Salon Safety and Sanitation Questions PDF

Salon Safety and Sanitation 701. An acid permanent wave that generates its own heat is known as: Answer (D) a) Endothermic b) Heat activated c) Indothermic d) Exothermic 702. An acid permanent wave requiring heat from an external source to work is known as: Answer (A) a) Endothermic b) Heat activa...

Salon Safety and Sanitation 701. An acid permanent wave that generates its own heat is known as: Answer (D) a) Endothermic b) Heat activated c) Indothermic d) Exothermic 702. An acid permanent wave requiring heat from an external source to work is known as: Answer (A) a) Endothermic b) Heat activated c) Indothermic d) Exothermic 703. Exothermic is a term of Greek origin meaning: Answer (A) a) To release energy in the form of heat b) To absorb energy in the form of heat c) To absorb and redirect energy d) None of the above 704. A permanent wave that requires placing the client under a heated dryer, is probably: a) Alkaline and endothermic b) Acid and exothermic c) Acid and endothermic d) Alkaline and exothermic Answer (C) 705. A permanent wave involves: a) Chemical action only b) Physical action only c) Anhidrosis and Bromhidrosis d) Physical and chemical action Answer (D) 706. If the rubber band is twisted while wrapping a perm, what will be the likely outcome? a) Breakage b) Uneven curl formation c) Fishhooks d) Under processing where band touched hair Answer (A) 707. Where should the rubber bands be placed when wrapping a permanent wave? Answer (C) a) Facing forward b) Facing backwards c) At the top of the rod d) Close to the scalp 708. Which bonds are easily broken by water, wind, humidity, and styling tools? Answer (C) a) Cystine b) Disulfide c) Hydrogen d) Keratin 709. Which type of bonds require the application of a chemical to break them? Answer (A) a) Cystine b) Disurfactant c) Hydrogen d) Acid 710. Which type of bonds require the application of a chemical to break them? Answer (B) a) Anagen b) Disulfide c) Cortex d) Polysaccharide 711. Another name for disulfide bonds is: Answer (A) a) Cystine b) Disurfactant c) Hydrogen d) Acid 712. Which bonds must be broken to allow the permanent wave or relaxer to occur: Answer (D) a) Cystine b) Disulfide c) Hydrogen d) Both A and B 713. Which bonds are primarily responsible for the hairs strength and elasticity? Answer (A) a) Cystine or disulfide b) Hydrogen & salt c) Salt & polysaccharide d) Cystine & sugar 714. What is a different name for the Disulfide Bond? Answer (B) a) Trisulfide b) Cystine c) Hydrogen d) Sugar 715. What bonds are broken during a permanent wave procedure? Answer (D) a) Cystine b) Disulfide c) Cystine or Disulfide d) All of the above 716. The permanent wave lotion will cause the hair to: Answer (D) a) Contract b) Shrink c) Harden d) Expand 717. The neutralizer causes the hair to: Answer (C) a) Contract and soften b) Contract and expand c) Contract and reform d) Contract and swell 718. Poor wrapping technique may cause breakage, uneven curl formation, and: Answer (D) a) Under processing b) Over processing c) Degradation of the medulla d) Fishhooks 719. Under processing will generally result in: Answer (B) a) Tight curls b) Loose curls c) Cuticle degradation d) Longer processing time 720. Which of the following is not a possible reason for a curl that is too loose? Answer (D) a) Under processing b) Rods that are too large c) Partings that are too large d) Color treated hair 721. Which bonds must be broken to achieve a permanent change? Answer (D) a) Hydrogen b) Salt c) Sugar d) Cystine 722. What bonds are broken during a permanent wave procedure? Answer (C) a) Sugar b) Hydrogen c) Disulfide d) Salt 723. After rinsing perm solution from the hair, which of the following chemicals is applied: Answer (D) a) Fixative b) Neutralizer c) Stabilizer d) Any of the above 724. The controlling factor in determining the processing time of hair in a permanent wave is: Answer (A) a) Porosity b) Density c) Elasticity d) Length of hair 725. Of the following hair types, which would require the shortest processing time? Answer (B) a) Hair with poor porosity b) Hair with good porosity c) Hair with good elasticity d) Very dense hair 726. Of the following hair types, which would require the longest processing time? Answer (A) a) Hair with poor porosity b) Hair with good porosity c) Hair with good elasticity d) Very