Dental Past Paper PDF

1. The purpose of operative and restorative dentistry is to restore and maintain: A. Health of natural dentition B. Function of natural dentition C. Esthetic appearance D. All of the above 2. The oldest and most widely used method of tooth nomenclature is: A. Universal system B. FDI system C. Two d...

1. The purpose of operative and restorative dentistry is to restore and maintain: A. Health of natural dentition B. Function of natural dentition C. Esthetic appearance D. All of the above 2. The oldest and most widely used method of tooth nomenclature is: A. Universal system B. FDI system C. Two digit system D. Palmer system 3. The system to designate a tooth which is simple to understand and to teach as well as readily communicable in print and by wire is: A. Zsigmondy system B. Universal system C. FDI/Two digit system D. None of the above 4. Teeth most commonly congenitally absent are: A. Mandibular 2nd bicuspids B. Maxillary lateral incisors C. Mandibular 1st bicuspids D. Mandibular primary 2nd molar 5. Most commonly fractured cusp is: A. Buccalcuspsofmaxillarymolars B. Buccal cusps of mandibular molars C. Lingual cusps of maxillary molars D. Lingual cusps of mandibular molars CLINICAL ASPECTS OF DENTAL CARIES 1. Double inverted cone" type of penetration of dental caries is seen in: A. Smooth Surface Caries B. Pit and fissure caries C. Both of the above D. None of the above 2. Pit and fissure lesions are represented by: A. Apexofconefacingeachother B. Base of cone facing each other C. Double inverted cone D. None of the above 3. Proximal carious lesion occurs mostly: A. Just Occlusal To Contact Area B. Just cervical to contact area C. Irrespective of contact D. None of the above 4. Development of smooth surface dental caries is due to all of the following, except: A. Low Salivary Flow B. Frequent sucrose consumption C. Radiation therapy D. Amount of sucrose consumption 5. Smooth surface caries is mainly caused by: A. Lactobacilli B. Streptococcus mutans C. Actinomyces D. All of the above 6. The first anti-gingivitis oral rinse approved by FDA and ADA Council is: A. 2% chlorhexidine gluconate B. 0.2% chlorhexidine gluconate C. 0.12% chlorhexidine gluconate D. 1% chlorhexidine gluconate 7. Sealants are not recommended routinely on: A. Primary Molars B. Over another restorative material C. Interproximal lesions D. All of the above 8. Percentage of pit and fissure caries in children is: A. 60 to 70% B. 50 to 60% C. 80 to 90% D. 40 to 60% 9. Incidence of dental caries in young children is most effectively reduced by: A. Sealants B. Oral prophylaxis C. Flossing D. None of the above 10. Remineralization of the cariously damaged tooth structure occurs as local pH: A. Rises above 7 B. Rises above 5.5 C. Decreases below 5 D. None of the above 11. The term 'odontopathic' refers to: A. Causing disease tooth to odontoblasts B. Causing disease to teeth C. Causing disease to enamel only D. None of the above 12. Streptococcus mutans and lactobacilli are the primary cariogenic organisms and are said to be: A. Acidogenic Only B. Aciduric only C. Both acidogenic and cariogenic D. None of the above 13. The term "aciduric" refers to: A.· Bacteria producing great amount of acids B. Bacteria capable of tolerating acidic environment C. Bacteria unable to tolerate acidic environment D. None of the above 14. The microorganisms most strongly associated with "onset of caries" and active progression of cavitated lesions are: A. Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus mutans B. Staphylococcus aureus and lactobacilli C. Streptococcus mutans and lactobacilli D. Viridans and Actinobacillus group 15. Nonspecific plaque hypothesis assumes that: A. All Plaque Are Pathogenic B. Plaque is pathogenic only when signs of disease are present C. Both A and B D. None of the above 16. The single most important factor in producing cariogenic plaque is: A. High amount of glucose exposure B. High frequency of glucose exposure C. High amount of sucrose exposure D, High frequency of sucrose exposure 17. The teeth normally have a plaque community dominated by: A. Streptococcus sanguis and Streptococcus mutans B. Streptococcus sanguis and Streptococcus mitis C. Lactobacilli and Streptococcus mutans D Streptococcus salivarius and lactobacilli 18. The process of plaque regrowth after the tooth surface is cleaned is termed as: A. Primary succession of plaque growth B. Secondary succession of plaque growth C. Tertiary succession of plaque growth D. None of the above 19. Going from higher to lower demineralization of enamel starts at the pH range from: A. 3 to 4 B. 5 to 5.5 C. 6 to 7 D. None of the above 20. The second most susceptible area of tooth to caries are: A. Buccal and lingual pits of molars B. Pit and fissures C. Proximal surface gingival to contact area D. Facial and lingual smooth surface 21. Root caries is initiated by: A. Streptococcus mutans B. Lactobacilli C. A. viscosus D. Anaerobes 22. The time for progression from incipient caries to clinical caries, i.e. cavitation on