Troubleshooting Theory Assessment PDF

Order the steps of the A+ troubleshooting process. 1. Document findings 2. Establish a plan of action and implement the solution 3. Establish a theory of probable cause 4. Identify the problem 5. Test the theory to determine cause 6. Verify system function 4, 3, 5, 2, 6, 1 If you determine an ap...

Order the steps of the A+ troubleshooting process. 1. Document findings 2. Establish a plan of action and implement the solution 3. Establish a theory of probable cause 4. Identify the problem 5. Test the theory to determine cause 6. Verify system function 4, 3, 5, 2, 6, 1 If you determine an application error your users are receiving can be fixed by applying an application update from the manufacturer, you should go ahead and do that. True or false? A. True B. False False In which troubleshooting step are manufacturer Web sites and technical support forums helpful? Choose the best response. A. Identifying the problem. B. Establishing a theory of probable cause. C. Testing the theory to determine cause. D. Establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution. E. Verifying full system functionality. F. Documenting findings, actions, and outcomes. B The user who first reported a problem is often the best person to verify that it's fixed. True or false? A. True B. False True Which safety device is used to protect sensitive components from electrostatic discharge during transport and storage? Choose the best response. A. Antistatic bags B. ESD straps C. ESD mats D. Self-grounding A Which class of fire extinguishers is used on electrical fires? Choose the best response. A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D C Which items can cause soil and water contamination if they are sent to a landfill? Select all that apply. A. Batteries B. CRTs C. Magnetic tapes D. Toner cartridges A and B Which of the following components directly installed on the motherboard is replaceable? Choose the best response. A. A RAM slot B. A 24-pin ATX power supply connection C. A CMOS battery D. A fan connector C Which of the following motherboard components is used to take data from input/output devices and pass it on to the CPU? Choose the best response. A. Northbridge chip B. SATA connector C. Data bus D. Southbridge chip D Which of the following ports installed on the motherboard can be used to connect a display device to the computer? (Select all that apply.) A. PS/2 B. USB C. HDMI D. VGA E. DVI F. FireWire C, D, E Which expansion standard is no longer included in new computers? Choose the best response A. ISA B. M.2 C. PCI D. PCIe A Which is the most popular motherboard form factor for desktop computers? A. ATX B. Flex-ATX C. ITX D. XL-ATX A Which CPU feature simulates two logical processors on one physical processor by using registers to overlap two instruction streams? Choose the best response. A. Multicore B. Hyperthreading C. 64-bit architecture D. Virtualization B You have a Ryzen CPU and want to find a motherboard for it. What kind of socket should you look for? Choose the best response. A. AM3 B. AM4 C. LGA 1151 D. LGA 1155 B A computer you're evaluating has a 64-bit quad- core CPU with hyperthreading. What can you be sure of from that fact alone? Select all that apply. A. It can process up to four threads simultaneously. B. It can process up to eight threads simultaneously. C. It can run both 32-bit and 64-bit software. D. It can support only 4 GB of RAM. E. It has an integrated GPU. B, C If your CPU is overheating, it will fail to boot. True of False? A. True B. False False What passive cooling device is more efficient than a simple heat sink? Choose the best response. A. Cooling fan B. Heat pipe C. Heat pump D. Liquid cooler B Which power connector type is used to provide power to modern hard disk drives? Choose the best response. A. 4-pin 12V ATX connector B. 4-pin peripheral Molex connector C. 6-pin PCIe connector D. 15-pin SATA connector D You can use an ATX 20-pin motherboard power connector on a 24-pin motherboard power socket by just leaving the end 4-pins empty. True or false? A. True B. False False How do you provide 225 watts of power to a PCIe expansion card? Choose the best response. A. No additional power is needed. The PCIe slot provides all 225 watts. B. You combine the PCIe slot power with a PCIe 6-pin power connector. C. You combine the PCIe slot power with a PCIe 8-pin power connector. D. You combine the PCIe slot power with both the PCIe 6-pin and 8-pin power connectors. C A good rule of thumb for selecting the wattage for your power supply is to determine the combined wattage needed by all the components in your system