. Arm B. Brachioradialis, anconeus, pronator B. Lower neck quadratus C. Neck C. Supinator, brachialis, biceps brachii D. Leg D. Brachialis, brachioradialis, biceps brachii 32. The suffix ism means 26. What is the common origin for the scalenes? A. Condition B. Movement A. C2-C5 C. Rate of exchange B. C2-C7 D. Study of C. C1-T1 D. C5-C7 33. The prefix my(o)- means A. Malignant 27. Which of the following does not flex B. Muscle the wrist? C. Movement D. Extensive A. Flexor carpi radialis B. Flexor carpi ulnaris 34. The membrane that surrounds the C. Pronator quadratus D. Palmaris longus shaft of a long bone is the A. Synovial membrane 28. Which of the following is NOT a B. Bursa hamstring muscle? C. Periosteum D. Peritoneum A. Adductor magnus B. Biceps femoris 35. With the elbow flexed, which C. Semimembranosus muscle supinates the palm D. Semitendinosus A. Pronator B. Supinator C. Quadrator D. Brachialis 29. What muscle forms the outer layer 36. Muscle Energy Technique (MET) of the lateral abdominal wall? can be used to stretch the piriformis A. Rectus abdominis muscle in the supine position by B. Transversalis A. Rotating the knee laterally C. Serratus anterior B. Extending the knee to the chest D. External oblique C. Adducting the knee over the opposite ASIS 3 D. Abducting the knee 43. What muscle is the antagonist to the rhomboids? 37. Which is true of the adductor muscle along the medial femoral region A. Latissimus dorsi B. Levator scapula of the hip? C. Trapezius A. Each has its origin on the pubis bone D. Serratus anterior B. Enhance hip flexion C. Include the pectineus adductors, and 44. Which of the following moves an gracilis extremity away from the midline? D. All of the above A. Adductor 38. Which of the following is TRUE B. Abductor C. Flexor about terminal ganglia? D. Rotator A. They are also known as collateral ganglia B. They receive sympathetic preganglionic 45. Which type of joint is found between fibers the vertebrae? C. They lie close to the vertebral column and the large abdominal arteries A. Ball and socket D. They are located at the end of an B. Gliding autonomic motor Pathway C. Condyloid D. None of the above 39. The prefix nephro means A. Skin color 46. Which is a band of strong, fibrous B. Bone tissue that connects the articular ends of C. Kidney bones and binds them together? D. Sleep A. Tendon B. Fascia 40. The function of lymph is to C. Cancellous tissue A. Drain excess interstitial fluid D. Ligament B. Transport lipids and vitamins C. Protect the body through immune 47. Which blood type is termed the response "universal recipient"? D. All of the above A. O B. A 41. Lymphocytes are also known as C. B A. B cells and C cells D. AB B. L cells and C cells C. B cells and T cells D. D cells and C cells 48. An interosseous ligament of a 42. Immunity acquired as the result of a syndesmosis area is located vaccine is called A. Near the articulation of a joint A. Passive naturally acquired immunity B. Between the radius and ulna to hold B. Active naturally acquired immunity them together C. Passive artificially acquired immunity C. Around the patella bone D. Active artificially acquired immunity D. Between the vertebrae 4 49. AIDS is the acronym for _____ of all the body regions. A. Active immunodeficiency syndrome A. Distal B. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome B. Inferior B. Antibody immunodeficiency syndrome C. Anterior D. Antigen immunodeficiency syndrome D. Posterior 50. The liver drains into the 56. The radiocarpal joint is a (an) A. Hepatic portal vein A. Hinge joint B. Aorta B. Ellipsoid Joint C. Vena cava C. Metacarpophalangeal joint D. Pulmonary artery D. Pivot joint 51. The elbow is proximal to the hand 57. Although the biceps brachii is the and the hand is _____ to the elbow. most vis­ible flexor, another primary flexor muscle is the A. Medial B. Anterior A. Brachialis C. Distal B. Pronator quadratus D. None of the above C. Anconeus D. Triceps brachii 52. Myelinated axon supported by neuroglial cells is 58. Where is the medial malleolus? A. White matter A. Calcaneus B. Gray matter B. Talus C. Nucleus C. Fibula D. Ganglia D. Tibia 53. The _____ are the largest number 59. The left coronary artery arises from of formed elements. the A. Thrombocytes A. Ascending aorta B. Leukocytes B. Descending aorta C. Erythrocytes C. Left atrium D. Monocytes D. Left ventricle 54. The craniosacral system includes 60. Which part of a neuron carries impulses to­ward the cell body? A. Nerves that control the parasympathetic division of the ANS A. Dendrite B. Only the nerves that go to the head B. Axon C. Nerves located in the thoracic area C. Motor unit D. None of the above D. All of the above 55. The plantar region is the most 5 61. The capitulum of the humerus 67. Which is lower than normal adult articulates with the body temperature? A. Radial tuberosity A. 37°C B. Head of the radius B. 98°F C. Olecranon of the ulna C. 98.6°F D. Coracoid D. 39°C 62. The median nerve is part of the 68. The nervous system includes which two separate systems? A. Sacral plexus B. Sciatic nerve A. CNS and PNF C. Brachial plexus B. CVS and PNS D. Lumbar plexus C. CNS and PNS D. CIS and PNF 63. The joint that allows supination and pronation is the 69. Which muscles abduct the scapula? A. Radiocarpal joint A. Serratus anterior/pectoralis minor B. Radioulnar joint B. Rhomboids C. Humeroradial joint C. Latissimus dorsi D. Tibiofemoral joint D. Trapezius 64. Which muscle does the axillary 70. Which is (are) not a part of the nerve innervate? central nervous system (CNS)? A. Deltoid A. Cranial nerves B. Brachia! B. Cerebellum C. Pectoralis major C. White tracts D. None of the above D. Medulla oblongata 65. The wrist and fingers can be 71. The external iliac artery supplies extended by the blood to A. Extensor carpi radialis, longus, brevis, A. The lower limbs extensor digitorum, and ulnaris B. All parts of the trunk B. Brachioradialis C. The neck and back C. Extensor carpi ulnaris and digitorum D. The pelvic organs D. Extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis 66. Which is the MOST highly 72. Which muscle plantar flexes and vascularized tissue? everts the foot? A. Tibialis anterior A. Muscle B. Gastrocnemius B. Ligament C. Plantaris C. Nervous D. Peroneus longus D. Tendon 6 73. The autonomic nervous system is 80. A medial collateral ligament part of the A. Connects the femur to the tibia A. Collating nervous system B. Connects the femur to the fibula B. Enteric nervous system C. Crosses the middle of the knee joint C. Peripheral nervous system D. Attaches to the anterior cruciate D. Central nervous system ligament 74. The normal resting pulse rate range is 81. Which muscle is NOT part of the rotator cuff? A. 70-80 beats per minute B. 80-90 beats per minute A. Supraspinatus C. 120-130 beats per minute B. Infraspinatus D. All of the above C. Teres major D. Teres minor 75. Which muscle extends the femur? 