MCQ PDF - Human Anatomy and Physiology
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This document appears to be a collection of multiple choice questions (MCQs) on human anatomy and physiology, covering various body systems and organs. The questions are likely part of a past exam or practice test.
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1. THE PARTS OF THE SMALL INTESTINE ARE: 1) duodenal, empty, and rectum 2) empty, ileum, and sigmoid 3) duodenal, empty, and segmented intestine 4) duodenal, empty, and ileum 2. THE PASSIVE PART OF THE MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM IS THE: 1) muscles 2) bones 3) vessels 4) skin 3. THE LONG TUBULAR BONES IN...
1. THE PARTS OF THE SMALL INTESTINE ARE: 1) duodenal, empty, and rectum 2) empty, ileum, and sigmoid 3) duodenal, empty, and segmented intestine 4) duodenal, empty, and ileum 2. THE PASSIVE PART OF THE MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM IS THE: 1) muscles 2) bones 3) vessels 4) skin 3. THE LONG TUBULAR BONES INCLUDE THE: 1) radius 2) shoulder bone 3) phalanges 4) the semilunar bone 4. THE FLAT BONES INCLUDE THE: 1) shoulder bone 2) ulna 3) collarbone 4) pyramidal bone 5. THE AREA OF BONE GROWTH IN LENGTH IS LOCATED: 1) in the diaphysis 2) in the epiphysis 3) in the area of metaphysics 4) in the apophyses 6. THE LAYER OF THE HEART WALL IS CALLED THE: 1) aponeurosis 2) submucosa 3) mucous membrane 4) endocardium 7. THE VALVE CLOSING THE HEART RIGHT ATRIOVENTRICULAR ORIFICE IS: 1) aortic 2) mitral 3) tricuspid 4) bicuspid 8. A PART IN THE OESOPHAGUS IS: 1) head 2) cervical 3) mediastinal 4) cardiac 9. A PART OF THE STOMACH IS THE: 1)body 2) floor 3) head component 4) top 10. THE PANCREAS HEAD IS IN CONTACT: 1) with the transverse colon 2) with the stomach 3) with the right kidney 4) with the spleen 11. THE TRANSVERSE FISSURE ON THE VISCERAL SURFACE OF THE LIVER IS: 1)the fissure for ligamentum venosum 2) the liver hilum 3) the fissure of ligamentum teres 4) the fossa venae cavae 12. THE BODY HOLDING EXTRAPERITONEAL POSITION IS THE: 1) stomach 2) pancreas 3) liver 4) spleen 13. THE ANATOMICAL FORMATION WHICH IS INVOLVED IN THE FORMATION OF THE OMENTAL SAC LOWER WALL IS THE: 1) hepatic-gastric ligament 2) parietal peritoneum 3) mesocolon of transverse colon 4) mesogastrium 14. THE WALL OF THE RIGHT MESENTERIC SINUS IS THE: 1) abdominal wall 2) ascending colon 3) descending colon 4) right hepatic lobe 15. THE WALL OF THE LEFT MESENTERIC SINUS IS THE: 1) abdominal wall 2) gastrosplenic ligament 3) mesentery 4) ascending colon 16. THE ANATOMICAL STRUCTURE INVOLVED IN THE FORMATION OF THE OMENTAL FORAMEN WALLS IS THE: 1) quadrate lobe of liver 2) stomach 3) duodenum 4) hepatic-gastric ligament 17. THE ORGAN OCCUPYING INTRAPERITONEAL POSITION IS THE: 1) kidney 2) blind gut 3) pancreas 4) rectum 18. THE PANCREAS POSITION RELATIVE TO THE PERITONEUM IS THE: 1) intraperitoneal position 2) mesoperitoneal position 3) extraperitoneal position 4) intraperitoneal position, in the presence of mesentery 19. THE INTESTINE OCCUPYING MESOPERITONEAL POSITION IS THE: 1) traverse colon 2) sigmoid 3) descending colon 4) blind gut 20. THE INTESTINE OCCUPYING INTRAPERITONEAL POSITION IS THE: 1) rectum 2) descending colon 3) ascending colon 4) traverse colon 21. THE ORGAN OCCUPYING EXTRAPERITONEAL POSITION IS THE: 1) lower rectum 2) stomach 3) blind gut 4) gallbladder 22. THE LARGE BOWEL PART HAVING THE MESENTERY IS THE: 1) sigmoid colon 2) descending colon 3) ascending colon 4) blind gut 23. THE PART OF THE DUODENUM WHICH IS LOCATED INTRAPERITONEALLY IS THE: 1) descending part 2) duodenal bulb 3) ascending part 4) horizontal part 22. THE PART OF THE RESPIRATORY SYSTEM WHICH IS INCLUDED IN THE UPPER RESPIRATORY TRACTS IS THE: 1) oropharynx 2) larynx 3) bronchi 4) trachea 23. THE RIGHT LUNG COMPARED TO THE LEFT IS: 1) wider 2) longer 3) more narrow 4) higher 24. THE LOCALIZATION OF THE HORIZONTAL FISSURE ON THE LUNG IS THE: 1) costal surface of the left lung 2) costal surface of the right lung 3) mediastinal surface of the left lung 4) diaphragmatic surface of the right lung 25. THE ANATOMIC FORMATION WHICH LEAVES THE HILUM OF THE LUNG IS THE: 1) pulmonary artery 2) pulmonary veins 3) main bronchus 4) nerves 26. THE ANATOMICAL FORMATION WHICH OCCUPIES THE TOPMOST POSITION AT THE LUNG HILUM OF THE RIGHT LUNG IS THE: 1) pulmonary artery 2) pulmonary veins 3) nerves 4) main bronchus 27. THE SEGMENTAL BRONCHUS WHICH IS FORMED WHEN BRANCHING OF THE RIGHT UPPER LOBE BRONCHUS IS THE: 1) front basal 2) apical 3) lateral 4) medial 28. THE ANATOMIC FORMATION LOCATED IN THE CENTER OF THE PULMONARY SEGMENT IS THE: 1) segmental vein 2) lobar bronchus 3) segmental artery 4) lobar vein 29. THE STRUCTURE OF THE BRONCHIAL TREE WITH ITS WALLS OF CARTILAGE IS THE: 1) respiratory bronchioles 2) lobular bronchus 3) alveolar saccules 4) alveolar ducts 30. THE STRUCTURE INVOLVED IN THE FORMATION OF THE ALVEOLAR TREE (ACINI) IS THE: 1) terminal bronchiole 2) lobular bronchi 3) alveolar ducts 4) segmental branches 31. THE GAS EXCHANGE BETWEEN AIR AND BLOOD OCCURS: 1) in the lobular bronchi 2) in the terminal bronchiole 3) in the capillaries 4) in the alveolar saccules 32. THE PART OF THE PARIETAL PLEURA IS: 1) lateral 2) cardiac 3) medial 4) diaphragmatic 33. THE LOWER BORDER OF THE RIGHT LUNG ALONG A MIDCLAVICULAR LINE IS PROJECTED: 1) at the level of the IX-th rib 2) at the level of VII-th rib 3) at the level of X-th rib 4) at the level of the VI- th rib 34. THE HORIZONTAL PLANE SEPARATING THE UPPER MEDIASTINUM FROM THE LOWER ONE PASSES: 1) through the jugular notch of the sternum 2) through the base of the sternum ensiform cartilage 3) through the intervertebral cartilage between the bodies of III and IV thoracic vertebrae 4) through the intervertebral cartilage between the bodies of IV and V thoracic vertebrae 35. THE PERICARDIUM IS LOCATED INTHE: 1) superior mediastinum 2) middle mediastinum 3) anterior mediastinum 4) posterior mediastinum 36) THE RELATIVE POSITIONS OF THE STRUCTURES AT THE LEFT LUNG ROOT IS THE: 1) artery, bronchus, vein 2) bronchus, artery, vein 3) vein, artery, bronchus 4) vein, bronchus, artery 37. THE SKELETOTOPY OF THE BIFURCATION AT THE TRACHEA CORRESPONDS TO THE: 1) VII thoracic vertebra 2) IV thoracic vertebra 3) VI thoracic vertebra 4) the upper edge of the V thoracic vertebra 38. SPECIFY LOWER LEG BONES: 1) the femoral and talar 2) the tibial and fibular 3) the calcaneal and talar 4) scaphoid and tibial 39. ON THE CLASSIFICATION, THE FEMUR BELONGS TO THE: 1) short tubular bones 2) flat bones 3) long tubular bones 4) substantia spongiosa 40. THE GLAND WHICH IS BOTH A GLAND OF INTERNAL AND EXTERNAL SECRETION IN MEN IS THE: 1) testicle 2) prostate 3) bulbourethral glands 4) seminal vesicles 41. SPERMATOZOONS ARE FORMED IN THE: 1) efferent ductules 2) convoluted seminiferous tubule 3) the direct seminiferous tubules 4) canaliculus of the testicles network 42. A PART OF THE EPIDIDYMIS IS: 1) the head of the epididymis 2) the bottom of the epididymis 3) the base of the epididymis 4) the apex of the epididymis 43. THE TESTICLE SURFACE IS: 1) lateral 2) anterior 3) upper 4) lower 44. THE ANATOMICAL FORMATION (SURFACE) INCLUDED IN THE STRUCTURE OF THE PROSTATE GLAND IS THE: 1) base 2) body 3) upper surface 4) lower surface 45. THE DUCT INVOLVED IN THE FORMATION OF THE EJACULATORY DUCT IS THE: 1) excretory duct of the seminal vesicle 2) excretory ducts of the bulbourethral glands 3) excretory prostatic ducts 4) duct of the epididymis 46. THE LOBES OF THE PROSTATE ARE: 1) upper 2) lower 3) anterior 4) right 47. THE ANATOMIC FORMATIONS WHICH ARE A PART OF THE PENIS: 1) one cavernous body 2) two cavernous bodies 3) two spongy bodies and one cavernous body 4) one spongy body and two cavernous bodies 48. THE COMPONENT WHICH IS A PART OF THE MALE URETHRA IS: 1) pelvic 2) perineal 3) spongy 4) cavernous 49. THE NARROWING PLACE OF THE MALE URETHRA IS THE: 1) area of the urethra inner opening 2) area of the bulb of the penis 3) spongy part 4) prostatic urethra 50. THE EXTENSION PLACE OF THE MALE URETHRA IS THE: 1) region of the urogenital diaphragm 2) area of the urethra external opening 3) membranous part 4) bulb of the penis 51. THE SCROTUM OUTER SEED FASCIA ORIGINATES FROM THE: 1) fascia of the abdominal internal oblique muscle 2) superficial fascia of the abdomen 3) own fascia of abdominal external oblique muscle 4) transverse fascia of the abdomen 52. COMPONENT PARTS OF THE SPERMATIC CORD ARE THE: 1) dartos 2) ejaculatory duct 3) deferent duct 4) duct of an epididymis 53. THE ANATOMIC BASIS OF THE PHIMOSIS DEVELOPMENT IS THE: 1) bladder ectopia 2) narrow ring of a preputial bag 3) epispadia 4) hypospadias 54. THE EJACULATORY DUCT OF A MAN IS OPENED TO THE: 1) prostatic gland 2) gonecyst 3) urethra prostate part 4) membranous part of male urethra 55. THE ENDOCRINE GLAND OF THE NEUROGENIC GROUP IS THE: 1) pituitary 2) thyroid 3) paraganglia 4) pancreas 56. THE ENDOCRINE GLAND OF THE BRANCHYOGENIC GROUP IS THE: 1) pancreas 2) the intersticial cells of gonads 3) pinus 4) parathyroid glands 57. THE ENDOCRINE GLAND OF THE MESODERMAL ORIGIN IS THE: 1) adrenal cortex 2) endocrine part of a pancreas 3) hypophysis 4) adrenal medulla 58. A PART OF THE THYROID GLAND IS THE: 1) body of a thyroid gland 2) head of a thyroid gland 3) basis of a thyroid gland 4) pyramidal lobe 59. THE CORTICAL ZONE ADJACENT TO THE CAPSULE OF ADRENAL GLANDS IS: 1) glomerulosa 2) cellular 3) central 4) fasiculata 60. A PART OF THE HYPOPHYSIS IS THE: 1) isthmus 2) superior lobe 3) lower lobe 4) posterior lobe 61. THE CENTRAL ORGAN OF THE IMMUNE SYSTEM IS THE: 1) thymus 2) spleen 3) lymph node 4) tonsils 62. IN AN ADULT, RED BONE MARROW IS LOCATED IN THE: 1) diaphysis of the long tubular bones 2) compact substance of the flat bones 3) spongy substance of the flat bones 4) metaphysises of the long tubular bones 63. THE THYMUS IS LOCATED IN THE: 1) posterior mediastinum 2) upper mediastinum 3) lower mediastinum 4) middle mediastinum 64. THE AGE FEATURE OF THE THYMUS IS THAT: 1) by 10 years of age, cortical substance prevails over brain 2) the mass of a thymus sharply increases in adolescence 3) in adulthood the mass of the thymus decreases 4) with age involution, parenchyma of the thymus completely disappears 65. THE PALATINE TONSIL IS LOCATED: 1) above a palatopharyngeal arch 2) behind a palatopharyngeal arch 3) between palatopharyngeal and palatoglossal arches 4) on a uvula of the soft palate 66. THE PHARYNGEAL TONSIL IS LOCATED AT THE: 1) oropharynx 2) palatopharyngeal arch 3) vault of pharynx 4) basis of the soft palate 67. THE LOCATION OF THE LYMPHOID NODULES CLUSTERS (PEYER'S PATCHES) IS AT THE: 1) gullet wall 2) ileum wall 3) stomach wall 4) caecum wall 68. THE SPLEEN IS LOCATED: 1) between the VIII and X ribs 2) between the VII and IX ribs 3) at the level of the XII rib 4) between the IX and XI ribs 69. IMMUNE STRUCTURE OF THE SPLEEN IS THE: 1) fibrous capsule 2) trabeculas 3) splenic sinus 4) lymphatic periarterial sheathes 70. THE STRUCTURAL AND FUNCTIONAL UNIT OF THE NERVOUS SYSTEM IS THE: 1) receptor 2) synapse 3) neurone 4) reflex 71. THE ANATOMICAL FORMATION CONSISTING OF THE WHITE MATTER OF THE SPINAL CORD INCLUDES THE: 1) ventral funiculus 2) anterior horns 3) dorsal horns 4) intermediolateral nucleus 72. THE SEGMENT OF THE SPINAL CORD WITH SIDE PILLARS IS THE: 1) first cervical 2) seventh cervical 3) eighth cervical 4) fourth lumbar 73. THE STRUCTURE OF THE SPINAL CORD ANTERIOR HORNS INCLUDES THE NUCLEUS: 1) central 2) thoracic 3) intermediate-medial 4) intermediate-lateral 74. THE STRUCTURE OF THE SPINAL CORD POSTERIOR HORNS INCLUDES THE NUCLEUS: 1) central 2) posterolateral 3) intermediate-medial 4) thoracic 75. THE INTERMEDIATE ZONE OF THE SPINAL CORD INCLUDES THE: 1) central nucleus 2) thoracic nucleus 3) сentral (medial) intermediate (grey) matter 4) gelatinous substance 76. THE PATHWAY (BUNDLES OF NERVE FIBERS) LOCATED AS A PART OF THE SPINAL CORD PASTERIOR FUNICULUS IS THE: 1) posterior longitudinal bundle 2) back (dorsal) posterior spinocerebellar tract (Flechsig's tract) 3) fasciculus gracilis (Goll's fascicle) 4) tractus tectospinalis 77. THE PATHWAY (BUNDLES OF NERVE FIBERS) LOCATED AS A PART OF THE SPINAL CORD LATERAL FUNICULUS IS THE: 1) wedge-shaped fascicle (Burdach's column) 2) ventral spinocerebellar tract 3) vestibulospinal tract 4) anterior corticospinal tract 78. THE PATHWAY (BUNDLES OF NERVE FIBERS) LOCATED AS A PART OF THE SPINAL CORD ANTERIOR FUNICULUS IS THE: 1) rubrospinal tract 2) ventral spinocerebellar tract 3) posterior spinocerebellar tract 4) vestibulospinal tract 79. THE CRANIAL NERVES THE NUCLEUSES OF WHICH ARE IN THE BRIDGE INCLUDE THE: 1) twelfth pair of cranial nerves 2) ninth pair of cranial nerves 3) sixth pair of cranial nerves 4) tenth pair of cranial nerves 80. THE ROOF OF THE IV VENTRICLE IS FORMED BY THE: 1) superior medullary velum 2) inferior cerebellar peduncles 3) fornix 4) middle cerebellar peduncles 81. THE MOTOR NUCLEUS OF ACCESSORY NERVE IS LOCATED IN THE: 1) midbrain 2) interbrain 3) pons 4) medulla oblongata 82. THE NUCLEUS OF THE SOLITARY TRACT IS LOCATED IN THE: 1) midbrain 2) interbrain 3) cerebellum 4) medulla oblongata 83. THE SOLITARY TRACT NUCLEUS IS THE COMMON NUCLEUS FOR THE FOLLOWING NERVES: 1) the ninth and tenth pairs of nerves 2) the eleventh and twelfth pairs of nerves 3) the seventh and eighth pairs of nerves 4) the fifth and seventh pairs of nerves 84. THE SUPERIOR SALIVARY NUCLEUS IS LOCATED IN THE: 1) pons 2) interbrain 3) midbrain 4) medulla oblongata 85. THE INFERIOR SALIVARY NUCLEUS IS LOCATED IN THE: 1) pons 2) midbrain 3) medulla oblongata 4) interbrain 86. THE NUCLEUS OF THE VAGUS NERVE IS RELATED TO THE: 1) inferior salivatory nucleus 2) posterior nucleus 3) nucleus of the mesencephalic tract 4) nucleus of the cerebro-spinial tract 87. WHICH PAIR OF CRANIAL NERVES EMERGES AT THE BORDER OF THE BRIDGE AND THE MEDULLA OBLONGATA? 