and add them all together. True or false? A. True B. False False You have calculated the combined wattage needed by all the components in your system is 500 watts. What wattage PSU should you look for? A. 500 watts B. 750 watts C. 1,000 watts D. The largest one you can afford. C Which tools will you use to replace a power supply unit? Select all answers that apply. A. Electrostatic gloves B. Crimping pliers C. Multimeter D. Power supply tester E. Screwdriver A, E If your system is reporting memory errors, it is caused by an undersized PSU or a PSU that is failing. True or false? A. True B. False False If your power supply unit has failed, the computer will fail to boot. True or false? A. True B. False True When you inspect your device's rechargeable battery, you notice there is a slight bulge in the case. What should you do? A. Continue to use the device until you receive a replacement battery. B. Remove the battery and then puncture the case to relieve the gas build-up before disposing of the battery. C. Carefully remove the battery, avoiding doing any damage to the case, and then recycle it properly. D. Carefully remove the battery and throw it in the trash. C Your CEO travels with his laptop that contains highly confidential and sensitive data. If it is lost, it is imperative that the data be protected and the laptop found and returned. Which BIOS/UEFI security feature best meets her needs? A. BIOS/UEFI passwords B. Hard drive encryption C. Third-party data recovery/theft recovery solution D. Secure boot E. Trusted platform module (TPM) C A user calls to report their computer is "acting funny" and reboots when they are working. They notice the problem most often when they attempt to save their work. Which BIOS/UEFI diagnostic tests should you run to look for errors? Select all that apply. A. Battery test B. Hard disk test C. Memory test D. Start up test B, C The power management features in your BIOS/UEFI allow you to configure what the computer does during Standby and Hibernate modes. True or false? A. True B. False False Why might you change a computer's boot sequence? Select all that apply. A. Configure virtualization for your operating system. B. Disable a hard disk drive. C. Fix an operating system problem using a system recovery disk. D. Launch an operating system installation from an installation disk or network location. E. Switch to a second operating system. C, D, E Which of the following are true about RAM? Choose all that apply. A. It is considered non-volatile because the data it holds is maintained when power is removed. B. It is considered volatile because the data it holds is lost when power is removed from the computer or device. C. It is generally faster than hard drives or flash storage. D. It is generally slower than hard drives or flash storage. E. Modern computers typically use Rambus RAM modules. B, C Which type of memory module is used in laptops and other small devices? A. DIMM B. RIMM C. SIMM D. SODIMM D Which RAM feature uses an algorithm to detect single-bit and multi-bit memory errors? A. Buffering B. ECC C. Multiple channels D. Parity B Which DDR version has a curved contact edge designed to help prevent damage to the module during installation? A. DDR B. DDR2 C. DDR3 D. DDR4 D Which physical interface is being replaced on Apple computers by Thunderbolt? A. FireWire B. HDMI C. Serial AT Attachment (SATA) D. USB A You're visually inspecting some computers to determine the USB versions they support, but they all have color coded ports without labels. Which of the following rules are generally true? Choose all that apply. A. All 3.x ports are blue. B. All blue ports are 3.x. C. If there are both black and white ports, the white ports are 2.0. D. If there are both black and white ports, the black ports are 2.0. E. Ports with red receptacles provide power when the computer is on standby. B, D, E What elements are different between an internal SATA cable and an eSATA cable? Choose all that apply. A. Connector shape B. Data rate C. Disk size capacity D. Electromagnetic shielding E. Number of pins A, D Which of the following video interfaces are analog only? Select all that apply. A. DVI-A B. DVI-D C. DVI-I D. VGA A, D Which physical interface is used on sound cards to connect synthesizers and other electronic instruments? A. ⅛ inch (3.5 mm) colored ports B. FireWire C. MIDI D. S/PDIF C ▪ Video functions – Video out/video capture/TV tuner ▪ Network interface – Ethernet/Wi-Fi/cellular/dialup modem ▪ Peripheral interface – USB/Thunderbolt/Bluetooth ▪ Storage – SATA/eSATA/IDE/SCSI ▪ Audio/sound You're replacing the video card of an older computer that was