82. The homeostatic responses of the A. Soleus body are regulated by which two B. Gluteus minimus C. Gluteus maximus systems? D. Peroneus A. Digestive, urinary B. Reproductive, endocrine 76. What is the normal systolic pressure? C. Endocrine, nervous D. Cardiovascular, respiratory A. 80 mrn/Hg B. 90 mm/Hg C. 120 mrn/Hg 83. The most abundant inorganic D. 140 mm/Hg substance in humans is A. Carbohydrate 77. The diaphragm contracts on B. Lipid C. Oxygen A. Inspiration D. Water B. Expiration C. Both D. Neither 84. Which of the following is an acidic pH? 78. Lymph is interstitial fluid consisting of A. 14 A. Water, cell debris, gases, metabolic B. 12 wastes, bacteria C. 10 B. Water and gas D. 6 C. Blood, lymphocytes, and bacteria D. Water alone 79. The nerve(s) that innervate the five 85. What type of synovial joint is the flexor muscles of the forearm is (are) the ankle? A. Radial A. Pivot B. Median B. Gliding C. Median and ulnar C. Hinge D. Radial and ulnar D. Ellipsoid 7 86. Neurotransmitters are 92. Which of the following processes forms a joint? A. Chemical messengers B. Short hairs that move the neurons A. Meatus C. Flagella B. Crest D. Prokaryotes C. Tuberosity D. Condyle 87. The ball and socket joint associated with the pelvis is the 93. Which of the following are paired cranial bones? A. Pubic symphysis B. Sacroiliac A. Occipital and sphenoid C. Iliofemoral B. Temporal and parietal D. Femoroiliac C. Frontal and ethmoid D. Parietal and ethmoid 88. The space between two nerve cells is called the 94. Which of the following is TRUE with regard to the humerus? A. Borland gap B. Axolemma A. The olecranon fossa is an anterior C. Renshaw opening depression that receives the ulna's D. Synapse olecranon process B. The medial and lateral epicondyles are 89. The outermost layer of epidermis is rough projections on either side of the composed of proximal end C. The radial fossa is a posterior A. Dermis epithelium depression that receives the head of the B. Subcutaneous cuboidal epithelium radius when the forearm is flexed C. Stratified columnar epithelium D. Its trochlea articulates with the ulna D. Stratified squamous epithelium 95. The prominence felt on the medial 90. Which of the following is TRUE surface of the ankle is the about aging of the integumentary system starting with the late forties? A. Fibular notch B. Condyle A. Collagen fibers increase C. Malleolus B. Elasticity increases in elastic fibers D. Tarsus C. Fibroblasts decrease in number D. Hair and nail growth tends to speed up 91. What is the primary salt that makes 96. The largest and strongest tarsal bone matrix hard? bone is the A. Calcium carbonate A. Calcaneus B. Potassium chloride B. Cuboid C. Sodium chloride C. Lateral cuneiform D. None of the above D. Navicular 8  99. Which subtype of diarthrosis joint is 97. Which of the following joint found in the knee, elbow, and ankle? classifications is described as freely A. Ball-and-socket movable? B. Ellipsoidal A. Amphiarthrosis C. Gliding B. Cartilaginous D. Hinge C. Diarthrosis D. Fibrous 100. Which of the following is an intra-articular ligament of the knee? 98. The joint between the trapezium A. Anterior cruciate carpal bone and the thumb's metacarpal B. Arcuate popliteal is which kind of joint? C. Medial collateral D. Oblique popliteal A. Ball-and-socket B. Ellipsoidal C. Gliding D. Saddle 101. The functions of the erector A. Axillary, cranial, femoral spinae muscles are B. Brachiocephalic, thoracic, abdominal C. Peroneal, cranial, abdominal A. Unilateral flexion of the spine, D. Brachiocephalic, femoral, axillary extension of the hip bilaterally B. Bilateral flexion of the spine, flexion of 105. For muscular contraction to the hip unilaterally occur, which of the following molecules C. Bilateral extension of the spine, lateral are needed? flexion of the spine D. Unilateral extension of the spine, A. Actin, myosin bilateral flexion of the spine B. Calcitonin, tropin C. Myosin, melanin 102. Which muscles invert the foot? D. Actin, tropin A. Peroneus longus and brevis B. Tibialis anterior and posterior 106. A motor neuron sends information C. Flexor and extensor digitorum longus from D. Gastrocnemius and soleus A. CNS to muscles/glands 103. A muscular contraction in which B. Sensory receptors to CNS the length of the muscle shortens is C. ANF to PNS D. PNS to ANF called A. Isometric 107. Stimulation of the sympathetic B. Static nervous system will C. Isotonic A. Increase heart rate D. Eccentric B. Decrease heart rate C. Decrease tidal volume 104. The aorta braches into which D. Increase insulin dependence three trunks? 108. The passage of food throughout the 9 intestinal tract is possible because of C. Circulatory system D. Kidney A. Mastication B. Fermentation C. Peristalsis 115. After a muscular contraction, a D. Defibrillation muscle loses the ability to respond to stimulation. This is known as the _____ 109. The pulmonary veins carry _____ period. blood from the lungs to the heart. A. Latent A. Oxygenated B. Refractory B. Deoxygenated C. Relaxation C. Carbon dioxide-rich D. Contraction D. Carbon monoxide-rich 116. The principal function of insulin is 110. Which of the following is not part of the to axial skeleton? A. Lower blood glucose levels A. Hyoid B. Ribs B. Raise blood glucose levels C. Clavicle C. Lower blood count D. Vertebrae D. Raise blood count 111. Proprioceptors identify which of the 117. The part of the brain responsible following? for coordination and balance is called the A. Light changes in the environment and pupils A. Cerebellum B. Pain and directions of movement B. Cerebrum C. Position of body parts and directions of C. Medulla movement D. Chemical changes and position of body D. Thalamus parts 112. The direction of urine output is A. Bladder, ureters, urethra, kidneys 118. The molecule that binds oxygen B. Kidneys, urethra, ureters, bladder and carbon dioxide in erythrocytes is C. Urethra, ureters, kidneys, bladder D. Kidneys, ureters, bladder, urethra A. Antigen B. Thrombin 113. The "master gland" of the C. Hemoglobin endocrine system is the D. Globulin A. Thymus 119. The cells involved with the immune B. Pituitary system are called C. Adrenal D. Thyroid A. Erythrocytes B. Leukocytes C. Thrombocytes 114. The nephron is the functional unit D. Chondrocytes of the A. Cell 120. A muscle contraction in which the B. Nervous system muscle fiber length is constant is called 10  massaging a client and a muscle A. Isotonic contraction releases? B. Isometric C. Concentric A. Spindle cells D. Eccentric B. Golgi tendon C. Chemoreceptor 121. The ileocecal valve is located D. Thermoreceptor between the 127. Irritability of a muscle is defined as A. Stomach and small intestine the ability of a muscle to B. Small intestine and large intestine C. Esophagus and stomach A. Return to its original shape after D. Gallbladder and liver contraction B. Stretch 122. The Golgi tendon is responsible C. Receive and react to stimuli for detecting change in muscle D. Contract or shorten A. Length 128. An increase in the lumen of the B. Striation vein is called C. Composition D. Tension A. Vasoconstriction B. Phlebitis 123. Which of the following carries C. Vasodilation deoxygenated blood to the lungs? D. Thrombosis A. Pulmonary veins 129. One complete cycle of inhalation B. Pulmonary arteries and expiration is known as C. Aorta D. Inferior vena cava A. Cellular respiration B. Forced expiration C. Forced inspiration D. Tidal volume 124. Which muscle(s) are involved in forced res­piration? 