NAV Questions 2024-2025 PDF

A radio wave is: a. an energy wave comprising an electrical field in the same plane as a magnetic field b. an electrical field alternating with a magnetic field c. an energy wave where there is an electrical field perpendicular to a magnetic field d. an energy field with an electrica...

A radio wave is: a. an energy wave comprising an electrical field in the same plane as a magnetic field b. an electrical field alternating with a magnetic field c. an energy wave where there is an electrical field perpendicular to a magnetic field d. an energy field with an electrical component The speed of radio waves is: a. 300 km per second b. 300 million meters per second c. 162 nm per second d. 162 million nm per second The plane of polarization of an electromagnetic wave is a. the plane of the magnetic field b. the plane of the electrical field c. the plane of the electrical or magnetic field dependent on the plane of the aerial d. d\) none of the above If the wavelength of a radio wave is 3.75 meters, the frequency is: a. 80 kHz b. 8 MHz c. 80 MHz d. 800 kHz The wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 125 MHz is: a. 2,4 m b. 24 m c. 24 cm d. 24 mm The frequency which corresponds to a wavelength of 6 98 cm is: a. 4298 GHz b. 4.298 GHz c. 429.8 GHz d. 42.98 GHz The frequency band containing the frequency corresponding to 29.1 cm is: a. HF b. VHF c. SHF d. UHF To carry out a phase comparison between two electromagnetic waves: a. both waves must have the same amplitude b. both waves must have the same frequency c. both waves must have the same amplitude and frequency d. both waves must have the same phase The phase of the reference wave is 110° as the phase of the variable wave is 315°. What is the phase difference? a. 205° b. 025° c. 155° d. 335° The process which causes the reduction in signal strength as range from a transmitter increases is known as: a. absorption b. diffraction c. attenuation d. ionization Which of the following will give the greatest surface wave range? a. 243 MHz b. 13\. 500 kHz c. 2182 kHz d. 15 MHz It is intended to increase the range of a VHF transmitter from 50 nm to 100 nm. This will be achieved by increasing the power output by a factor of: a. 2 b. 8 c. 16 d. 4 A 300 kHz transmitter has an output of 1600 watts, the effective range over the sea will be: a\) 52 nm b. 80 nm c. 35 nm d. 120 nm The maximum range an aircraft at 2500 ft can communicate with a. VHF station at 196 ft is: a\) 80 nm b. 64 nm c. 52 nm d. 65 nm What is the minimum height for an aircraft at a range of 200 nm to be detected by a radar at 1600 ft amsl? a. 25,500 ft b. 15,000 ft c. 40,000 ft d. 57,500 ft Determine which of the following statements concerning atmospheric ionization are correct. 1. The highest levels of ionization will be experienced in low latitudes. 2. Ionization levels increase linearly with increasing altitude. 3. The lowest levels of ionization occur about midnight. 4. The E-layer is higher by night than by day because the ionization levels are lower at night. a. statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct b. statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct c. statements 2 and 4 are correct d. statements 1 and 4 are correct The average height of the E-layer is \_\_\_\_ and the maximum range for skywave will be \_\_\_\_ a\) 60 km, 1350 nm b. 125 km, 2200 km c. 225 km, 2200 km d. 125 km, 1350 nm Concerning HF communications, which of the following is correct? a. The frequency required in low latitudes is less than the frequency required in high latitudes. b. At night a higher frequency is required than by day. c. The frequency required is dependent on time of day but not the season. d. The frequency required for short ranges will be less than the frequency required for long ranges. The bandwidth produced when a radio frequency (RF) of 4716 kHz is amplitude modulated with an audio frequency (AF) of 6 kHz is: a. 6 kHz b. 3 kHz c. 12 kHz d. 9 kHz Which of the following statements concerning AM is correct? a. the amplitude of the RF is modified by the frequency of the AF b. the amplitude of the RF is modified by the amplitude of the AF c. the frequency of the RF is modified by the frequency of the AF d. the frequency of the RF is modified by the amplitude of the AF Which of the