originally purchased as a graphics design workstation. What expansion slot do you expect the old card might use? Choose the two most likely responses. A. AGP B. PCI C. PCIe 4x D. PCIe16x E. USB dongle A, D What expansion interfaces are hot- swappable? Choose all that apply. A. ExpressCard B. Mini-PCIe C. PCI D. PCIe E. Thunderbolt A, E Your laptop's Wi-Fi adapter seems to be dead, so you're going to install a new one. What approaches should you consider? Choose the three most likely options. A. Add an ExpressCard B. Add a USB dongle C. Replace the AGP card D. Replace the Mini-PCIe card E. Replace the PCIe card A, B, D Which display connection type uses three cables to carry the video signal? A. Component B. Composite C. Coaxial D. DisplayPort E. DVI A Which display connection standard has the ability to also carry Ethernet network data? A. DisplayPort B. DVI-D dual-link C. DVI-I dual-link D. HDMI E. VGA D Which connector type is used to connect both component and composite cables? A. BNC B. HD15 C. Mini-DIN D. RCA D Which of the following device cables allow for the maximum length between a single device and the host port? Select all that apply. A. eSATA B. FireWire C. Lightning D. USB C, D Which device connector is proprietary and uses an authentication chip to prevent unauthorized manufacturing? A. eSATA B. FireWire C. Lightning D. PS/2 E. USB C Which of the following is a benefit of solid state drives over magnetic hard drives? A. Larger capacities available B. Less expensive per byte C. Faster boot and access speeds D. No maximum read/write limit C Which drives are likely to have jumpers you need to set before installation? Choose all that apply. A. IDE B. Parallel SCSI C. SATA D. Serial SCSI A, B Which of the following are symptoms shown during the POST that could indicate a hard drive problem? Select all answers that apply. A. An invalid boot disk error B. The BSOD C. S.M.A.R.T. error D. Fixed disk error A, D Which of the following is true about direct SSD connections for motherboards? Choose all that apply. A. mSATA is found in older computers and M.2 in new ones. B. M.2 is found in older computers and mSATA in new ones. C. NVMe M.2 generally outperforms SATA M.2. D. NVMe M.2 has higher compatibility than SATA M.2. E. SATA M.2 generally outperforms NVMe M.2. A, C If after you install a new SATA hard drive, you receive a "hard drive not found" error, one reason for the error could be due to no boot disk being available. True or false? A. True B. False True Which of the following RAID levels incorporates disk striping? Select all answers that apply. A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 10 A, C, D The process of rebuilding a RAID drive from parity data can cause a RAID drive to fail. True or false? A. True B. False True Which RAID level is also known as disk mirroring? Choose the best response. A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 10 B If you have a RAID implementation with data parity, you don't need data backups. True or false? A. True B. False False You've purchased a DVD+RW drive. What actions do you expect it should be able to do? Choose all that apply. A. Read Blu-Ray discs B. Read CDs C. Write Blu-ray discs D. Write CDs E. Record rewritable DVDs B, D, E Which optical drive technology uses a 405 nm wavelength laser? A. Blu-ray B. CD C. DVD D. All of the above A If you are installing an IDE optical drive, you must configure the drive jumpers. True or false? A. True B. False True Which of the following could be the cause of an optical drive not being recognized by the system? A. Dust or dirt on the laser. B. The buffer underrun feature is disabled. C. The burning software is corrupt. D. The drive's firmware needs to be updated. D Which storage method stores data sequentially? A. Compact Flash B. Magnetic tape C. Secure Digital Card D. USB flash memory B Your laptop has an SDHC card reader. What memory cards could you read with it? Choose all that apply. A. 2 GB SD B. 8 GB micro-SD C. 16GB CF D. 32 GB SD E. 128 GB micro-SD A, B, D You can corrupt the data on your flash drive or memory card if you remove it from your computer or device incorrectly. True or false? A. True B. False True You can't access BIOS/UEFI using a wireless keyboard. True or false? A. True B. False True A user has complained that whenever she presses the space key on her keyboard, she gets a bunch of spaces not just one. Which keyboard setting do you adjust for her? A. Cursor blink rate B. Repeat rate C. Repeat delay D. Cursor blink delay C You have a user who has a touchpad on their laptop. They complain that when they double- tap on the touchpad, it moves the cursor