130. The origin of the gluteus maximus is the A. External intercostals B. SCM A. Superior gluteal line C. Internal intercostals B. Middle gluteal line D. Scalenes C. Inferior gluteal line D. Linea aspera 125. Which nerve innervates the frontalis muscle? 131. Which muscle crosses two joints? A. Vagus (X) A. Popliteus B. Facial (VII) B. Brachialis C. Trigeminal (V) C. Soleus D. Trochlear (IV) D. Rectus femoris 126. What proprioceptor is involved 132. The insertion of the triceps is the while 11 A. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus B. Medial epicondyle of the humerus 139. Which muscle's action is elevation C. Olecranon process of the radius and downward rotation of the scapula? D. Olecranon process of the ulna A. Levator scapula 133. All of these muscle extend the B. Trapezius humerus except: C. Rhomboid D. Teres major A. Latissimus dorsi B. Biceps brachii 140. Which muscle stabilizes the C. Teres major humerus in the glenoid fossa and D. Teres minor abducts the humerus? 134. The strongest lateral hip rotator is A. Teres major B. Trapezius A. Iliopsoas C. Subscapularis B. Adductor magnus D. Supraspinatus C. Piriformis D. Sartorius 141. The muscle that opposes the 135. Which muscles are located in the serratus anterior is the femoral region? A. Teres major B. Infraspinatus A. Hamstrings C. Rhomboid major B. Quadriceps D. Levator scapula C. Adductors D. Scalenes 142. The biceps femoris performs 136. Which tendons make up the which two actions? Achilles tendon? A. Extension and medial rotation B. Flexion and medial rotation A. Gastrocnemius and soleus C. Extension and abduction B. Plantaris and semitendinosus D. Flexion and extension C. Semitendinosus and soleus D. Biceps femoris and gastrocnemius 137. All of the following abduct the hip 143. Which muscle is shortened when a except person is wearing high-heeled shoes? A. Tibialis anterior A. Gluteus medius B. Peroneus tertius B. Sartorius C. Popliteus C. Gracilis D. Gastrocnemius D. Tensor fascia latae 144. A client comes in for a massage, 138. Which muscle would you be and the scapula is still abducted after affecting when massaging lateral to the the massage. Which muscle do you vastus Lateralis? recommend that the client stretch? A. Pectineus A. Pectoralis minor B. Tensor fasciae latae B. Rhomboids C. Vastus medialis C. Subscapularis D. Gracilis D. Latissimus dorsi 12  C. Peroneus longus 145. What do you call the bony D. Peroneus tertius prominence at the proximal end of the ulna? 151. Which muscle is involved in shin splints? A. Medial epicondyle B. Lateral epicondyle A. Soleus C. Olecranon process B. Tibialis anterior and posterior D. Styloid process C. Poplitius D. Plantaris 146. When massaging the lateral head of the fibula, of which structure should 152. The hamstring muscles from you be careful? medial to lateral are A. Popliteal endangerment site A. Biceps femoris, semitendinosus, B. Peroneal nerve semimembranosus C. Tibial nerve B. Semitendinosus, semimembranosus, D. Femoral nerve biceps femoris C. Semimembranosus, semitendinosus, 147. With your client in the supine position, rectus femoris how do you expose the serratus anterior? D. Semimembranosus, semitendinosus, biceps femoris A. Lateral rotation and adduction of the arm B. Medial rotation and adduction of the arm 153. Where do you palpate the sciatic C. Horizontal abduction of the arm D. Horizontal adduction of the arm notch? A. Deep in the adductor region 148. Hypercontraction of the pectoralis B. Deep in the gluteal region minor causes rounded shoulders. Which C. Deep in the femoral region muscle would be weak and overstretched? D. Deep in the inguinal region A. Pectoralis minor B. Rhomboid C. Subclavius D. Levator scapula 149. All of these muscles share a 154. Which movement brings the arm common attachment: closer to the midline? A. Biceps brachii, brachioradialis, A. Abduction coracobrachialis B. Coracobrachialis, brachioradialis, B. Adduction pectoralis minor C. Circumduction C. Pectoralis minor, coracobrachialis, D. Supination brachioradialis D. Biceps brachii, coracobrachialis, 155. We do not massage the SCM pectoralis minor bilaterally be­cause of the 150. All of the following dorsiflex the A. Femoral artery B. Common carotid artery ankle except the: C. Peroneal artery A. Tibialis anterior D. Tibial artery B. Extensor hallucis longus 13 156. The muscle(s) located in the C. Adduction posterior femoral region is/are the D. Extension A. Quadriceps 163. Medial rotation of the forearm is B. Hamstrings specifically termed C. Latissimus dorsi D. Triceps brachii A. Plantarflexion B. Dorsiflexion 157. The muscle of the rotator cuff C. Supination responsible for medial rotation is D. Pronation A. Supraspinatus 164. The term given to the action when B. Infraspinatus the foot is pulled closer so the anterior C. Teres minor D. Subscapulartis angle decreases is 158. This muscle initiates walking: A. Plantarflexion B. Dorsiflexion A. Gluteus medius C. Supination B. Iliopsoas D. Pronation C. Semimembranosus D. Tibialis posterior 165. Which term refers to the 159. A bursa sac is usually located movement of the feet where the soles of the feet are facing each other and the A. Inside of a joint person's weight is on the lateral edges? B. Between the bone and a tendon C. Between muscle and tendon A. Inversion D. Between muscle and bone B. Eversion C. Circumduction 160. What kind of joint allows movement in D. Pronation a single plane? A. Hinge joint B. Condyloid joint C. Ellipsoid joint D. Ball-and-socket joint 161. What movement is created when 166. What is the only saddle joint found moving parallel to the sagittal plane and in the body? the angle at the joint increases? A. Atlantoaxial A. Abduction B. Knee B. Extension C. Hip C. Hyperextension D. Thumb D. Flexion 167. What is the bony landmark used to 162. What movement is created when locate the distal end of the ulna? moving parallel to the coronal plane with A. Medial epicondyle the body part moving further from the B. Lateral epicondyle midline? C. Olecranon process A. Flexion D. Styloid process B. Abduction 14 168. What is the axis? A. Medial clavicle B. Mastoid process A. Second cervical vertebrae C. Superior sternum B. First cervical vertebrae D. Inferior sternum C. The joint between the skull and the first cervical vertebrae 175. What muscle is the antagonist to D. The joint between the radius and ulna the sternocleidomastoid? 