Quality Management PDF

CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 31.1 QUESTIONS: 1. Which QMS Document summarizes your organizations intentions & views with respect to the importance of quality as it relates to the organization’s customers, employees and the business objectives. The Quality Policy The Quality Objectives...

CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 31.1 QUESTIONS: 1. Which QMS Document summarizes your organizations intentions & views with respect to the importance of quality as it relates to the organization’s customers, employees and the business objectives. The Quality Policy The Quality Objectives The Quality Scorecard The Quality Plan 2. As a business, you must leverage your core strengths to drive growth while improving on your weaknesses to ensure that you’re fully taking advantage of your opportunities and addressing any potential threats to the business. This fact is the foundation of which QMS deployment tool: Benchmarking SWOT Analysis CPM Stakeholder Analysis 3. Which of the following is not true regarding Benchmarking? Benchmarking can help an organization uncover and implement best practices. Benchmarking can be utilized to align prices with a competitor in order to improve profitability. Benchmarking can also reveal potential improvements or new methods to improve their effectiveness. Benchmarking can be performed for both internal or external processes. 4. Which of the following statements are NOT one of Deming’s’ 14 points: Break Down Department Barriers (Silos) Increase Quality Through Inspection Eliminate on The Job Training Create a Consistency of Purpose Promote Management by Objective & Daily Quotas  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 31.1 5. Which of the following areas is NOT part of Juran’s Quality Trilogy: Quality Assurance Quality Control Quality Improvement Quality Planning 6. Which of the following concepts or topics did Genichi Taguchi directly contribute too: The Theory of Constraints Six Sigma Design of Experiments The Quality Loss Function 7. How many treatments would be required for a DOE with 5 factors where a full factorial design is chosen? 64 32 16 8 4 8. Fill in the blank: A ________________ is a statistical method that allows you to study and quantify the relationship between the inputs and outputs of a process or product. Pareto Chart Design of Experiments Control Chart Flow Diagram Scatter Diagram 9. Which of the following activities are considered a Preventative Cost? Testing Prototypes Calibrating Equipment Performing a Process Audit Root Cause Analysis for Internal Scrap  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 31.1 10. Let’s say you’re currently conducting a 1st party audit, which of the following statements are false: The Client can never be the Auditee The Auditor can be an employee from the area under Audit. The Audit can be an ISO Registration Audit The Audit can be a Quality Management System Audit 11. Who is responsible for authoring the final Audit Report? The Lead Auditor The Auditee The Client The Auditor 12. In the Quality Documentation Hierarchy, which document type defines the responsibilities of the various processes: The Quality Manual The Quality Policy Quality Procedures Work Instructions 13. Identify the elements below that can impact the precision of the measurement system: Linearity Stability Repeatability Reproducibility 14. The Stability of a measurement system can be defined as: The ability of a gauge to maintain its accuracy across the entire range of possible measurements. The variation in the accuracy of a measurement system over time. The variation that can be attributed to the measurement gauge itself. The overall variation in the measurement system including the variation caused by different operators.  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 31.1 SOLUTIONS: 1. Which QMS Document summarizes your organizations intentions & views with respect to the importance of quality as it relates to the organization’s customers, employees and the business objectives. The Quality Policy The Quality Objectives The Quality Scorecard The Quality Plan The Quality Policy, which is required in ISO 9001, should summarize your organizations intentions & views with respect to the importance of Quality. All subsequent documents in the Quality Management System (objectives, plans, scorecards, etc) should align with the goals & intentions outlined in the Quality Policy. 2. As a business, you must leverage your core strengths to drive growth while improving on your weaknesses to ensure that you’re fully taking advantage of your opportunities and addressing any potential threats to the business. This fact is the foundation of which QMS deployment tool: Benchmarking SWOT Analysis CPM Stakeholder Analysis SWOT stands for Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities & Threats. The SWOT Analysis is meant to uncover those 4 key areas of your business and ensure that they’re considered and included in your Quality Plan. 3. Which of the following is not true regarding Benchmarking? Benchmarking can help an organization uncover and implement best practices. (True) Benchmarking can be utilized to align prices with a competitor in order to improve profitability. (False) Benchmarking can also reveal potential improvements or new methods to improve their effectiveness. (True) Benchmarking can be performed for both internal or external processes. (True) Benchmarking CANNOT be used to simply align prices to maximize profitability – this is called price fixing, and it’s illegal.  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 31.1 Benchmarking however can help an organization implement best practices, reveal potential improvements & it can also be performed for both internal or external processes. 4. Which of the following statements are NOT one of Deming’s’ 14 points: Break Down Department Barriers (Silos) Increase Quality Through Inspection Eliminate on The Job Training Create a Consistency of Purpose Promote Management by Objective & Daily Quotas Deming did NOT promote these 3 concepts; in fact he was directly opposed to them: Increase Quality Through Inspection (Opposite of Point 3) Eliminate on The Job Training (Opposite of Point 6) Promote Management by Objective & Daily Quotas (Opposite of Point 11) These 2 points are taken directly from his 14 points: Create a Consistency of Purpose – Point 1 Break Down Department Barriers (Silos) – Point 9 5. Which of the following areas is NOT part of Juran’s Quality Trilogy: Quality Assurance Quality Control Quality Improvement Quality Planning Juran’s Quality Trilogy includes: Quality Planning – A continuous method whereby Top Management is strategically planning for improved Quality. Quality Control – An on-going monitoring process to detect & correct any Quality issues. Quality Improvement – A drive for breakthrough results to resolve chronic issues. Juran’s Trilogy does not include Quality Assurance. 6. Which of the following concepts or topics did Genichi Taguchi directly contribute too: The Theory of Constraints Six Sigma Design of Experiments The Quality Loss Function  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 31.1 7. How many treatments would be required for a DOE with 5 factors where a full factorial design is chosen: 64 32 16 8 4 𝑭𝒖𝒍𝒍 𝐹𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑜𝑟𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝐷𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑔𝑛 ∶ 𝑁𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑇𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑡𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑠 = 𝐿𝑒𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑠 𝐹𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑜𝑟𝑠 = 25 = 32 8. Fill in the blank: A ________________ is a statistical method that allows you to study and quantify the relationship between the inputs and outputs of a process or product. Pareto Chart Design of Experiments Control Chart Flow Diagram Scatter Diagram 9. Which of the following activities are considered a Preventative Cost? Testing Prototypes Calibrating Equipment Performing a Process Audit Root Cause Analysis for Internal Scrap 10. Let’s say you’re currently conducting a 1st party audit, which of the following statements are false: The Client can never be the Auditee – (False) The Auditor can be an employee from the area under Audit – (False) The Audit can be an ISO Registration Audit – (False) The Audit can be a Quality Management System Audit –(True) The following statements are false: The Client can never be the Auditee – In 1st Party Audits, the Client and Auditee can be the same person. The Auditor can be an employee from the area under Audit – ISO 19011 specifies that internal auditors must be independent and bias free, this requirement is generally interpreted to mean that the auditor cannot be an employee from the area under audit. The Audit can be an ISO Registration Audit – Registration Audits are never 1st party audits.  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 31.1 11. Who is responsible for authoring the final Audit Report? The Lead Auditor The Auditee The Client The Auditor The lead auditor is responsible for authoring the Audit Report. 12. In the Quality Documentation Hierarchy, which document type defines the responsibilities of the various processes: The Quality Manual The Quality Policy Quality Procedures Work Instructions Quality Procedures normally define the responsibilities of the various processes within the Quality System. 13. Identify the elements below that can impact the precision of the measurement system: Linearity Stability Repeatability Reproducibility 14. The Stability of a measurement system can be defined as: The ability of a gauge to maintain its accuracy across the entire range of possible measurements. The variation in the accuracy of a measurement system over time. The variation that can be attributed to the measurement gauge itself. The overall variation in the measurement system including the variation caused by different operators.  