but doesn't select or open an item like it should. How can you best correct this? Choose the best response. A. Change the default buttons B. Decrease the double-click interval C. Increase the double-click interval D. Instruct the user not to click near the scrollbar C Which of the following physical characteristics can biometric devices be used for? Select all that apply. A. A person’s height B. Fingerprints C. A person’s voice D. Retina patterns E. A person’s weight F. A person’s face B, C, D, F You work in a relatively public area, but you view sensitive information. What kind of display would minimize the risk of someone else seeing your screen? Choose the best response. A. IPS LCD B. OLED C. Plasma D. TN LCD D Which LCD technology produces the most accurate colors? Choose the best response. A. IPS B. Reflective C. TN D. VA A You're advising coworkers on a projector for their new conference room. They've narrowed it down to two models with the same resolution and wattage, but one is LCD and one DLP. All else being equal, which statements from them would make you suggest the DLP model? Choose the best response. A. Since the room is bright, brightness is more important than contrast B. Since the room is dark, we want deep blacks more than bright whites C. Size and portability aren't a big concern D. Sharp images are more important than smooth motion E. Smooth motion is more important than sharp images B, E If you are working in a room with high ambient light, which display setting would you adjust to be able to see the screen better? Choose the best response. A. Aspect ratio B. Brightness C. Refresh rate D. Resolution B Which display setting is not adjustable on most LCD displays? Choose the best response. A. Aspect ratio B. Brightness C. Refresh rate D. Resolution C If you have a DVI monitor and a VGA graphics port, you can't install your monitor. True or false? A. True B. False False If you connect an external monitor to your laptop, you must configure them with identical display settings. True or false? A. True B. False False What might cause display artifacts? Choose the most likely response. A. Fixed image displayed on screen too long B. No voltage to image pixels C. Overheated graphics card D. Power problem C If the colors on your monitor appear faded, muted, too dark, or too light, you can adjust the color depth using Windows Control Panel Display applet. True or false? A. True B. False True Which display issues does running a screen saver help prevent? Choose all that apply. A. Artifacts B. Burn-in C. Dead pixels D. Distorted geometry E. Flickering F. Incorrect color patterns B, C If you have a blank monitor screen, it is most likely due to monitor failure. True or false? A. True B. False False Which touch screen technology requires you touch the surface with an electrically conductive object? A. Capacitive B. Resistive C. Surface acoustic wave D. None of the above A You think some dirt on the screen is interfering with your touch screen's responsiveness. What liquid cleaners are appropriate for cleaning it? Choose all that apply. A. Alcohol-based cleaner B. Eyeglass cleaner C. Mild soap solution D. Plain water E. Window cleaner B, D You want speakers with an internal amplifier but don't want to use a wall outlet. What options can you look for to power them? Choose all that apply. A. 3.5 mm jack B. Battery C. Bluetooth D. USB E. None of the above B, D You have a 5.1 surround-sound compatible sound card. You have a pair of left-right rear speakers and a front center speaker. What feature would you use to take the sound designed for 5.1 surround-sound and play it on your three speakers? A. Room correction B. Speaker fill C. Speaker phantoming D. Virtual surround C You might hear distortion in the sound when you play an audio file at the wrong sample rate and bit depth. True or false? A. True B. False True You want to make sure all of your speakers are working correctly. Which utility can you use to find a problem with an individual speaker? Choose the best response. A. Control Panel Sound applet B. Control Panel Troubleshooting applet C. DirectX diagnostic utility D. MSINFO system information utility. A After initial troubleshooting, your audio still isn’t working right. Which utility can you use to check for internal Windows errors relating to sound? Choose the best response. A. Control Panel Sound applet B. Control Panel Troubleshooting applet C. DirectX diagnostic utility D. MSINFO system information utility C A printer in the office produces high quality color photos, but it's bulky and needs time to heat up after you turn it on. What technology does it likely use? Choose