dense hair 727. Test curls are given to: Answer (D) a) Determine processing time b) Determine porosity c) Determine elasticity d) All of the above 728. If you were going to color your client's hair immediately after perming, which of the following would offer your best (least damaging) choice"  Answer (B) a) Permanent color b) Demi-permanent color c) High & Low-lites d) Refuse the service 729. Oxidation occurs during which of the following periods: Answer (C) a) Processing b) Oxidative c) Neutralization d) Reduction 730. An ammonium thioglycolate solution is an alkaline or Cold Wave and Answer (A) should be wrapped with: a) No tension b) Medium tension c) Firm tension d) Depends upon the amount of curl desired 731. All of the following will open the cuticle, or keep it open, except: Answer (D) a) Warm water b) Heat c) Alkaline products d) Vinegar 732. In permanent waving, a "Test Curl", is most analogous to giving a: Answer (D) a) Porosity Test b) Elasticity Test c) Tolerance Test d) Strand Test 733. Wrapping the hair 2 to 3 times around the rod will produce: Answer (C) a) Firm curls b) Crisp curls c) Soft to medium curls d) Little to no curl 734. How many times must hair be wrapped around the rod to produce one curl: Answer (B) a) One time b) 2 ½ times c) 3 ½ times d) 4 Times 735. If hair is wrapped less than 2 ½ times around the rod, the result will be: Answer (D) a) Firm curls b) Crisp curls c) Soft to medium curls d) Little to no curl 736. Very fine, thin, or sparse hair, will generally achieve the best result when the stylist uses: Answer (D) a) Small rods with large partings/blockings b) Larger rods with small blockings c) Small rods with a milder solution d) Small rods with small blockings 737. Very dense hair (hairs per square inch, not the diameter of the hair), will provide the best results in a permanent wave if wrapped with: Answer (B) a) Small rods with large blockings b) Larger rods with small blockings c) Small rods with a milder solution d) Small rods with small blockings 738. In addition to the size rod used, what determines the size of the resultant curl pattern? Answer (D) a) Processing time b) The neutralizer c) Nothing else has a noticeable impact d) Size of the partings/blockings 739. When perming bleached hair, use: Answer (B) a) Small rods b) Large rods c) Do not perm bleached hair d) Piggyback rods 740. Conditioning immediately prior to performing a permanent wave service, may result in: Answer (A) a) Hair not absorbing the lotion b) Hair curling quicker than expected c) Hair breaking d) Hair being very soft after service 741. Conditioning immediately prior to performing a permanent wave service, may result in: Answer (A) a) Hair being under-processed b) Hair being over processed c) Hair breaking d) Hair being very soft after service 742. Which of the following is the most important in determining processing time? Answer (C) a) Density b) Climate c) Porosity d) Elasticity 743. If insufficient cystine / disulfide bonds are broken in the hair, the likely result will be: Answer (B) a) Over processed hair b) Under processed hair / weak curl formation c) Hair breakage d) Hair oxidation 744. Oxidation occurs during which of the following periods: Answer (C) a) Processing b) Oxidative c) Neutralization d) Reduction 745. In what section does one generally begin to wrap a perm? Answer (D) a) Crown b) Sides c) Top d) Nape 746. What type of perming solution should you select for hair with excellent porosity? Answer (B) a) Medium b) Mild c) Extra body d) Hard to curl / resistant 747. Heavy conditioning prior to a permanent wave may cause weak curl formation because: Answer (D) a) Too few hydrogen & salt bonds are broken b) Too few disulfide bonds are broken c) Too few cystine bonds are broken d) Both B and C 748. What type of perming solution should you select for hair with poor porosity? Answer (D) a) Medium b) Mild c) Keratin d) Hard to curl / resistant 749. Which of the following is the most important in determining the hair's ability to hold a curl after the perm procedure? Answer (D) a) Texture b) Climate c) Porosity d) Elasticity 750. Which rod placement will create the greatest volume in a permanent wave set: Answer (B) a) Off base b) On base c) Half off base d) Piggyback 751. Which rod placement in a permanent wave set will create the greatest tension (thereby increasing the chance