1) the fourth pair of cranial nerves 2) the third pair of cranial nerves 3) the sixth pair of cranial nerves 4) the fifth pair of cranial nerves 88. WHICH PAIR NERVE EMERGES FROM THE BRAIN BETWEEN THE MIDDLE CEREBELLAR PEDUNCLE AND OLIVA? 1) the nerve of the fifth pair 2) the nerve of the fourth pair 3) the nerve of the sixth pair 4) the nerve of the seventh pair 89. THE STRUCTURE WHICH FORMS THE MEDIAL WALL OF THE ANTERIOR HORN AT THE LATERAL VENTRICLE IS THE: 1) hippocamp 2) pellucid septum 3) head of caudate nucleus 4) Morand's spur 90. PLASTIC TONUS DISORDER CAUSES DAMAGE TO THE: 1) pallidal nuclei 2) striatal nuclei 3) subthalamic nuclei 4) nuclei of claustrum 91. WHICH TRACT CROSSES THE INTERNAL CAPSULE AT THE KNEE? 1) the anterior spinothalamic tract 2) the corticothalamic pathway 3) the frontopontine tract 4) the corticonuclear tract 92. ASSOCIATION FIBERS CONNECT THE: 1) areas of gray matter within different parts of the same hemispheres 2) similar centers of the right and left hemispheres 3) basal nuclei with motor nuclei of the spinal cord 4) cerebral cortex with the nuclei of the spinal cord 93. IN THE SPINAL CORD PYRAMIDAL TRACT FIBERS TRAVEL IN THE COMPOSITION OF THE: 1) wedge-shaped fascicle (Burdach's column) 2) ventral funiculus 3) fasciculus gracilis (Goll's fascicle) 4) gelatinous substance 94. THE SECOND NEURONS IN THE PYRAMIDAL TRACT ARE PLACED IN THE: 1) brainstem vegetative nuclei 2) thoracic nucleus 3) nuclei of the spinal cord lateral horns 4) spinal cord anterior horns nuclei 95. THE MEDIAL LOOP IS FORMED BY THE CELLS PROCESSES OF THE: 1) own nucleus of the spinal cord posterior horn 2) dentate nucleus of cerebellum 3) nucleus gracilis of the medulla oblongata 4) motor nucleus of the trigeminal nerve 96. WHAT MUSCLES WILL BE PARALIZED IN CASE OF THE PRECENTRAL GYRUS LOWER PART LESIONS? 1) the muscles of the lower extremity 2) the muscles of the torso 3) the muscles of the head and neck 4) the muscles of the upper limb 97. THE NUCLEUS OF THE MOTOR ANALYZER (MOTOR CENTER) IS LOCATED IN THE: 1) superior frontal gyrus 2) postcentral gyrus 3) parahippocampal gyrus 4) precentral gyrus 98. THE VENTRAL TEGMENTAL DECUSSATION OF THE MIDBRAIN IS FORMED BY THE FIBERS OF THE: 1) posterior longitudinal bundle 2) corticospinal tract 3) rubrospinal tract 4) medial lemniscus 99. WHICH TRACT CROSSES THE INTERNAL CAPSULE POSTERIOR LIMB? 1) the corticonuclear tract 2) vestibulospinal tract 3) tectospinal tract 4) lateral spinothalamic tract 100. IN THE SPINAL CORD PYRAMIDAL TRACT FIBERS TRAVEL IN THE COMPOSITION OF THE: 1) wedge-shaped fascicle (Burdach's column) 2) ventral funiculus 3) fasciculus gracilis (Goll's fascicle) 4) gelatinous substance 101. WHICH CONDUCTION TRACT CROSSES THE MESENCEPHALIC TEGMENTUM? 1) the pyramidal pathway 2) the cerebrospina-reticular pathway 3) the spinocerebellar proprioceptive pathway 4) the pathway for pain and temperature sensation 102. SUBCORTICAL CENTERS LOCATED IN THE NUCLEI OF THE CORPORA QUADRIGEMINA UPPER TUBERCLES ARE THE: 1) hearing centres 2) brain's smell-recognizing centers 3) gustatory center 4) visual center 103. THE CILIARY BODY INCLUDES THE: 1) ciliary muscle 2) lens 3) iris 4) musculus dilatator papillae 104. THE PELVIC BONE IS FORMED BY THE: 1) iliac, pubic and peroneal 2) Ilium, ischium, and femur 3) iliac, pubic and sciatic 4) pubic, ischium, and tibia 105. AT THE SPINAL COLUMN, THE PROMONTORIUM IS LOCATED AT THE LEVEL OF 1) the IV and V lumbar vertebrae junction 2) the V-th lumbar vertebra junction with the sacrum 3) the V-th lumbar vertebra body 4) the I-th sacral vertebra 106. A PART OF THE HEART IS THE: 1) body 2) cervix 3) isthmus 4) apex 107. WHAT ARE THE FUNCTIONS OF THE ROOF NUCLEUS (IN THE CEREBELLUM)? 1) participates in balance 2) coordinates the movement of limbs 3) forms emotions 4) is involved in vegetative reactions 108. THE VALVE CLOSING THE RIGHT ATRIOVENTRICULAR ORIFICE OF THE HEART IS: 1) aortic 2) mitral 3) tricuspid 4) bicuspid 109. WHAT IS LOCATED ON THE INNER SURFACE OF THE ILIUM WING? 1) the tacetabular fossa 2) the iliac fossa 3) the sciatic fossa 4) the gluteus fossa 110. THE VERTEBRAE HAVE SUCH PROCESSES AS: 1) condyle 2) coronary 3) articular 4) jugular 111. THE MAIN PART OF THE VERTEBRA IS THE: 1) body 2) tuberculi 3) articular surface 4) dens 112. A CHARACTERISTIC FEATURE FOR ALL CERVICAL VERTEBRAE IS THE: 1) the ethmoidal incisure 2) the sulcus caroticus 3) the hole in the transverse processes 4) the oval foramen 113. STRUCTURES WHICH ARE CHARACTERISTIC FOR THE THORACIC (IX) VERTEBRAE: 1) the auricular surface 2) the costal incisure 3) the epactal 4) the transverse process demi-facets 114. AT THE SPINAL COLUMN, THE PROMONTORIUM IS LOCATED AT THE LEVEL OF 1) the IV and V lumbar vertebrae junction 2) the V-th lumbar vertebra junction with the sacrum 3) the V-th lumbar vertebra body 4) the I-th sacral vertebra 115. SACRUM AURICULAR (ARTICULAR) SURFACE IS AT THE: 1) dorsal surface 2) pelvic surface 3) base of sacrum 4) lateral part 116. THE CAROTID TUBERCLE IS LOCATED ON A CERVICAL VERTEBRA: 1) 2nd. 2) 4th 3) 5th 4) 6th 117. AT WHAT SACRUM SURFACE ARE THE CRISTAE? 1) pelvic 2) lateral 3)superficies 4) dorsal 118. THE LOCATION OF THE STERNUM ANGLE IS AT THE: 1) junction of the sternal body with the handle 2) level of the jugular notch of the sternal handle 3) junction of the sternal body with the xiphoid process 4) level of the sternum body middle 119. THE RIB CONSISTS OF THE: 1) head, neck and body 2) body and processes 3) handle, body and xiphoid process 4) lateral and medial surfaces 120. WHERE IS THE RIB TUBERCLE LOCATED? 1) at the internal surface of the rib 2) at the border of the neck and rib body 3) on the rib head 4) at the border of the head and rib neck 121. SURFACES OF THE FIRST RIB ARE: 1) external and internal 2) frontal and dorsal 3) upper and lower 4) medial andlateral 122. WHAT VERTEBRA PART HAS THE CANCELLOUS STRUCTURE? 1)the vertebral arch 2) the pedicle of vertebral arch 3) the body 4) the vertebral foramen 123. THE SECOND CERVICAL VERTEBRA IS CALLED: 1) axial 2) atlas 3) main 4) intermedial 124. THE SCAPULA IS AT THE LEVEL OF THE: 1) II –VII ribs 2) I –V ribs 3) VIII-ХII ribs 4) I -VII ribs 125. THE BLADE PARTS ARE: 1) the tuberculum majus and lesser tubercle 2) the body and two terminals 3) the trochlear notch 4) three borders and three angles 126. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE LOCATED AT THE PROXIMAL END OF THE HUMERUS? 1) the lateral condyle 2) the sulcus nervi ulnaris 3) the head 4) the humeral epitrochlea 127. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE LOCATED AT THE DISTAL END OF THE HUMERUS BONE? 1) the coronoid fossa 2) the tuberculum majus 3) the lesser tubercle 4) the anatomical neck 128. THE SULCUS OF THE ULNAR NERVE OF THE HUMERUS IS LOCATED: 1) in front of the medial epicondyle 2) in front of the lateral epicondyle 3) behind the medial humeral epicondyle 4) behind the lateral epicondyle 129. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS LOCATED AT THE PROXIMAL END OF THE ULNA? 1) the head 2) the olecranon 3) the styloid process 4) the jugal process 130. WHICH OF THE BONES HAS STYLOID PROCESS? 1) the ulnar bone 2) the blade 3) the collar bone 4) the femur 131. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS LOCATED AT THE RADIUS DISTAL END? 1) the ulnar incisure of radius 2) the neck 3) the sternal end 4) the surgical neck 132. THE WRIST BONE WHICH IS IN ITS PROXIMAL ROW IS THE: 1) capitate bone 2) trapezium bone 3) navicular bone 4) hamatum 133. THE WRIST BONE WHICH IS IN ITS DISTAL ROW IS THE: 1) navicular bone 2) semilunar bone 3) triquetrum 4) capitate bone 134. SPONGY BONES ARE THE: 1) maniphalanx 2) trapezium bone 3) blade 4) humerus 135. WHICH BONE DOES THE SKELETON OF THE FREE UPPER EXTREMITY INCLUDE? 1) the ulnar 2) the blade 3) the collarbone 4) the pelvic 1 3 6. T H E S T R U C T U R E B E L O N G I N G TO T H E B L O OD MICROVASCULATUR IS: 1)the veins 2) the arteries 3) the arterioles 4) the arteriovenous anastomosis 137. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS LOCATED AT THE RIGHT ATRIUM INTERNAL SURFACE? 1) the papillary muscles 2) the pectineal muscles 3) the carneal trabecules 4) the tendinous cords 138. WHICH OSTIUM IS LOCATED AT THE WALL OF THE RIGHT ATRIUM? 1) the aortic ostium 2) the opening of pulmonary trunk 3) the coronary sinus opening 4) openings of pulmonary veins 139. WHICH OSTIUM IS LOCATED AT THE WALL OF THE LEFT VENTRICLE? 1) the coronary sinus opening 2) openings of pulmonary veins 3) the aortic ostium 4) the pulmonary trunk opening 140. WHICH OSTIUM IS LOCATED AT THE WALL OF THE LEFT ATRIUM? 1) the right pulmonary veins openings 2) the aortic ostium 3) the superior Vena cava opening 4) the coronary sinus opening 141. THE ORIENTATION OF THE LONGITUDINAL VERTICAL AXIS OF THE HEART CORRESPONDS TO THE DIRECTION: 1) left to right, front to back, and top to down 2) left to right, front to back, down to top 3) right to left, back to front, top to down 4) right to left, front to back, top to down 142. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A PART OF THE CARDIAC SKELETON? 1) the muscle triangle 2) the border triangle 3) the fibrous ring 4) the muscle ring 143. THE HEART RIGHT VENTRICLE HAS THE SHAPE OF A: 1) cube 2) triangular pyramid 3) cone 4) cylinder 144. IN THE ADULT, THE HEART APEX IS PROJECTED ONTO THE ANTERIOR THORACIC WALL AT THE LEVEL OF THE : 1) cartilage of the IV-th left rib 2) left IV-th rib, 6-7 cm from the sternum 3) left V-th rib, 1.5 cm inside of the midclavicular line 4) left V-th rib along the midclavicular line 145. THE HEART CORONARY ARTERIES START FROM THE: 1) aortic arch 2) pulmonary trunk 3) left ventricle 4) aortic bulb 146. THE AORTIC ARCH BRANCH IS CALLED THE: 1) left subclavian artery 2) right subclavian artery 3) right common carotid artery 4) right external carotid artery 147. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE BRANCHES OF THE THORACIC AORTA? 1) the anterior intercostal arteries 2) the posterior intercostal arteries 3) the internal thoracic arteries 4) the lower diaphragmatic arteries 148. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE THE THORACIC AORTA VISCERAL BRANCHES? 1) the bronchial branches 2) the posterior intercostal branches 3) the vertical branches 4) the diaphragmatic branches 149. WHICH OSTIUM IS LOCATED AT THE WALL OF THE LEFT ATRIUM? 1) the right pulmonary veins openings 2) the aortic ostium 3) the superior Vena cava opening 4) the coronary sinus opening 150. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE ANTERIOR BRANCH OF THE EXTERNAL CAROTID ARTERY? 1) the mandibular artery 2) the superficial temporal artery 3) the maxillary artery 4) the upper thyroid artery 151. THE POSTERIOR AURICULAR ARTERY SUPPLIES BLOOD TO THE: 1) bony and membranous labyrinths 2) temporal muscle 3) mucous membrane of the tympanic cavity 4) sternocleidomastoid muscle 152. THE MIDDLE MENINGEAL ARTERY LEAVES THE: 1) infraorbital artery 2) internal carotid artery 3) maxillary artery 4) occipital artery 153. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE MAXILLARY ARTERY BRANCH AT ITS PTERYGOID PART? 1) the submental artery 2) the sphenopalatine artery 3) the superficial temporal artery 4) the buccal artery 154. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE MAXILLARY ARTERY BRANCH AT PTERYGOPALATINE PART? 1) the submental artery 2) the middle meningeal artery 3) the ascending palatine artery 4) the infraorbital artery 155. A BRANCH OF THE FACIAL ARTERY IS THE: 1) dorsal artery of nose 2) angular artery 3) infraorbital artery 4) superior alveolar artery 156. THE UPPER ALVEOLAR ARTERIES LEAVE THE: 1) superficial temporal artery 2) facial artery 3) ophthalmic artery 4) infraorbital artery 157. A BRANCH OF SUPERIOR THYROID ARTERY IS THE: 1) superior laryngeal artery 2) inferior laryngeal artery 3) superficial laryngeal artery 4) deep laryngeal artery 158. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE INTERNAL CAROTID ARTERY PART? 1) cranial 2) cavernous 3) temporal 4) tympanic 159. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE INTERNAL CAROTID ARTERY BRANCH AT ITS PETROUS SEGMENT? 1)the ophthalmic artery 2) the caroticotympanic arteries 3) the cerebral arteries 4) the ethmoid arteries 160. THE OPHTHALMIC ARTERY BRANCH INVOLVED IN THE BLOOD SUPPLY OF THE NASAL CAVITY WALLS IS THE: 1) frontal artery 2) anterior ethmoid artery 3) lacrimal artery 4) dorsal nasal artery 161. A BRANCH OF THE OPHTHALMIC ARTERY IS THE: 1) angular artery 2) sphenopalatine artery 3) frontal artery 4) infraorbital artery 162. THE ANTERIOR CONNECTIVE ARTERY CONNECTS: 1) the anterior and middle cerebral arteries 2) the middle and posterior cerebral arteries 3) the right and left anterior cerebral arteries 4) the right and left internal carotid arteries 163. THE MIDDLE CEREBRAL ARTERY PART IS: 1) cavernous 2) angular 3) insular 4) median 164. THE EXTERNAL CAROTID ARTERY MEDIAL BRANCH IS THE: 1) ophthalmic artery 2) mandibular artery 3) ascending pharyngeal artery 4) ascending palatine artery 165. THE BRANCH EXTENDING FROM THE SUBCLAVIAN ARTERY TO THE INTERLADDER INTERVAL IS THE: 1) neck transverse artery 2) costocervical trunk 3) thyrocervical trunk 4) deep neck artery 166. AT ITS OUTLET FROM THE INTERSCALENE INTERVAL, THE SUBCLAVIAN ARTERY BRANCH IS CALLED THE: 1) neck transverse artery 2) costocervical trunk 3) supraclavicular artery 4) superficial cervical artery 167. IN THE INTERSCALENE INTERVAL, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING LEAVES THE SUBCLAVIAL ARTERY? 1) the superficial cervical artery 2) the supraclavicular artery 3) the costocervical trunk 4) the thyrocervical trunk 168. THYROID ARTERIES LEAVE THE: 1) thyrocervical trunk 2) vertebral artery 3) costocervical trunk 4) neck transverse artery 169. AT THE THORACIC TRIANGLE LEVEL, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING LEAVES THE AXILLARY ARTERY? 1) the subscapular artery 2) the thoracoacromial artery 3) the lateral thoracic artery 4) the superior thoracic artery 170. AT THE SUBCHEST TRIANGLE LEVEL, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING LEAVES THE AXILLARY ARTERY? 1) the lateral thoracic artery 2) the superior thoracic artery 3) the subscapular artery 4) the thoracoacromial artery 171. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE AXILLARY ARTERY BRANCH INVOLVED IN THE SHOULDER JOINT BLOOD SUPPLY? 1) the anterior artery circumscribing the humerus 2) the lateral artery circumscribing the humerus 3) the lateral thoracic artery 4) the thoracodorsal artery 172. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE DEEP BRACHIAL ARTERY BRANCH? 1) the upper ulnar artery 2) the lower ulnar artery 3) the inferior ulnar collateral artery 4) the radial collateral artery 173. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE BRACHIAL ARTERY BRANCH? 1) the posterior artery circumscribing the humerus 2) the anterior artery circumscribing the humerus 3) the superior ulnar collateral artery 4) the radial recurrent artery 174. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE RADIAL ARTERY BRANCH INVOLVED IN THE FORMATION OF ELBOW JOINT ARTERIAL NETWORK? 1) the radial collateral artery 2) the recurrent radial artery 3) the middle collateral artery 4) the common interosseous artery 175. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE ULNAR ARTERY BRANCH INVOLVED IN THE FORMATION OF ELBOW JOINT ARTERIAL NETWORK? 1) the inferior ulnar collateral artery 2) the middle collateral artery 3) the superior ulnar collateral artery 4) the recurrent ulnar artery 176. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE ULNAR ARTERY BRANCH? 1) the middle collateral artery 2) the superior ulnar collateral artery 3) the superior ulnar collateral artery 4) the inferior ulnar collateral artery 177. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS INVOLVED IN THE FORMATION OF THE DEEP PALMAR ARCH? 1) the radial artery 2) the radial artery palmar branch 3) the ulnar artery 4) the common interosseous artery 178. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE CONSIDERED AS THE ABDOMINAL AORTA BRANCHES? 1) the superior suprarenal artery 2) the inferior epigastric artery 3) the middle suprarenal arteries 4) the superior phrenic arteries 179. THE ARTERY LEAVES FOR THE ADRENAL GLAND THE: 1) pancreaticoduodenal arteries 2) superior phrenic arteries 3) renal arteries 4) lumbar artery 180. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE ABDOMINAL AORTA UNPAIRED VISCERAL BRANCH? 1) the left gastric artery 2) the superior rectal artery 3) the inferior mesenteric artery 4) the middle colonic artery 181. THE CELIAC TRUNK BRANCH IS THE: 1) left gastric artery 2) right gastric artery 3) superior mesenteric artery 4) inferior mesenteric artery 182. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING LEAVES THE SPLENIC ARTERY FOR THE STOMACH? 1) the right gastric artery 2) the left gastroepiploic artery 3) the right gastroepiploic artery 4) the left gastric artery 183. THE COMMON HEPATIC ARTERY IS THE: 1) right gastroomental artery 2) left gastroomental artery 3) gastro-duodenal artery 4) left gastric artery 184. THE GASTRO-DUODENAL ARTERY IS THE: 1) left gastroepiploic artery 2) middle suprarenal artery 3) right gastroepiploic artery 4) right gastric artery 185. THE CHOLECYSTIS ARTERY LEAVES THE: 1) gastro-duodenal artery 2) common renal artery 3) proper hepatic artery left branch 4) proper hepatic artery right branch 186. THE SUPERIOR MESENTERIC ARTERY BRANCH SUPPLYING BLOOD TO THE SMALL BOWEL IS THE: 1) middle colonic artery 2) iliac-intestinal arteries 3) right colic artery 4) superior pancreaticoduodenal arteries 187. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING LEAVES THE INFERIOR MESENTERIC ARTERY? 1) the middle colonic artery 2) the left colic artery 3) the right colic artery 4) middle rectal artery 188. THE TESTICULAR ARTERIES LEAVES THE: 1)internal ileal artery 2) internal pudendal artery 3) abdominal aorta 4) common iliac artery 189. THE MIDDLE RECTAL ARTERIES START AT THE: 1) aorta abdominal part 2) common iliac artery 3) internal iliac artery 4) superior mesenteric artery 190. THE ILIAC-LUMBAR ARTERY ANASTOMOSES WITH THE: 1) lumbar arteries 2) superior rectal artery 3) deep circumflex iliac artery 4) superficial circumflex iliac artery 191. THE OVARIAN ARTERIES START AT THE: 1) abdominal aorta 2) internal iliac artery 3) external iliac artery 4) umbilical artery 192. THE INTERNAL ILIAC ARTERY BRANCH INVOLVED IN THE HIP JOINT BLOOD SUPPLY IS THE: 1) internal pudendal artery 2) external pudendal artery 3) superior gluteal artery 4) internal iliac artery 193. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE FEMORAL TRIANGLE BOUNDARY? 1) the femoral arch 2) the pectineal ligament 3) the pectineal muscle 4) the flank bone 194. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING LEAVES THE FEMORAL ARTERY? 1) the inferior epigastric artery 2) the superficial epigastric artery 3) the deep circumflex iliac artery 4) the internal pudendal artery 195. THE DEEP FEMORAL ARTERY BRANCH IS THE: 1) obturator artery 2) external pudendal artery 3) the deep circumflex iliac artery 4) perforating arteries 196. WHAT IS THE NAME OF THE CANAL COMMUNICATING WITH GRUBER CHANNEL (canalis cruropopliteus) THROUGH WHICH THE PERONEAL ARTERY PASSES? 1) the inferior muscular-peroneal canal 2) canalis adductorius 3) the superior muscular-peroneal canal 4) the femoral canal 197. THE DORSALIS PEDIS ARTERY FINAL BRANCH IS THE: 1) deep plantar branch of dorsalis pedis artery 2) medial tarsal artery 3) anterior plantar artery 4) arcuate artery 198. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE POSTERIOR TIBIAL ARTERY BRANCH? 1) the anterior malleolar artery 2) the anterior tibial recurrent artery 3) the posterior tibial recurrent artery 4) the circumflex fibular branch 199. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS INVOLVED IN THE FORMATION OF THE KNEE JOINT ARTICULAR NETWORK? 1) the anterior lateral malleolar artery 2) the medial anterior malleolar artery 3) the inferior medial genicular artery 4) the peroneal artery 200. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROVIDES THE BLOOD SUPPLY TOTHE MENISCI AND THE KNEE JOINT CRUCIATE LIGAMENTS? 1) the inferior lateral genicular artery 2) the inferior medial genicular artery 3) the middle genicular artery 4) the descending genicular artery 201. A BRANCH OF THE ANTERIOR TIBIAL ARTERY IS THE: 1) fibular artery 2) inferior lateral genicular artery 3) medial plantar artery 4) anterior tibial recurrent artery 202. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS INVOLVED IN THE PLANTAR ARCH FORMATION? 1) the deep plantar artery 2) the medial plantar artery 3) the anterior plantar artery 4) the arcuate artery 203. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING LEAVES THE ANTERIOR TIBIAL ARTERY AT THE ANKLE? 1) the medial plantar artery 2) the medial anterior malleolar artery 3) the posterior tibial recurrent artery 4) the anterior tibial recurrent artery 204. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING LEAVES THE POSTERIOR TIBIAL ARTERY AT THE ANKLE? 1) the lateral tarsal artery 2) the arcuate artery 3) the medial plantar artery 4) the peroneal artery 205. THE ARTERIAL NETWORK IN WHICH FORMATION THE FIBULAR ARTERY TERMINATING BRANCHES PARTICIPATE IS CALLED THE: 1) calcaneous network 2) middle malleolar network 3) medial malleolar network 4) plantar arterial arch 206. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS INVOLVED IN THE ANASTOMOSIS FORMATION IN THE SHAPE OF A VERTICAL ARC AT THE FOOT? 1) the arcuate artery 2) the deep plantar branch 3) the medial plantar branch 4) the lateral plantar branch 207. THE PROJECTION TO THE BODY SURFACE OF THE RIGHT AND LEFT BRACHIOCEPHALIC VEINS MERGE IS LOCATED 1) behind the junction of the first left rib with the sternum 2) at the level of the second rib cartilage 3) at the level of the second right rib cartilage 4) behind the junction of the first right rib to the sternum 208. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE HEART VEINS FLOWING DIRECTLY INTO THE RIGHT ATRIUM? 1) the small cardiac vein 2) the left ventricular posterior vein 3) the anterior cardiac veins 4) the great cardiac vein 209. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DRAIN IMMEDIATELY INTO THE AZYGOS VEIN? 1) the internal thoracic veins 2) the left ascending lumbar vein 3) the anterior intercostal veins 4) the posterior intercostal veins 210. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DRAINS INTO THE HEMIAZYGOS VEIN? 1) the right superior intercostal vein 2) the internal thoracic veins 3) the mediastinal veins 4) the right ascending lumbar vein 211. THE SATELLITE –VEIN ACCOMPANIES THE: 1) the subclavian vein 2) the ulnar vein 3) the internal jugular vein 4) the axillary vein 212. THE THYROID VEINS DRAIN INTO THE: 1) external jugular vein 2) subclavian vein 3) facial vein 4) brachiocephalic vein 213. THE EXTERNAL JUGULAR VEIN DRAINS INTO THE: 1) angle of confluence of the subclavian and internal jugular vein 2) superior vena cava 3) anterior jugular vein 4) azygos vein 214. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DRAINS INTO THE AXILLARY VEIN? 1) the internal thoracic vein 2) the lateral thoracic vein 3) the retromandibular vein 4) the dorsal scapular vein 215. THE OCULAR VEINS DRAIN INTO THE: 1) anterior jugular vein 2) superficial temporal vein 3) cavernous sinus 4) sigmoid sinus 216. THE DIPLOIC VEINS DRAIN INTO THE: 1) superior sagittal sinus 2) external jugular vein 3) internal jugular vein 4) sigmoid sinus 217. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS REGARDED AS THE EXTRACRANIAL BRANCH OF THE INTERNAL JUGULAR VEIN? 1) the auditory vein 2) the pharyngeal veins 3) the ophthalmic vein 4) the meningeal vein 218. THE ESOPHAGEAL VEINS ANASTOMOSE WITH THE: 1) right gastric vein 2) left gastro-omental vein 3) right gastro-omental vein 4) left gastric vein 219. THE BASILIC VEIN DRAINS INTO THE: 1) brachial vein 2) axillary vein 3) subclavian vein 4) external jugular vein 220. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE THE UPPER EXTREMITY DEEP VEINS? 1) the radial veins 2) the cephalic vein 3) the basilic vein 4) the median cubital vein 221. THE DEEP PALMAR VENOUS ARC FLOWS TO THE: 1) cephalic vein 2) ulnar vein 3) в brachial vein 4) axillary vein 222. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FLOW TO THE EXTERNAL ILIAC VEIN? 1) the inferior epigastric veins 2) the superior epigastric veins 3 the) inferior rectal veins 4) the lateral sacral veins 223. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FLOW TO THE EXTERNAL ILIAC VEIN? 1) the inferior epigastric veins 2) the superior epigastric veins 3 )the inferior rectal veins 4) the lateral sacral veins 224. DEEP VEIN OF THE LOWER LIMB IS THE: 1) small saphenous vein 2) great saphenous vein 3) popliteal vein 4) superficial epigastric vein 225. THE SMALL SAPHENOUS VEIN FLOWS TO THE: 1) great saphenous vein 2) femoral vein 3) posterior tibial vein 4) popliteal vein 226. THE INFERIOR VENA CAVA IS FORMED AT THE LEVEL OF THE: 1) third lumbar vertebra 2) first sacral vertebra 3) fourth and fifth lumbar vertebrae 4) sacroiliac joint 227. THE VEINS FLOWING INTO THE INFERIOR VENA CAVA ARE THE: 1) posterior intercostal veins 2) inferior mesenteric veins 3) renal veins 4) splenic veins 228. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FLOWS TO THE HEPATIC VEINS? 1) the external mesenteric vein 2) the azygos vein 3) the splenic vein 4) the inferior vena cava 229. THE VEINS INVOLVED IN THE FORMATION OF PORTO- CAVA ANASTOMOSIS AND CAVA –CAVAL ANASTOMOSIS AT THE ANTERIOR ABDOMINAL WALL ARE THE: 1) umbilical veins 2) paraumbilical veins 3) inferior phrenic veins 4) lumbar veins 230. THE BLOOD FLOWS TO THE SUPERIOR MESENTERIC VEIN ARE THE: 1) pancreatic veins 2) superior rectal veins 3) left gastroepiploic vein 4) sigmoid veins 231. THE BLOOD FLOWS TO THE INFERIOR MESENTERIC VEIN ARE THE: 1) ileocolic vein 2) inferior rectal vein 3) left colic vein 4) right colic vein 232. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ORGANS DOES VENOUS BLOOD LEAVE FOR THE INFERIOR MESENTERIC VEIN? 1) the gall bladder 2) the urinary bladder 3) the sigmoid 4) the small bowel 233. THE VENOUS BLOOD LEAVES THE DUODENUM FOR THE: 1) inferior mesenteric vein 2) ileocolic vein 3) left gastric vein 4) superior mesenteric vein 234. THE VEIN THE FLOW TO WHICH FORMS THE INTERSYSTEM VENOUS ANASTOMOSIS IN THE RECTUM WALL IS THE: 1) internal thoracic vein 2) external iliac vein 3) superior mesenteric vein 4) internal genital vein 235. THE VEINS INVOLVED IN THE FORMATION OF PORTO- CAVAL ANASTOMOSIS IN THE UPPER ABDOMEN CAVITY WALL ARE THE: 1) mediastinal veins 2) pancreatoduodenal veins 3) esophageal veins 4) gastro-omental veins 236. THE SPLENIC VEIN INFLOW IS THE: 1) inferior pancreatoduodenal vein 2) left gastro-omental vein 3) jejunal vein 4) iliac-intestinal vein 237. THE LYMPHATIC SYSTEM INCLUDES THE: 1) lymphoid follicles, lymph capillaries 2) lymph capillaries, lymphatic vessels 3) lymphatic vessels , lymphoid follicles 4) lymphatic ducts, lymphoid follicles 238. THE CONFLUENCE OF THE LYMPHATIC DUCTS INTO THE BLOODSTREAM IS THE: 1) right atrium 2) venous angle 3) external jugular vein 4) internal thoracic vein 239. THE BARRIER-FILTRATION AND AT THE SAME TIME IMMUNE FUNCTION FOR THE LYMPH IS PERFORMED BY THE: 1) lymphatic vessels 2) lymphatic collectors 3) lymph nodes 4) lymphoid plaques 240. LYMPH CAPILLARIES ARE ABSENT IN THE: 1) spleen parenchyma 2) aponeurosis 3) fascias 4) liver 241. THE VISCERAL LYMPH NODES ARE THE: 1) inferior diaphragmatic nodes 2) superior diaphragmatic nodes 3) parasternal lymph nodes 4) bronchopulmonary lymph nodes 242. THE PARIETAL LYMPHATIC NODES ARE THE: 1) celiac lymph nodes 2) mesenteric lymph nodes 3)superior phrenic lymph nodes 4) mediastinal lymph nodes 243. TO THE ILIAC LYMPH NODES, LYMPH DRAINS FROM THE: 1) rectum 2) skin of the gluteal region 3) lower part of the anterior abdominal wall 4) lower extremity 244. THE PELVIS VISCERAL LYMPH NODES ARE THE: 1) sacral ganglions 2) internal iliac lymph nodes 3) pararectal lymph nodes 4) inguinal lymph nodes 245. THE PELVIS PARIETAL LYMPH NODES ARE THE: 1) common iliac lymph nodes 2) pararectal lymph nodes 3) parametric lymph nodes 4) paravesicle lymph nodes 246. THE ABDOMINAL CAVITY PARIETAL LYMPHATIC NODES ARE PRESENTED BY THE: 1) inferior phrenic lymph nodes 2) cecal nodes 3) superior phrenic lymph nodes 4) celiac lymph nodes 247. WHICH LYMPHATIC NODES ARE SIGNALING IN THE BREAST TUMORS? 1) the supraclavicular lymph nodes 2)the parasternal lymph nodes 3) the axillary lymph nodes 4) the retrosternal lymph nodes 248. FROM THE FALLOPIAN TUBES, THE OVARY AND THE UTERINE FUNDUS LYMPH DRAINS MAINLY INTO THE: 1) internal iliac lymph nodes 2) external iliac lymph nodes 3) sacral lymph nodes 4) lumbar lymph nodes 249. THE SUBCLAVIAN TRUNK IS FORMED BY THE EFFERENT VESSELS OF THE FOLLOWING LYMPH NODES: 1) the axillary lymph nodes 2) the internal jugular lymph nodes 3) the anterior mediastinal lymph nodes 4) the posterior mediastinal lymph nodes 250. THE LYMPHATIC TRUNK INVOLVED IN THE FORMATION OF THE THORACIC LYMPHATIC DUCT IS THE: 1) right jugular trunk 2) right subclavian trunk 3) right bronchomediastinal lymph trunk 4) right lumbar lymphatic trunk 251. AN OPENING IN THE DIAPHRAGM THROUGH WHICH THE THORACIC LYMPHATIC DUCT ENTERS THE CHEST CAVITY IS CALLED THE: 1) esophageal opening 2) gap between the diaphragm crura 3) inferior Vena cava opening 4) aortic opening 252. IN THE CHEST CAVITY, THORACIC LYMPHATIC DUCT IS LOCATED: 1) between the esophagus and the aorta 2) between the aorta and the unpaired vein 3) on the aorta anterior surface 4) on the esophagus anterior surface 253. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ENTER THE RIGHT LYMPHATIC DUCT? 1) the right subclavian, the right lumbar trunks 2) the right bronchomediastinal, the intestinal trunks 3) the right lumbar, the right jugular trunks 4) the right jugular, the right bronchomediastinal trunks 254. WHAT IS THE FEATURE OF THE LYMPH OUTFLOW FROM THE ESOPHAGUS? 1) all lymph flows only in the chest duct 2) all lymph flows only in the right lymphatic duct 3) the direct discharge of lymph into the chest duct bypassing the regional lymph nodes is possible 4) the lymph flows off only from the thoracic part of the organ 255. IN WHICH REGIONAL LYMPHATIC NODES DOES THE LYMPH DRAIN FROM THE TONGUE? 1) retropharyngeal 2) genian 3) submandibula 4) facial 256. IN WHICH REGIONAL LYMPHATIC NODES DOES THE LYMPH DRAIN FROM THE TONGUE ROOT? 1) submandibular 2) facial 3) superficial cervical 4) retropharyngeal 257. THE AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM PERIPHERAL PART INCLUDES THE: 1) the parasympathetic nucleus of the cranial nerves III pair 2) the parasympathetic nuclei of sacral segments lateral horns at the spinal cord 3) the sympathetic trunk 4) the sympathetic nucleus of the spinal cord lateral columns 258. THE SYMPATHETIC PART OF THE AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM INCLUDES THE: 1) the white and gray rami communicantes (communicating branches) of the sympathetic trunk 2) the dorsal nucleus of vagus nerve 3) the superior salivary nucleus 4) the accessory nucleus of the oculomotor nerve 259. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROCEED TOTHE SYMPATHETIC TRUNK? 1) the white rami communicantes (communicating branches) 2) the gray rami communicantes (communicating branches) 3) the interganglionic rami communicantes 4) the lesser splanchnic nerve 260. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING LEAVES THE SUPERIOR CERVICAL GANGLION? 1) the greater splanchnic nerve 2) the vertebral nerve 3) the inferior cervical cardiac nerve 4) the internal carotid nerve 261. THE CELIAC PLEXUS INCLUDES THE: 1) the superior mesenteric ganglion 2) the cervicothoracic ganglion 3) the pelvic splanchnic nerve 4) the parasympathetic ganglion 262. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DO SECRETORY FIBERS LEAVE FOR THE LACRIMAL GLAND? 1) the pterygopalatine ganglion 2) the ciliary ganglion 3) the submandibular ganglion 4) the otic ganglion 263. THE SPINAL CORD SEGMENTS WHICH ARE CENTERS OF THE SYMPATHETIC NERVOUS SYSTEM ARE THE: 1) 1-7 neck segments 2) 2-4 sacral segments 3) 1-12 thoracic segments 4) 4-5 lumbar segments 264. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING INNERVATES THE PAROTID GLAND? 1) the glossopharyngeal nerve 2) the nervus vagus 3) the facial nerve 4) the hypoglossal nerve 265. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS INVOLVED IN THE LARYNX VEGETATIVE INNERVATION? 1) the nervus vagus 2) the trifacial nerve 3) the facial nerve 4) the glossopharyngeal nerve 266. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING INNERVATES THE BLADDER? 1) the inferior hypogastric plexus 2) the celiac plexus 3) the inferior mesenteric plexus 4) the superior mesenteric plexus 267. THE ATTACHMENT OF THE MUSCLE-TENDON BUNDLES AT THE DIAPHRAGM LUMBAR PART IS THE: 1) lumbar vertebrae anterior surfaces 2) lumbar vertebrae transverse processes 3) lower thoracic vertebrae anterior surfaces 4) lumbar vertebrae spinous processes 268. THE CHEST AUTOCHTHONOUS MUSCLES INCLUDE THE: 1) serratus аnterior 2) external intercostal muscles 3) greater pectoral muscle 4) subclavian muscle 269. THE PERICARDIUM IS LOCATED INTHE: 1) superior mediastinum 2) middle mediastinum 3) anterior mediastinum 4) posterior mediastinum 35. THE PERICARDIUM IS: 1) in the upper mediastinum 2) in the middle mediastinum 3) in the front mediastinum 4) in the posterior mediastinum 270. THE PHRENIC NERVE PASSES THE: 1) superior mediastinum 2) anterior mediastinum 3) posterior mediastinum 4) inferior mediastinum 271. THE THORACIC AORTA BRANCHES ARE THE: 1) anterior intercostal arteries 2) posterior intercostal arteries 3) internal thoracic arteries 4) inferior phrenic arteries 272. THE THORACIC AORTA VISCERAL BRANCHES INCLUDE THE: 1) bronchial branches 2) posterior intercostal branches 3) vertical branches 4) diaphragmatic branches 273. THE PROJECTION TO THE ANTERIOR THORACIC WALL OF THE SUPERIOR VENA CAVA CONFLUENCE INTO THE RIGHT ATRIUM IS AT THE JOINT LEVEL OF THE: 1) III- rd right rib cartilage with the sternum 2) III-rd left rib cartilage with the sternum 3) II-nd right rib cartilage with the sternum 4) II- nd left rib cartilage with sternum 274. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DIRECTLY ENTER THE AZYGOS VEIN? 1) the internal thoracic veins 2) the left ascending lumbar vein 3) the anterior intercostal veins 4) the dorsal intercostal veins 275. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ENTERS THE HEMIAZYGOS VEIN? 1) the right superior intercostal vein 2) the internal thoracic veins 3) the mediastinal veins 4) the right ascending lumbar vein 276. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DIRECTLY ENTER THE INTERNAL THORACIC VEIN? 1) the dorsal intercostal veins 2) the additional azygos vein 3) the musculophrenic vein 4) the dorsal vein 277. THE UPPER BORDER OF THE STOMACH IS THE: 1) I lumbar vertebra 2) X thoracic vertebra 3) X rib 4) XII thoracic vertebra 278. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS INVOLVED IN THE FORMATION OF THE INGUINAL CANAL UPPER WALL? 1) the abdomen internal oblique muscle 2) the rectus 3) the pectoral fascia 4) the femoral arch 279. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS INVOLVED IN THE FORMATION OF THE INGUINAL CANAL SUPERFICIAL RING? 1) the lower edge of internal oblique abdominal muscle 2) the transverse fascia 3) the pectineal ligament 4) the intercrural fibers 280. THE STOMACH ANTERIOR SURFACE IS IN CONTACT WITH THE: 1) duodenum 2) transverse colon 3) pancreas 4) anterior abdominal wall 281. THE STOMACH OF PEOPLE WITH MESOMORPHIC BODY TYPE HAS THE FORM OF A: 1) horn 2) hook 3) stocking 4) spindle 282. THE PANCREAS HEAD IS IN CONTACT WITH THE: 1) transverse colon 2) stomach 3) right kidney 4) spleen 283. THE ORGAN OCCUPYING EXTRAPERITONEAL POSITION IS THE: 1) lower rectum 2) stomach 3) blind gut 4) gallbladder 284. THE UPPER LIMIT OF THE RIGHT KIDNEY LOCATION ISTHE: 1) middle of the eleventh thoracic vertebra 2) lower edge of the XI thoracic vertebra 3) middle of the third lumbar vertebra 4) upper edge of the third lumbar vertebra 285. IN RELATION TO THE ILIAC BLOOD VESSELS, THE RIGHT URETER PELVIC PART IS LOCATED: 1) behind the common iliac artery 2) in front of the internal iliac artery 3) behind the internal iliac vein 4) more lateral to the internal iliac vein 286. THE ANATOMICAL STRUCTURE LOCATED BEHIND THE VAGINA IS THE: 1) sigmoid colon 2) rectum 3) fundus of bladder 4) female urethra 287. ACCORDING TO ITS STRUCTURE, SHOULDER JOINT IS A: 1) composite joint 2) simple joint 3) mixed joint 4) complex joint 288. SUCH ELBOW MOVEMENTS ARE POSSIBLE AS: 1) humerus abduction/adduction 2) shoulder flexion and extension 3) radius rotation 4) circular motion 289. THE GREATER ISCHIADIC IS LIMITED BY THE: 1) sacrotuberal ligament 2) sacrospinal ligament 3) superior pubic ramus 290. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS LOCATED AT THE ANTERIOR WALL OF THE AXILLARY CAVITY? 1) the subclavian fossa 2) the triangular foramen 3) the medial groove 4) the inframammary triangle 291. THE TRIANGULAR FORAMEN IS LIMITED BY THE: 1) subscapular muscle 2) humerus 3) acromion 4) teres minor muscle 292. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS INVOLVED IN THE FORMATION OF THE RADIAL NERVE CHANNEL WALL? 1) the coracobrachial muscle 2) the subscapular muscle 3) the triceps of the arm 4) the brachioradial muscle 293. THE FEMORAL TRIANGLE IS LIMITED BY THE: 1) femoral arch 2) pectineal ligament 3) pectineal muscle 4) iliac bone 294. MUSCULAR LACUNA IS LOCATED: 1) in the greater sciatic foramen area 2) in the lesser sciatic foramen area 3) behind the inguinal ligament 4) more medial to the Iliopectineal arch 295. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS INVOLVED IN THE FORMATION OF THE FEMORAL CANAL WALLS? 1) the pectineal ligament 2) the transverse fascia 3) the femoral vein 4) the femoral nerve 296. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS INVOLVED IN THE FORMATION OF THE CAROTID TRIANGLE WALLS? 1) the omohyoid muscle 2) the hypoglossus 3) the mandibular bone 4) the external carotid artery 297. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS INVOLVED IN THE FORMATION OF THE SUBMANDIBULAR TRIANGLE? 1) the stylo-hyoid muscle 2) the mylohyoid muscle 3) the submandibular salivary gland 4) the digastric muscle 298. THE OSSEO-FASCIAL AND INTERMUSCULAR SPACE OF THE HEAD TEMPORAL REGION IS THE: 1) subaponeurotic space 2) adipose body of the cheek 3) elytroid space 4) temporopterygoid space 299. THE INTERMUSCULAR SPACE OF THE HEAD WHERE THE MANDIBULAR NERVE AND ITS BRANCHES PASS IS THE: 1) pterygopalatine fossa 2) pterygoid- jaw space 3) elytroid space 4) interpterygoid space 300. THE MAXILLARY ARTERY BRANCH IN ITS PTERYGOID PART IS THE: 1) submental artery 2) sphenopalatine artery 3) superficial temporal artery 4) buccal artery 301. THE MAXILLARY ARTERY BRANCH IN ITS PTERYGOPALATINE PART IS THE: 1) submental artery 2) middle meningeal artery 3) ascending palatine artery 4) infraorbital artery 302. THE SUPRASTERNAL INTER-APONEUROTIC SPACE CONTENT IS THE: 1) external carotid artery 2) internal jugular vein 3) anterior jugular vein 4) phrenic nerve 303. THE CONFINED CELLULAR SPACES INCLUDE THE: 1) pre-vertebral space 2) fascial sheath of the cheek fat body 3) pre- visceral space 4) periesophageal space 304. THE SUBMANDIBULAR SALIVARY GLAND CAPSULE IS CONNECTED WITH THE: 1) pterygomaxillary fossa 2) capsule of the parotid salivary gland 3) parapharyngeal cellular space 4) suprasternal inter-aponeurotic space 305. THE COMMON CAROTID ARTERY DIVISION ON EXTERNAL AND INTERNAL IS USUALLY LOCATED: 1) at the superior edge of the thyroid cartilage 2) at the base of the skull 3) in the submandibular triangle 4) at the mastoid process of the temporal bone 306. WHICH BONE IS INVOLVED IN THE FORMATION OF THE SKULL CEREBRAL PART? 1) rhinal 2) sphenoidal 3) maxillary 4) vomer 307. THE FRONTAL BONE DIVISION IS THE: 1) squama of frontal bone 2) greater wing 3) Turkish saddle 4) upper sagittal edge 308. WHICH ANATOMICAL STRUCTURE IS LOCATED AT THE SUPERFICIES OF FRONTAL BONE SQAMA? 1) the occipital crest 2) the frontal protuberance 3) the ethmoidal incisure 4) the inferior nuchal line 309. WHICH ANATOMICAL STRUCTURE IS LOCATED AT THE OCCIPITAL BONE LATERAL DIVISION? 1) the groove for sigmoid sinus 2) the jugular spine 3) the frontal sinus 4) the optic canal 310. THE ETHMOID BONE HAS THE: 1) perpendicular plate 2) orbital part 3) nasal part 4) squamous part 311. THE TURKISH SADDLE IS LOCATED AT THE: 1) ulnar bone 2) tibia 3) sphenoid bone 4) frontal bone 312. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS LOCATED AT THE ETHMOID BONE? 1) the cecal foramen 2) the inferior nasal concha 3) the cock's-comb 4) the lacrimal groove 313. THE FRONTAL BONE FORMS THE WALLS OF SUCH VISCERAL (FACIAL) SKULL CAVITIES AS THE: 1) nasal cavity 2) oral cavity 3) eye-pit 4) pterygopalatine fossa 314. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS INVOLVED IN THE FORMATION OF THE ANTERIOR CRANIAL FOSSA: 1) the inferior nasal concha 2) the vomer 3) the frontal bone 4) the palatal bone 315. THE CRANIAL BONE THAT DOES NOT HAVE SQUAMA IS: 1) parietal 2) occipitalis 3) frontal 4) sphenoidal 316. THE OCCIPITAL BONE CONTAINS THE CRENA: 1) parietal 2) occipitalis 3) jugular 4) sphenoidal 317. PTERYGOID PROCESS CONSISTS OF THE PLATES: 1) anterior and posterior 2) medial and lateral 3) left and right 4) external and internal 318. THE PITUITARY FOSSA IS LOCATED AT THE: 1) lesser wing of the sphenoid 2) greater wing of the sphenoid bone 3)fundus of the sphenoid bone 4) sphenoid bone pterygoid processes 319. THE SPACE BETWEEN THE LESSER AND GREATER WINGS OF THE SPHENOID BONE IS THE: 1) inferior orbital fissure 2) petrotympanic fissure 3) oval foramen 4) superior orbital fissure 320. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE PNEUMATIC BONE? 1) parietal 2) mandibular bone 3) sphenoidal 4) jugal 321. THE SURFACE OF THE TEMPORAL BONE PYRAMID IS: 1) lateral 2) inferior 3) medial 4) superior 322. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS LOCATED AT THE ANTERIOR SURFACE OF THE TEMPORAL BONE PYRAMID? 1) the opening of the muscular-tubular canal 2) the jugular fossa 3) the petrous 4) the arcuate eminence 323. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS LOCATED AT THE POSTERIOR SURFACE OF THE TEMPORAL BONE PYRAMID? 1) the trigeminal impression 2) the groove for the sigmoid sinus 3) the internal acoustic foramen 4) the roof of the tympanum 324. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS LOCATED AT THE INFERIOR SURFACE OF THE TEMPORAL BONE PYRAMID? 1) the subarcuate fossa 2) the opening of the tympanic canal 3) the carotid foramen 4) the oval opening 325. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE PROCESS OF THE TEMPORAL BONE? 1) frontal 2) pterygoid 3) jugular 4) zygomatic 326. THE OUTLET OF THE TYMPANIC CANALICULUS IS LOCATED AT THE: 1) cleft of small stony nerve 2) tympanomastoid fissure 3) petrotympanic fissure 4) fundus of petrous fossa 327. WHICH CHANAL PASSES THROUGH THE TEMPORAL BONE PYRAMID? 1) optic 2) facialis 3) condylar 4) canalis hypoglossalis 328. WHERE IS THE INLET OPENING OF THE CHORDA TYMPANI SMALL CANAL LOCALISED? 1)at the carotid canal wall 2) at the fossa jugularis fundus 3) at the wall of the facial nerve canal 4) at the stylomastoid foramen 329. WHERE IS THE OUTLET OPENING OF THE FACIAL CANAL LOCALISED? 1) at the groove of the large stony nerve 2) at the subarcuate fossa 3) at the internal auditory canal wall 4) at the stylomastoid foramen 330. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE HOLE ON THE TYMPANIC PART OF THE TEMPORAL BONE? 1) the external acoustic foramen 2) the internal acoustic foramen 3) the carotid canal external opening 4) the jugular foramen 331. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS INVOLVED IN THE ANTERIOR CRANIAL FOSSA FORMATION? 1) the inferior nasal concha 2) the vomer 3) the frontal bone 4) the palatal bone 332. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS INVOLVED IN THE MIDDLE CRANIAL FOSSA FORMATION? 1) the frontal bone 2) the occipital bone 3) the maxillary bone 4) the temporal bone 333. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS INVOLVED IN THE POSTERIOR CRANIAL FOSSA FORMATION? 1) the cheek bone 2) the occipital bone 3) the lacrimal bone 4) the mandibular bone 334. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS LOCATED AT THE MIDDLE CRANIAL FOSSA FUNDUS? 1) the jugular foramen 2) the optic foramen 3) the cecal foramen 4) the sphenotic foramen 335. THE MIDDLE CRANIAL FOSSA IS CONNECTED WITH THE: 1) the inferior orbital fissure 2) the jugular foramen 3) the superior orbital fissure 4) the ethmoidal foramina 336. WHICH BONE IS INVOLVED IN THE FACIAL SKULL FORMATION? 1) frontal 2) ethmoidal 3) maxillary 4) sincipital 337. THE UPPER JAW HAS THE PROCESSUS: 1) jugular 2) coronoid 3) condylar 4) frontal 338. THE PALATINE BONE PROCESS IS: 1) zygomatic 2) orbital 3) jugular 4) radial 339. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS LOCATED AT THE MANDIBLE? 1) the pterygoid fossa 2) the lacrimal process 3) the horizontal plate 4) the tooth sockets 340. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS LOCATED AT THE LOWER JAW BRANCH? 1) the mental protuberance 2) the coronoid process 3) the orbital surface 4) the fossa of lacrimal sac 341. INFRATEMPORAL FOSSA IS CONNECTED WITH THE: 1) the pterygomaxillary fissure 2) the superior orbital fissure 3) the carotid foramen 4) the greater palatine canal 342. THROUGH ROUND HOLE, PTERYGOID-PALATAL FOSSA IS CONNECTED WITH THE: 1) nasal cavity 2) middle cranial fossa 3) с digastric fossa 4) eye-pit 343. THE FRONTAL SINUS APERTURE IS OPENED INTO THE: 1) middle meatus 2) superior nasal meatus 3) anterior cranial fossa 4) eye-pit 344. THE HOLE LEADING FROM THE PTERYGOID-PALATINE FOSSA INTO THE NASAL CAVITY IS THE: 1) oval foramen 2) sphenopalatine foramen 3) pterygoid canal 4) pterygomaxillary fissure 345. THE ORBITAL FLOOR IS FORMED BY THE: 1) maxillary bone 2) sphenoid bone 3) mandibular bone 4) frontal bone 346. THE OPENING WHICH IS LOCATED AT THE ORBITAL WALL IS THE: 1) anterior condyloid foramen 2) optic canal 3) pterygoid canal 4) greater palatine canal 347. THE MIDDLE NASAL PASSAGE IS CONNECTED WITH THE: 1) oval opening 2) ethmoid bone anterior cells 3) nasolacrimal canal 4) round foramen 348. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS INVOLVED IN THE NASAL CAVITY LATERAL WALL FORMATION? 1) the maxillary bone 2) the mandibular bone 3) the sphenoid bone 4) the occipital bone 349. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FORM THE NASAL CAVITY LOWER WALL? 1) the horizontal plates of palatine bones 2) the sphenoid bone pterygoid processes 3) the hyoid bone small horns 4) the inferior nasal concha 350. IN THE FACIAL SKULL, THE PNEUMATIZED BONES ARE: 1) occipitalis 2) parietal 3) subglossal 4) ethmoidal 351. DISCONTINUOUS TYPES OF BONE CONNECTIONS FALL INTO: 1) the cartilaginous connections 2) the bone joints - synostosis 3) the synovial connections 4) the fibrous joints 352. FIBROUS CONNECTIONS ARE: 1) synchondrosis 2) gomphoses 3) synostoses 4) symphyses 353. THE FOLLOWING ANATOMICAL STRUCTURE PARTICIPATES IN THE FORMATION OF JOINT: 1) the articular cavity 2) a ligament 3) the articular disc 4) the synovial sac 354. BIAXIAL JOINT HAS THE FOLLOWING FORM: 1) condyloid 2) cylindrical (pivot) 3) helical 4) hinge 355. THE TEMPOROMANDIBULAR JOINT BY THE SHAPE REFERS TO: 1) hinge 2) circular-shaped (ball-and-socket) 3) ellipsoidal 4) plane 356. BACKWARD MOVEMENT OF ARTICULAR HEAD OF THE MANDIBULAR IS LIMITED BY: 1) the middle maxillary ligament 2) the stylo-mandibular ligament 3) the lateral ligament 4) the articular tubercle 357. ARCHES OF VERTEBRAE ARE CONNECTED BY: 1) the yellow ligaments 2) the anterior longitudinal ligament 3) the posterior longitudinal ligament 4) the nuchal ligament 358. ACCORDING TO THE STRUCTURE, LATERAL ATLANTOAXIAL JOINT REFERS TO: 1) the combined joints 2) the plane joints 3) the complex joints 4) the compound joints 359. THE FOLLOWING MOVEMENT IS POSSIBLE IN THE HELICAL JOINTS: 1) flexion and extension 2) abduction 3) adduction 4) rotation 360. PHYSIOLOGICAL LORDOSIS TAKES PLACE IN: 1) the thoracic spine 2) the cervical spine 3) the coccygeal part of the spine 4) the sacral part of the spinal column 361. FOR CONNECTING A CARTILAGE OF THE I st RIB TO THE STERNUM THE FOLLOWING IS CHARACTERISTIC: 1) discontinuous connection 2) fibrous type of connection 3) symphysis 4) chondral connection (cartilaginous) 363. FOR CONNECTING A CARTILAGE OF THE II-VII th RIBS TO THE STERNUM THE FOLLOWING IS CHARACTERISTIC: 1) fibrous type of connection 2) symphysis 3) discontinuous connection 4) chondral connection (cartilaginous) 364. THE SPINOUS PROCESSES OF VERTEBRAE ARE JOINED BY: 1) the yellow ligaments 2) the anterior longitudinal ligament 