the best response. A. Impact B. Inkjet C. Laser D. Thermal C Which printer technology includes a maintenance kit that you should use after a certain number of pages have been printed? A. Impact B. Inkjet C. Laser D. Thermal C When should you align the print heads on your inkjet printer? A. After the maintenance interval indicated in your operator's manual. B. After replacing an ink cartridge. C. Prior to each print job. D. When the print head alignment warning appears on the printer's control panel. B Which of the following could cause both ink streaks on your printed output and a faded print output? A. Build up of toner on the fuser rollers. B. Dirty laser toner cartridge head. C. Low toner. D. Printing in high-speed mode. C A build-up of toner on the fuser rollers can cause the toner to not fuse properly to the paper. True or false? A. True B. False True You purchased a direct connection network printer. You attached the network cable to your router and turned on the printer. You have been able to print successfully to the printer for several months, but all of a sudden you receive an error that the printer is offline. Which of the following could be the cause? A. A print job is stuck in the queue. B. Ink or toner cartridge is empty. C. Paper jam in the printer. D. Printer doesn't have a static IP address. D Which service should you stop and restart if you are having difficulty clearing a print job stuck in a print queue? A. Printer Extensions and Notifications B. Printer Queue C. Print Spooler D. Remote Access Connection Manager C What type of test do you perform on a laser printer to determine if a print issue is occurring before or after the fusing process? A. Drum electro-static test B. Fuser control test C. Half-way test D. Toner fusion test C What scope of network is most often controlled by a single user? A. LAN B. MAN C. PAN D. WAN C Order the following network scopes, from smallest to largest. A. CAN B. LAN C. MAN D. PAN E. WAN PAN, LAN, CAN, MAN, WAN Most small LANs today incorporate both peer-to-peer and client-server elements. True or false? A. True B. False True What TCP/IP layer does an Ethernet card operate on? A. Application B. Internet C. Network Interface D. Transport E. Data link C Your LAN has a high collision rate. What devices could segment the network and reduce collisions? Select all answers that apply. A. Hub B. Repeater C. Router D. Switch C, D Which of the following are true about bridges? Choose all that apply. A. Bridges cannot join two different link layer protocols. B. Bridges reduce network collisions. C. Bridges separate IP subnets D. Switches are bridges with more than two ports. E. Wireless access points are bridges between Wi-Fi and Ethernet networks. B, D, E A "cable modem" is a modem in the sense that it connects to the Internet, but isn't a modem in the technical sense. True or false? A. True B. False False You reconfigured your 24-port switch from two VLANs to three. Ports 1-10 are on VLAN #1, Ports 11-16 on #2, and ports 17-24 on #3. What kind of assignment are you using? Choose the best response. A. Dynamic B. Static C. Trunked D. Variable B In network terms, all wireless access points are also routers. True or false? A. True B. False False You want to replace the network firewall, IDS, and content filter with a single device which will provide comprehensive network security protection. What sort of product should you look for? Choose the best response. A. DLP B. Endpoint security suite C. TACACS+ D. UTM D Which of the following statements are true? Choose all that apply. A. By definition, you are responsible for all devices on your side of the demarc. B. By definition, your ISP is responsible for all devices outside of the demarc. C. Sometimes devices on your side of the demarc might still be your ISP's responsibility. D. "The local loop" refers to the customer side of the demarc. E. "The local loop" refers to the ISP side of the demarc. B, C, E What internet connection technology uses the same wires as your analog phone line, but a separate communications channel? A. Cable B. Dialup C. DSL D. ISDN C How many data channels are there in a BRI ISDN connection? A. 2 B. 3 C. 23 D. 30 A Order the following cellular data technologies from slowest to fastest, in general terms. A. 3G B. 4G LTE C. EDGE D. HSPA+ EDGE, 3G, HSPA+, 4G LTE What cables use balanced-pair signaling? A. Coaxial B. Twisted-pair C. Both D. Neither B What would be reasonable termination methods for a patch cable between a PC and a switch? Select all answers that apply. A. Crossover B. RJ-11 C. RJ-25 D. T568A E. T568B D, E Why is it necessary that each pair of electrical