of breakage) during the permanent wave: Answer (B) a) Off base b) On base c) Half off base d) Piggyback 752. When receiving a permanent wave, razored ends may result in which of the following: Answer (C) a) Weak curl pattern b) Strong curl pattern c) Frizzy ends d) More volume 753. Razored cuts may result in frizzy ends after a perm, what cut is best before a perm? Answer (A) a) A Blunt cut b) A Bob c) A long layered cut d) Do not cut the hair before a perm 754. Which rod will produce a uniform curl from root to end? Answer (A) a) Straight rod b) Concave rod c) Angled rod d) Convex rod 755. Which rod will produce a tighter curl at the end than at the root? Answer (B) a) Straight rod b) Concave rod c) Angled rod d) Convex rod 756. Over neutralization will result in: Answer (D) a) Crisp curls b) No curl c) Firm curl d) Dry / brittle curl 757. The process that occurs when the permanent wave solution is dissolving the disulfide bonds in the hair shaft is referred to as: Answer (C) a) Adduction b) Abduction c) Reduction d) None of the above 758. When doing a permanent wave, a loose curl may result from: Answer (B) a) Over processing b) Under neutralization c) Over neutralization d) Insufficient rinsing 759. The active ingredient in the perm solution itself, acts as a / an: Answer (C) a) Occidental agent b) Oxidation agent c) Reduction agent d) None of the above 760. What is the active ingredient in most cold wave solutions? Answer (D) a) Sodium Hydroxide b) Sodium thioglycolate c) Ammonium thiosulfide d) Ammonium thioglycolate 761. What is the active ingredient in most chemical relaxers? Answer (A) a) Sodium Hydroxide b) Sodium thioglycolate c) Ammonium thiosulfide d) Ammonium thioglycolate 762. Which type of wrap or perm is generally suggested for long hair? Answer (D) a) Piggy back b) Spiral c) Double halo d) Both A and B 763. Thick, coarse hair, with poor porosity, is probably resistant to any chemical service and would usually require the application of which type perm solution: Answer (D) a) Regular strength b) Acid wave c) Sodium hydroxide d) Alkaline wave 764. The use of end papers makes it easier for the cosmetologist to wrap the hair in perm rods; however, the primary function of end papers is to: Answer (B) a) Assure even saturation b) Protect the ends c) Avoid fishhooks d) Avoid tangling when rods are removed 765. Client's hair is rinsed & neutralized before sufficient curl formation occurs, the result is: Answer (C) a) Over processed hair b) Possibly uneven curl c) Under processed hair d) Both B and C 766. You have applied the apparently correct perm solution to the client's hair, and after 10 minutes there is no curl formation beginning, what should you do? Answer (B) a) Continue to process b) Blot and use stronger perm solution c) Blot and apply new perm solution d) Apply neutralizer, have client return tomorrow 767. There is no wave pattern after perm has completed processing time. What can you do: Answer (B) a) Nothing, the maximum time has elapsed b) Blot and re-saturate with new perm solution c) Rinse, blot, and neutralize d) Rinse, blot, neutralize, refund client's money 768. A permanent may be air neutralized or self neutralized, these terms mean: Answer (A) a) Neutralizer is not used b) There is no such process c) Only a small amount of neutralizer is used d) A Thio neutralizer was used 769. The hair is dry and brittle after a permanent wave, this is most likely the result of: Answer (C) a) Under neutralization b) Over processing c) Over neutralization d) Allowing bands to become twisted 770. If the saturated cotton is left on the skin too long, what may occur: Answer (B) a) Client's face may become wet b) Chemical burns c) Over processed hair at hairline d) Discoloration of hair at hairline 771. To avoid chemical burns to a client's skin, it is best to: Answer (C) a) Not use cotton around hairline b) Use highly absorbent cotton c) Change cotton after applying perm solution d) None of the above 772. When should the cotton placed around the hairline in a permanent wave be changed: Answer (D) a) Prior to rinsing b) Only if it becomes saturated c) As soon as perm solution is applied d) As soon as solution stops dripping 773. Hair that appears very curly when wet, but frizzy or straight when dry, has been: Answer (D) a) Under processed b) Over directed when wrapped c) Under directed when