Quiz 1 Anatomy MQ PDF
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This document contains a quiz about the integumentary and skeletal systems. It includes questions about the functions of the integumentary system, skin layers, types and locations of skin glands. It also includes questions about skeletal system anatomy, bones, joints, and bone growth. Exam style.
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Topic 1- integumentary system 1-What is the primary function of the integumentary system? a) Producing blood cells b) Guarding the body’s integrity and maintaining temperature c) Digesting food d) Transporting oxygen 2 -Which medical specialty deals with skin disorders? a) Neurology b) Dermatology...
Topic 1- integumentary system 1-What is the primary function of the integumentary system? a) Producing blood cells b) Guarding the body’s integrity and maintaining temperature c) Digesting food d) Transporting oxygen 2 -Which medical specialty deals with skin disorders? a) Neurology b) Dermatology c) Cardiology d) Endocrinology Structure of the Skin 3-What is the superficial portion of the skin called? a) Epidermis b) Dermis c) Hypodermis d) Subcutaneous tissue 4-Which layer of the skin is primarily composed of connective tissue? a) Epidermis b) Dermis c) Hypodermis d) Stratum corneum 5-What is NOT a function of the subcutaneous layer? a) Storing fat b) Passing blood vessels c) Producing melanin Epidermis 6-Which type of cell produces keratin? a) Melanocytes b) Keratinocytes c) Langerhans cells d) Merkel cells 7-Which layer of the epidermis is the deepest? a) Stratum basale b) Stratum corneum c) Stratum lucidum d) Stratum granulosum 8-Which cell type in the epidermis is responsible for immune responses? a) Keratinocytes b) Melanocytes c) Langerhans cells d) Merkel cells Dermis 9-What type of connective tissue is found in the papillary layer? a) Dense irregular connective tissue b) Areolar connective tissue c) Elastic cartilage d) Hyaline cartilage 10-What is the function of Meissner’s corpuscles? a) Detecting heat b) Sensing touch c) Producing sebum d) Storing fat Skin Glands 11-Which gland is responsible for producing sebum? a) Sudoriferous gland b) Sebaceous gland c) Ceruminous gland d) Apocrine gland 12-Where are apocrine sweat glands located? a) Palms and soles b) Face and scalp c) Axilla and pubic regions d) Arms and legs Functions of Skin 13-What percentage of the body’s blood flow is housed in the dermis? a) 2–4% b) 5–7% c) 8–10% d) 12–15% 14-How does the skin help regulate body temperature? a) By producing vitamin D b) By releasing sweat c) By producing melanin d) By absorbing heat Wound Healing 15-What is the first phase of deep wound healing? a) Migratory phase b) Maturation phase c) Proliferative phase d) Inflammatory phase 16-Which phase involves the formation of granulation tissue? a) Inflammatory phase b) Migratory phase c) Proliferative phase d) Maturation phase Topic 2- skeletal system 1.Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeletal system? A) Support B) Movement C) Digestion D) Mineral Homeostasis 2.Which type of bone cell is responsible for secreting bone matrix and initiating calcification? A) Osteocytes B) Osteoclasts C) Osteoblasts D) Osteoprogenitor cells 3.Which part of a long bone contains the yellow marrow in adults? A) Epiphysis B) Diaphysis C) Periosteum D) Endosteum 4.Which process involves bone development directly from mesenchyme? A) Endochondral ossification B) Intramembranous ossification C) Appositional growth D) Interstitial growth Answer: B) Intramembranous ossification 5.Which of the following describes the outer layer of bones and provides protection? A) Spongy bone B) Compact bone C) Cancellous bone D) Trabecular bone Answer: B) Compact bone 6.What is the name of the membrane that covers the surface of bones at the joints? A) Endosteum B) Periosteum C) Articular cartilage D) Epiphyseal plate Answer: C) Articular cartilage 7.Which vitamin is essential for calcium absorption in bones? A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin C C) Vitamin D D) Vitamin B12 Answer: C) Vitamin D 8.What type of fracture occurs when the bone is broken into several pieces? A) Greenstick fracture B) Compound fracture C) Comminuted fracture D) Spiral fracture Answer: C) Comminuted fracture 9.Which type of joint allows for the greatest range of movement? A) Hinge joint B) Ball-and-socket joint C) Pivot joint D) Saddle joint Answer: B) Ball-and-socket joint 10.Which of the following is an example of a fibrous joint? A) Elbow joint B) Sutures of the skull C) Hip joint D) Knee joint Answer: B) Sutures of the skull 11.Bone remodeling is influenced by which of the following hormones? A) Insulin B) Growth hormone C) Melatonin D) Cortisol Answer: B) Growth hormone 12.The epiphyseal plate is responsible for which type of bone growth? A) Appositional growth B) Interstitial growth C) Bone remodeling D) Endochondral growth Answer: B) Interstitial growth 13.Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton? A) Femur B) Clavicle C) Vertebra D) Scapula Answer: C) Vertebra 14.Which hormone decreases calcium levels in the blood by inhibiting bone resorption? A) Calcitonin B) Parathyroid hormone C) Insulin D) Estrogen 15.What type of joint is found in the elbow, allowing movement in one direction only? A) Ball-and-socket joint B) Hinge joint C) Saddle joint D) Condyloid joint Answer: B) Hinge joint 16.Which structure in a synovial joint secretes fluid that lubricates the joint? A) Articular cartilage B) Synovial membrane C) Joint capsule D) Tendon sheath 17.Which of the following is an example of a sesamoid bone? A) Vertebra B) Patella C) Femur D) Radius Answer: B) Patella 18.In which condition is bone resorption greater than bone formation, leading to decreased bone mass? A) Osteoarthritis B) Osteoporosis C) Gout D) Rickets Answer: B) Osteoporosis 19.Which mineral is most abundant in bone? A) Sodium B) Iron C) Potassium D) Calcium 20.Which type of bone cell is responsible for forming new bone tissue? A) Osteoclast B) Osteocyte C) Osteoblast D) Osteoprogenitor cell Answer: C) Osteoblast Topic 3- muscular tissue Types of Muscular Tissue 1.Which of the following is NOT a type of muscle tissue? A) Skeletal muscle B) Cardiac muscle C) Nervous muscle D) Smooth muscle 2.Which type of muscle is responsible for voluntary movements? A) Skeletal muscle B) Cardiac muscle C) Smooth muscle D) Involuntary muscle 3.Where is cardiac muscle primarily found? A) In the digestive tract B) In the heart C) Attached to bones D) In the bladder 4.Which muscle type is found in the walls of hollow organs like the stomach? A) Skeletal muscle B) Cardiac muscle C) Smooth muscle D) Voluntary muscle Functions of Muscular Tissue 5.Which of these is NOT a primary function of muscular tissue? A) Movement B) Stabilization C) Heat generation D) Nutrient absorption 6.How do muscles help stabilize the body? A) By generating heat B) By maintaining body positions and stabilizing joints C) By contracting and relaxing rhythmically D) By moving substances through the body 7.What type of muscle is responsible for moving food through the digestive tract? A) Skeletal muscle B) Cardiac muscle C) Smooth muscle D) Voluntary muscle 8.What bodily process is supported by muscle contractions that generate heat? A) Digestion B) Shivering C) Breathing D) Circulation Properties of Muscular Tissue 9.Which property allows muscles to respond to stimuli? A) Electrical excitability B) Contractility C) Extensibility D) Elasticity 10.The ability of a muscle to contract forcefully when stimulated is known as: A) Extensibility B) Contractility C) Elasticity D) Excitability 11.What term describes the ability of a muscle to stretch without being damaged? A) Extensibility B) Contractility C) Elasticity D) Excitability 12.The ability of muscle tissue to return to its original length after being stretched is called: A) Extensibility B) Contractility C) Elasticity D) Excitability Microscopic Anatomy of Skeletal Muscle Fibres 13.What is the plasma membrane of a muscle fiber called? A) Sarcolemma B) Sarcoplasm C) Myofibril D) Myofilament 14.Which term refers to the cytoplasm of a muscle fiber? A) Sarcolemma B) Sarcoplasm C) Myofibril D) Myofilament 15.What are the long cylindrical structures within muscle fibers that are crucial for contraction? A) Sarcolemma B) Sarcoplasm C) Myofibrils D) Myofilaments 16.Which filaments are responsible for the striated appearance of muscles? A) Sarcoplasmic reticulum B) T-tubules C) Myofilaments D) Sarcolemma 17.What structure stores calcium ions needed for muscle contraction? A) T tubules B) Sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) C) Myofibrils D) Sarcolemma 18.What is the function of T tubules? A) To store calcium ions B) To transmit action potentials into the muscle fiber C) To release neurotransmitters D) To contract the muscle fiber 19.What does myoglobin do in muscle tissue? A) Transmits action potentials B) Stores oxygen for muscle contraction C) Provides energy D) Regulates calcium levels Muscle Proteins and the Sliding Filament Mechanism 20.Which of the following is considered a contractile protein? A) Titin B) Tropomyosin C) Myosin D) Troponin 21.What role does myosin