signals on a twisted-pair cable corresponds to one physical wire pair? A. Because each pair has a slightly different length. B. Because otherwise it would be difficult to terminate the cable. C. Because otherwise it won't reduce crosstalk. D. Because the shielding won't be grounded properly otherwise. C You know there's a fault somewhere on that 100m cable, but it looks fine from the outside. What tool would be the quickest way to guess how exactly where the flaw is? A. Loopback plug B. Multimeter C. Time-domain reflectometer D. Toner Probe C A coworker tells you a connection is unreliable and intermittent. Before even looking at it, what causes can you rule out? Select all answers that apply. A. Attenuation due to cable length B. Crossover cable used by mistake C. Crosstalk between wire pairs D. External interference E. Set to half-duplex B, E You're supposed to buy some Cat 6 cable to install new network drops, but the site you're buying from lists cables by ISO standards. Which kind should you buy? Choose the best answer. A. Class C B. Class D C. Class E D. Class F C In general, what does the RG number of a coaxial cable correspond to? A. Its frequency B. Its impedance C. Its maximum length D. None of the above D In general, cable television uses a threaded F connector, while cable Internet uses a BNC connector. True or false? A. True B. False False What cable standard is acceptable for an older cable television link, but shouldn't be used on a cable modem? A. RG-6 B. RG-8 C. RG-11 D. RG-59 D You're at a meeting discussing whether to deploy single-mode or multimode fiber in a new installation. Which of the following arguments should you make? Choose all that apply. A. Multimode transceivers are less expensive. B. Multimode fibers can carry multiple signals. C. Multimode works over longer distances. D. Single-mode transceivers are less expensive. E. Single-mode works over longer distances. A, E What connector type is square-bodied with a single fiber? A. FC B. MT-RJ C. SC D. ST C You can use a coupler to join two optical inputs to one output, but only if they're the same wavelength. True or false? A. True B. False False While the optical cables in the closet are outwardly identical, some have green connectors, and some have blue. Which one of the following is likely true? A. Blue is angled and green is straight B. Blue is MMF and green is SMF C. Blue is SMF and green is MMF D. Blue is straight and green is angled D What protocol is used to find the MAC address of a given IP address? A. ARP B. DHCP C. APIPA D. DNS A Which IPv4 address might be valid on the internet? A. 127.0.0.1 B. 150.50.101.32 C. 169.254.121.68 D. 192.168.52.52 B Which of the following subnet masks are valid? Choose all that apply. A. 255.0.0.0.0 B. 255.0.255.0 C. 255.255.224.0 D. 255.255.16.0 E. 255.255.255.0 A, C, E What will any link-local IPv6 address begin with? Choose the best answer. A. 0000: B. 2000: C. fe80: D. ff0e: C You're in the process of migrating the corporate network to IPv6, but it's going to take a while. You've been told to configure the network such that any two hosts will communicate via IPv6 if the path between them is compatible, but they'll automatically use IPv4 if it isn't. What migration strategy does this describe? Choose the best answer. A. Dual stack B. IPAM C. NAT D. Tunneling A For a local server, you might not need the full domain name to perform a DNS lookup. True or false? A. True B. False True What kind of communications would be suitable for UDP? Select all answers that apply. A. DNS requests B. File transfers C. Online games D. Streaming video E. Website connections A, C, D Your company's custom server software application needs a TCP port to listen on. What port range should it be configured to use? A. Ephemeral B. Private C. System D. User D Which port is important for sending email? A. 21 B. 23 C. 25 D. 53 C What kind of server is used to relay communications between LAN hosts and internet hosts? Choose the best response. A. DNS B. Proxy C. Syslog D. Web B Which protocol can you use to remotely manage a network switch? Choose the best answer. A. CIFS B. RDP C. SMTP D. SNMP D What protocol would you use to connect to a shared drive on another Windows system? Choose the best answer. A. AFP B. FTP C. SMB D. SNMP C HTTPS adds security to HTTP and uses a different port, but otherwise is fundamentally the same. True or false? A. True B. False True Which protocol lets you log securely into a command line terminal interface? Choose the best answer. A. FTP B. LDAP C. SSH D. Telnet C You want to create a point-to-point wireless link between two buildings which are rather far