wrapped d) Over processed 774. When deciding if the processing time of a permanent is completed look for: Answer (B) a) Crisp curl b) Well developed "S" pattern c) Elasticity d) All of the above 775. An acid or acid balanced perm would be good for all the following hair types except: Answer (D) a) Hair lacking elasticity b) Damaged hair c) Color treated hair d) Coarse, resistant hair 776. A highly alkaline perm would be a good choice for all the following except: Answer (A) a) High-lift, color treated hair b) Wiry, resistant hair c) Hard to curl hair d) Coarse, virgin hair 777. The action of the perm solution will continue until which of the following occurs: Answer (C) a) It is rinsed out b) It completes the curl formation c) It is neutralized d) Both A and C 778. During a massage, muscles are typically manipulated from the: Answer (A) a) Insertion to the Origin b) Origin to the Insertion c) Belly to the Insertion d) Belly to The Origin 779. What test can be performed to distinguish between synthetic and human hair wigs? Answer (C) a) Strand Test b) Knot Test c) Match Test d) Strand Test 780. Remy hair refers to hair that is or has: Answer (A) a) Human hair that was chemically processed b) Virgin Human Hair c) Human hair with its cuticle removed d) Synthetic hair 781. The biggest / largest / best selling hair in the world is: Answer (B) a) Remy hair b) Non-Remy hair c) A mixture of Remy and non-Remy d) None of the above 782. Remy hair has: Answer (A) a) Cuticle running in the same direction b) No cuticle remaining c) A tendency to tangle easily d) Cuticle removed & replaced for less tangling 783. Remy means: Answer (B) a) The cuticle has been removed b) Cuticle faces direction of original growth c) The cuticle is facing in different directions d) Type of human hair easily tangled 784. Non-Remy hair is also known as: Answer (B) a) Synthetic hair b) Fallen hair c) Fused or bonded hair d) Turned hair 785. From what animal do manufacturers obtain most of the non-human hair used in wigs? Answer (B) a) Horse b) Yak c) Animal hair is not used in wig production d) Alpaca 786. Most human hair used in wig manufacturing comes from: Answer (A) a) Asia b) Africa c) Europe d) The middle east 787. Any human hair, unless the cuticle has been removed, may be referred to as: Answer (B) a) Non-remy hair b) Remy hair c) Mixed hair d) Turned hair 788. Remy hair: Answer (A) a) Intact cuticle running in the same direction, prevent tangling b) Is derived from Yaks b) Intact cuticle not running in the one direction (tangles easily) d) Is not human hair 789. Remy hair: Answer (B) a) Tangles easily b) Is difficult to tangle c) Is highly allergenic d) Originates from Africa 790. Non-Remy hair is: Answer (D) a) Synthetic b) Of low quality c) Cannot be styled with hot tools d) Most commonly available hair 791. Remy hair is: Answer (C) a) Derived from Yaks b) Derived from Alpacas c) Derived from Humans d) Synthetic 792. Yak hair can be: Answer (D) a) Curled, permed, relaxed, and colored b) An allergen to many people c) Mixed with synthetic hair to lower price d) All of the above 793. Which of the following is incorrect about Remy hair derived from humans: Answer (C) a) Tends to be the most expensive b) Cuticle is intact and going in one direction c) Has had its cuticle removed d) Usually comes from Asia 794. Hair with an intact cuticle that has been turned so that all cuticles face the same direction: Answer (B) a) Fallen hair b) Turned hair c) Remy hair d) Non-Remy hair 795. In "Fallen Hair", which of the following is true of the cuticle? Answer (C) a) It is not all going in the same direction b) It has been removed & replaced c) It has been removed to prevent matting d) Fallen hair is not human hair (has no cuticle) 796. A cap wig is: Answer (D) a) Usually hand-knotted b) Usually hand-tied c) Usually under-knotted d) All of the above 797. A cap wig is: Answer (C) a) Machine made b) Light and comfortable to wear c) A good choice if you are bald d) Composed of wefts sewn together 798. A cap wig contains: Answer (B) a) Semi hard base to which hair is attached b) Hair attached to elasticized mesh c) Wefts are hand or machine sewn together d) Hair attached to wefts sewn in a pattern 799. A capless wig is: Answer (D) a) Machine made b) Composed of wefts sewn together c) Generally less expensive than a cap wig d) All the above 800. A