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 31.2 QUESTIONS: 1. Which of the following statements are true regarding PERT & CPM Charts: PERT & CPM are both considered Activity Network Diagrams Only CPM charts includes the Critical Path for a project The milestone on an CPM chart is the completion of an Activity CPM is activity oriented, while PERT is event oriented 2. Select all of the following statements regarding the Quality management System that are false: The scope of the CAPA system should exclude issues associated with the effectiveness of your Quality Management System A Quality Audit can be utilized to gauge the effectiveness of the Quality Management System Once the QMS has been created and cascaded to the functional level, the involvement of Top Management is complete Quality Initiatives should be focused solely on financial metrics as a reflection of business performance 3. Which of the following tools can be utilized by management to track their organizations progress towards the implementation of its Quality Initiatives: A Quality Scorecard Steering Committees A PERT Chart All of the above 4. CPM in CPM Chart stands for: Counts per Million Communication Planning Manager Cost per Minute Critical Path Method Central Project Manager  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 31.2 5. An effective Quality Information System is helpful in which of the following ways: It facilitates in-depth data analysis for on-going monitoring of the Quality management system It supports the storage & retention requirements associated with key documents & information It supports the Stakeholder Identification & Analysis process It ensures that data utilized in the decision-making process is accurate 6. Which QMS Document summarizes your organizations intentions & views with respect to the importance of quality as it relates to the organization’s customers, employees and the business objectives. The Quality Policy The Quality Objectives The Quality Scorecard The Quality Plan 7. As a business, you must leverage your core strengths to drive growth while improving on your weaknesses to ensure that you’re fully taking advantage of your opportunities and addressing any potential threats to the business. This fact is the foundation of which QMS deployment tool: Benchmarking SWOT Analysis CPM Stakeholder Analysis 8. Which of the following Guru’s contributed heavily to the development of Statistical Process Control: Joseph Juran W. Edwards Deming Philip B. Crosby Walter A. Shewhart  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 31.2 9. Joseph Juran promoted which of the following definitions of Quality: Quality is Conformance to Requirements Quality through design robustness Quality as Fitness for Use Quality through Statistical Process Control 10. The ANOVA Analysis associated with a DOE assumes your data follows which probability distribution: The Normal Distribution The Exponential Distribution The Poisson Distribution The Binomial Distribution 11. Designing and executing a control chart would fall into which Quality Cost Category: Preventative Cost Appraisal Cost Internal Failure Cost External Failure Cost 12. Which of the following Audits can be described as a “Customer Focused” Audit: 3rd Party Audits Compliance Audits 1st Party Audits Product Audits 13. Select each of the Audits below that are performed by an external, independent party: 1st Party Audits 2nd Party Audits 3rd Party Audits Quality Management System Audits Registration Audits  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 31.2 14. The linearity of a measurement system can be defined as: The ability of a gauge to maintain its accuracy across the entire range of possible measurements. The variation in the accuracy of a measurement system over time. The variation that can be attributed to the measurement gauge itself. The overall variation in the measurement system including the variation caused by different operators. 15. Fill in the blank: When dealing with Measurement Systems, ______________ is defined as the degree of agreement between an observed (or measured) value and the true (or accepted) value. Accuracy Precision Measurement Error Calibration  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 31.2 SOLUTIONS: 1. Which of the following statements are true regarding PERT & CPM Charts: PERT & CPM are both considered Activity Network Diagrams. (True) Only CPM charts includes the Critical Path for a project - This is false, even PERT charts include the duration associated with each event allowing the reader to determine the critical path for a project. The milestone on an CPM chart is the completion of an Activity. (True) CPM is activity oriented, while PERT is event oriented. (True) 2. Select all of the following statements regarding the Quality management System that are false: The scope of the CAPA system should exclude (include) issues associated with the effectiveness of your Quality Management System. (False) A Quality Audit can be utilized to gauge the effectiveness of the Quality Management System. (True) Once the QMS has been created and cascaded to the functional level, the involvement of Top Management is complete – false, Top Management should be involved throughout the implementation and execution of the QMS Quality Initiatives should be focused solely on financial metrics as a reflection of business performance – false, Quality Initiatives should focus on other metrics such as customer service, customer experience, continuous improvement, etc 3. Which of the following tools can be utilized by management to track their organizations progress towards the implementation of its Quality Initiatives: A Quality Scorecard Steering Committees A PERT Chart All of the above Steering Committees can be utilized to report progress up to management on a regular basis to ensure all milestones are being hit. Management may also utilize a Quality Scorecard to track progress towards a goal. For very large projects, a PERT chart can also be utilized to communication and track a team’s progress towards a goal.  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 31.2 4. CPM in CPM Chart stands for: Counts per Million Communication Planning Manager Cost per Minute Critical Path Method Central Project Manager CPM stands for Critical Path Method 5. An effective Quality Information System is helpful in which of the following ways: It facilitates in-depth data analysis for on-going monitoring of the Quality management system. (True) It supports the storage & retention requirements associated with key documents & information. (True) It supports the Stakeholder Identification & Analysis process. (False) It ensures that data utilized in the decision-making process is accurate. (True) Quality through Statistical Process Control = Walter Shewhart 6. Which QMS Document summarizes your organizations intentions & views with respect to the importance of quality as it relates to the organization’s customers, employees and the business objectives. The Quality Policy The Quality Objectives The Quality Scorecard The Quality Plan The Quality Policy, which is required in ISO 9001, should summarize your organizations intentions & views with respect to the importance of Quality. All subsequent documents in the Quality Management System (objectives, plans, scorecards, etc) should align with the goals & intentions outlined in the Quality Policy.  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 31.2 7. As a business, you must leverage your core strengths to drive growth while improving on your weaknesses to ensure that you’re fully taking advantage of your opportunities and addressing any potential threats to the business. This fact is the foundation of which QMS deployment tool: Benchmarking SWOT Analysis CPM Stakeholder Analysis SWOT stands for Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities & Threats. The SWOT Analysis is meant to uncover those 4 key areas of your business and ensure that they’re considered and included in your Quality Plan. 8. Which of the following Guru’s contributed heavily to the development of Statistical Process Control: Joseph Juran W. Edwards Deming Philip B. Crosby Walter A. Shewhart Deming & Shewhart worked together at Bell Laboratories where the Control Chart was first introduces. Juran and Crosby both understood the value of Statistical process control, however neither specialized in its development or expansion. 9. Joseph Juran promoted which of the following definitions of Quality: Quality is Conformance to Requirements Quality through design robustness Quality as Fitness for Use Quality through Statistical Process Control Joseph Juran defined quality as Fitness for Use. Quality is Conformance to Requirements = Philip Crosby Quality through design robustness = Kaoru Ishikawa  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 31.2 10. The ANOVA Analysis associated with a DOE assumes your data follows which probability distribution: The Normal Distribution The Exponential Distribution The Poisson Distribution The Binomial Distribution 11. Designing and executing a control chart would fall into which Quality Cost Category: Preventative Cost Appraisal Cost Internal Failure Cost External Failure Cost 12. Which of the following Audits can be described as a “Customer Focused” Audit: 3rd Party Audits Compliance Audits 1st Party Audits Product Audits The Product Audit is meant to verify Form/Fit & Function from the customers perspective, and are also meant to verify Fitness for Use by the customer. Therefore, they are considered a “customer focused audit”. 13. Select each of the Audits below that are performed by an external, independent party: 1st Party Audits 2nd Party Audits 3rd Party Audits Quality Management System Audits Registration Audits 14. The linearity of a measurement system can be defined as: The ability of a gauge to maintain its accuracy across the entire range of possible measurements. The variation in the accuracy of a measurement system over time. The variation that can be attributed to the measurement gauge itself. The overall variation in the measurement system including the variation caused by different operators.  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 31.2 15. Fill in the blank: When dealing with Measurement Systems, ______________ is defined as the degree of agreement between an observed (or measured) value and the true (or accepted) value. Accuracy Precision Measurement Error Calibration  CQE ACADEMY PRACTICE EXAM 31.3 QUESTIONS: 1. The purpose of the cost-benefit analysis could be best described as: A tool to communicate responsibilities in a project across the various project team members A tool to define the specific tasks associated with a project in order complete that project on time A tool to compare potential projects against each other, to determine priorities and organizational focus A tool to analyze the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats associated with your organization 2. As a project manager on a complex project, you want to ensure that the roles and responsibilities for each project deliverable have been clearly established and communicated to all of the members on the team? Activity Network Diagram Work-Breakdown Structure Agile Project Management RACI Matrix 3. When performing a cost-benefit analysis, identify the elements below that should not be considered when evaluating the cost associated with a project: Organizational resources required Employee involvement required Financial resources required The benefits of the project to the organization 4. Which role in the RACI matrix can only be assigned to a single team member for each deliverable Responsible Accountable Consulted Informed 5. When performing a cost-benefit analysis, identify the elements below that should not be considered when evaluating the benefits associated with a project: Brand reputation improvements Enhancements to product quality Organizational resources required Improved profit margins  CQE ACADEMY PRACTICE EXAM 31.3 6. What does RACI Stand for? Required – Accountable – Consulted - Informed Responsible – Assigned – Consulted - Informed Responsible – Accountable – Capable – Informed Responsible – Accountable – Consulted – Informed 7. You’re on a project selection committee to determine which project should be selected