play in muscle contraction? A) Binds to actin B) Blocks actin C) Stabilizes the sarcomere D) Stores calcium 22.What are the myosin-binding sites located on? A) Actin B) Myosin C) Tropomyosin D) Troponin 23.When a muscle is relaxed, which protein covers the myosin-binding sites on actin? A) Myosin B) Tropomyosin C) Troponin D) Titin 24.Which protein binds to calcium ions to initiate muscle contraction? A) Myosin B) Tropomyosin C) Troponin D) Titin 25.What is the function of titin? A) Binds to calcium B) Blocks myosin binding sites C) Provides elasticity and stability D) Initiates contraction Neuromuscular Junction (NMJ) 26.What is the neuromuscular junction? A) The connection between a motor neuron and a muscle fiber B) The site of muscle contraction C) The location of calcium storage D) The place where tendons attach to muscle 27.Which neurotransmitter is released at the NMJ? A) Dopamine B) Serotonin C) Acetylcholine (ACh) D) Epinephrine 28.What does ACh trigger when it binds to receptors on the motor endplate? A) Calcium efflux B) Sodium influx C) Potassium influx D) Chloride efflux 29.What ion is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum after an action potential travels along the sarcolemma? A) Sodium B) Potassium C) Calcium D) Chloride 30.What does calcium do to initiate muscle contraction? A) Binds to myosin B) Binds to troponin C) Binds to tropomyosin D) Releases acetylcholine Muscle Metabolism and Energy Production 31.Which of the following is NOT a method of ATP production in muscles? A) Creatine phosphate B) Protein synthesis C) Anaerobic glycolysis D) Aerobic respiration 32.Which method of ATP production provides a quick burst of energy? A) Creatine phosphate B) Anaerobic glycolysis C) Aerobic respiration D) Fatty acid oxidation 33.How many ATP molecules are produced from one molecule of creatine phosphate? A) 1 B) 2 C) 30-32 D) 36 34.What is a byproduct of anaerobic glycolysis? A) Pyruvate B) Lactic acid C) Carbon dioxide D) Water 35.Which method of ATP production generates the most ATP per glucose molecule? A) Creatine phosphate B) Anaerobic glycolysis C) Aerobic respiration D) Lactic acid fermentation Muscle Fatigue 36.Which of the following is a cause of muscle fatigue? A) Inadequate calcium release from the SR B) Increased ATP levels C) Increased glycogen storage D) Increased oxygen availability 37.What contributes to muscle fatigue due to lack of oxygen and nutrients? A) Build-up of ATP B) Excess calcium in the SR C) Depletion of creatine phosphate D) Release of neurotransmitters 38.Accumulation of what substance leads to muscle fatigue? A) Glucose B) Creatine phosphate C) Lactic acid D) Myoglobin Types of Muscle Contractions 39.What type of muscle contraction involves a change in muscle length while maintaining constant tension? A) Isotonic contraction B) Isometric contraction C) Concentric contraction D) Eccentric contraction 40.Which term describes a muscle shortening during contraction? A) Eccentric contraction B) Isometric contraction C) Concentric contraction D) Isotonic contraction 41.What type of muscle contraction occurs when a muscle lengthens while controlling a load? A) Eccentric contraction B) Isometric contraction C) Concentric contraction D) Isotonic contraction 42.What happens in an isometric muscle contraction? A) Muscle contracts but does not change length B) Muscle shortens while producing force C) Muscle lengthens while controlling the descent of a load D) Muscle shortens with no change in tension Cardiac and Smooth Muscle 43.What structures in cardiac muscle allow for synchronized contractions? A) T tubules B) Intercalated discs C) Myofibrils D) Sarcomeres 44.Which of the following is a characteristic of smooth muscle? A) Striated B) Voluntary C) Non-striated D) Multinucleated Skeletal Muscle Movement 45.What is the stationary attachment of a muscle called? A) Origin B) Insertion C) Agonist D) Antagonist 46.What term describes the moveable attachment of a muscle? A) Origin B) Insertion C) Agonist D) Antagonist 47.Which term refers to the muscle primarily responsible for a movement? A) Agonist B) Antagonist C) Synergist D) Fixator 48.What does the antagonist muscle do? A) Assists the prime mover B) Opposes the agonist C) Stabilizes the origin of the prime mover D) Moves the insertion 49.What does a synergist muscle do? A) Opposes the prime mover B) Assists the prime mover C) Stabilizes the origin of the prime mover D) Moves the insertion 50.What is the function of a fixator muscle? A) Assists the prime mover B) Opposes the prime mover C) Stabilizes the origin of the prime mover D) Moves the insertion