169. The joint between the skull and the A. Anterior scalene first cervical vertebrae is called the B. Splenius cervicis C. Trapezius A. Atlantoaxial joint D. Splenius capitis B. Axioatlantal joint C. Atlantooccipital joint 176. Which muscle can rotate the D. Intervertebral joint head? 170. What type of joint is the pubic A. SCM symphysis? B. Splenius capitis C. Trapezius A. Gliding D. A and B B. Synarthrodial C. Amphiarthrodial 177. What is the insertion of D. Diarthrodial brachioradialis? 171. Another name for the cartilage at A. Styloid process of radius the knee is the B. Lateral epicondyle of humerus C. Medial epicondyle of humerus A. Collateral D. Styloid process of ulna B. Cruciate C. Patella 178. What is the origin of the teres D. Meniscus minor? A. Vertebral border of scapula B. Axillary border of scapula C. Lesser tubercle 172. How many ribs are there in the body? D. Greater tubercle A. 12 179. What muscle shares an B. 15 attachment with the deltoids? C. 24 D. 7 A. Levator scapula B. Biceps brachialis C. Trapezius 173. The shoulder joint is called the D. Supraspinatus A. Humeroglenoid joint B. Humeroulnar joint 180. Which rotator cuff muscle is C. Acromioclavicular joint positioned on the anterior on the D. Glenohumeral joint scapula? 174. What is the insertion for the A. Supraspinatus sternocleidomastoid? B. Infraspinatus C. Subscapularis 15 D. Teres minor NOT found in the anterior leg? 181. What is the insertion for a A. Peroneus longus B. Tibialis anterior pectoralis major? C. Extensor hallucis longus A. Medial clavicle D. Extensor digitorum longus B. Medial bicepital groove C. Sternum 188. Where is the origin of the tennis D. Lateral bicepital groove elbow found? 182. What name may be given to a A. Medial epicondyle of humerus B. Styloid process of ulna muscle that acts on the thumb? C. Lateral epicondyle of humerus A. Thallucis D. Styloid process of radius B. Longus C. Pollicis 189. A broad, flattened tendon-like D. Brevis sheet of connective tissue is called a 183. Which erector spinae muscle is A. Retinaculum B. Aponeurosis the most medial of the group? C. Slip A. Spinalis D. Digitation B. Multifidus C. Longissimus 190. Which vessel takes the blood from D. Iliocostalis the heart to the lungs? 184. What is the insertion site for the A. Pulmonary arteries B. Pulmonary veins levator scapulae? C. Coronary arteries A. Ribs 1-8 D. Coronary veins B. Medial border of the scapula C. Superior angle of the scapula D. Cl-C4 191. The kidneys are positioned 185. What is the action for the gluteus approximately between Maximus? A. The 9th and 12th ribs A. Flexion of hip, medial rotation B. The 12th rib and the 5th lumbar vertebra B. Extension of hip, medial rotation C. The 12th rib and 3rd lumbar vertebra C. Flexion of hip, medial rotation D. The 8th and 12th ribs D. Extension of hip, lateral rotation 192. What nerve branches into the 186. What action does piriformis play? tibial and common peroneal nerve? A. Abducts and medially rotates A. Superior gluteal B. Adducts and medially rotates B. Inferior gluteal C. Abducts and laterally rotates C. Sciatic D. Adducts and laterally rotates D. Femoral 187. Which of the following muscles is 193. The nerve that supplies the 16 adductors of the thigh is the A. Femoral 197. The tibial nerve innervates which B. Superior gluteal C. Tibial of the following muscles? D. Obturator A. Tibialis anterior B. Extensor hallucis longus 194. The parasympathetic nervous C. Semitendonosis system causes the body to D. Tibialis posterior A. Increase heart rate 198. What helps circulate or "pump" B. Increase respiration C. Decrease adrenaline and heart rate lymphatic fluid throughout the body? D. Decrease excretory processes A. Heart B. Lymph nodes 195. What nerve innervates the C. Spleen quadriceps? D. Skeletal muscles A. Femoral B. Tibial 199. What is the name of the fascia that C. Superior gluteal wraps the muscle bellies? D. Obturator A. Endomysium B. Perimysium 196. How many pairs of cranial nerves C. Epimysium are there? D. Sarcolemma A. 35 B. 31 200. Where does the lymphatic system C. 12 drain? D. 11 A. Aorta B. Lymph nodes C. Subclavian vein D. Kidneys The Answers to Part 1 (First 100 questions) 17 1. A 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. B 11. B 12. C 13. D 14. C 15. A 16. D 17. B 18. D 19. D 20. A 21. B 22. D 23. B 24. B 25. D 26. B 27. C 28. A 29. D 30. C 31. D 32. A 33. B 34. C 35. B 36. C 37. D 38. D 39. C 40. D 41. C 42. D 43. D 44. B 45. B 46. D 47. D 48. B 49. B 50. A 51. C 52. A 53. C 54. A 55. B 56. B 57. A 58. D 59. A 60. A 61. B 62. C 63. B 64. A 65. A 66. A 67. B 68. C 69. A 70. A 71. A 72. D 73. C 74. A 75. C 76. C 77. A 78. A 79. C 80. A 81. C 82. C 83. D 84. D 85. C 86. A 87. C 88. D 89. D 90. C 91. D 92. D 93. B 94. D 95. C 96. A 97. C 98. D 99. D 100. A The Answers to Part 1 (Second 100 questions) 18  1. C 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. A 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. C 11. C 12. D 13. B 14. D 15. B 16. A 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. B 21. B 22. D 23. B 24. C 25. B 26. A 27. C 28. C 29. D 30. A 31. D 32. D 33. B 34. C 35. C 36. A 37. C 38. B 39. A 40. D 41. C 42. D 43. D 44. A 45. C 46. B 47. C 48. B 49. D 50. C 51. B 52. D 53. B 54. B 55. B 56. B 57. D 58. B 59. B 60. A 61. B 62. B 63. D 64. B 65. A 66. D 67. D 68. A 69. C 70. C 71. D 72. C 73. D 74. B 75. D 76. D 77. A 78. B 79. C 80. C 81. D 82. C 83. A 84. C 85. D 86. C 87. A 88. C 89. B 90. A 91. C 92. C 93. D 94. C 95. A 96. C 97. D 98. D 99. B 100. C Part 2: Pathology 19 DIRECTIONS: Each of the questions or statements below is followed by four suggested answers or completions. Select one answer that is best in each case. 1. Which muscle would be paralyzed if relax? the sciatic nerve were severed? A. Pectorals A. Trapezius B. Rhomboids B. Biceps femoris C. Erector spinae C. Gluteus maximus D. Trapezius D. Erector spinae 7. If a client has skin damaged by the 2. Senile lentigo or liver spots on the burns of fire, chemicals, or radiation and skin requires grafting A. Are not contraindicated for massage A. Massage can be done after the graft B. Are contraindicated for massage heals C. Should be referred to a dermatologist B. This is a