that will have the biggest impact on the organization. You’re considering the following 4 projects that have been categories by Impact and Effort, which project should be the top priority for a major investment: Project A – Low Impact, High Effort Project B – Low Impact, Low Effort Project C – High Impact, Low Effort Project D – High Impact, High Effort 8. Which role designation in the RACI matrix is associated with a stakeholder who has a vested interest in the project and with whom frequent communication is required to keep them up to speed on the projects progress and decision making: Responsible Accountable Consulted Informed 9. You’re on a project selection committee to determine which project should be selected that will have the biggest impact on the organization. You’ve analyzed 4 projects. Which project should not be considered for execution? Project A – Low Impact, High Effort Project B – Low Impact, Low Effort Project C – High Impact, Low Effort Project D – High Impact, High Effort 10. You are working to define the roles and responsibilities for an upcoming project, to ensure that all team members understand what deliverables they will be expected to accomplish throughout the project. What term in the RACI matrix is intended to communicate that a team member is expected to work on a specific deliverable? Responsible Accountable Consulted Informed  CQE ACADEMY PRACTICE EXAM 31.3 11. You’re on a project selection committee to determine which project should be selected for the organizations focus. Based on your organization’s available resources, you want to focus and prioritize incremental wins as opposed to big improvements, which area of the cost-benefit analysis matrix should you focus on? Low Impact, High Effort Low Impact, Low Effort High Impact, Low Effort High Impact, High Effort 12. You are a quality engineer who is assigned to a specific project to launch a new product. It is important and required that your feedback be captured on multiple key deliverables throughout the project. What designation should you be given on the RACI Matrix for those deliverables to ensure that your feedback is captured and considered: Responsible Accountable Consulted Informed 13. You are creating strategic priorities for your organization, and after a brainstorming session, and SWOT analysis, you now have a long list of possible projects that you can pursue. What tool could help you prioritize that list of projects to ensure that you’re focused on the project that has the most return on your investment? Cost-Benefit Analysis RACI Matrix DMAIC SMART Goals 14. You are created a RACI matrix for an upcoming project, and you want to clarify the specific team member who is ultimately liable for each deliverable, and thus will have to face any negative consequences if that deliverable is not met on time and on budget: Responsible Accountable Consulted Informed 15. What is the purpose and benefit of creating a RACI Matrix? To define all of the specific activities associated with a project To ensure risk are properly identified, analyzed and mitigated in a project To ensure that all project team members understand their roles and responsibilities for each project deliverable To ensure that all project team members can clearly communicate the benefits of the project  CQE ACADEMY PRACTICE EXAM 31.3 SOLUTIONS: 1. The purpose of the cost-benefit analysis could be best described as: A tool to communicate responsibilities in a project across the various project team members A tool to define the specific tasks associated with a project in order complete that project on time A tool to compare potential projects against each other, to determine priorities and organizational focus A tool to analyze the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats associated with your organization 2. As a project manager on a complex project, you want to ensure that the roles and responsibilities for each project deliverable have been clearly established and communicated to all of the members on the team? Activity Network Diagram Work-Breakdown Structure Agile Project Management RACI Matrix 3. When performing a cost-benefit analysis, identify the elements below that should not be considered when evaluating the cost associated with a project: Organizational resources required Employee involvement required Financial resources required The benefits of the project to the organization 4. Which role in the RACI matrix can only be assigned to a single team member for each deliverable Responsible Accountable Consulted Informed 5. When performing a cost-benefit analysis, identify the elements below that should not be considered when evaluating the benefits associated with a project: Brand reputation improvements Enhancements to product quality Organizational resources required Improved profit margins  CQE ACADEMY PRACTICE EXAM 31.3 6. What does RACI Stand for? Required – Accountable – Consulted - Informed Responsible – Assigned – Consulted - Informed Responsible – Accountable – Capable – Informed Responsible – Accountable – Consulted – Informed 7. You’re on a project selection committee to determine which project should be selected that will have the biggest impact on the organization. You’re considering the following 4 projects that have been categories by Impact and Effort, which project should be the top priority for a major investment: Project A – Low Impact, High Effort Project B – Low Impact, Low Effort Project C – High Impact, Low Effort Project D – High Impact, High Effort Project C should be selected as the top priority because it delivers both high impact, and low effort. If a second project could be selected for investment, Project D (High / High) would be the second choice. 8. Which role designation in the RACI matrix is associated with a stakeholder who has a vested interest in the project and with whom frequent communication is required to keep them up to speed on the projects progress and decision making: Responsible Accountable Consulted Informed 9. You’re on a project selection committee to determine which project should be selected that will have the biggest impact on the organization. You’ve analyzed 4 projects. Which project should not be considered for execution? Project A – Low Impact, High Effort Project B – Low Impact, Low Effort Project C – High Impact, Low Effort Project D – High Impact, High Effort A project that requires high effort, but only has a low impact should not be pursued. 10. You are working to define the roles and responsibilities for an upcoming project, to ensure that all team members understand what deliverables they will be expected to accomplish throughout the project. What term in the RACI matrix is intended to communicate that a team member is expected to work on a specific deliverable? Responsible Accountable Consulted Informed  CQE ACADEMY PRACTICE EXAM 31.3 11. You’re on a project selection committee to determine which project should be selected for the organizations focus. Based on your organization’s available resources, you want to focus and prioritize incremental wins as opposed to big improvements, which area of the cost-benefit analysis matrix should you focus on? Low Impact, High Effort Low Impact, Low Effort High Impact, Low Effort High Impact, High Effort Projects that are low impact and low effort can be described as incremental wins, and would be the best area of the cost benefit matrix to focus. 12. You are a quality engineer who is assigned to a specific project to launch a new product. It is important and required that your feedback be captured on multiple key deliverables throughout the project. What designation should you be given on the RACI Matrix for those deliverables to ensure that your feedback is captured and considered: Responsible Accountable Consulted Informed 13. You are creating strategic priorities for your organization, and after a brainstorming session, and SWOT analysis, you now have a long list of possible projects that you can pursue. What tool could help you prioritize that list of projects to ensure that you’re focused on the project that has the most return on your investment? Cost-Benefit Analysis RACI Matrix DMAIC SMART Goals 14. You are created a RACI matrix for an upcoming project, and you want to clarify the specific team member who is ultimately liable for each deliverable, and thus will have to face any negative consequences if that deliverable is not met on time and on budget: Responsible Accountable Consulted Informed 15. What is the purpose and benefit of creating a RACI Matrix? To define all of the specific activities associated with a project To ensure risk are properly identified, analyzed and mitigated in a project To ensure that all project team members understand their roles and responsibilities for each project deliverable To ensure that all project team members can clearly communicate the benefits of the project  CQE ACADEMY PRACTICE EXAM 33.1 QUESTIONS: 1. Which QMS Document summarizes your organizations intentions & views with respect to the importance of quality as it relates to the organization’s customers, employees and the business objectives. The Quality Policy The Quality Objectives The Quality Scorecard The Quality Plan 2. Which of the following is not true regarding Benchmarking? Benchmarking can help an organization uncover and implement best practices. Benchmarking can be utilized to align prices with a competitor in order to improve profitability. Benchmarking can also reveal potential improvements or new methods to improve their effectiveness. Benchmarking can be performed for both internal or external processes. 3. Which of the following statements are NOT one of Deming’s’ 14 points: Break Down Department Barriers (Silos) Increase Quality Through Inspection Eliminate on The Job Training Create a Consistency of Purpose Promote Management by Objective & Daily Quotas 4. Which of the following concepts or topics did Genichi Taguchi directly contribute too: The Theory of Constraints Six Sigma Design of Experiments The Quality Loss Function 5. Jim in accounting is always complaining that his employees are lazy and have to constantly be reminded of their responsibilities. According to McGregor, which Theory of Management just Jim likely subscribe too: Theory X Theory Y Motivation Theory Hygiene Theory  CQE ACADEMY PRACTICE EXAM 33.1 6. Choose all of the Motivation Theories below that conclude, teach, or imply that intrinsic motivators are more highly correlated with long term motivation and performance than extrinsic motivators: McGregor's Theory Y Herzberg's Motivation Factors Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs The Hawthorne Experiments 7. According to Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs, which of the following statements are true: People are motivated by the highest, unfulfilled need. People can fully focus on higher level needs, without the fulfillment of lower level needs. Once a need has been met, people are no longer motivated by that need. Everyone eventually fulfills their need for self-actualization as life progresses. 