apart. Your goals are to keep a strong signal between the two transceivers without sending too much signal elsewhere. What antenna style should you use for each? Choose the best response. A. Dipole B. MIMO C. Monopole D. Yagi D MIMO devices use multiple antennas transmitting on different channels to boost bandwidth. True or false? A. True B. False False While you can make a radio conversation full- duplex, Wi-Fi is always half-duplex. True or false? A. True B. False True How does the 5GHz band differ from the 2.4GHz band? Choose all that apply. A. Fewer non-overlapping channels B. Less interference from non-Wi-Fi sources C. Longer range D. More interference from non-Wi-Fi sources E. More non-overlapping channels F. Shorter range B, E, F You're placing multiple overlapping Wi-Fi hotspots in your US office. What channels can you use to avoid overlap? Choose the best response. A. 1, 4, 7, and 10 B. 1, 6, and 11 C. 1, 6, 11, and 14 D. 2, 7, and 12 E. 4, 9, and 14 B You want to set up a wireless network to control your household lighting, thermostat, and security system. What technology would you most likely use? Choose the best response. A. ANT+ B. Bluetooth C. RFID D. Z-Wave D What Wi-Fi standard can operate in either the 2.4GHz or 5GHz band? Choose the best response. A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11g D. 802.11n E. 802.11ac F. 802.11ax D, F Order the following wireless encryption standards from strongest to weakest. 1. WPA-TKIP 2. WPA-AES 3. WPA2-AES 4. WPA3-AES 5. WPA2-TKIP 6. WEP 432516 WPA3-Enterprise uses stronger encryption algorithms than WPA3-Personal. True or false? A. True B. False True What is the encryption strength for WPA3- Enterprise? Choose the best response. A. 104-bit encryption B. 128-bit encryption C. 192-bit encryption D. 256-bit encryption C Your network has a dozen computers, all sharing a single public IP address. One of them is an FTP server. What kind of rule will you need to configure to allow FTP users to connect from the internet? A. Port Address Translation B. Port Forwarding C. Port Triggering D. Universal Plug and Play B is correct. PAT is why you need port forwarding, while port triggering and UPnP are designed for internal clients making outward connections. Even if your router uses DHCP, it might be able to make sure a given client always receives the same IP address. True or false? A. True B. False That’s true. DHCP itself won't guarantee a different client gets the same address, but some routers allow DHCP reservations that identify clients by their MAC addresses. What issues might you try to fix by adjusting your router's QoS settings? Choose all that apply. A. A critical server keeps experiencing high network latency B. Large file downloads are frequently corrupted C. Network connections frequently drop D. Some Internet websites are frequently slow E. Voice over IP calls are choppy during busy network times A and E are correct. QoS features are used to prioritize some traffic over others to decrease latency for time- sensitive data. Your crowded building hosts a number of nearby Wi-Fi hotspots. The nearest neighbor is on an adjacent channel to your own. Is that a problem? A. Yes B. No C. Only if it's in the 2.4GHz band D. Only if it's in the 5GHz band C is correct. On 2.4GHz networks you should use channels 1, 6, 11, or 14. A coworker is exploring virtualization for some development projects, and is trying to decide between a bare metal hypervisor and a hosted one. Which of the following pieces of advice should you give? Choose all that apply. A. A bare metal hypervisor will be easier to set up and maintain if you're new to virtualization. B. A hosted hypervisor will be easier to set up and maintain if you're new to virtualization. C. Bare metal hypervisors can run more VMs on the same hardware. D. Hosted hypervisors can run more VMs on the same hardware. E. You can run a bare metal hypervisor within your existing operating system. B, C You want to configure three virtual servers on a single physical server, but you'd like network clients to see them as separate computers. How can you do this? Choose the simplest option. A. You can assign a different public IP address to the virtual NIC on each VM. B. You can assign the host computer to three separate VLANs. C. You can use NAT to assign separate internal addresses which share the host computer's public IP address. D. You must install three separate NICs in the host computer. A You're assembling a server to host six VMs on a hosted hypervisor. All the VMs will have similar workloads, and each will need approximately 4 GB RAM and 500 GB hard disk space. Which of the following