third-degree burn D. Can be a symptom of cancer C. Gentle range of motion (ROM) can increase mobility 3. If massage is used in early stages D. All of the above of fracture healing, it should be given particularly on the area 8. Which technique is recommended for rheumatoid arthritis? A. Proximal to the actual site B. Distal to the actual site A. Effleurage C. Medial to the actual site B. Gentle friction D. Lateral to the actual site C. Kneading D. Tapotement 4. Contraindicated fungal skin infections include 9. Massage can be beneficial for a headache with symptom(s) of A. Herpes simplex B. Warts A. Sinus pressure C. Athlete's foot B. Vascular disruption D. All of the above C. Release of toxins D. All of the above 5. Which condition is present when there is an injury of the ulnar nerve at 10. Thorough assessment of a client’s the elbow? medical intake reveals A. Inability to flex fingers fully A. Addictions B. Spasticity B. Emotional problems C. Personal information C. Flaccidity D. Contraindications for massage D. Spasms 11. Herpes simplex is an _____ infection of the skin. 6. In treating a patient with kyphosis, A. Bacterial which muscle or muscles should the B. Viral massage therapist try to stretch and C. Noncontagious 20 D. Autoimmune D. None of the above 12. Adhesion development and 18. When a client has fibromyalgia, it is excessive scarring following trauma can best to be prevented or reduced with A. Avoid giving a massage due to the pain A. Joint movements B. Assess the "tender points" and tailor B. Petrissage the treatment C. Friction massage C. Wait until the disease is in remission D. Passive movements D. Refer to a reflexologist 13. Most muscle strains occur on the 19. A sprain with extensive swelling is _____ caused by an injury to the A. Tendon A. Muscle B. Antagonist muscle B. Wrist C. Tight, spasmed muscle C. Ligament D. All of the above D. Tendon 14. Techniques to avoid using on a 20. Massage can be beneficial if a pregnant client are heavy percussion client is recovering from pneumonia and because A. Deep tissue massage A. Tapotemem and vibration on the chest can B. Tapotement help drain the secretions C. Petrissage B. The client is no longer contagious C. The client can resume normal activity D. Lymph stimulation D. None of the above 15. Which of the following is a virus-induced mass produced by 27. To reduce adhesions and fibrosis, uncontrolled epithelial skin cell growth? which of the following movements is used? A. Moles B. Cyst A. Cross-fiber friction B. Wringing C. Carbuncle C. Pressing D. Warts D. Squeezing 16. If a client has a hernia, the best 28. Massage interfaces with the effects approach is of many medications; therefore, it is A. Clearance from a physician important to reference drugs in the B. Local contraindication around A. Gray's Anatomy affected area B. Physicians' Desk Reference C. To reschedule appointment C. Webster's dictionary D. Start the massage in a prone position D. Medical dictionary 17. In order to evaluate projected pain it 29. Massage therapists should be able is nec­essary to know the to assess the effects of medications that alter muscle tone, cardiovascular A. Portion of the brain involved B. Proximal nerve that is compressed function, and C. Distal nerve that is compressed A. Anticoagulants 21 B. Personality C. Analgesics 35. Severe varicose veins are a (an) D. All of the above _____ for massage. 30. Why is it important to have the A. Indication illnesses and/or medical conditions B. Taboo available before a massage? C. Embolus D. Contraindication A. The state requires this B. For the purpose of assessing any 36. Sciatic nerve damage diminishes potential contraindication the ability to C. If you are giving a relaxation massage, it is not necessary A. Flex the hip D. It is not necessary to do an intake B. Flex the knee unless you are a nurse C. Adduct the hip D. Abduct the hip 31. Pathogenic organisms cause the development of many disease 37. Swelling of one entire leg is usually processes and include caused by pathology in A. Virus and bacteria A. Heart muscle B. Fungi B. A blood vessel C. Protozoa C. Kidney D. All of the above D. Liver 32. Severe strain of the trapezius and 38. In a patient with subdeltoid bursitis, deltoid muscles is called the pain is worse if the arm is A. Racquetball shoulder A. Abducted B. Tennis elbow B. Adducted C. Skier's snap C. Hyperextended D. Bowler's break D. Laterally rotated 33. Overstretching of the gracilis and 39. Arthritis is a (an) adductor muscle on the inner thigh A. Vitamin D deficiency results from B. Vitamin C deficiency A. Soccer C. Inflammation of the joints B. Tennis D. Bone fracture C. Horseback riding D. Bowling 34. The client may react to pain with 40. Facial paralysis can be due to a lesion in which cranial nerve? A. Fear and anxiety B. Ischemic response A. III C. Active movement B. VI D. Passive movement C. VII 22 D. VIII D. Vibration 41. With chronic swelling around the 47. Muscular dystrophy is characterized patella, what massage technique do you by degeneration and wasting of use on the thigh? A. Muscle tissue A. Kneading of the thigh B. Nervous tissue B. Friction of the knee C. Epithelial tissue C. Effleurage proximal to knee D. All of the above D. Effleurage distal to knee 48. Massage is helpful with medical 42. Inflammation of the walls of a vein supervision for is called A. Rheumatoid arthritis A. Aneurysm B. Lupus B. Phlebitis C. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Varicose vein D. All of the above D. Atherosclerosis 49. A term that means an abnormally 43. When treating swelling due to a low level of WBCs is dislocated knee, which technique is A. Leukopenia valuable? B. Leukocytopenia A. Effleurage C. Leukocytosis B. Kneading D. Leukophoma C. Tapotement D. Friction 50. Tight hamstrings contribute to back pain due to 44. Most stress and pain patterns that respond to therapeutic massage involve A. Limited lumbar movement B. Ischial origin the C. Limited hip flexion A. Circulatory and nervous system D. All of the above B. Nervous and endocrine systems C. Muscle system 51. Carpal tunnel syndrome affects the D. None of the above A. Volar aspect of the wrist B. Dorsal wrist 45. To treat the 7th cranial nerve palsy C. Anterior forearm (Bell's palsy), brisk friction kneading D. Forearm extensors should be done A. From the mandible to hairline vertically B. From the hairline to maxilla C. Transversely with both hands D. Not at all 52. When there is damage to the ulnar 46. According to Cyriax, which stroke is nerve with the inability to flex the fingers BEST for tenosynovitis? strongly, which condition would be present? A. Effleurage B. Transverse friction A. Flaccidity C. Percussion 23 B. Spasticity C. Spasm 59. Shin splint syndrome affects the D. All