8. Which of the following activities describe the role & focus of a successful leader: A leader must direct & command their team to success A leader motivates and encourages employees around them A leader must share their opinion about every detail on a project A leader must resolve conflict and negotiate compromises when necessary A leader must secure resources and aligned those resources with the organization’s priorities 9. According to Herzberg, which of the two factor that he identified made up an employee’s environment & which cannot actually increase job satisfaction when fully satisfied: Motivation Factors Hygiene Factors 10. You receive customer complaint data showing that your recently released product has an unidentified failure mode that may seriously injure your customer. What Code of Conduct Relationship should you look to for guidance on how to handle the situation? Relationship with Employers, Customer & Clients Relationship to the Public Relationship with Peers  CQE ACADEMY PRACTICE EXAM 33.1 11. As a Quality Engineer, you may routinely encounter confidential information, whether it be internal to your company, or your suppliers or even your customers. Respecting the confidentiality of this information is in agreement with which Tenet of the Code of Conduct? Article 1 Article 2 Article 4 Article 5 12. Which non-destructive test method would be to detect surface and sub-surface defects in a highly complex structure, where you’d also like to measure and capture the dimensional attributes of the internal features and defects? Magnetic Particle Testing Dye Penetrant Testing Radiographic Testing Ultrasonic Testing Eddy Current Testing 13. Steph. Curry shoots 3-pointers at a success rate of 42%. If he were to take 4 shots in a row, what is the likelihood that he makes all 4? 42% 100% - That Boy Never Misses! 12% 6% 3% 14. Which statistical tool should be used to determine if a linear relationship exists between two variables? ANOVA Chi-Squared Test T-Test Linear Regression SPC None of the above 15. Calculate Cp for the following Parameters: (USL = 1.35, LSL = 1.15, σ = 0.025) 0.67 1.0 1.33 1.66 2.0  CQE ACADEMY PRACTICE EXAM 33.1 SOLUTIONS: 1. Which QMS Document summarizes your organizations intentions & views with respect to the importance of quality as it relates to the organization’s customers, employees and the business objectives. The Quality Policy The Quality Objectives The Quality Scorecard The Quality Plan The Quality Policy, which is required in ISO 9001, should summarize your organizations intentions & views with respect to the importance of Quality. All subsequent documents in the Quality Management System (objectives, plans, scorecards, etc) should align with the goals & intentions outlined in the Quality Policy. 2. Which of the following is not true regarding Benchmarking? Benchmarking can help an organization uncover and implement best practices. (True) Benchmarking can be utilized to align prices with a competitor in order to improve profitability. (False) Benchmarking can also reveal potential improvements or new methods to improve their effectiveness. (True) Benchmarking can be performed for both internal or external processes. (True) Benchmarking CANNOT be used to simply align prices to maximize profitability – this is called price fixing, and it’s illegal. Benchmarking however can help an organization implement best practices, reveal potential improvements & it can also be performed for both internal or external processes. 3. Which of the following statements are NOT one of Deming’s’ 14 points: Break Down Department Barriers (Silos) Increase Quality Through Inspection Eliminate on The Job Training Create a Consistency of Purpose Promote Management by Objective & Daily Quotas  CQE ACADEMY PRACTICE EXAM 33.1 Deming did NOT promote these 3 concepts; in fact he was directly opposed to them: Increase Quality Through Inspection (Opposite of Point 3) Eliminate on The Job Training (Opposite of Point 6) Promote Management by Objective & Daily Quotas (Opposite of Point 11) These 2 points are taken directly from his 14 points: Create a Consistency of Purpose – Point 1 Break Down Department Barriers (Silos) – Point 9 4. Which of the following concepts or topics did Genichi Taguchi directly contribute too: The Theory of Constraints Six Sigma Design of Experiments The Quality Loss Function 5. Jim in accounting is always complaining that his employees are lazy and have to constantly be reminded of their responsibilities. According to McGregor, which Theory of Management just Jim likely subscribe too: Theory X Theory Y Motivation Theory Hygiene Theory McGregor’s Theory X, takes a negative view of human behavior. These people believe that employees are generally lazy and avoid responsibility. Theory X says that motivation should come through the threat of punishment or coercion. On the flip side of is Theory Y which takes the positive view of human behavior. Theory Y says that employees are generally motivated to work and seek out challenge and responsibility. 6. Choose all of the Motivation Theories below that conclude, teach, or imply that intrinsic motivators are more highly correlated with long term motivation and performance than extrinsic motivators: McGregor's Theory Y Herzberg's Motivation Factors Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs The Hawthorne Experiments  CQE ACADEMY PRACTICE EXAM 33.1 McGregor’s Theory Y says that employees are motivated by the intrinsic rewards like the feeling of accomplishment on a job well done. Herzberg’s Motivation Factors are those things that most affect job satisfaction – experimentation revealed that the strongest motivation factors include opportunities for recognition, personal growth, development & responsibility (Intrinsic motivators). The Hawthorne Experiments studied the effects of changing work conditions & social factors on productivity and quality. The experiment found that extrinsic motivators (money, bonuses) are generally less correlated with employee productivity & motivation. The one Motivational Theory that did not consider the difference between Extrinsic and Intrinsic motivation is Maslows Hierarchy of Needs. 7. According to Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs, which of the following statements are true: People are motivated by the highest, unfulfilled need. (True) People can fully focus on higher level needs, without the fulfillment of lower level needs. Once a need has been met, people are no longer motivated by that need. (True) Everyone eventually fulfills their need for self-actualization as life progresses. These two statements are false: People can fully focus on higher level needs, without the fulfillment of lower level needs. – Maslow’s theory says that you cannot fully focus on higher level needs without the fulfillment of lower level needs. You can focus on achieving the respect of your peers (#4 – Self Esteem) if you can’t breathe (#1 – physiological need) Everyone eventually fulfills their need for self-actualization as life progresses. – Unfortunately, not everyone achieves self-actualization (the highest need) in their lifespan.  CQE ACADEMY PRACTICE EXAM 33.1 8. Which of the following activities describe the role & focus of a successful leader: A leader must direct & command their team to success A leader motivates and encourages employees around them. (True) A leader must share their opinion about every detail on a project A leader must resolve conflict and negotiate compromises when necessary. (True) A leader must secure resources and aligned those resources with the organization’s priorities. (True) A leader must direct & command their team to success – The direct and command style of leadership is becoming less and less effective in today’s industry. Instead, Leaders should focus on empowering & facilitating teams, and being the role model for integrity and accountability. A leader must share their opinion about every detail on a project – similar to above, instead of focusing on sharing their opinion about every single detail of a project, leaders should focus on developing the skills of their associates to make them capable of handling the details of a project. Leaders need to empower team members, especially subject matter experts, to make decisions without the leader. 9. According to Herzberg, which of the two factor that he identified made up an employee’s environment & which cannot actually increase job satisfaction when fully satisfied: Motivation Factors Hygiene Factors According to Herzberg, Hygiene Factors are things like working conditions, compensation, company policies, relationships with co-workers and make up the environment that the employee works in and are only able to product job dissatisfaction if they are poorly managed. Only Motivation Factors can actually increase overall job satisfaction, not Hygiene factors. 10. You receive customer complaint data showing that your recently released product has an unidentified failure mode that may seriously injure your customer. What Code of Conduct Relationship should you look to for guidance on how to handle the situation? Relationship with Employers, Customer & Clients Relationship to the Public Relationship with Peers Relations with the Public & Article 1 indicates that you should “Hold Paramount the safety, health & welfare of the public in the performance of professional duties”.  CQE ACADEMY PRACTICE EXAM 33.1 11. As a Quality Engineer, you may routinely encounter confidential information, whether it be internal to your company, or your suppliers or even your customers. Respecting the confidentiality of this information is in agreement with which Tenet of the Code of Conduct? Article 1 Article 2 Article 4 Article 5 Article 5, within the Relationship with Customers & Clients says that CQE’s should Act as faithful agents or trustees. 12. Which non-destructive test method would be to detect surface and sub-surface defects in a highly complex structure, where you’d also like to measure and capture the dimensional attributes of the internal features and defects? Magnetic Particle Testing Dye Penetrant Testing Radiographic Testing Ultrasonic Testing Eddy Current Testing The advantage of radiographic testing is that it can detect both surface and internal defects. Radiographic testing can also create a photographic record of the inspected sample unit which can be analyzed for dimensional attributes along with internal or external defects. No other test method is capable of measuring and capturing dimensional attributes of internal features. 13. Steph Curry shoots 3-pointers at a success rate of 42%. If he were to take 4 shots in a row, what is the likelihood that he makes all 4? 42% 100% - That Boy Never Misses! 12% 6% 3% Ok, so the first thing that you must realize is that we're talking about discrete data not continuous data. The 3-pointer either goes in or it doesn't.  CQE ACADEMY PRACTICE EXAM 33.1 Then you must realize that this situation fits the 4 rules for the binomial distribution. The experiment consists of n independent, identical trials There are only 2 possible outcomes on each trial: P(Pass = shot made) or F(Fail = shot missed) The probability of P remains constant from trial to trial (42%) The binomial random variable X is the number of successes in n trials. So then we can use the binomial equation to solve this problem. 