smooth surfaces is estimated to be: A. 15 months ± 6 months B. 15 months ± 8 months C. 18 months ± 6 months D. 18 months ± 3 months 23. What is the difference between white spot of hypocalcification and white spot of incipient caries? A. No difference, both are same B. Hypocalcified spot disappears on wetting and reappears on drying while incipient caries spot is not changed C.Incipient caries spot partially or totally disappears visually when hydrated while hypocalcified spot is unaffected on hydration D. None of the above 24. Arrested carious lesion is: A. Discolored and remineralized area B. Intact and more resistant to caries attack than adjacent unaffected enamel C. Not restored unless esthetically required D. All of the above 25. The deepest and advancing front of enamel carious lesion is: A. The dark zone В. The body of the lesion C. The translucent zone D. The surface zone 26. The zone of enamel caries, which is relatively unaffected by caries attack is: A. The dark zone B. The surface zone C. The translucent zone D. The body of the lesion 27. Which part of tooth is least resistant to caries? A. Surface enamel B. Dentin C. Dentinoenamel junction D. Cementum 28. A reliable test to detect caries is: A. Only visual B. Only by use of explorer C. Only radiograph D. None of the above 29. Most effective treatment in preventing pit and fissure caries is: A. Local fluoride application B. Systemic water fluoridation C. Pit and fissure sealants D. Enameloplasty 30. Occlusal surfaces account for only of all tooth surfaces: A. 10.5% B. 12.5% C. 14.5% D. 16.5% 31. The levels of which bacteria can be used to assess the effectiveness of caries control procedures? A. Streptococcus mutans B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Lactobacilli D. A. viscosus 32. Caries control refers to: A. Removal of infected tooth structure B. Medicating the teeth C. Kestoring defects with temporary material D. All of the above 33. Senile caries is: A. Recurrent caries B. Residual caries C. Root surface caries D. Forward caries 34. Dental caries is said to be 'extensive' when: A. It involves more than one tooth B. Distance between infected dentin and pulp is less than 2 mm C. Distance between infected dentin and pulp is less than 1 mm D. All of the above 35. A bacteria not associated with caries process is: A. Streptococcus mutans B. Lactobacillus acidophillus C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Actinomyces 36. When ages are equal, studies have shown that young girls have slightly higher caries index than boys. This is attributed to: A. Girls eat more sweets B. Hormonal differences C. Earlier growth spurt in girls D. Earlier eruption of dentition in girls 37. Clinically the earliest evidence of caries is: A. Sensitivity to sweets B. Roughness on the surface of tooth C. Brown area on tooth surface D. Chalky white area on the tooth 38. Fluoride-richness of surface enamel: A. Remains constant B. Increases with age C. Increases in increments D. Decreases with time due to occlusal wear 39. A person suffering from xerostomia is more likely to have: A. Cemental caries B. Decrease in dental caries C. Increase in lesions of dental caries D. Arrested caries 40. Pit and fissure sealants are generally not used in: A. Molars B. Teeth showing signs of opacity in pit or fissure C. Patients receiving fluoride therapy D. Cavitated lesion 41. The most reliable index for dentinal caries removal is: A. Color difference B. Depth of cavity C. Tactile stimuli D. Pain perception 42. Caries control is an intermediate step in restorative treatment and most frequently used materials are: A. Composite resin B. Amalgam C. Amalgam and intermediate restorative material D. None of the above NOMENCLATURE, CLASSIFICATIONS AND FUNDAMENTALS IN CAVITY (TOOTH) PREPARATION 1. G.V. Black simply classified cavities as: A. Two classes of smooth surface and three classes of pit and fissure lesions B. Three classes of smooth surface and two classes of pit and fissure lesions C. One class of pit and fissure and four classes of smooth surface lesions D. None of the above 2. Cavities that occur exclusively in posterior teeth are: A. Class I cavities B. Class V cavities C. Class II cavities D. Class IV cavities 3. The class/es of cavity which occurs both in anterior and posterior teeth is/are:  A. Class III B. Class V C. Class I and VI D. Class IV 4. Removal of deep, pulp encroaching caries should be made using: A. High rotational speeds B. Low rotational speeds C. Very high rotational speeds D. All of the above 5. Pulpal damage can result from A. Lack of coolant B. Excessive hand pressure C. Dull instrument D. All of the above 6. Number of point angles in ‘class III’ cavity preparation is: A. 4 B. 5 C. 3 D. 11 7. The purposes of cavity preparation is/are: A. Removal of all the defects of enamel, dentin, and cementum B. To locate the margins of restoration as conservatively as possible C. To allow for esthetic and functional placement of restorative material D. All of the above 8. In order to assume a sound enamel