of the above A. Lateral malleolus 53. Cutting the median nerve results in B. Periosteum around the tibia the inability to C. Fibula D. All of the above A. Flex the thumb B. Extend the wrist 60. Our emotions can lead to disease C. Extend the elbow with the excess use of D. Supinate the arm A. Food 54. Which is an example of a fungus B. Nicotine infection? C. Alcohol and drugs D. All of the above A. Athlete's foot B. Furuncle 61. Somatic pain arises from the C. Typhoid stimulation of D. Dysentery A. Organ receptors 55. Fusiform swelling in the fingers and B. Noxious material joint calcification of the hand are seen in C. Receptors of the skin, muscles, or joints A. Gout D. Referred areas B. Arthritis C. Polio 62. In pregnancy, a contraindication for D. Rheumatoid arthritis prenatal massage is 56. Loss of function of the wrist and A. Varicose veins outer fingers is due to an injury to the B. Toxemia C. Dizziness A. Brachial plexus D. All of the above B. Radial nerve C. Median nerve 63. The following deviations that D. Ulnar nerve suggest the need for evaluation and referral for cardiovascular clients are 57. A survivor of abuse can benefit from massage by A. Pulse over 90 or under 60 B. Red, warm, or hard veins A. Feeling a sense of safety C. Pain and tenderness of extremities B. Releasing or letting go D. All of the above C. Retrieving memory D. All of the above 58. Sciatic nerve injury may include 64. Flaccid paralysis can be benefited symptoms of by the A. A herniated disc A. Decrease in metabolic heat production B. A dislocated hip B. Increase in heart rate and blood C. Osteoarthritis of the lumbosacral spine pressure D. All of the above C. Deep stroking and kneading massage 24 D. Relaxation of muscle tissue 71. A first-degree burn is characterized by 65. Myofascial pain syndrome is also A. Involvement of the dermis and known as epidermis A. Myofascitis B. Blisters B. Fibromyositis C. Severe pain C. Myofascitis trigger points D. A typical sunburn D. All of the above 72. A second-degree burn is 66. Pain sensations are modified by the characterized by release of neurochemicals from the A. Involvement of the entire epidermis and CNS, including possibly some of the dermis B. No loss of skin functions A. Adrenaline C. Damage to most hair follicles and sweat B. Endorphins and enkephalins glands C. Thyroxin D. Never scarring D. Prostaglandins 73. What is the name of the fracture of 67. Massage therapy is used for pain the distal end of the radius in which the control in distal fragment is displaced posteriorly? A. Labor and delivery A. Stress fracture B. Neuritis, neuralgia B. Spiral fracture C. Whiplash C. Pott's fracture D. All of the above D. Colles' fracture 68. A systemic inflammatory disease is 74. Which of the following is defined as a chronic condition such as the degeneration of cartilage allowing A. Arthritis the bony ends to touch, usually B. Bronchitis associated with the elderly? C. Asthma D. All of the above A. Osteoarthritis B. Osteogenic sarcoma C. Osteomyelitis 69. The intake history of a client D. Osteopenia suffering from childhood abuse is very important because 75. Limitation due to the stretching of A. You can act as a psychotherapist fibrous tissues is called B. It defines client boundaries and assures A. Hard end feel protection B. Springy end feel C. It is easy for a client to receive a massage C. Soft end feel D. You will be able to make a diagnosis D. Acute inflammation 70. A massage therapist needs to know 76. Which ligament is stretched or torn that the mechanism of pain includes in about 70% of all serious knee injuries? A. Physiological aspects B. Social aspects A. Anterior cruciate C. Psychological aspects B. Arcuate popliteal D. All of the above C. Lateral collateral 25 D. Medial collateral C. Preventing the voltage leakage channels from leaking 77. When injured by trauma or D. Preventing the opening of infection, neurons of the central nervous voltage-gated sodium channels system 83. Epilepsy is characterized by A. Repair slowly B. Don't repair A. Short, recurrent periodic attacks of C. Require transplants motor, sensory, or psychological malfunction D. Self-destruct B. Epileptic seizures, which are initiated by abnormal, synchronous electrical 78. Symptoms of the skin marked by an discharges from the brain elevation with clear fluid from contact C. Contracting skeletal muscles with poison ivy is called a involuntarily A. Cyst D. All of the above B. Vesicle C. Macule 84. Which of the following is TRUE D. Laceration about headaches? 79. Cancer is a disease that can be A. Analgesic and tranquilizing compounds are spread through the generally not effective for migraine headaches B. Migraines have been found to be helped by A. Genes drugs that constrict the blood vessels B. Lymphatic and blood system C. Tension headaches classically occur in the occipital and temporal muscles C. Endocrine system D. All of the above D. Digestive system 85. Loss of function of an entire arm is 80. Weak thumb movements, pain in due to injury of the the palm and fingers, and an inability to pronate the forearm is characteristic of A. Ulnar nerve an injury to which nerve? B. Median nerve C. Radial nerve A. Median D. Brachial plexus B. Medial pectoral C. Musculocutaneous D. Radial 86. A ringing, roaring, or clicking in the ears is known as 81. Massage is NOT performed on an A. Keratitis area that is B. Mydriasis A. Bleeding C. Scotoma B. Swollen D. Tinnitus C. Burned D. All of the above 82. Local anesthetics, such as procaine 87. A lower-than-normal number of (Novocaine), block pain and other RBCs is termed sensations by A. Hypoxia A. Distracting the signal to the brain B. Erythropoietin B. Numbing the blood vessels next to the C. Normoblastic cut D. Anemia 26  C. Hepatic immune virus 88. A rapid resting heart or pulse rate D. Human immunodeficiency virus over 100 beats per minute is termed 94. Which term means an A. Bradycardia exaggeration of the lumbar curve of the B. Myocardial vertebral column? C. Pericardia D. Tachycardia A. Hyperlordosis B. Kyphosis 89. The artificial cleansing and C. Scoliosis excretion of waste products from the D. Spina bifida blood is properly termed 95. The symptoms of an upper A. Hemodialysis respiratory infection including bronchitis, B. Blood clearance cold, and sinusitis can benefit from C. Kidney evacuation D. Membrane indwelling A. Light massage to area B. Tapotement on the chest 90. Cardiac conditions, diabetes, lung C. Friction to the pectoral muscles disease, and high or low blood pressure D. Slapping on the back are examples of contraindications for 96. A chronic, inflammatory disorder A. Hydrotherapy that B. Hot stone massage produces sporadic narrowing of airways C. Swedish massage with periods of coughing, difficult D. All