𝑛 𝑃(𝑋 = 𝑥) = ( ) 𝑝 𝑥 (1 − 𝑝)𝑛−𝑥 𝑥 Where n = 4 shots taken x = 4 shots made p = 42% Substituting these variables into the equation we get: 4 𝑃(𝑥 = 4) = ( ). 424 (1 −.42)4−4 4 4 4! 4! ( )= = =1 4 4! (4 − 4)! 4! ∗ 0! Therefore P(x = 4) = (1). 424 (. 58)0 = 0.0311 or 3.11% Thus, the probability of Curry making 4x 3-pointers in a row is 3.11%. 14. Which statistical tool should be used to determine if a linear relationship exists between two variables? ANOVA Chi-Squared Test T-Test Linear Regression SPC None of the above  CQE ACADEMY PRACTICE EXAM 33.1 15. Calculate Cp for the following Parameters: (USL = 1.35, LSL = 1.15, σ = 0.025) 0.67 1.0 1.33 1.66 2.0 𝑈𝑆𝐿 − 𝐿𝑆𝐿 1.35 − 1.15 0.20 𝐶𝑝 = = = = 1.33 6𝜎 6 ∗ 0.025 0.15  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 33.2 QUESTIONS: 1. Which of the following tools can be utilized by management to track their organizations progress towards the implementation of its Quality Initiatives: A Quality Scorecard Steering Committees A PERT Chart All of the above 2. CPM in CPM Chart stands for: Counts per Million Cost per Minute Critical Path Method Central Project Manager 3. Which of the following Guru’s contributed heavily to the development of Statistical Process Control: Joseph Juran W. Edwards Deming Philip B. Crosby Walter A. Shewhart 4. Which of the following areas is NOT part of Juran’s Quality Trilogy: Quality Assurance Quality Control Quality Improvement Quality Planning 5. Fill in the blank: ________________ is the degree to which a product or process is unaffected by the variation of a particular factor. Blocking Randomization Power Replication Robustness  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 33.2 6. Which of the following statements regarding team development is false? It is possible for teams to actually regress backwards in the team development cycle. Teams naturally develop through the 5 stages and cannot regress back into previous stages. 7. Which stage of team development is characterized by the following events: Team members becoming a cohesive unit Team members shifting their focus to team objectives Members become more open to consider other members point of view Forming Storming Norming Performing 8. Which stage of team development is characterized by the following issues: Team members feeling overwhelmed Selfish thinking amongst team members Competition instead of collaboration Forming Storming Norming Performing 9. Which of the following statements regarding teams is true? The management of teams is simple and can be described as a "One Size Fits All" method that can be executed the same way in every situation. There are many different types of teams, each with their own unique dynamics and each requiring a unique structure, skill set, management, support & resources. 10. Choose all of the Motivation Theories below that conclude, teach, or imply that intrinsic motivators are more highly correlated with long term motivation and performance than extrinsic motivators: McGregor's Theory Y Herzberg's Motivation Factors Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs The Hawthorne Experiments  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 33.2 11. Which of the following activities describe the role & focus of a successful leader: A leader must direct & command their team to success A leader motivates and encourages employees around them A leader must share their opinion about every detail on a project A leader must resolve conflict and negotiate compromises when necessary A leader must secure resources and aligned those resources with the organization’s priorities 12. Which one the principles below is NOT an ASQ Fundamental Principle: Being honest and impartial in serving the public, their employers, customers, and clients. Striving to increase the competence and prestige of the quality profession Utilizing their knowledge to ensure that product cost always achieves the companies desired profit margin. Using their knowledge and skill for the enhancement of human welfare. 13. Which of the situations represents a potential conflict of interest (Article 5 – Relationship with Employers, Customers & Clients): You used to own stock in a publicly traded company for which you're now auditing Your kids go to school with a co-worker who you're currently auditing You went to high school with the auditing manager of the internal department your auditing Your performing a supplier audit when you find out the suppliers Quality Manager is your Cousin 14. Identify the statement below that is correct for the following data set: 2, 4, 6, 6, 4, 2 Mean = 4, Median = 4 Mean = 6, Median = 4 Mean = 6, Median = 6 Mean = 4, Median = 6 15. You’re constructing an NP chart, where you’ve sampled from 25 subgroups, each with 100 samples, and found a total of 145 defective units. Calculate the UCL for this process. 5.8 7.0 12.8 14.5  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 33.2 SOLUTIONS: 1. Which of the following tools can be utilized by management to track their organizations progress towards the implementation of its Quality Initiatives: A Quality Scorecard Steering Committees A PERT Chart All of the above Steering Committees can be utilized to report progress up to management on a regular basis to ensure all milestones are being hit. Management may also utilize a Quality Scorecard to track progress towards a goal. For very large projects, a PERT chart can also be utilized to communication and track a team’s progress towards a goal. 2. CPM in CPM Chart stands for: Counts per Million Cost per Minute Critical Path Method Central Project Manager CPM stands for Critical Path Method 3. Which of the following Guru’s contributed heavily to the development of Statistical Process Control: Joseph Juran W. Edwards Deming Philip B. Crosby Walter A. Shewhart Deming & Shewhart worked together at Bell Laboratories where the Control Chart was first introduces. Juran and Crosby both understood the value of Statistical process control, however neither specialized in its development or expansion.  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 33.2 4. Which of the following areas is NOT part of Juran’s Quality Trilogy: Quality Assurance Quality Control Quality Improvement Quality Planning Juran’s Quality Trilogy includes: Quality Planning – A continuous method whereby Top Management is strategically planning for improved Quality. Quality Control – An on-going monitoring process to detect & correct any Quality issues. Quality Improvement – A drive for breakthrough results to resolve chronic issues. Juran’s Trilogy does not include Quality Assurance. 5. Fill in the blank: ________________ is the degree to which a product or process is unaffected by the variation of a particular factor. Blocking Randomization Power Replication Robustness 6. Which of the following statements regarding team development is false? It is possible for teams to actually regress backwards in the team development cycle. (True) Teams naturally develop through the 5 stages and cannot regress back into previous stages. (False) It is possible for teams to regress – this regression can be caused by changing team dynamics, changing objectives or changes in any underlying assumptions, etc.  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 33.2 7. Which stage of team development is characterized by the following events: Team members becoming a cohesive unit Team members shifting their focus to team objectives Members become more open to consider other members point of view Forming Storming Norming Performing These issues are characteristic of the Norming stage of team development where members begin to develop the norms of the group and focus on the team objective rather than their selfish objectives. Members become more open and willing to discuss and consider other members point of view. Group cohesion begins to emerge and the team develops norms for things like conflict resolution, decision making, assignment execution, etc. Constructive criticism & positive feedback begins to occur as teams begin accepting the team and its purpose and moving towards the goal. Productivity increases in this stage. 8. Which stage of team development is characterized by the following issues: Team members feeling overwhelmed Selfish thinking amongst team members Competition instead of collaboration Forming Storming Norming Performing These issues are characteristic of the Storming stage of team development where team members may begin to feel overwhelmed by the teams new goals and may cling to their own opinions and try to steer the project in a selfish direction. This phase often results in conflict and resistance to group tasks. 9. Which of the following statements regarding teams is true? The management of teams is simple and can be described as a "One Size Fits All" method that can be executed the same way in every situation. (False) There are many different types of teams, each with their own unique dynamics and each requiring a unique structure, skill set, management, support & resources. (True)  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 33.2 10. Choose all of the Motivation Theories below that conclude, teach, or imply that intrinsic motivators are more highly correlated with long term motivation and performance than extrinsic motivators: McGregor's Theory Y Herzberg's Motivation Factors Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs The Hawthorne Experiments McGregor’s Theory Y says that employees are motivated by the intrinsic rewards like the feeling of accomplishment on a job well done. Herzberg’s Motivation Factors are those things that most affect job satisfaction – experimentation revealed that the strongest motivation factors include opportunities for recognition, personal growth, development & responsibility (Intrinsic motivators). The Hawthorne Experiments studied the effects of changing work conditions & social factors on productivity and quality. The experiment found that extrinsic motivators (money, bonuses) are generally less correlated with employee productivity & motivation. The one Motivational Theory that did not consider the difference between Extrinsic and Intrinsic motivation is Maslows Hierarchy of Needs. 11. Which of the following activities describe the role & focus of a successful leader: A leader must direct & command their team to success A leader motivates and encourages employees around them A leader must share their opinion about every detail on a project A leader must resolve conflict and negotiate compromises when necessary A leader must secure resources and aligned those resources with the organization’s priorities A leader must direct & command their team to success – The direct and command style of leadership is becoming less and less effective in today’s industry. Instead, Leaders should focus on empowering & facilitating teams, and being the role model for integrity and accountability. A leader must share their opinion about every detail on a project – similar to above, instead of focusing on sharing their opinion about every single detail of a project, leaders should focus on developing the skills of their associates to make them capable of handling the details of a project. Leaders need to empower team members, especially subject matter experts, to make decisions without the leader.  