margin, the cavosurface angle of occlusal wall of class V cavity should be: A. 110° B. 90° C. 120-130° D. 45° 9. Dr. GV Black laid the scientific foundation of cavity preparation in the year A. 1840 B. 1898 C. 1910 D. 1870 10. Dr. GV Black classified the cavities in the year: A. 1860 B. 1870 C. 1898 D. 1920 11. In “complex” cavity preparation: A. Only one tooth surface is involved B. Two surfaces are involved C. Three or more surfaces are involved  D. None of the above 12. Which of the following is not an internal wall of a cavity preparation? A. Axial wall B. Pulpal wall C. Gingival wall D. All of the above 13. All of the following are external walls of a cavity preparation, except: A. Gingival wall B. Axial wall C. Buccal wall D. Distal Wall 14. A cavity preparation which includes both internal and external cavity walls is termed: A. Extracoronal preparation B. Intracoronal preparation C. Metal onlay restoration D. Both A and B 15. Enameloplasty is indicated: A. When fissure depth is no more than ½ thickness of enamel B. When fissure depth is not more than 1/3rd thickness of enamel C. Fissure depth is 2/3rd thickness of enamel D. None of the above 16. The class V cavity preparation is: A. Flat mesiodistally B. Concave mesiodistally C. Convex mesiodistally D. None of the above 17. Class VII Division 2 cavities are: A. Cavities on proximal surfaces of anterior teeth B. Cavities on incisal edges of anterior teeth C. Cavities on cusp tips of posterior teeth D. Cavities in the middle third on the labial surface of anterior teeth 18. Class VII division 1 cavities are: A. Cavities in posterior teeth on facial surface B. Cavities on labial surface of anterior teeth in the region of incisal third without involving incisal edge C. Cavities on lingual surface of anterior teeth D. Cavities on cervical region on labial surface in anterior teeth 19. Cavities of the cusp tips of the posterior teeth are: A. Class I cavities B. Class II cavities C. Class IV cavities D. Class VI cavities 20. Cavities occurring on the lingual fossa of incisors are: A. Class VI cavities  B. Class IV cavities C. Class III cavities D. Class I cavities 21. Which wall is the base of class III preparation? A. Gingival B. Axial C. Facial D. Lingual 22. The purpose for retention form in cavity preparation is to prevent displacement of the restoration by: A. Occlusal forces B. Lateral forces C. Lifting forces D. All of the above 23. External outline form of the cavity is influenced by all, except: A. Proximity to the pulp B. Tooth position in the area C. Type of restorative material D. Spread of caries 24. Extension of buccal and lingual walls in class II prep is determined by: A. Extension of carious lesion gingivally B. Position of adjacent tooth contacts C. Line angles of the tooth to be restored D. All of the above 25. Crossing the oblique ridge in maxillary permanent first molar is permissible in all, except: A. When the ridge has a deep fissure B. When the ridge is undermined with caries C. When it is necessary for retention D. In incipient caries in mesial and distal pits 26. The wall that is not present in a class V cavity in an anterior tooth is: A. Labial wall B. Axial wall C. Incisal wall D. Gingival wall 27. Gingival wall in a proximal cavity preparation is located: A. Within the interproximal contact B. Occlusal to the interproximal contact C. Apical to the interproximal contact D. Apical to the interproximal crest of the gingiva INFECTION CONTROL 28. The most reliable sterilization is A. Immersion in 100 degree C water for 30 minutes B. Soaking in activated 2% alkaline glutaraldehyde fpr 10 minutes C. Autoclave  D. Steam under pressure for 05 pounds for 15 minutes 29. Autoclave cycles is achieved with the steam under pressure of: A. 15 pounds and 121 degree C for 10 minutes B. 35 pounds and 248 degree F for 5 minutes C. Both of the above D. 0.5 pounds and 131 degree C for 10 minutes 30. Citemiclave is: A. Steam pressure sterilization B. Chemical vapor pressure sterilization C. Drug heat sterilization D. None of the above 31. Instruments that cannot withstand autoclaving may be sterilized effectively with: A. 2% glutaraldehyde B. 1% sodium hypochlorite C. Ethylene oxide gas D. 70% ethyl alcohol 32. The term “universal precautions” means: A. All patient are treated as infectious B. High-risk group patients are only treated as infectious C. All patients and blood contaminated body fluids are treated as infectious D. None of the above 33. Carbon steel instruments and burs are best sterilized by: A. Autoclave B. Dry heat and chemiclave C. Boiling water D. 2% glutaraldehyde 34. The most gentle method of sterilization used for hand-pieces A. Autoclaving B. Dry heat C. Ethylene oxide gas D. None of the above 35. Dry heat sterilization is readily achieved at temperature: A. Above 100 degree C B. Above 160 degree C C. Above 320 degree F D. Both B and C 36. Chemiclave is: A. Chemical means of sterilization B. Alternative means of sterilization by chemical steam under pressure C. Oil of clove D. None of the above