configuration options should you choose to maximize virtualization performance? Choose one option each for CPU, RAM, and hard disk. A. Quad core 4.5 GHz processor B. Eight core 3.0 GHz processor C. 24 GB triple-channel memory D. 32 GB dual-channel memory E. One 6 TB hard disk F. Three 2 TB hard disks B, C, F The entire hard drive of a VM is typically a file on the host system which you can copy and back up like any other. True or false? A. True B. False True What model would describe a cloud accounting service? A. IaaS B. PaaS C. SaaS D. Community C Instead of maintaining network services in a number of different departments and locations, a large company is moving them all to a cloud model. The whole system is hosted in a new data center rented by the company but managed by an outside vendor. What deployment model best describes the situation? A. Community B. Private C. Public D. Hybrid B What features should you expect from any cloud storage service oriented at end users? Choose all that apply. A. Ability to share a file with other people by sending them a URL B. Backup functions for your cloud-stored files C. Cloud-based VMs with desktop productivity apps D. Synchronization of files across multiple devices E. Webmail that you can access from any browser A, B, and D Cloud services are often easier to join or expand than they are to leave. True or false? A. True B. False True You're shopping for a mobile device that lets you install apps and browse the internet, as well as make phone calls and send text messages via a mobile provider. Which mobile device could you use? Choose all that apply. A. 2-in-1 B. Feature phone C. Phablet D. Smartphone E. Tablet C, D You make and sell crafts at local art festivals. Which smartphone accessory could be a real benefit? Choose the best response. A. Cable lock B. Credit card reader C. Docking station D. Headset E. Power pack F. Wireless keyboard B You work about 50% of the time at client sites and the other 50% of the time at your company's offices. Which mobile device accessory would help you most with your work? Choose the best response. A. A docking station for your laptop B. A cable lock for your laptop C. A headset for your smartphone D. A credit card reader for your tablet E. A wireless keyboard for your tablet A Android and Apple devices can adjust the screen orientation based on what way the phone is being held. What internal hardware features does this require? Choose all that apply. A. Accelerometers B. Built-in calibration C. Geotracking D. GPS positioning E. Gyroscopes A, E Which connection method would you use to connect your smartphone to your auto's communication and speaker system? Choose the best response. A. Bluetooth B. Cellular C. Infrared D. Wi-Fi A When you turn on airplane mode, what device features are automatically disabled? Choose all that apply. A. Bluetooth B. GPS C. Mobile data D. Sound E. Wi-Fi A, C, E What process will enable you to link your smartwatch to your mobile phone as a PAN? Choose the best response. A. Cloud synchronization B. Jumping C. Pairing D. Synchronizing C You want to access your ISP email account from your phone and tablet as well as your desktop, but since it's not directly supported by your mobile client you need to configure it manually. What protocol are you most likely to need? Choose the best response. A. IMAP B. MAPI C. POP3 D. S/MIME A Your contract with your mobile provider allows you to have up to three devices connected, tracked by IMEI. When you add a second device, how will you know what IMEI to enter? Choose the best response. A. It is built into the device itself. B. It is stored on a SIM card you insert into the device. C. You can create it like a password. D. Your provider will assign you one. A Desktop synchronization will synchronize items from multiple locations and devices, including from both the device and the desktop. True or false? A. True B. False False What troubleshooting step can resolve many issues, such as slow performance, a "stuck" application, or a non-functioning feature? A. Complete a hard reset B. Complete a soft reset C. Uninstall or reinstall apps D. Verify the feature is enabled E. Verify that both the wireless service is enabled and that you are connected B If you have an touchscreen that has inaccurate response to your touch, it is broken and you must replace it. True or false? A. True B. False False A frozen operating system on a mobile device can be cause by which? A. Excessive processor use B. Improper ventilation C. Lack of sufficient storage D. Low battery E. Security response to failed logon attempts F. Too many apps running at one time C, D, F