following is an advantage of single sideband (SSB) emissions? a. More frequencies available b. Reduced power requirement c. Better signal/noise ratio d. All of the above Which of the following statements concerning FM is correct? a. the amplitude of the RF is modified by the frequency of the AF b. the amplitude of the RF is modified by the amplitude of the AF c. the frequency of the RF is modified by the frequency of the AF d. the frequency of the RF is modified by the amplitude of the AF The ideal length for a Marconi aerial for a frequency of 406 MHz is: a. 36.9 cm b. 35.1 cm c. 17.5 cm d. 18.5 cm A disadvantage of directivity is: a. reduced range b. sidelobes c. phase distortion d. ambiguity Which of the following is **not** an advantage of a slotted antenna (phase array)? a. reduced sidelobes b. improved resolution c. reduced power d. directivity The ideal length of a half wave dipole for a frequency of 75 MHz is: a. 1.9 m b. 95 cm c. 3.8 m d. 47.5 cm An aircraft has to communicate with a VHF station at a range of 300 run, if the ground station is situated-2500\' \'amisl which of the following is the lowest altitude at which contact is like to be made? a. 190\" b. 1,378' c. 36,100\' d. 84,100\' Class \'B' VHF DF bearings are accurate to within a. \+ - 1\" b. \+ - 5° c. \+ - 2\" d. \+ - 10° A VDF \'QDM. given without an accuracy classification may be assumed to be accurate to within: a) 2 degrees b. 5 degrees c. 7.5 degrees d. 10 degrees An aircraft at altitude 9,000 feet wishes to communicate with a VHF/BF station that is situated at 400 feet amsl. What is the maximum range at which contact is likely to be made ? a. 115nm b. 400nm c. 143nm d. 63.5mm An aircraft is passed a true bearing from a VDF station of 353°. If variation is 8°E. and the bearing is classified as 'B' then the: a. QDM is 345° +- 5° b. QDR is 345° +- 2° c. QTE is 353° +- 5° d. QUJ is 353° +- 2° An aircraft at 19,000ft wishes to communicate with a VDF\' station at 1,400ft amsl. What is the maximum range at which contact is likely ? a. 175nm b. 400.0nm c. 62.5mm d. 219nm The phenomenon of coastal refraction which affects the accuracy of ADF bearings: a. is most marked at night. b. can be minimized by using beacons situated well inland. c. can be minimized by taking bearings where the signal crosses the coastline at right angles. d. is most marked one hour before to one hour after sunrise and sunset. An aircraft is intending to track from NDB \'A\' to NDB \'B' on a track of 050° (T), heading 060° (T). If the RBI shows the relative bearing of \'A\' to be 180° and the relative bearing of \'B\' to be 330° then the aircraft is: a. Port of track and nearer 'A\'. b. Port of track and nearer 'B'. c. Starboard of track and nearer \'A\'. d. Starboard of track and nearer \'B'. ADF Quadrantal Error is caused by: a. static build up on the airframe and St. Elmo\'s Fire. b. the aircraft\'s major electrical axis, the fuselage, reflecting and re-radiating the incoming NDB transmissions. c. station interference and/or night effect. d. NDB signals speeding up and bending as they cross from a land to water propagation path. The magnitude of the error in position lines derived from ADF bearings that are affected by coastal refraction maybe reduced by: a. selecting beacons situated well inland. b. only using beacons within the designated operational coverage. c. choosing NON A2A beacons. d. choosing beacons on or near the coast. An aircraft is tracking away from an NDB on a track of 023°(T). If the drift is 8° port and variation 10° west, which of the RMIs illustrated below shows the correct indications? D An aircraft has an RMI with two needles both are switched to NDB receivers. Assume that: - The aircraft is **inbound to** NDB Y on a track of 126°(M) drift is 14° Port. - A position report is required when crossing a QDR of 022 from NDB Z. Which of the diagrams below represents the RMI at the time of crossing the reporting point? A  The principal propagation path employed in an NDB/ADF system is: a. skywave b. surface wave c. direct wave d. ducted wave Assuming the maximum likely error in VOR to be 5.5°, what is the maximum distance apart that beacons can be situated on the center line of a an airway in order that an aircraft can guarantee remaining within the airway boundary? a. 54.5 nm b. 109 