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 33.2 12. Which one the principles below is NOT an ASQ Fundamental Principle: Being honest and impartial in serving the public, their employers, customers, and clients. Striving to increase the competence and prestige of the quality profession Utilizing their knowledge to ensure that product cost always achieves the companies desired profit margin. Using their knowledge and skill for the enhancement of human welfare. ASQ Defines the following 3 Principles as being Fundamental: Being honest and impartial in serving the public, their employers, customers, and clients. Striving to increase the competence and prestige of the quality profession, and Using their knowledge and skill for the enhancement of human welfare. Utilizing your knowledge to ensure that product cost always achieves the companies desired profit margin is not a fundamental principle of ASQ. 13. Which of the situations represents a potential conflict of interest (Article 5 – Relationship with Employers, Customers & Clients): You used to own stock in a publicly traded company for which you're now auditing Your kids go to school with a co-worker who you're currently auditing You went to high school with the auditing manager of the internal department your auditing Your performing a supplier audit when you find out the suppliers Quality Manager is your Cousin Being related to the individual who is primarily responsible for the organization that you’re auditing could be perceived as a conflict of interest. 14. Identify the statement below that is correct for the following data set: 2, 4, 6, 6, 4, 2 ∑𝒙 𝟐+𝟒+𝟔+𝟔+𝟒+𝟐 ̅= 𝑺𝒂𝒎𝒑𝒍𝒆 𝑴𝒆𝒂𝒏: 𝑿 = =𝟒 𝒏 𝟔 Median: 2, 2, 4, 4, 6, 6,The middle value (Median) is 4. Mean = 4, Median = 4 Mean = 6, Median = 4 Mean = 6, Median = 6 Mean = 4, Median = 6  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 33.2 15. You’re constructing an NP chart, where you’ve sampled from 25 subgroups, each with 100 samples, and found a total of 145 defective units. Calculate the UCL for this process. 5.8 7.0 12.8 14.5 The upper control limit of an NP Chart is calculated using the following equation: 𝑈𝐶𝐿𝑛𝑝 = 𝑛𝑝̅ + 3√𝑛𝑝̅ (1 − 𝑝̅ ) To execute this equation, we need to know the following variables: 𝑝̅ = % 𝐷𝑒𝑓𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑒 ∑ 𝑛𝑝 𝑛𝑝̅ 𝐶𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑙𝑖𝑛𝑒 = 𝑘 Let’s use our information from the problem statement to calculate these variables: ∑ 𝑛𝑝 𝑆𝑢𝑚 𝑜𝑓 𝐴𝑙𝑙 𝐷𝑒𝑓𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑠 145 𝑝̅ = = = = 0.058 ∑𝑛 𝑆𝑢𝑚 𝑜𝑓 𝑆𝑢𝑏𝑔𝑟𝑜𝑢𝑝 𝑄𝑢𝑎𝑛𝑡𝑖𝑡𝑦 2500 ∑ 𝑛𝑝 𝑆𝑢𝑚 𝑜𝑓 𝐴𝑙𝑙 𝐷𝑒𝑓𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑠 145 𝑛𝑝̅ 𝐶𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑙𝑖𝑛𝑒 = = = = 5.8 𝑘 # 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑢𝑏𝑔𝑟𝑜𝑢𝑝𝑠 25 Now we can plug these variables back into the equation for the upper control limit: 𝑈𝐶𝐿𝑛𝑝 = 𝑛𝑝̅ + 3√𝑛𝑝̅ (1 − 𝑝̅ ) 𝑈𝐶𝐿𝑛𝑝 = 5.8 + 3√5.8(1 − 0.058) = 5.8 + 7.0 = 12.8jmn 𝑼𝑪𝑳𝒏𝒑 = 𝟓. 𝟖 + 𝟕. 𝟎 = 𝟏𝟐. 𝟖  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 34.1 QUESTIONS: 1. Select all of the following statements about facilitation that are true: A facilitator is directly responsible for the success of the team A facilitator guides the team towards success, but is ultimately not responsible for the success of the team. A Facilitator's focus is on the end product. A Facilitator's focus is on the process utilized to achieve the end product. 2. A good facilitator should possess the following skills: Encourage equal participation from the project team and a judgement free atmosphere on the team. Similarly, a facilitator should bring a neutral perspective to the group and support discussions of potentially sensitive topics These skills are especially important when using which Facilitation tool: Brainstorming NGT Force Field Analysis Conflict Resolution 3. Select all of the attributes below of a good facilitator: A Facilitator is a good decision maker A Facilitator encourages active listening and participation A Facilitator should instruct their team on what to do next A Facility understands team dynamics and models good behavior A Facilitator works to understands both sides in a conflict and then chooses the side that makes the most sense. 4. Which Relationship Below is not outlined by ASQ as critical to its Code of Ethics? Relationship with the Public Relationship with Self Relationship with Peers Relationship with Employers, Customers & Clients  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 34.1 5. Which stage of team development is characterized by the following events: Team members becoming a cohesive unit Team members shifting their focus to team objectives Members become more open to consider other members point of view Forming Storming Norming Performing Adjourning 6. Which of the following statements regarding teams is true? The management of teams is simple and can be described as a "One Size Fits All" method that can be executed the same way in every situation. There are many different types of teams, each with their own unique dynamics and each requiring a unique structure, skill set, management, support & resources. 7. A team of engineers is working to improve a process to reduce the variation over time. What tool can be used to measure the variation over time to determine if specific changes have been effective in reducing variation? Histogram Scatter Plot Control Chart Pareto Chart 8. A team of engineers suspects that there is a relationship between the length of a production run and the number of errors during the run. Which tool can be used to assess this relationship: Pareto Chart Histogram Scatter Diagram Cause & Effect Diagram  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 34.1 9. Which tools below can be combined with the Cause & Effect Diagram to make it more effective: 5 Why Analysis Scatter Plots Brainstorming Check Sheet 10. Fill in the blank: A _______________ facilitates brainstorming and organization of facts into themes of common characteristics. Interrelationship Digraph Check Sheet Affinity Diagram Prioritization Matrix 11. Fill in the blank: A _______________ is a tool to define the relationship between the factors associated with a complex system. Matrix Diagram Prioritization Matrix Interrelationship Digraph Tree Diagram 12. You’re leading a team of engineers have been tasked to increase the capacity of a process. You’ve measured the cycle time of each step in the process to identify the bottleneck. You’ve attempted to use kaizen activities to increase the output of the bottleneck, and now you’re considering adding equipment to increase output. Which continuous improvement technique is being used? Kaizen Kaizen Blitz Theory of Constraints PDCA Six Sigma  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 34.1 13. Fill in the blank: __________________is defined as the on-going efforts within an organization to improve the quality and value of its products, processes or services. Quality Assurance Process Validation Quality Control Continuous Improvement Risk Management 14. Fill in the blank: _______________is defined as any activity that consumes resources but creates no value for the customer. Muda Muri Mura 5S Kanban VSM Takt 15. Which form of waste occurs when production assets go idle due to poor flow or other issues within the value stream? Motion Inventory Waiting Extra-processing Defects Non-Utilized Talent  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 34.1 SOLUTIONS: 1. Select all of the following statements about facilitation that are true: A facilitator is directly responsible for the success of the team. (False) A facilitator guides the team towards success, but is ultimately not responsible for the success of the team. (True) A Facilitator's focus is on the end product. (False) A Facilitator's focus is on the process utilized to achieve the end product. (True) A Facilitators goal is to guide a team towards success. However, ultimately the facilitator is not responsible for the success of the team, the team is. A Facilitator’s focus should not be the end product. Their focus should be on the processes that the team utilizes to create the end product. 2. A good facilitator should possess the following skills: Encourage equal participation from the project team and a judgement free atmosphere on the team. Similarly, a facilitator should bring a neutral perspective to the group and support discussions of potentially sensitive topics These skills are especially important when using which Facilitation tool: Brainstorming NGT Force Field Analysis Conflict Resolution These 4 characteristics of a good facilitator are very important when utilizing the Brainstorming technique. 3. Select all of the attributes below of a good facilitator: A Facilitator is a good decision maker – while a facilitator may be a good decision maker, they are not responsible for decision making and must actively work to ensure that the team is making all decisions. A Facilitator encourages active listening and participation A Facilitator should instruct their team on what to do next – while a facilitator should have the experience to direct the team, they should instead focus on guiding and coaching the team to the correct decision themselves. A Facility understands team dynamics and models good behavior A Facilitator works to understands both sides in a conflict and then chooses the side that makes the most sense. – A facilitator should never take sides during conflict.  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 34.1 4. Which Relationship Below is not outlined by ASQ as critical to its Code of Ethics? Relationship with the Public Relationship with Self Relationship with Peers Relationship with Employers, Customers & Clients ASQ Defines 3 different Relationships as critical: Your Relations with the Public Your Relations with Employers, Customers & Clients Your Relationship with Peers ASQ does not include the “Relationship with Self” within the code of ethics. 5. Which stage of team development is characterized by the following events: Team members becoming a cohesive unit Team members shifting their focus to team objectives Members become more open to consider other members point of view Forming Storming Norming Performing Adjourning These issues are characteristic of the Norming stage of team development where members begin to develop the norms of the group and focus on the team objective rather than their selfish objectives. Members become more open and willing to discuss and consider other members point of view. Group cohesion begins to emerge and the team develops norms for things like conflict resolution, decision making, assignment execution, etc. Constructive criticism & positive feedback begins to occur as teams begin accepting the team and its purpose and moving towards the goal. Productivity increases in this stage. 