client has extreme hair loss, or is bald. And they wish to disguise this. Answer (C) Which of the following wig choices would you recommend? a) Capless wig b) Machine made wig c) Cap wig d) Human hair wig 801. Which of the following is not true of hand-knotted or hand-tied wigs? Answer (D) a) They most resemble human hair b) They require the most styling c) Hair strands are inserted individually d) Have a bounce back style 802. If not synthetic, wigs in fantasy hair colors are most often made from: a) Angora hair b) Alpaca hair c) Horse hair d) Yak hair Answer (D) 803. A "Fishtail Braid" has how many strands? a) Two b) Three c) Four d) None of the above Answer (A) 804. A "Cornrow Braid" has how many strands? a) Two b) Three c) Four d) None of the above Answer (B) 805. Inverted braids are also known as: a) Two strand braids b) Four strand braids c) Invisible braids d) None of the above Answer (C) 806. A 3 strand braid using the under-hand technique is also known as: Answer (A) a) Visible braid b) Invisible braid c) 3 strand braid d) Inverted braid 807. The corrective make-up color used to correct/camouflage a sallow complexion: Answer (B) a) Violet b) Gold c) Green d) Red 808. A ruddy (red) complexion could be improved with the use of: Answer (C) a) Violet b) Gold c) Green d) Red 809. A gray, ashen pallor can be covered up by use of: Answer (B) a) Violet b) Gold c) Green d) Red 810. A chalky (white) complexion can best be camouflaged by the use of: Answer (B) a) Violet b) Gold c) Green d) Red 811. An eyebrow pencil should be sharpened: Answer (B) a) Before every usage b) Before and after every usage c) After each client d) Whenever needed 812. After tweezing a client's eyebrows, you should: Answer (D) a) Apply moisturizer b) Apply toner c) Apply powder d) Apply astringent 813. Eye shadow concentrated at the outer most corner of the lid will cause the eyes to appear: Answer (B) a) Closer together b) Further apart c) Larger d) Smaller 814. Eye shadow concentrated at the inner most corner of the lid will cause the eyes to appear: Answer (A) a) Closer together b) Further apart c) Larger d) Smaller 815. To correct very close set eyes, and make them appear further apart, Answer (A) the make-up artist will probably apply shadow: a) At the outer corner of the upper lid b) At the inner portion of the lid c) Evenly across the upper eyelid d) At the center of the upper lid 816. To correct very wide set eyes, and make them appear closer together, the make-up artist will probably apply shadow: Answer (B) a) At the outer corner of the upper lid b) At the inner portion of the lid c) Evenly across the upper eyelid d) At the center of the upper lid 817. Application of individual false eyelashes should begin: Answer (A) a) At the center of the eye and move outwards b) At the inner corner of the eye c) At the center of the eye and move inwards d) At the outer corner of the eye 818. The application of individual false eyelashes is often referred to as: Answer (B) a) Eye banding b) Eye tabbing c) Artifice d) All of the above 819. Another name for strip lashes is: Answer (D) a) Banded lashes b) Individual lashes c) Attached lashes d) None of the above 820. Eye tabbing is a process involving the application of: Answer (B) a) Banded artificial lashes b) Single individual lashes c) Human hair lashes d) Both B and C 821. When applying false eyelashes, because of the adhesive used, it is advisable to: Answer (C) a) Ask client about any allergies b) Give a P.D. test and wait 2 - 4 hours c) Give a P.D. test and wait 24 - 48 hours d) Have client sign a release form 822. In removing band / strip eyelashes: Answer (C) a) Peel quickly from the outer corner b) Peel slowly from the inner corner c) Peel slowly & gently from outer corner d) Peel quickly from inner corner 823. When shaping eyebrows using tweezers, in what direction should the hairs be removed? Answer (A) a) In the direction of the hair growth b) Against the direction of hair growth c) In an upward direction d) In a downward direction 824. In a make-up application, what is considered the "ideal" shaped face: Answer (C) a) Triangle b) Diamond c) Oval d) Round 825. What facial shape are most professional make-up artists trying to mimic or create? Answer (C) a) Triangle b) Diamond c) Oval d) Round 826. In the "heart shaped" face, the greatest width will be found: Answer (A) a) At the temples b) At the cheek bones c) At the jaw line d) At the chin 827. In the "diamond shaped" face, the greatest width will be found: Answer (B) a) At the temples b) At the cheek bones c) At the jaw line d) At the chin 828. In the "diamond shaped" face, the greatest width will be found: Answer (D) a) At the zygomatic bone b) At the cheek bones c) At the malar bone d) All of the above 829. From highest to lowest, decontamination is as follows: Answer (B) a) Sanitation, disinfection, sterilization b) Sterilization, disinfection, sanitation c) Sanitation, sterilization, disinfection d) Sterilization, sanitation, disinfection 830. From lowest to highest, decontamination is as follows: Answer (A) a) Sanitation, disinfection, sterilization b) Disinfection, sanitation, sterilization c) Sanitation, sterilization, disinfection d) Sterilization, sanitation, disinfection 831. To reduce the width of an overly broad nose, you would apply: Answer (B) a) Lighter shade on bridge of nose b) Darker shade on sides of nose c) Darker shade on bridge of nose d) Lighter shade on bridge of nose 832. Bacteriology is the science dealing with the study of: Answer (D) a) The microscopic anatomy of cells b) Diseases c) Control of infectious diseases d) Micro-organisms 833. If a client has a round face, the professional make-up artist will try to: Answer (B) a) Create the illusion of a squarer, more full contour, at the jaw-line b) Make the face appear longer (oval) with less width at the center c) Accentuate other features than the roundness of the face d) Work with what they have 834. Bacteria are also known as: a) Germs b) Microbes Answer (C) c) Germs & Microbes d) All of the above 835. Decontamination refers to: a) Sanitation b) Sterilization Answer (D) c) Disinfection d) All of the above 836. is the highest form of decontamination: Answer (D) a) Sanitation b) Disinfection c) Decontamination d) Sterilization 837. is the lowest form of decontamination: Answer (A) a) Sanitation b) Disinfection c) Decontamination d) Sterilization 838. is the level of decontamination required in a spa or salon setting: Answer (B) a) Sanitation b) Disinfection c) Decontamination d) Sterilization 839. is the level of decontamination required for doctors, hospitals, or dentists: Answer (D) a) Sanitation b) Disinfection c) Decontamination d) Sterilization 840. What is the recommended strength of Quats for the salon & spa industry? Answer (B) a) 1 : 10,000 b) 1 : 1,000 c) 1 : 100 d) 50% quats, with 50 % distilled water 841. How long must implements remain submerged in Quats to be sanitized? Answer (A) a) 10 minutes b) 20 minutes c) 60 minutes d) At least 2 hours 842. High quality Quats (quaternary ammonium compounds) is / are: Answer (D) a) Viracides b) Fungicides c) Bactericides d) All of the above 843. A hospital grade germicide must be a viracidal, bactericidal, fungicidal, and: Answer (A) a) Tuberculocidal b) Anti-viral c) Psumonicidal d) Stericidal 844. Which method of sterilization is commonly used in the salon & spa industry: Answer (A) a) Chemical b) Dry heat c) Wet heat d) High frequency 845. In addition to, or instead of, Quats; what other product will effectively sanitize tools: Answer (D) a) Alcohol b) Acetyl alcohol c) Creosol d) Formalin 846. Implements that have been cleansed, and are ready for use, should be kept in a: Answer (D) a) Closed container b) Sealed container c) Wet sanitizer d) Dry sanitizer 847. Using darker foundation colors in corrective make-up will do which of the following: Answer (D) a) Undesired features appear more noticeable b) Cause all features to blend better c) Draw attention away from undesirable features d) Undesirable features are less noticeable 848. To make a large prominent nose appear smaller, you would: Answer (D) a) Apply lighter foundation at the front / bridge of the nose b) Apply darker foundation at the bridge and a lighter one at the tip c) Apply a lighter foundation along the sides of the nose d) Apply a darker foundation at the bridge, tip, and sides of the nose 849. What is the level of decontamination required wherever blood is regularly drawn: Answer (D) a) Sanitation b) Disinfection c) Decontamination d) Sterilization 850. When stored together, sodium bromate and ammonia are combustible and may produce: Answer (D) a) Highly unpleasant odors c) Toxic fumes b) Fire d) All of the above