nm c. 66 nm d. 132 nm An aircraft is tracking away from a VOR on the 052 radial with 12° starboard drift. An NDB lies to the east of the VOR. Which of the RMIs illustrated below shows the aircraft when it is obtaining a relative bearing of 100° from the NDB? D What is the theoretical maximum range that an aircraft at flight level 360 will obtain from a VOR beacon situated at 900 feet above mean sea level? a. 274 nm b. 255 nm c. 112 nm d. 224 nm A conventional VOR: a. has an FM reference signal and an AM variable signal b. has a 150Hz reference signal and a 90Hz variable signal c. has an AM reference signal and a 150 Hz variable signal d. has an AM reference signal and an FM variable signal. The OBS is set to 330° and gives a demand 3 dots to fly right with FROM indication. What is the QDM of the aircraft to the station? a. 144 b. 324 c. 336 d. 156 An aircraft is homing towards a VOR which marks the center line of an airway. The beacon is 100 runs distant. If the pilot had the airway QDM set on the OBS what deflection of the deviation indicator would be given if the aircraft was on the boundary of the airway? Assume that one dot equals 2 degrees. a. 3 dots b. 2 dots c. 2.5 dots d. 1.5 dots What is the theoretical maximum range that an aircraft at flight level 420 will obtain from a VOR beacon situated at 400 feet above mean sea level? a. 225 nm b. 256 nm c. 281 nm d. 257 nm Concerning conventional and Doppler VORs (DVOR), which of the following is correct? a. There is no way of knowing from the instrumentation display which type is being used. b. The DVOR will always have a \"D\" in the ident. c. The DVOR has a higher pitch ident than the standard VOR. d. The conventional VOR has less site error. In a Doppler VOR (DVOR) the reference signal is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ bearing signal is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and the direction of rotation of the bearing signal is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ a. AM, FM, anticlockwise. b. AM, FM, clockwise. c. FM, AM, anticlockwise. d. FM, AM clockwise. An aircraft is attempting to home to a VOR on the 064 radial. The CDI shows 4 dots fly right with a TO indication. At the same time the collocated DME shows a range of 45 nm. Where is the aircraft in relation to the required track? a. 6 nm right of track b. 3 nm right of track c. 6 nm left of track d. 3 nm left of track. At some countries a VOR beacon can ceases to transmit its normal identification which is substituted by \'TST. This means that: a. The beacon may be used providing that extreme caution is used. b. The beacon is undergoing maintenance or calibration and should not be used. c. This is a temporary short range transmission and will have approximately half its normal range. d. The beacon is under test and pilots using it should report its accuracy to air traffic control. What is the approximate maximum range that an aircraft flying at 25000' would expect to obtain from a VOR beacon situated 900\' above mean sea level? a. 220nm b. 100nm c. 235nm d. 198nm An aircraft is on the airway boundary range 100 nm from a VOR marking the airway center line. Assuming that each dot equates to 2° how many dots deviation will be shown on the deviation indicator? a. 3.0 dots b. 2.5 dots c. 2.0 dots d. 1.5 dots An aircraft is required to intercept and home to a VOR along the 064 Radial. The OBS should be set to: a. 064 to get correct needle sense and a TO indication. b. 244 to get correct needle sense and a T0 indication. c. 064 to get correct needle sense and :1 FROM indication d. 244 to get correct needle sense and a FROM indication An aircraft is tracking away from a VOR on the 150 radial with 10° starboard drift. An NDB lies to the South of the VOR. Which of the RMIs illustrated below shows the aircraft when it is obtaining a relative bearing of 100° from the NDB? A  Assuming the maximum likely error in VOR to be 5°, what is the maximum distance apart that beacons can be situated on the center line of a UK airway in order that an aircraft can guarantee remaining within the airway boundary? a. 6011111 b. 100nm c. 120nm d. 150nm Aa aircraft, heading 150°, is 100 nm north of a VOR, the pilot intends to home to the VOR on the 030 radial. The pilot should set \_\_\_\_ on the OBS and on reaching