3) the supraspinous ligament 4) the posterior longitudinal ligament 365. IN THE CAVITY OF THE SPINAL CANAL THE FOLLOWING PASSES: 1) the interspinous ligament 2) the yellow ligament 3) the anterior longitudinal ligament 4) the posterior longitudinal ligament 366. THE ANTERIOR SKULL FONTANELLE: 1) is the smallest in size among others 2) is represented by a dense connective tissue 3) is represented by a cartilaginous plate 4) closes by 6 months 367. THE FOLLOWING TAKES PART IN THE FORMATION OF STERNOCLAVICULAR JOINT: 1) the acromial extremity of clavicle 2) the jugular notch of the sternum 3) articular meniscus 4) the sternal extremity of clavicle 368. THE FOLLOWING BELONGS TO THE ELBOW JOINT: 1) the head of the humerus 2) the annular ligament of the radius 3) the odontoid ligament 4) the articular disc 369. THE FOLLOWING BELONGS TO THE RADIOCARPAL JOINT: 1) the pisiform bone 2) the capitate bone 3) the trapezoid bone 4) the scaphoid bone (navicular bone) 370. ACCORDING TO THE STRUCTURE, STERNOCLAVICULAR JOINT REFERS TO: 1) the plane joints 2) the compound joints 3) the combined joints 4) the complex joints 371. THE PROPER LIGAMENT OF THE SCAPULA IS: 1) the annular ligament of the radius 2) the superior transverse scapular ligament 3) the quadrate ligament 4) the coracoclavicular ligament 372. ACCORDING TO THE STRUCTURE, THE SHOULDER JOINT REFERS TO: 1) the compound joints 2) the simple joints 3) the combined joints 4) the complex joints 373. IN THE SHOULDER JOINT THERE IS: 1) the coracoacromial ligament 2) the coracoclavicular ligament 3) the lower transverse ligament of the scapula 4) the coracohumeral ligament 374. ACCORDING TO THE STRUCTURE, THE ELBOW JOINT REFERS TO: 1) the simple joints 2) the complex joints 3) the compound joints 4) the condyloid joints 375. ACCORDING TO THE SHAPE, THE HUMEROULNAR JOINT REFERS TO: 1) the spheroidal joints (ball-and-socket) 2) the ginglymoid joints (hinge joints) 3) the plane joints 4) the rotatory joints (pivot joints) 376. THE FOLLOWING REFERS TO THE ELBOW JOINT: 1) the radial carpal collateral ligament 2) the dorsal ligament 3) the annular ligament of radius 4) the coracoclavicular ligament 377. THE FOLLOWING MOVEMENTS ARE POSSIBLE IN THE ELBOW JOINT: 1) abduction and adduction 2) flexion and extension 3) rotation 4) orbital motion 378. ACCORDING TO THE STRUCTURE, THE RADIOCARPAL JOINT REFERS TO: 1) the complex joints 2) the compound joints 3) the simple joints 4) the combined joints 379. THE FOLLOWING MOVEMENTS ARE POSSIBLE IN THE RADIOCARPAL JOINT: 1) rotation of the radius 2) rotation of the ulnar bone 3) orbital motions 4) abduction and adduction 380. THE FOLLOWING TYPES OF BONES PARTICIPATE IN THE FORMATION OF MIDCARPAL JOINT: 1) the scaphoid bone (navicular bone), capitate bone, hamate bone (unciform bone) 2) the radial bone, navicular bone 3) the scaphoid bone, capitate bone, pisiform bone 4) the triquetrum bone, pisiform bone 381. ACCORDING TO THE SHAPE, THE CARPOMETACARPAL JOINT OF THE THUMB IS CONSIDERED AS: 1) the rotatory joints (pivot) 2) the saddle joints 3) the ellipsoidal joints 4) the spheroidal joints (ball-and-socket) 382. THE POSTERIOR WALL OF THE LESSER PELVIS IS FORMED BY: 1) the pelvic surface of the sacrum 2) the inner surface of the pelvic bones 3) the sacrospinal ligament 4) the posterior surface of the coccyx 383. A LIGAMENT OF THE FEMORAL HEAD PERFORMS A FUNCTION: 1) inhibits flexion in the hip joint 2) holds the head of the femur in the acetabulum (cotyloid cavity) 3) inhibits extension in the hip joint 4) inhibits and restraints rotation outwards and inwards 384. ACCORDING TO THE SHAPE, SACRO-ILIAC JOINT IS CONSIDERED AS: 1) the plane joints 2) the the saddle joints 3) the ellipsoidal joints 4) the condylar joints 385. IN THE HIP JOINT THE STRONGEST IS: 1) the pubofemoral ligament 2) the ischiofemoral ligament 3) the ligament of the femoral head 4) the iliofemoral ligament 386. THE FOLLOWING BONES TAKE PART IN THE FORMATION OF THE KNEE JOINT: 1) the femur, tibia (shinbone), fibula (peroneal bone) 2) the femur, tibia 3) the femur, fibula, patella (kneecap) 4) the femur, tibia, patella 387. THE FOLLOWING REFERS TO THE INTRA-ARTICULAR FORMATIONS OF THE KNEE JOINT: 1) the arcuate popliteal ligament 2) the oblique popliteal ligament 3) the transverse ligament of the knee 4) the disc 388. THE CRUCIATE LIGAMENTS OF THE KNEE PERFORM A FUNCTION: 1) inhibit flexion 2) inhibit extension 3) inhibit and restraint rotation inwards 4) inhibit and restraint rotation outwards 389. ACCORDING TO THE SHAPE, THE ANKLE JOINT IS CONSIDERED AS: 1) the saddle joints 2) the ball-and-socket joints 3) the condyloid joints 4) the hinge joints 390. ACCORDING TO THE STRUCTURE, THE ANKLE JOINT IS CONSIDERED AS: 1) the simple joints 2) the compound joints 3) the complex joints 4) the combined joints 391. THE FOLLOWING BONES PARTICIPATE IN THE FORMATION OF THE ANKLE JOINT: 1) tibia, the peroneal bone, heel bone 2) tibia, the hucklebone 3) the peroneal bone, the hucklebone 4) tibia, the peroneal bone, the hucklebone 392. ACCORDING TO THE SHAPE, THE TALOCALCANEONAVICULAR ARTICULATION IS CONSIDERED AS: 1) the plane joints 2) the saddle joints 3) the condyloid joints 4) the ball-and-socket joints 393. THE STRONGEST LIGAMENT ON THE FOOT IS: 1) the long plantar ligament 2) the plantar calcaneocuboid ligament 3) the talonavicular ligament 4) the bifurcated ligament 394. ACCORDING TO THE SHAPE, METATARSOPHALANGEAL JOINTS REFER TO: 1) the saddle joints 2) the ellipsoidal joints 3) the plane joints 4) the condyloid joints 395. THE MAIN SUPPORTING STRUCTURE ON THE SOLE OF THE FOOT IS: 1) the 3rd metatarsal head 2) the 1st metatarsal head 3) the 2nd metatarsal head 4) the 4th metatarsal head 396. THE TRANSVERSE ARCH OF THE FOOT IS STRENGTHENED BY: 1) the plantar aponeurosis 2) the deep transverse metatarsal ligament 3) the plantar calcaneonavicular ligament 4) the long plantar ligament 397. FUNCTION OF THE STERNOCLEIDOMASTOID MUSCLE AT UNILATERAL CONTRACTION IS: 1) a bend of the head to the side 2) forward flexion of head 3) tilting the head back 4) auxiliary respiratory muscle 398. ONE OF THE FOLLOWING MUSCLES REFERS TO THE SUPRAHYOID MUSCLES: 1) the omohyoid muscle 2) the digastric muscle 3) the thyrohyoid muscle 4) the sternothyroid muscle 399. ONE OF THE FOLLOWING MUSCLES REFERS TO THE STRAP MUSCLES: 1) the digastric muscle 2) the stylohyoid muscle 3) the mylohyoid muscle 4) the sternothyroid muscle 400. THE FOLLLOWING STRUCTURE PARTICIPATES IN THE FORMATION OF THE WALLS OF THE MALGAIGNE'S FOSSA: 1) the omohyoid muscle 2) the sublingual nerve 3) a lower jaw 4) the external carotid artery 401. THE FOLLLOWING STRUCTURE IS INVOLVED IN THE FORMATION OF THE DIGASTRIC TRIANGLE: 1) the stylohyoid muscle 2) the mylohyoid muscle 3) the submandibular salivary gland 4) the digastric muscle 402. THE SCALENE MUSCLES PERFORM THE FUNCTION: 1) pull the hyoid bone downwards 2) tilt the head forward 3) bend the cervical spine in its direction 4) pull the larynx down 403. THE SUBCUTANEOUS NECK MUSCLE PERFORMS THE FUNCTION: 1) protects subcutaneous veins from compression 2) moves down the lower jaw 3) raises the lower jaw 4) pulls the chest up 404. MUSCLES OF EXPRESSION DEVELOP FROM THE FOLLOWING STRUCTURES: 1) the mesenchyme of the 1st branchial arch (mandibular arch) 2) the myotomes of cervical somites (the cervical myotomes) 3) the mesenchyme of the 2nd branchial arch (pharyngeal arch) 4) the mesenchyme of the 3rd and 4th branchial arches 405. MUSCLES OF EXPRESSION ARE CHARACTERIZED BY THE FOLLOWING FEATURES: 1) develop from myotomes of head somites 2) not covered with subcutaneous fascia 3) covered with fascia 4) do not participate in the act of chewing 406. MUSCLES OF MASTICATION DEVELOP FROM: 1) the myotomes of cervical somites (the cervical myotomes) 2) the mesenchyme of the 1st branchial arch 3) the mesenchyme of the 2nd branchial arch 4) the mesenchyme of the 3rd and 4th branchial arches 407. THE FOLLOWING IS TYPICAL FOR THE MASTICATORY MUSCLES: 1) attach to the lower jaw 2) do not affect the temporomandibular joint 3) are centered around the cranial foramina 4) reflect the inner state of mind 408. THIS IS A PART OF THE ORBICULAR MUSCLE OF EYE: 1) the infraorbital 2) frontal 3) nasal 4) lacrimal 409. ANTAGONIST OF THE ORBICULAR MUSCLE OF MOUTH IS: 1) the procerus muscle 2) the nasal muscle 3) the greater zygomatic muscle 4) the medial pterygoid muscle 410. THE MASTICATORY MUSCLE PROPER STARTS ON: 1) the pterygoid process of the sphenoid bone 2) the zygomatic process of the upper jaw 3) the temporal bone 4) the alveolar arch of the upper jaw 411. A SITE OF ATTACHMENT OF THE LATERAL PTERYGOID MUSCLE IS: 1) the inner surface of the mandibular angle 2) the articular disk of the temporomandibular joint 3) the coronoid process of the lower jaw 4) the condylar neck, articular disk 412. THE SUPERFICIAL MUSCLES OF THE BACK ARE: 1) the serratus posterior superior muscle 2) the longissimus muscle 3) musculus erector spinae (a muscle that straightens the spine) 4) the transversospinal muscle GCC-1, 413. A SITE OF ATTACHMENT OF THE TRAPEZIUS MUSCLE IS: 1) the superior angle of scapula 2) the coracoid process of scapula 3) the acromion 4) the glenoid cavity 414. THE FUNCTION OF THE BROADEST MUSCLE OF BACK IS: 1) flexion of the shoulder 2) rotation of the shoulder outwards 3) abduction of the shoulder 4) rotation of the shoulder inwards 415. AS A PART OF THE MUSCULUS ERECTOR SPINAE, THE FOLLOWING IS ABSENT: 1) the iliocostal muscle 2) the longissimus muscle 3) the transversospinal muscle 4) the spinal muscle 416. THE DEEP MUSCLES OF THE BACK ARE: 1) the elevator muscle of scapula 2) the trapezius muscle 3) the transversospinal muscle 4) latissimus dorsi (broadest muscle of back) 417. A SITE OF ATTACHMENT OF THE GREATER PECTORAL MUSCLE IS: 1) the crest of lesser tubercle of humerus 2) the crest of the greater tubercle of the humerus 3) the coracoid process of scapula 4) the medial edge of the scapula 418. THE SMALLER PECTORAL MUSCLE STARTS FROM: 1) the 1-2 ribs 2) the 6-8 ribs 3) the 2-5 ribs 4) the sternum 419. THE AUTOCHTHONOUS MUSCLES OF THE CHEST INCLUDE: 1) serratus аnterior 2) the external intercostal muscles 3) the greater pectoral muscle 4) the subclavian muscle ,9 420. A PART OF THE DIAPHRAGM IS NAMED: 1) visceral 2) abdominal 3) vertebral 4) costal 421. THE FOLLOWING IS INVOLVED IN THE FORMATION OF THE FALLOPIAN LIGAMENT: 1) aponeurosis of abdominal internal oblique muscle 2) fascia of the transverse abdominal muscle 3) aponeurosis of the transverse abdominal muscle 4) aponeurosis of the abdominal external oblique muscle 422. THE ABDOMINAL INTERNAL OBLIQUE MUSCLE STARTS FROM: 1) the ischial tuberosity (tuber of the ischium) 2) the pubic bone 3) the fallopian ligament 4) the iliopubic eminence 423. A FUNCTION OF THE DIAPHRAGM IS: 1) bend of the spine to the side/ flexion of spine to the side 2) participation in the act of breathing 3) flexion of the spine 4) extension of the spine 424. PERITONEAL FASCIA COVERS: 1) the diaphragm 2) the pyramidal muscle 3) the transverse muscle 4) the abdominal external oblique muscle 425. THE FOLLOWING IS INVOLVED IN THE FORMATION OF THE POSTERIOR WALL OF THE SHEATH OF RECTUS MUSCLE OF ABDOMEN ABOVE THE UMBILLICUS: 1) the fallopian ligament 2) aponeurosis of the abdominal internal oblique muscle and transverse muscle of abdomen 3) aponeurosis of the abdominal external oblique muscle 4) proper fascia 426. THE FOLLOWING IS INVOLVED IN THE FORMATION OF THE SUPERFICIAL INGUINAL RING: 1) a bottom edge of the abdominal internal oblique muscle 2) the transverse fascia 3) the pectineal ligament 4) intercrural fibers 427. THIS IS A PART OF THE DELTOID MUSCLE: 1) clavicle 2) posterior 3) coracoid 4) lateral 428. A SITE OF ATTACHMENT OF THE TERES MINOR MUSCLE IS: 1) the lesser tubercle of the humerus 2) the greater tubercle of humerus 3) the crest of lesser tubercle 4) acromion 429. THE SUPINATOR MUSCLE OF THE SHOULDER IS: 1) the supraspinous muscle 2) the greater teres muscle 3) the infraspinatus muscle 4) the subscapular muscle 430. THIS MUSCLE IS THE SHOULDER ABDUCTOR: 1) the infraspinatus muscle 2) the supraspinous muscle 3) the subscapular muscle 4) the teres major muscle 431. THE ANTERIOR ARM MUSCLES INCLUDE: 1) the triceps muscle of arm 2) the deltoid muscle 3) the coracobrachial muscle 4) the subscapular muscle 432. THE BICEPS MUSCLE OF THE ARM STARTS ON: 1) on the acromion 2) on the supraglenoid tubercle of the scapula 3) on the scapular axis 4) on the infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula 433. THE PROPER SYNOVIAL SHEATH IS MISSING IN: 1) the 5th finger 2) the 