6. Which of the following statements regarding teams is true? The management of teams is simple and can be described as a "One Size Fits All" method that can be executed the same way in every situation. (False) There are many different types of teams, each with their own unique dynamics and each requiring a unique structure, skill set, management, support & resources. (True)  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 34.1 7. A team of engineers is working to improve a process to reduce the variation over time. What tool can be used to measure the variation over time to determine if specific changes have been effective in reducing variation: Histogram Scatter Plot Control Chart Pareto Chart 8. A team of engineers suspects that there is a relationship between the length of a production run and the number of errors during the run. Which tool can be used to assess this relationship: Pareto Chart Histogram Scatter Diagram Cause & Effect Diagram 9. Which tools below can be combined with the Cause & Effect Diagram to make it more effective: 5 Why Analysis Scatter Plots Brainstorming Check Sheet 10. Fill in the blank: A _______________ facilitates brainstorming and organization of facts into themes of common characteristics. Interrelationship Digraph Check Sheet Affinity Diagram Prioritization Matrix 11. Fill in the blank: A _______________ is a tool to define the relationship between the factors associated with a complex system. Matrix Diagram Prioritization Matrix Interrelationship Digraph Tree Diagram  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 34.1 12. You’re leading a team of engineers have been tasked to increase the capacity of a process. You’ve measured the cycle time of each step in the process to identify the bottleneck. You’ve attempted to use kaizen activities to increase the output of the bottleneck, and now you’re considering adding equipment to increase output. Which continuous improvement technique is being used? Kaizen Kaizen Blitz Theory of Constraints PDCA Six Sigma The Theory of Constraints, or ToC, is based on the assumption that every process has a constraint that limits it from achieving its goal. 13. Fill in the blank: __________________is defined as the on-going efforts within an organization to improve the quality and value of its products, processes or services. Quality Assurance Process Validation Quality Control Continuous Improvement Risk Management 14. Fill in the blank: _______________is defined as any activity that consumes resources but creates no value for the customer. Muda Muri Mura 5S Kanban VSM Takt 15. Which form of waste occurs when production assets go idle due to poor flow or other issues within the value stream? Motion Inventory Waiting Extra-processing Defects Non-Utilized Talent CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 34.1  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 34.2 QUESTIONS: 1. You’re group just completed a Force Field Analysis of our on-going project, what are your next steps: Kill the project if the restraining forces are higher than the driving forces. Do nothing. Create an action plan to increase the driving forces & decrease the restraining forces Communicate the results of the analysis to the projects Steering Committee for review & support 2. Which of the Facilitation tools allow the team to analyze the driving forces behind a project and compare them to the restraining forces: NGT Brainstorming Conflict Resolution Force Field Analysis 3. The idea selection process where each team member gets multiples votes until many ideas are narrowed down to one is called: Multivoting NGT Brainstorming Force Field Analysis 4. Select all of the following statements about facilitation that are true: A facilitator is directly responsible for the success of the team A facilitator guides the team towards success, but is ultimately not responsible for the success of the team. A Facilitator's focus is on the end product. A Facilitator's focus is on the process utilized to achieve the end product. 5. Which Facilitation Technique is useful in determining what project or idea should be prioritized or pursued: NGT Brainstorming Force Field Analysis Conflict Resolution  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 34.2 6. Which of the following statements is false regarding conflict resolution? Conflict can be minimized by focusing on emotions instead of facts and data in the decision- making process. Conflict occurs when mutually exclusive view or opinions are being discussed. Conflict can lead to a healthy outcome that improves team performance. Preventing conflict is one of the best solutions to conflict resolution 7. Jim in accounting is always complaining that his employees are lazy and have to constantly be reminded of their responsibilities. According to McGregor, which Theory of Management just Jim likely subscribe too: Theory X Theory Y Motivation Theory Hygiene Theory 8. Which of the following statements regarding team development is false? It is possible for teams to actually regress backwards in the team development cycle. Teams naturally develop through the 5 stages and cannot regress back into previous stages. 9. A team of engineers at a machine shop has identified the most frequently occurring defect in shop and wants to brainstorm the potential causes. Which tool can use used to facilitate the brainstorming session for this failure mode? Pareto Chart Check Sheet Prioritization Matrix Cause & Effect Diagram 10. A team of engineers is varying a process parameter and measuring a critical output to determine if the two are potentially related. Which tool can be used to assess this relationship: Pareto Chart Interrelationship Digraphs Scatter Diagram Control Charts  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 34.2 11. Fill in the blank: A _______________ is a project planning too that facilitates the proactive identification of potential problems along with contingencies and countermeasures. Tree Diagram Activity Network Diagram Interrelationship Digraph Process Decision Program Chart 12. Fill in the blank: A _______________ is a Project Planning and Management tool that defines the sequential tasks requires to complete a complex project, including the critical path. Process Decision Program Chart Tree Diagram Activity Network Diagram Interrelationship Digraph 13. A team is working to improve a process, and they’ve iterated through the improvement cycle a number of times. On this recent cycle through the process, they’ve planned an experiment, executed that experiment, and now they’re studying the results of the recent experiment. Which improvement technique is being described here? Kaizen PDCA Kaizen Blitz Theory of Constraints Six Sigma 14. You’ve been asked to solve a quality problem. You’re currently performing analysis on a large set of data collected on the process to identify the root cause. What phase of the PDCA cycle are you in? P D C A 15. You’re observing a production line and you notice a separate area where material get re- processed when they don’t pass a visual inspection. What is the primary form of waste occurring here? Defects Motion Inventory Extra-Processing  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 34.2 SOLUTIONS: 1. You’re group just completed a Force Field Analysis of our on-going project, what are your next steps: Kill the project if the restraining forces are higher than the driving forces. Do nothing. Create an action plan to increase the driving forces & decrease the restraining forces Communicate the results of the analysis to the projects Steering Committee for review & support Kill the project if the restraining forces are higher than the driving forces – False, the importance of a project is often independent of the driving/restraining forces and should be the determining factor if the project continues. Do nothing – False, this is the worst option and makes your Force Field Analysis a waste of time. Create an action plan to increase the driving forces & decrease the restraining forces – True! Now that you recognize all the forces acting on a project, you can plan to increase the drive forces and reduce the restraining forces. Communicate the results of the analysis to the projects Steering Committee for review & support – True! One of the of the responsibilities of a Steering Committee is to remove any hurdles or barriers to success. By communicating the results to top management, you may be able to immediately change the forces acting on a project. 2. Which of the Facilitation tools allow the team to analyze the driving forces behind a project and compare them to the restraining forces: NGT Brainstorming Conflict Resolution Force Field Analysis The Force Field Analysis allows the team to analyze the driving forces behind a project and compare them to the restraining forces.  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 34.2 3. The idea selection process where each team member gets multiples votes until many ideas are narrowed down to one is called: Multivoting NGT Brainstorming Force Field Analysis Multivoting is a technique similar to NGT in that it helps groups narrow a large list of potential solutions down to only the critical few. With NGT, each team member ranks each idea. With Multivoting, each team member gets to cast a limited number of votes on the ideas they like the best. 4. Select all of the following statements about facilitation that are true: A facilitator is directly responsible for the success of the team. (False) A facilitator guides the team towards success, but is ultimately not responsible for the success of the team. (True) A Facilitator's focus is on the end product. (False) A Facilitator's focus is on the process utilized to achieve the end product. (True) A Facilitators goal is to guide a team towards success. However, ultimately the facilitator is not responsible for the success of the team, the team is. A Facilitator’s focus should not be the end product. Their focus should be on the processes that the team utilizes to create the end product. 5. Which Facilitation Technique is useful in determining what project or idea should be prioritized or pursued: NGT Brainstorming Force Field Analysis Conflict Resolution Nominal Group Technique, or NGT, is a technique that can be utilized to determine what projects or ideas should be prioritized.  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 34.2 6. Which of the following statements is false regarding conflict resolution? Conflict can be minimized by focusing on emotions instead of facts and data in the decision-making process. – false, focusing on facts and data, instead of emotions, can minimize conflict Conflict occurs when mutually exclusive view or opinions are being discussed. (True) Conflict can lead to a healthy outcome that improves team performance. (True) Preventing conflict is one of the best solutions to conflict resolution. (True) 7. Jim in accounting is always complaining that his employees are lazy and have to constantly be reminded of their responsibilities. According to McGregor, which Theory of Management just Jim likely subscribe too: Theory X Theory Y Motivation Theory Hygiene Theory McGregor’s Theory X, takes a negative view of human behavior. These people believe that employees are generally lazy and avoid responsibility. Theory X says that motivation should come through the threat of punishment or coercion. On the flip side of is Theory Y which takes the positive view of human behavior. Theory Y says that employees are generally motivated to work and seek out challenge and responsibility. 