of the above breathing, and wheezing is called 91. Dysfunction caused by physical A. Asthma trauma or strain is associated with the B. Bronchitis C. Emphysema A. Autonomic nervous system D. Tuberculosis B. Sympathetic nervous system C. Pain-spasm-pain cycle 97. All of the following are local D. Parasympathetic nervous system (regional) contraindications for massage EXCEPT 92. Which of the following causes an increase in body temperature? A. Recent bum B. Undiagnosed lump A. Thyroid hormones C. Open sore B. Increased body production of D. Shock epinephrine and norepinephrine into the blood C. Contraction of skeletal muscles D. All of the above 93. Acquired immune deficiency 98. Somatic pain arises from syndrome (AIDS) is caused by HIV, stimulation of receptors in the skin or which is an acronym for from stimulation of receptors in the A. Having the immune virus B. Hapten immune virus A. Viscera B. Peritoneum 27 C. Brain C. Indication D. Muscle, joints, tendons, and fascia D. Benefit 100. Dr. Travell and Dr. Chai tow agree that gentle stretching to reset the normal resting length of the muscle must follow therapy using A. Polarity B. Kinesiology 99. Acute inflammation is a massage C. Trigger points D. Meridians A. Side effect B. Contraindication The Answers to Part 2 Pathology Sample Test 28  1. B 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. A 7. D 8. B 9. D 10. D 11. B 12. C 13. D 14. A 15. D 16. B 17. B 18. B 19. C 20. A 21. D 22. B 23. B 24. B 25. B 26. D 27. A 28. B 29. D 30. B 31. D 32. A 33. C 34. A 35. D 36. B 37. B 38. A 39. C 40. C 41. C 42. B 43. A 44. B 45. A 46. B 47. A 48. D 49. A 50. D 51. A 52. A 53. A 54. A 55. D 56. D 57. D 58. D 59. B 60. C 61. D 62. D 63. D 64. C 65. D 66. B 67. D 68. D 69. B 70. D 71. D 72. A 73. D 74. A 75. B 76. A 77. B 78. B 79. B 80. A 81. D 82. D 83. D 84. D 85. D 86. D 87. D 88. D 89. A 90. A 91. C 92. D 93. D 94. A 95. A 96. A 97. D 98. D 99. B 100. C Part 3: Massage Practicum And Application 29 DIRECTIONS: Each of the questions or statements below is followed by four suggested answers or completions. Select one answer that is best in each case. 1. Which is a skill for developing an A. Handling body fluids optimal client relationship? B. Performing invasive medical procedures A. Acceptance C. Doing all massage therapy B. Ignoring C. Listening 7. When massaging the thigh in the D. Humoring supine position, which is (are) involved? 2. When the client reveals sensitive A. Hamstrings information and honest thoughts and B. Quadriceps feelings, it is known as C. Gluteals D. Gastrocnemius A. Self-disclosure B. Empathy 8. The universal precautions were C. Consoling designed by OSHA primarily for D. Moralizing A. Clinical massage therapists 3. The sequences and directions of B. Practitioners who handle body fluids Swedish massage strokes were adapted C. Healthcare workers to benefit the D. All of the above A. Muscle attachments 9. In first aid for a choking victim, you B. Subcutaneous adipose tissue want the conscious victim to C. Autonomic nervous system D. Lymph drainage and venous return A. Cough B. Swallow 4. Which BEST describes the effects of C. Vomit massage therapy? D. Inhale A. Increased venous and lymph flow 10. In order to control the spread of B. Increased venous, decreased arterial flow pathogenic microorganisms, the C. Decreased venous and lymph flow therapist should D. Decreased venous, increased lymph flow A. Wash hands often 5. Some roadblocks to communication B. Disinfect equipment between therapist and client include C. Do not massage when ill D. All of the above A. Advising and giving solutions B. Judging and criticizing C. Interpreting and analyzing D. All of the above 11. Endangerment sites should be avoided during a massage because 6. Universal precautions are required A. They are bilaterally symmetrical when B. They are areas that can be easily 30 injured C. Ignorance C. They are areas that are dysfunctional D. Cool ice D. They are hard to remember 18. The draping method that covers the 12. A pregnant client should have entire body is called pillows under her head and between her knees when she is lying A. Top-cover B. Full-sheet A. On her side C. Diaper B. Supine D. Wrapping C. Prone D. A and B 19. In the prone position, support is put under the _____ to ease the pressure 13. A pre-event sports massage is on the lower back. shorter with the movements performed A. Ankles A. Precisely B. Abdomen B. Using heat C. Shoulders C. Slower D. Chest D. Faster 20. The draping method that covers 14. Cross-fiber massage must be the table and wraps the client is called applied in which direction to the fibers? A. Top-cover A. Horizontal B. Full-sheet B. Perpendicular C. Diaper C. Triangular D. Wrapping D. Trapezoidal 21. Most current massage styles are 15. All the following are endangerment based on sites EXCEPT A. Swedish movements A. Popliteal artery B. Swiss movements B. Kidney region C. German movements C. Brachial plexus D. Greek movements D. Transverse colon 22. Nerve trunks and centers are 16. In the supine position a bolster is sometimes chosen as sites for the placed under the _____ to take pressure application of off the lower back. A. Rolling A. Neck B. Rocking B. Ankle C. Pressure C. Knees D. Vibration D. Sacrum 17. Cold applied for therapeutic 23. Support for the cervical area can be purposes is called provided by a _____ in the supine position. A. Cryptology B. Cryotherapy A. Triangle 31 B. Face cradle B. Centering C. Shoulder cushion C. Rolfing D. Neck roll D. Posturing 24. A bath with a temperature of 85°F 30. A hyperirritable spot that is painful to 95°F is considered when compressed is called a (an) A. Cool A. Trigger point B. Cold B. Pain point C. Tepid C. Ampule D. Hot D. Rolfing 25. The procedure that uses a bouncing 31. Self-awareness and self-care for a movement to improve the flow of lymph massage therapist is essential to through the entire system is called A. Balance the body and mind Lymphatic B. Offer more to the client A. Bounce C. Maintain balance, strength, and B. Sway stamina C. Purging D. All of the above D. Pump manipulation 32. When you are massaging, expose 26. The attempt to bring the structure of only the the body into alignment around a central A. Dorsal side axis is called B. Ventral side A. Structural integration C. Area being massaged B. Trauma D. Sheet being used C. Alignment D. Adjustment 33. Better flexibility is the result of 27. The placement of bolsters in the A. Sustained stretching side-lying position are B. Ballistic stretching C. Weight lifting A. Head supported with pillow D. Bicycling B. Under top leg C. Under top arm 34. Using too much deep pressure D. All of the above causes the muscles to 28. When you become a massage A. Have pain therapist, you must