4th finger 3) the 3rd finger 4) the 2nd finger 434. THE FOLLOWING MUSCLE ACTS ON THE ELBOW JOINT: 1) the biceps 2) the coracobrachial muscle 3) the quadrate pronator muscle 4) the infraspinatus muscle 435. THE ANTERIOR SUPERFICIAL MUSCLES OF THE FOREARM INCLUDE: 1) the superficial flexor muscle of fingers 2) the long flexor muscle of thumb 3) the quadrate pronator muscle 4) the radial flexor muscle of wrist 436. THE ROUND PRONATOR MUSCLE STARTS ON: 1) the medial epicondyle of the humerus 2) the lateral epicondyle of humerus 3) the olecranon (process of ulna) 4) the trochlea of humerus 437. A SITE OF ATTACHMENT OF THE SUPERFICIAL FLEXOR MUSCLE OF FINGERS IS: 1) the proximal phalanx of the 2-5 fingers 2) the distal phalanx of the 2-5 fingers 3) the middle phalanx of the 2-5 fingers 4) the 2-5 metacarpal bones 438. THE MUSCLES OF THE THENAR EMINENCE INCLUDE: 1) the short palmar muscle 2) the short extensor of the thumb 3) the first dorsal interosseous muscle 4) the adductor muscle of thumb 439. THE TRIANGULAR FORAMEN IS BORDERED BY: 1) the subscapular muscle 2) the humerus 3) the acromion 4) the teres minor muscle 440. THE FOLLOWING PARTICIPATES IN THE FORMATION OF THE WALL OF THE RADIAL NERVE: 1) the coracobrachial muscle 2) the subscapular muscle 3) the triceps muscle of arm 4) the brachioradial muscle 441. IN THE FIRST CARPAL TUNNEL THERE IS: 1) the tendon of the long abductor muscle of the thumb 2) the tendon of the long radial extensor of the wrist 3) the tendon of the long extensor tendon of the thumb 4) the tendon of the short radial extensor of the wrist 442. THE INTERNAL PELVIC MUSCLES INCLUDE: 1) gluteus Maximus 2) the tensor of the broad fascia 3) the tailor's muscle (Sartorius) 4) the iliopsoas muscle 443. ILIOPSOAS MUSCLE IS ATTACHED TO: 1) the patella 2) the greater trochanter 3) the lesser trochanter 4) the intertrochanteric crest 444. A SITE OF ATTACHMENT OF THE GLUTEUS MAXIMUS MUSCLE IS: 1) the lesser trochanter 2) the greater trochanter 3) the gluteal tuberosity 4) the intertrochanteric crest 445. ONE OF THE FOLLOWING BELONGS TO THE ANTERIOR MUSCLES OF THE HIP: 1) the quadriceps muscle 2) the pectineal muscle 3) the quadrate muscle of thigh (musculus quadratus femoris) 4) the tensor fasciae latae muscle 446. THE POSTERIOR MUSCLES OF THE HIP INCLUDE: 1) the gluteus maximus muscle 2) the biceps femoris muscle 3) the tailor's muscle (Sartorius) 4) the gracilis muscle 447. A DEEP LAYER OF POSTERIOR MUSCLE GROUP OF THE LOWER LEG FORMS: 1) the long toe extensor 2) the long peroneal muscle 3) the plantar muscle 4) the posterior tibial muscle 448. ONE OF THE FOLLOWING REFERS TO THE MEDIAL MUSCLE GROUP OF THE SOLE: 1) the short flexor of the great toe 2) the short extensor of the great toe 3) the plantar muscle 4) the posterior tibialis muscle 449. THIS REFERS TO THE MEDIAL MUSCLE GROUP OF THE SOLE: 1) the abductor muscle of little toe 2) the short extensor of the great toe 3) the short flexor muscle of toes 4) the short extensor muscle of toes 450. THIS REFERS TO THE POSTERIOR SIDE OF THE FOOT: 1) the short peroneal muscle 2) the plantar interosseous muscles 3) the abductor muscle of great toe 4) the short extensor of great toe 451. AN ACTIVE COMPONENT IN THE SUPPORT OF THE TRANSVERSE ARCH OF FOOT IS: 1) the long peroneal muscle 2) the anterior tibial muscle 3) the long toe extensor 4) the long flexor muscle of toes 452. WALLS OF THE FEMORAL CANAL ARE FORMED BY: 1) the pectineal ligament 2) the transverse fascia 3) the femoral vein 4) the femoral nerve 453. POPLITEAL FOSSA IS BORDERED BY: 1) the quadriceps muscle of thigh (quadriceps femoris) 2) the semimembranous muscle 3) the salens muscle 4) the short peroneal muscle 454. THIS OPENS INTO THE POPLITEAL FOSSA: 1) the femoral canal 2) the obturator canal 3) canalis cruropopliteus 4) the superior musculoperoneal canal 455. MUSCULAR LACUNA IS LOCATED: 1) in the area of the greater sciatic foramen 2) in the area of lesser sciatic foramen 3) behind the inguinal ligament 4) medially to the iliopectineal arch 456. THIS PASSES THROUGH THE GREATER SCIATIC FORAMEN: 1) the iliopsoas muscle 2) the internal obturator muscle 3) the external obturator muscle 4) the piriform muscle 457. THIS ANATOMICAL STRUCTURE BORDERS ON THE BUCCAL CAVITY: 1) the palate 2) the lips 3) the oral diaphragm 4) the buccal orifice GCC-1, 458. A WALL OF THE ORAL CAVITY PROPER: 1) the pharynx 2) the buccal orifice 3) muscles of the oral diaphragm 4) lips GCC-1, 459. A STRUCTURE FORMING THE PALATE IS: 1) the mucous membrane 2) the tonsillar fossa 3) the pharyngeal tonsil 4) the palatine tonsil GCC-1, 460. A MUSCLE THAT IS A PART OF THE SOFT PALATE IS: 1) the hyoid muscle (hypoglossal) 2) the salpingopharyngeal muscle 3) the stylopharyngeal muscle 4) the elevator muscle of soft palate GCC-1, 461. THIS ANATOMICAL STRUCTURE BORDERS ON THE OROPHARYNX: 1) the soft palate 2) the eustachian cushion 3) the epiglottis 4) the apex of tongue GCC-1, 462. A PART OF THE TOOTH CONSISTING OF CEMENT IS: 1) the head 2) the root 3) the neck 4) the crown GCC-1, 463. THE FIRST PERMANENT TEETH ERUPT AT THE AGE OF: 1) 6 months 2) 2-3 years 3) 6 years 4) 9-10 years GCC-1, 464. THE DUCT OF THE PAROTID SALIVARY GLAND OPENS IN THE AREA OF: 1) the sublingual papilla 2) the mucosa along the sublingual fold 3) the soft palate 4) the vestibule of mouth GCC-1, 465. A DUCT OF THE SUBMANDIBULAR SALIVARY GLAND OPENS IN THE AREA OF: 1) the oral vestibule 2) the lower lip frenulum 3) the sublingual papilla 4) the supratonsillar fossa GCC-1, 466. THE FOLLOWING IS A PART OF THE TONGUE: 1) the body of the tongue 2) the bottom of the tongue 3) the base of the tongue 4) the arch of the tongue GCC-1, 467. TASTE BUDS LOCATED ON THE LATERAL SURFACES OF THE TONGUE ARE: 1) the fungiform papillae 2) the circumvallate papillae 3) the foliate papillae 4) the filiform papillae GCC-1, 468. LOCATION OF THE LINGUAL TONSIL IS: 1) the edge of the tongue 2) the body of the tongue 3) the inferior surface of tongue 4) the root of the tongue GCC-1, 469. A MUSCLE PULLING THE TONGUE FORWARDS AND DOWNWARDS IS: 1) the hyoglossal muscle 2) the genioglossal muscle 3) the styloglossus muscle 4) the palatoglossus muscle GCC-1, 470. A MUSCLE PULLING THE TONGUE BACKWARDS AND UPWARDS IS: 1) the styloglossus muscle 2) the hyoglossal muscle 3) the genioglossal muscle 4) the palatoglossus muscle GCC-1, 471. A MUSCLE PULLING THE TONGUE BACKWARDS AND DOWNWARDS IS: 1) the styloglossus muscle 2) the genioglossal muscle 3) the hyoglossal muscle 4) the palatoglossus muscle GCC-1, 472. THE LONGITUDINAL MUSCLE OF THE PHARYNX IS: 1) the styloglossus muscle 2) the hyoglossal muscle 3) the palatoglossus muscle 4) the palatopharyngeal muscle GCC-1, 473. THE SUPERIOR PHARYNGEAL CONSTRICTOR MUSCLE BEGINS IN: 1) the shield-like cartilage (thyroid cartilage) 2) the pterygoid process of sphenoid bone 3) the ramus of the mandible 4) the hyoid bone GCC-1, 474. THE INFERIOR CONSTRICTOR MUSCLE OF PHARYNX BEGINS IN: 1) the hyoid bone 2) the cricoid cartilage 3) the lower jaw 4) the sphenoid bone GCC-1, 475. A FORAMEN THAT OPENS INTO THE NASOPHARYNX IS: 1) choanae 2) the pharynx 3) the sphenoid sinus 4) the frontal sinus GCC-1, 476. ANATOMICAL STRUCTURE ADJACENT TO THE ESOPHAGUS IN FRONT IS: 1) the aorta 2) the common carotid artery 3) the pericardium 4) the thymus GCC-1, 477. ANATOMICAL NARROWING OF THE ESOPHAGUS IS: 1) pericardial 2) gastric 3) aortic 4) pharyngeal GCC-1, 478. THE GASTRIC MUCOSA IS: 1) fibrous 2) muscular 3) omental 4) adipose GCC-1, 479. THE ANATOMICAL STRUCTURE TOUCHING THE BACK SURFACE OF THE STOMACH IS: 1) the diaphragm 2) the left kidney 3) the right kidney 4) the liver GCC-1, 480. THE ANATOMICAL STRUCTURE TOUCHING THE ANTERIOR SURFACE OF THE STOMACH IS: 1) the duodenum 2) the transverse colon 3) the pancreas 4) the anterior abdominal wall GCC-1, 481. A LIGAMENT ORIGINATING FROM THE GREATER GASTRIC CURVATURE IS: 1) gastrophrenic 2) hepatogastric 3) gastroduodenal 4) gastrolienal GCC-1, 482. THE ANATOMICAL STRUCTURE AT THE JUNCTION BETWEEN THE STOMACH AND THE DUODENUM IS: 1) the pyloric antrum 2) the angular incisure (notch) 3) the pyloric sphincter 4) the sphincter of the stomach wall GCC-1, 483. A FORM OF STOMACH, CHARACTERISTIC FOR PEOPLE OF MESOMORPHIC BODY BUILD IS: 1) horn-shaped 2) hook-shaped 3) stocking-like shape 4) a spindle-like shape GCC-1, 484. A FORM OF STOMACH, CHARACTERISTIC FOR PEOPLE OF BRACHYMORPHIC BODY BUILD IS: 1) hook-shaped 2) a spindle-like shape 3) stocking-like shape 4) horn-shaped GCC-1, 485. A PART OF THE SMALL INTESTINE IS: 1) the sigmoid colon 2) the caecum 3) the jejunum 4) colon (segmented intestine) GCC-1, 486. THE MESENTERIAL INTESTINE INCLUDES: 1) the ascending part of the duodenum 2) the ileum 3) the sigmoid colon 4) the descending part of the duodenum GCC-1, 487. THE ANATOMICAL STRUCTURES IN THE MUCOSA OF THE SMALL INTESTINE ARE: 1) the longitudinal folds 2) the intestinal glands 3) the semilunar folds 4) the central lymphatic vessels (lymphatic sinuses) GCC-1, 488. A PART OF THE DUODENUM IS: 1) anterior 2) posterior 3) inferior 4) superior GCC-1, 489. THE MAJOR DUODENAL PAPILLA IS IN: 1) the supperior part 2) the horizontal part 3) the descending part 4) the ascending part GCC-1, 490. A DUCT THAT OPENS ON THE MAJOR DUODENAL PAPILLA IS: 1) the pancreatic duct 2) the accessory pancreatic duct 3) the cystic duct 4) a common hepatic duct GCC-1, 491. A PART OF THE LARGE INTESTINE WITH A MESENTERY IS: 1) the sigmoid colon 2) the descending colon 3) the ascending colon 4) the cecum GCC-1, 492. A PART OF THE RECTUM IS: 1) the descending part 2) an ampoule 3) the isthmus 4) the posterior part GCC-1, 493. A PART OF INTESTINE WITH LYMPHOID NODULES (PEYER GLANDS) IS: 1) the cecum 2) the ileum 3) the jejunum 4) the sigmoid colon GCC-1, 494. A PART OF THE DUODENUM LOCATED INTRAPERITONEALLY IS: 1) the descending part 2) ampulla (bulb) of the duodenum 3) the ascending part 4) the horizontal part GCC-1, 495. THE TRANSVERSE COLON CONTAINS THE FOLLOWING STRUCTURES: 1) the epiploic appendices 2) the intestinal villi 3) the circular folds of the mucosa 4) the lymphoid plaques (nodules) GCC-1, 496. THIS ORGAN HAS THE EXTRAPERITONEAL POSITION: 1) the lower rectum 2) the stomach 3) the cecum 4) the gall bladder GCC-1, 497. A PART OF INTESTINE THAT HAS THE INTRAPERITONEAL POSITION IS: 1) the rectum 2) the descending colon 3) the ascending colon 4) the transverse colon GCC-1, 498. A PART OF INTESTINE THAT HAS THE MESOPERITONEAL POSITION IS: 1) the transverse colon 2) the sigmoid colon 3) the descending colon 4) the cecum GCC-1, 499. THE ANATOMICAL STRUCTURE AT THE JUNCTION OF THE STOMACH AND THE DUODENUM IS: 1) the pyloric antrum 2) the angular incisure (notch) 3) the pyloric sphincter 4) the sphincter of the stomach wall GCC-1, 500. A PART OF THE GALLBLADDER IS: 1) the base 2) the bottom (fundus) 3) the top 4) the root GCC-1, 501. THE DUCT THAT FLOWS INTO THE COMMON BILE DUCT IS: 1) cystic duct 2) the right hepatic duct 3) the left hepatic duct 4) the pancreatic duct GCC-1, 502. A PART OF THE PANCREAS IS: 1) the base 2) the pyramidal process 3) the top 4) the body GCC-1, 503. THE HEAD OF THE PANCREAS IS LOCATED AT THE LEVEL OF: 1) the XI – XII th thoracic vertebra 2) the XI th thoracic and the I-st lumbar vertebra 3) the I st-II nd lumbar vertebra 4) the I st-IIIrd lumbar vertebra GCC-1, 504. THE PANCREAS HAS THE FOLLOWING SURFACE: 1) anterior 2) medial 3) lateral 4) superior GCC-1, 505. THE PANCREATIC DUCT OPENS INTO: 1) the upper part of the duodenum (protoduodenum) 2) the descending part of the duodenum 3) the ascending part of the duodenum 4) the horizontal part of the duodenum GCC-1, 506. THE SURFACE OF THE LIVER IS: 1) anterior 2) parietal 3) posterior 4) visceral GCC-1, 507. A LIGAMENT OF THE LIVER, WHICH DIVIDES IT INTO SEGMENTS, IS: 1) the falciform ligament 2) the coronary ligament 3) the triangular ligament 4) the venous ligament GCC-1, 508. IMPRESSION ON THE VISCERAL SURFACE OF THE LEFT LOBE OF THE LIVER IS: 1) cardiac 2) renal 3) duodenal 4) esophageal GCC-1,, 9 509. THE ANATOMICAL FORMATION INCLUDED IN THE PORTA HEPATIC IS: 1) the proper hepatic artery 2) the hepatic vein 3) the common hepatic artery 4) the common hepatic duct GCC-1,- 9 510. THE IMPRESSION ON THE RIGHT LOBE OF THE LIVER IS: 1) duodenal impression of liver 2) gastric 3) esophageal 4) cardiac impression GCC-1,, 9 511. A STRUCTURE CORRESPONDING TO THE LOWER BORDER OF THE LIVER: 1) the ninth intercostal space in the right middle axillary line 2) the lower edge of the right costal arch 3) the fourth intercostal space in the right midclavicular line 4) the base of the xiphoid process of