8. Which of the following statements regarding team development is false? It is possible for teams to actually regress backwards in the team development cycle. (True) Teams naturally develop through the 5 stages and cannot regress back into previous stages. (False) It is possible for teams to regress – this regression can be caused by changing team dynamics, changing objectives or changes in any underlying assumptions, etc. 9. A team of engineers at a machine shop has identified the most frequently occurring defect in shop and wants to brainstorm the potential causes. Which tool can use used to facilitate the brainstorming session for this failure mode? Pareto Chart Check Sheet Prioritization Matrix Cause & Effect Diagram  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 34.2 10. A team of engineers is varying a process parameter and measuring a critical output to determine if the two are potentially related. Which tool can be used to assess this relationship: Pareto Chart Interrelationship Digraphs Scatter Diagram Control Charts 11. Fill in the blank: A _______________ is a project planning too that facilitates the proactive identification of potential problems along with contingencies and countermeasures. Tree Diagram Activity Network Diagram Interrelationship Digraph Process Decision Program Chart 12. Fill in the blank: A _______________ is a Project Planning and Management tool that defines the sequential tasks requires to complete a complex project, including the critical path. Process Decision Program Chart Tree Diagram Activity Network Diagram Interrelationship Digraph 13. A team is working to improve a process, and they’ve iterated through the improvement cycle a number of times. On this recent cycle through the process, they’ve planned an experiment, executed that experiment, and now they’re studying the results of the recent experiment. Which improvement technique is being described here? Kaizen PDCA Kaizen Blitz Theory of Constraints Six Sigma The PDCA Cycle is characterized by its iterative nature, and the PLAN - DO - CHECK activities being described here.  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 34.2 14. You’ve been asked to solve a quality problem. You’re currently performing analysis on a large set of data collected on the process to identify the root cause. What phase of the PDCA cycle are you in? P D C A The Check (C) phase of the PDCA cycle includes analyzing data to identify the root cause of a problem. 15. You’re observing a production line and you notice a separate area where material get re- processed when they don’t pass a visual inspection. What is the primary form of waste occurring here? Defects Motion Inventory Extra-Processing  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 34.2 QUESTIONS: 1. Non-Verbal Communication makes up what percentage of your total communication to other: 7% 55% 71% 93% 38% 2. The Quote below by Stephen Covey in the 7 Habits of Highly Effective People below stresses the importance of which Communication Skill: “Seek First to Understand, then to be Understood” Rhetoric (Influential Speaking) Tone & Body Language (Non-Verbal Communication) Feedback as a Communication Tool Active Listening 3. The following bad habits are major obstacles to which communication skill: Interrupting, being easily distracted, assuming you know what the speaker is going to say, or planning your next statement Persuasive Speaking (Rhetoric) Using Questions Effectively Active Listening Giving Negative Feedback 4. Select all of the communication skills below where Eye Contact & Posture are both essential elements: Ethos (Rhetoric) Pathos (Rhetoric) Active Listening Non-Verbal Communication  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 34.2 5. Identify the dimension of Rhetoric below that matches this description: Commonly known as the credibility of you, the speaker. This is a reflection of how much you are respected and trusted. This dimension includes your perceived level of competence, sociability and composure. Ethos Pathos Logos 6. Identify the dimension of Rhetoric below that matches this description: Denotes the emotional connection that you make as the speaker. Emotions are powerful and can drive others to action. As such, to be an effective speaker you must use emotions to create a connection between your message & your audience. Ethos Pathos Logos 7. Identify the dimension of Rhetoric below that matches this description: Known as the logic of your message. To be an effective speaker you must be capable of using facts, data, evidence and reason in order to pursued and communicate a message. Ethos Pathos Logos 8. There are 3 Directions of Communication, Horizontal, Upward and Downward. The following example falls into which direction of communication: A cross-functional design for six sigma (DFSS) team is holding a weekly status meeting amongst all the team members to discuss their progress amongst each other. Horizontal Communication Upward Communication Downward Communication  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 34.2 9. There are 3 Directions of Communication, Horizontal, Upward and Downward. The following example falls into which direction of communication: A quarterly presentation to a management steering committee on a key project. Horizontal Communication Upward Communication Downward Communication 10. There are 3 Directions of Communication, Horizontal, Upward and Downward. The following example falls into which direction of communication: A Division Manager leading a teleconference with her direct reports to share the organizations vision with them & cascade their objectives to them. Horizontal Communication Upward Communication Downward Communication 11. Which of the Facilitation tools allow the team to analyze the driving forces behind a project and compare them to the restraining forces: NGT Brainstorming Conflict Resolution Force Field Analysis 12. Which Facilitation Technique is useful in determining what project or idea should be prioritized or pursued: NGT Brainstorming Force Field Analysis Conflict Resolution  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 34.2 13. A good facilitator should possess the following skills: Encourage equal participation from the project team and a judgement free atmosphere on the team. Similarly, a facilitator should bring a neutral perspective to the group and support discussions of potentially sensitive topics These skills are especially important when using which Facilitation tool: Brainstorming NGT Force Field Analysis Conflict Resolution 14. Which stage of team development is characterized by the following issues: Team members feeling overwhelmed Selfish thinking amongst team members Competition instead of collaboration Forming Storming Norming Performing Adjourning 15. According to Herzberg, which of the two factor that he identified made up an employee’s environment & which cannot actually increase job satisfaction when fully satisfied: Motivation Factors Hygiene Factors  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 34.2 SOLUTIONS: 1. Non-Verbal Communication makes up what percentage of your total communication to other: 7% 55% 71% 93% 38% Non-verbal communication is a combination of your tone and your body language. Tone makes up 38% of your communication, and Body Language makes up another 55%, making non-verbal communication 93% of your total communication.  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 34.2 2. The Quote below by Stephen Covey in the 7 Habits of Highly Effective People below stresses the importance of which Communication Skill: “Seek First to Understand, then to be Understood” Rhetoric (Influential Speaking) Tone & Body Language (Non-Verbal Communication) Feedback as a Communication Tool Active Listening Active Listening is the intentional & focused effort a leader must make in order to understand the speaker. Active listening requires concentration, discipline and an open-minded. This must be made a priority before being understood. 3. The following bad habits are major obstacles to which communication skill: Interrupting, being easily distracted, assuming you know what the speaker is going to say, or planning your next statement Persuasive Speaking (Rhetoric) Using Questions Effectively Active Listening Giving Negative Feedback 4. Select all of the communication skills below where Eye Contact & Posture are both essential elements: Ethos (Rhetoric) Pathos (Rhetoric) Active Listening Non-Verbal Communication Active Listening & Non-Verbal Communication both require the intentional usage of eye contact & posture. When Actively Listening, proper eye contact and posture indicate to the speaker that you’re engaged and interested in what they are saying. The same is true for your non-verbal communication in similar situations. While eye contact should be maintained when speaking persuasively (Rhetoric or Ethos & Pathos), it is not an essential element.  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 34.2 5. Identify the dimension of Rhetoric below that matches this description: Commonly known as the credibility of you, the speaker. This is a reflection of how much you are respected and trusted. This dimension includes your perceived level of competence, sociability and composure. Ethos Pathos Logos 6. Identify the dimension of Rhetoric below that matches this description: Denotes the emotional connection that you make as the speaker. Emotions are powerful and can drive others to action. As such, to be an effective speaker you must use emotions to create a connection between your message & your audience. Ethos Pathos Logos 7. Identify the dimension of Rhetoric below that matches this description: Known as the logic of your message. To be an effective speaker you must be capable of using facts, data, evidence and reason in order to pursued and communicate a message. Ethos Pathos Logos 8. There are 3 Directions of Communication, Horizontal, Upward and Downward. The following example falls into which direction of communication: A cross-functional design for six sigma (DFSS) team is holding a weekly status meeting amongst all the team members to discuss their progress amongst each other. Horizontal Communication Upward Communication Downward Communication Horizontal Communication is the act of communicating horizontally across the company lines, neither up to managers, or down to employees. A weekly status meeting of cross-functional team members is an example of horizontal communication.  CQE ACADEMY PRATICE EXAM 34.2 9. There are 3 Directions of Communication, Horizontal, Upward and Downward. The following example falls into which direction of communication: A quarterly presentation to a management steering committee on a key project is an example of upward communication. Horizontal Communication Upward Communication Downward Communication Upward Communication is the act of communicating information upward from the functional managers up to the senior managers. A quarterly presentation to a management steering committee on a key project is an example of upward communication. 10. There are 3 Directions of Communication, Horizontal,