prepare your _____ B. Go limp and _____ C. Relax D. Cramp A. Balance and flexibility B. Strength and stamina C. Mind and body D. All of the above 29. Realignment of muscular and 35. The general effects of percussion connective tissue and reshaping the movements are to tone the muscles by body's physical posture is called A. Vibration A. Adjustment B. Friction 32 C. Kneading C. Diastolic arterial pressure D. Hacking, cupping, slapping, beating D. Systolic arterial pressure 36. A concern with towel draping is that 42. What BEST describes the it technique of Rolfing? A. Is too thick to work with A. Reflex zone therapy B. Is more difficult to master B. German massage C. Is not warm enough C. Structural integration D. Leaves the abdomen exposed D. Neuromuscular massage 37. The idea that stimulation of 43. The cupping technique is best particular body points affects other suited for areas i.s called A. Acute bronchitis A. Chiropractic B. Cancer of the lungs B. Reflexology C. Bronchiectasis C. Rolling D. Acute tracheitis D. Touching 44. The method of holding the sheets 38. The stance in which both feet are when used to turn a client over is called placed perpendicular to the edge of the A. Anchor method table is called the B. Flip method A. Archer C. Turn over method B. Horse D. None of the above C. Moose D. Stirrup 45. An excellent stroke for assessing tissues is 39. Joint mobilization is a passive A. Effleurage movement that can be integrated into a B. Petrissage massage routine, for example, C. Friction D. Tapotement/percussion A. Pulling B. Friction C. Stretching to ROM limit 46. Good body mechanics is defined as D. Tapotement A. Proper use of postural techniques B. Biomechanics to decrease fatigue 40. The most difficult part of draping is C. Making use of the therapist's body weight D. All of the above A. Not exposing too much B. Covering the body C. Turning your client over D. Keeping stains off 41. Deep strokes and kneading 47. Temperature range for hot techniques can cause an increase in immersion baths is BEST at A. Vasoconstriction A. 85°F-95°F B. Blood flow B. 100°F-110°F 33 C. 125°F-150°F B. Satellite point D. 130°F-l 40°F C. Tender point D. Tsubo 48. Which of the following are used when applying massage strokes? 54. Stretching that is a combined effort between the therapist and client is A. Intension, pressure, excursion known as B. Rhythm and continuity C. Speed, duration, sequence A. Active-passive D. All of the above B. Passive-active C. Active-assisted D. Static-active 49. The application of force (or thrust) exerted by the massage therapist on the client's body is called 55. The therapeutic benefit of friction is A. Local hyperemia A. Speed B. Lymphatic drainage B. Depth C. Tonification C. Pressure D. None of the above D. Excursion 56. In body mechanics the horse stance 50. In addition to massage, which is or war­rior stance is used to most help­ful in increasing lymph flow? A. Perform short, transverse strokes, such as A. Exercise petrissage B. Heat B. Perform long effleurage strokes C. Immobilization C. Perform chair massage D. Passive movement D. Adjust the massage table to the correct height 51. When applying pressure, it is important to 57. The main purpose of deep A. Not exceed the clIent's personal pain transverse friction is to threshold A. Separate muscle fibers B. Cause muscle relaxation, not B. Lengthen muscle fibers contraction C. Shorten muscle fibers C. Take into consideration the area on the D. Minimize pain body where the pressure is applied D. All of the above 58. A system of active, passive, and resisted movements of the body's 52. Which ancillary stroke is a light various joints and muscles, most often finger tracing over the skin to finish a the presentation of passive ROM, is massage therapy? called A. Pennate A. Active stretching B. Nerve stroke B. Table gymnastics C. Light friction C. Swedish gymnastics D. Final touch D. Passive stretching 53. Localized, sensitive ischemic tissue 59. Which stroke MOST OFTEN begins that is hypersensitive to touch but does and ends a massage? not cause referred sensations is called A. Effleurage A. Trigger point B. Petrissage 34 C. Friction A. Active D. Vibration B. Assistive active C. Passive 60. What is the BEST massage D. Resistive active technique to lift muscles off the bone? 66. Which stroke is BEST for breaking A. Effleurage down adhesions? B. Petrissage C. Vibration A. Effleurage D. Tapotement B. Petrissage C. Friction 61. Joint movements are traditionally D. Vibration categorized as 67. In order to challenge the muscles A. Free active and passive used practitioners apply ____ _ B. Assistive ac6ve and passive C. Passive and active movement to a joint. D. All of the above A. Resistive B. Passive 62. Stretching that involves the C. Free therapist's applying gentle resistance D. Assistive while the client is actively engaging in a stretch is 68. Strokes that knead are called A. Active-assisted A. Effleurage B. Ballistic B. Petrissage C. Resisted or isometric C. Friction D. Static D. Vibration 63. How should you vary massage 69. Joint mobilization techniques are treatment time with the age of the used to help improve patient? A. Body alignment A. Progressively with increased age B. Posture B. Shorter with increased age C. Reeducating the muscles C. Shorter for very old and very young D. All of the above D. The same for any age 70. What is the BEST stroke for 64. Which massage technique gives the massaging the intercostals? BEST information about connective tissue structure in ligaments, tendons, A. Compression and joints? B. Tapotement C. Vibration A. Effleurage D. Petrissage B. Friction C. Vibration D. Tapotement 65. Stretching is a type of _____ joint movement that is performed to the limit 71. In order to generally assess the of the ROM. degree of flexibility at a joint, the practitioner should have a knowledge of 35 the A. Imagery B. Stimulation A. Stretch capacity C. Drugs, alcohol, or narcotics B. Normal ROM D. Endorphins C. Resistive movement D. All of the above 78. Yoga is a form of meditation for 72. How should pressure be A. Good appetite administered during effleurage? B. Muscle balance and relaxation C. Dancing A. Evenly D. Religion B. Deep to lighter C. Like nerve stroke 79. The relaxing action of a muscle is D. Light to deeper obtained by the application of 73. Careful joint movement is important A. Cold in cases of B. Heat C. Neutral A. Metal hardware at the joint D. None of the above B. Hip replacement C. The elderly 80. It is best to stretch a muscle on D. All of the above _____ of the breath. 74. Biofeedback is useful in A. Exhalation B. Holding A. Relieving pain through autogenic C. Inhalation training D. Meditation B. Controlling involuntary processes C. A therapeutic program 8