the sternum GCC-1,, 9 512. THE IMPRESSION ON THE DIAPHRAGMATIC SURFACE OF THE LIVER IS: 1) colic impression of liver 2) duodenal impression of liver 3) renal 4) cardiac impression GCC-1,, 9 513. A STRUCTURE INVOLVED IN THE FORMATION OF THE LESSER OMENTUM IS: 1) the hepatorenal ligament 2) the falciform ligament 3) the gastrocolic ligament 4) the hepatoduodenal ligament GCC-1,- 9 514. A STRUCTURE INVOLVED IN THE FORMATION OF THE ANTERIOR WALL OF THE OMENTAL SAC IS: 1) the lesser omentum 2) the mesogastrium 3) the duodenum 4) mesentery of the transverse colon GCC-1,- 9 515. THIS STRUCTURE REFERS TO THE LOWER RESPIRATORY TRACT: 1) the oral part of the pharynx 2) the larynx 3) the nasal part of the pharynx 4) the laryngeal part of the pharynx GCC-1, 516. THIS STRUCTURE IS CONNECTED WITH THE INFERIOR NASAL MEATUS: 1) the middle cells of the ethmoid bone (middle ethmoidal cells) 2) the nasolacrimal canal 3) the maxillary sinus 4) the posterior cells of the ethmoid bone GCC-1,- 9 517. THE OLFACTORY REGION OF THE NASAL CAVITY INCLUDES THE MUCOSA OF: 1) the upper part of the nasal septum 2) the lower wall of the nasal cavity 3) the lower part of the nasal septum 4) the inferior nasal conchae (inferior turbinates) GCC-1,- 9 518. THE FUNCTION OF THE LARYNX IS: 1) sound production 2) gas exchange 3) excretory 4) secretory GCC-1, 519. A STRUCTURE THAT COVERS THE LARYNX IN FRONT IS: 1) the digastric muscle 2) the pretracheal layer of cervical fascia 3) the geniohyoid muscle 4) the mylohyoid muscle GCC-1,- 9 520. A STRUCTURE BORDERING ON A LARYNGEAL VENTRICLE IS: 1) the thyroid cartilage 2) the vocal cords 3) the aryteno-epiglottic ligaments 4) the arytenoid cartilages GCC-1,- 9 521. A SITE OF ATTACHMENT OF THE VOCAL CORDS IS: 1) the lower margin of the arch of the cricoid cartilage 2) the muscular processes of the arytenoid cartilages 3) the upper margin of the arch of the cricoid cartilage 4) the internal surface of the thyroid cartilage GCC-1,- 9 522. UNPAIRED CARTILAGE OF THE LARYNX IS: 1) arytenoid 2) cricoid 3) the Morgagni's cartilage (cuneiform cartilage) 4) the corniculate cartilage GCC-1,- 9 523. A MUSCLE WIDENING THE GLOTTIS IS: 1) the thyroarytenoid muscle 2) the transverse arytenoid muscle 3) the lateral cricoarytenoid muscle 4) the posterior cricoarytenoid muscle GCC-1,- 9 524. A MUSCLE THAT STRAINS VOCAL CORDS IS: 1) the vocal muscle 2) the thyroarytenoid muscle 3) the thyrohyoid muscle 4) the oblique arytenoid muscle GCC-1,- 9 525. A SITE OF THE TRACHEAL BIFURCATION IN AN ADULT IS LOCATED AT THE LEVEL OF: 1) the sternal angle 2) the 5-th thoracic vertebra 3) the suprasternal notch 4) the upper border of aortic arch GCC-1,- 9 526. A PART OF THE TRACHEA IS: 1) mediastinal 2) head 3) thoracic 4) abdominal GCC-1,- 9 527. THE RIGHT MAIN STEM BRONCHUS COMPARED TO THE LEFT ONE: 1) has a more horizontal position 2) is narrower 3) is shorter 4) is longer GCC-1,- 9 528. A STRUCTURE LOCATED ABOVE THE RIGHT MAIN BRONCHUS IN THE LUNG HILUM IS: 1) the hemiazygos vein 2) the arch of the thoracic duct flow 3) the azygos vein 4) the bifurcation of pulmonary trunk GCC-1,- 9 529. A STRUCTURE LOCATED ON THE ILIUM IS: 1) the obturator groove 2) the head 3) the neck 4) the wing -9 530. THE GREATER PELVIS IS FORMED BY: 1) the wings of the iliac bones and the body of the Vth lumbar vertebra 2) the arcuate line 3) the symphysial surface 4) the upper branch of the pubic bone -9 531. THE ANATOMICAL STRUCTURE LOCATED AT THE PROXIMAL END OF THE FEMUR IS: 1) the lateral epicondyle 2) the head 3) the medial epicondyle 4) the intercondyloid notch -9 532. THE ANATOMICAL STRUCTURE LOCATED AT THE DISTAL END OF THE FEMUR IS: 1) the intertrochanteric crest 2) the head 3) the body 4) the popliteal surface -9 533. THE MEDIAL MALLEOLUS IS LOCATED ON: 1) the tibia (shinbone) 2) the hucklebone (ankle bone) 3) the fibula (peroneal bone) 4) the heel bone -9 534. ON THE DISTAL END OF THE FIBULA THERE IS: 1) the tuberosity of the tibia 2) the medial malleolus 3) the lateral malleolus 4) the soleal line of tibia ,9 535. THE TARSAL BONE THAT MAKES UP THE DISTAL ROW IS: 1) the medial cuneiform bone 2) the ankle bone 3) the heel bone 4) the pisiform bone -9 536. ON THE ANKLE BONE THERE ARE: 1) the calcaneal transverse 2) the body, head, neck 3) tuberosity of the scaphoid bone 4) the support of ankle bone -9 537. THE ANATOMICAL STRUCTURE ON THE HEEL BONE IS: 1) the head 2) the medial malleolar surface 3) the lateral tuberosity 4) the calcaneal tuber – 7, 9 538. THE GREATER SCIATIC NOTCH IS SEPARATED FROM THE LESSER SCIATIC NOTCH BY: 1) the ischial tuberosity 2) the ischial spine 3) the pubic tubercle 4) the posterior inferior iliac spine –9 539. ON THE FEMUR, THERE ARE THE FOLLOWING EPICONDYLES: 1) anterior and posterior 2) anterior and medial 3) posterior and lateral 4) medial and lateral -9 540. THE ANATOMICAL STRUCTURE, LOCATED IN THE RENAL SINUS, IS: 1) the renal pyramids 2) the ureter 3) the glomerulus 4) the caliculi GCC-1,- 9 541. A MUSCLE INVOLVED IN THE FORMATION OF RENAL BED IS: 1) the iliac muscle 2) the smaller psoas muscle 3) the abdominal internal oblique muscle 4) the Quadratus lumborum muscle GCC-1,- 9 542. THE UPPER BORDER OF THE RIGHT KIDNEY IS: 1) the middle of the XI th thoracic vertebra 2) the lower margin of the XI th thoracic vertebra 3) the middle of the third lumbar vertebra 4) upper margin of the III rd lumbar vertebra GCC-1,- 9 543. THE ANATOMICAL STRUCTURE CONCERNING TO THE FIXATION OF KIDNEYS IS: 1) intra-abdominal pressure 2) the renal pelvis 3) the renal sinus 4) the fornical apparatus of the kidney GCC-1,- 9 544. THE RENAL CORTEX INCLUDES THIS ANATOMICAL STRUCTURE: 1) the renal pyramids 2) the cribriform area 3) the medullary ray 4) the renal columns GCC-1,- 9 545. A STRUCTURE, WHICH IS A PART OF THE NEPHRON, IS: 1) the renal pyramid 2) the renal corpuscle 3) the renal pelvis 4) the papillary duct GCC-1,- 9 546. THIS IS A PART OF THE URETER: 1) renal 2) upper 3) lower 4) the intramural part GCC-1,- 9 547. A PELVIC PART OF THE RIGHT URETER WITH REGARD TO THE ILIAC BLOOD VESSELS IS LOCATED … 1) behind the common iliac artery 2) in front of the internal iliac artery 3) behind the internal iliac vein 4) laterally to the internal iliac vein GCC-1,- 9 548. A PELVIC PART OF THE URETER WITH REGARD TO THE INTERNAL MALE GENITAL ORGANS IS LOCATED: 1) inwards from the spermatic duct (vas deferens) 2) outwards from the seminal vesicle 3) crosses the spermatic duct 4) runs parallel to the spermatic duct GCC-1,- 9 549. A PART OF THE URINARY BLADDER IS: 1) an apex 2) a head 3) a base 4) an arch GCC-1,- 9 550. THE POSTERIOR SURFACE OF THE MALE URINARY BLADDER LIES NEXT TO: 1) the urogenital diaphragm 2) the seminal vesicles 3) the prostate gland 4) the sigmoid colon GCC-1,- 9 551. THE POSTERIOR SURFACE OF THE FEMALE URINARY BLADDER LIES NEXT TO: 1) the urogenital diaphragm 2) the body of uterus 3) the neck of uterus 4) the rectum GCC-1,- 9 552. A SIDE OF THE FULL URINARY BLADDER THAT IS COVERED BY THE PERITONEUM IS: 1) medial 2) lower 3) anterior 4) posterior GCC-1,– 9 553. A BLOOD VESSEL PARTICIPATING IN THE FORMATION OF A RENAL RETE MIRABILE IS: 1) the renal artery 2) the renal vein 3) the interlobular artery 4) the efferent glomerular arteriole (arteriola efferente) GCC-1,– 9 554. STELLATE VENULES OF KIDNEY ARE FORMED IN: 1) the medullary substance of kidney 2) the most superficial layers of the renal cortex 3) the deep layers of the renal cortex 4) the renal sinus GCC-1,– 7, 9 555. THE OVARIAN SURFACE IS: 1) medial 2) anterior 3) superior 4) posterior GCC-1,- 9 556. A BORDER OF THE OVARY IS: 1) superior 2) free border of ovary (posterior) 3) inferior 4) anterior GCC-1,- 9 557. A LIGAMENT THAT CONNECTS THE OVARY TO THE WALL OF THE PELVIS IS: 1) the utero-ovarian ligament 2) the mesentery of the ovary 3) the suspensory ligament 4) the round ligament of the uterus GCC-1,- 9 558. A PART OF THE UTERUS IS: 1) an arch 2) a base 3) a fundus 4) an ampoule GCC-1 ,- 9 559. A STRUCTURE LOCATED IN FRONT OF THE UTERUS IS: 1) the bladder 2) the rectum 3) the vagina 4) the ovaries GCC-1,- 9 560. A STRUCTURE, CONTAINING IN THE UTERINE WALL, IS: 1) the parametrium 2) the endomysium 3) the endothelium 4) the perimetrium GCC-1,- 9 561. A PART OF THE FALLOPIAN TUBE IS: 1) ovarian 2) uterine 3) pelvic 4) intraparietal GCC-1,- 9 562. A STRUCTURE LOCATED BEHIND VAGINA IS: 1) the sigmoid colon 2) the rectum 3) the fundus of bladder 4) the female urethra GCC-1,- 9 563. THE VAGINAL VESTIBULE IS BORDERED BY: 1) the clitoris 2) the labia majora 3) the external opening of the urethra 4) anterior labial commissure GCC-1,- 9 564. THE GREATER VESTIBULAR GLANDS ARE LOCATED: 1) at the base of the labia majora 2) at the base of the labia minora 3) in front of the bulb of the vestibule 4) in the walls of the vaginal vestibule GCC-1,- 9 565. THE DEEP MUSCLE OF THE UROGENITAL DIAPHRAGM IS: 1) the bulbospongious muscle 2) the elevator muscle of anus 3) the ischiocavernous muscle 4) the sphincter muscle of urethra GCC-1,- 9 566. THE DEEP MUSCLE OF THE PELVIC DIAPHRAGM IS: 1) the elevator muscle of anus 2) the external sphincter muscle of anus 3) the sphincter muscle of urethra 4) the interior sphincter muscle of anus GCC-1,- 9 567. THE SUPERFICIAL MUSCLE OF THE PELVIC DIAPHRAGM IS: 1) the coccygeal muscle 2) the elevator muscle of anus 3) the external sphincter muscle of anus 4) the sphincter muscle of urethra GCC-1,- 9 568. THE MESODESMA IS FORMED BY: 1) a thickened part of the parametrium 2) a leaf of the pelvic fascia 3) the peritoneal reflection 4) the obliterated embryonic duct GCC-1,- 9 569. THE MUSCLE INVOLVED IN THE FORMATION OF THE LATERAL WALL OF THE ISCHIORECTAL FOSSA IS: 1) the deep transverse muscle of perineum 2) the coccygeal muscle 3) the elevator muscle of anus 4) the obturator internus muscle GCC-1,- 9 570. ENLARGEMENT OF THE SPINAL CORD MAY BE: 1) cervical 2) thoracic 3) coccygeal 4) terminal GCC-1,- 9 571. THE CERVICAL SPINAL CORD COMPRISES… SEGMENTS: 1) five 2) twelve 3) seven 4) eight GCC-1,- 9 572. THE LUMBAR SEGMENTS OF THE SPINAL CORD IN THE SPINAL CANAL ARE LOCATED AT THE LEVEL OF: 1) the body of the twelfth thoracic vertebra 2) the body of the first lumbar vertebra 3) the bodies of the tenth-eleventh thoracic vertebrae 4) the body of the first sacral vertebra GCC-1,- 9 573. THE REMAINDER OF THE NEURAL TUBE IS: 1) the terminal filament 2) the central canal 3) the lumbosacral thickening (lumbosacral intumescence) 4) the subarachnoid space GCC-1,- 9 574. THE FOLLOWING COMPOSE “HORSE TAIL” (cauda equine): 1) the anterior and posterior roots of the spinal cord 2) the spinal nerves 3) the intercostal nerves 4) the layers of spinal cord GCC-1,- 9 575. A LUMBAR PUNCTURE SHOULD BE PERFORMED: 1) between the III-IV th lumbar vertebrae 2) at the level of the Ist lumbar vertebra 3) at the level of the II nd lumbar vertebra 4) at the level of the XII th thoracic vertebra GCC-1,- 9 576. SPACE BETWEEN THE PERIOSTEUM OF THE VERTEBRAL CANAL AND THE DURA MATER OF THE SPINAL CORD IS: 1) subdural 2) epidural 3) subarachnoid 4) the central canal GCC-1,- 9 577. THE SUBDURAL SPACE ENDS BLINDLY AT THE LEVEL OF: 1) the V th lumbar vertebra 2) the I st sacral vertebra nd 3) the II sacral vertebra 4) the IV th lumbar vertebra GCC-1,- 9 578. ANATOMICAL STRUCTURE RELATING TO THE RHOMBENCEPHALIC ISTHMUS IS: 1) the trapezoidal body 2) the trigone of lemniscus 3) the lateral geniculate bodies 4) the brachia of colliculus inferior GCC-1,- 9 579. ANATOMICAL STRUCTURE DIVIDING THE PONS INTO THE TEGMENTUM AND BASE IS: 1) the medial lemniscus 2) the trapezoid body 3) the spinal lemniscus 4) the transverse fibers of pons GCC-1,- 9 580. THIS IS LOCATED IN THE ANTERIOR (VENTRAL) PART OF THE PONS: 1) the longitudinal fibers of the pons 2) the pontine reticular formation 3) the abducens nucleus 4) the pontine nuclei of the trigeminal nerve GCC-1,– 7, 9 581. THE NUCLEI IN THE CEREBELLUM INCLUDE: 1) the nuclei of the reticular formation 2) the emboliform nucleus 3) the olivary nuclei 4) the posterior nucleus of trapezoid body GCC-1,– 7, 9 582. A PART OF THE BRAIN CONNECTING TO THE CEREBELLUM THROUGH THE MIDDLE CEREBELLAR PEDUNCLES IS: 1) the midbrain 2) the medulla oblongata 3) the diencephalon 4) the arch GCC-1,– 7, 9 583. A PART OF THE BRAIN CONNECTING TO THE CEREBELLUM THROUGH THE INFERIOR CEREBELLAR PEDUNCLES IS: 1) the arch 2) the medulla oblongata 3) the diencephalon 4) the midbrain GCC-1,– 7, 9 584. THE INFERIOR CEREBELLAR PEDUNCLES INCLUDE: 1) fibers of the Flechsig's tract 2) dorsal longitudinal fasciculus 3) the arching fibers 4) fibers of the rubrospinal tract GCC-1,– 7, 9 585. FIBERS OF THE ANTERIOR SP