the 030 radial should turn \_\_\_\_ onto a heading of \_\_\_\_ assuming zero wind. a. 210 left 030 b. 030 right 210 c. 210 right 210 d. 150 left 210 The type of emission radiated by a VOR beacon is: a. A double channel VHF carrier with one channel being amplitude modulated, and the second channel being frequency modulated. b. A single channel VHF carrier wave amplitude modulated at 30 Hz with a sub carrier being frequency modulated at 30 Hz. c. A VHF carrier wave with a 90 Hz frequency modulation and a 150 Hz amplitude modulation. d. A VHF pulse modulated emission with a pulse repetition frequency of 30 pps. An aircraft wishes to track towards a VCR along the 274 radial. If variation is 10° W what should be set on the OBS? a. 274 b. 264 c. 094 d. 084 An aircraft is tracking away from a VCR on a heading of 287°M with 14" starboard drift. If the variation is 6°W what is the phase difference between the reference and variable phase components of the VOR transmission? a. 121° b. 295° c. 301° d. 315° What is the theoretical maximum range that a pilot would obtain from a VCR situated 900 feet above mean sea level in an aircraft flying at 18,000 feet? a. 168nm b. 188nm c. 205nm d. 250nm An aircraft is attempting to home to a VOR beacon. The pilot has set 329 on the OBS of the deviation indicator. If the aircraft is situated on the 152 radial then the deviation indicator will show: a. one and a half dots fly right. b. one and a half dots fly left c. three dots fly right. d. three clots fly left. A VOR receiver in an aircraft measures the phase difference from a DVOR as 220°. Which radial is the aircraft on? a. 140 b. 040 c. 320 d. 220 The RMI indicates the aircraft magnetic heading. To convert the RMI bearings of NDBs and VORs to true bearings, the correct combination for the application of magnetic variation is: a. NDB beacon position, VOR aircraft position b. NDB beacon position, VOR beacon position c. NDB aircraft position, VOR beacon position d. NDB aircraft position, VOR aircraft position Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications from both are shown on the RMI illustrated. Use the information to answer the following: The information given on the RMI indicates: a. that the aircraft is heading 033°(M), is on the 310° radial from the VOR, and bears 050°(M) from the NDB. b. that the aircraft is heading 330°(M), is on the 310° radial from the VOR, and bears 050° from the NDB. c. that the aircraft is heading 330°(M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 050°(M) from the NDB. d. that the aircraft is heading 330°(M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230°(M) from the NDB. The VOR in an aircraft is correctly tuned and set to define the center line of an airway which you intend to fly. The indication received on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator is shown below. At the same time the DME gave a range of 90nm from the facility. At the time of the observation, the aircraft's radial and distance from the airway center-line were: **Write down offset calculation:** a. 062 radial 9 nm b. 074 radial 6 nm c. 242 radial 6 nm d. 254 radial 9 nm An aircraft is tracking away from VOR \"A\" on the 310° radial with 8° starboard drift; NDB \"X\" is North of \"A\". Which diagram below illustrates the RMI when the aircraft is on its present track with a QDR from \"X\" of 270°?  The VOR indications on an RMI whose deviation is not zero: a. are magnetic. b. are compass. c. are relative. d. must have deviation applied before being used. An aircraft bearing from a VOR station is 175°(M). If the aircraft OBS is set to 002 and its heading is 359°(M) which diagram below represents the aircraft VOR/ILS deviation indicator? (1 dot = 2°) A The coverage of an ILS localizer extends to \_\_\_\_ either side of the on course line out to \_\_\_\_ a range of nm. a. 10°, 35 b. 35°, 10 c. 35°, 17 d. 25°, 25 The upper and lower limits of an ILS glide path transmitter having a 3.5° glide slope are: a\) 6.125° - 1575° b. 7.700° - 1.225° c. 5.250° - 1.350° d. 3.850° - 3.150° The minimum angle at which a false glide path is likely to be encountered on a 3°glidepath is: a\) 6 degrees b. 5.35 degrees c. normal glide slope times 1.75 d. normal glide slope times 0.70 An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving stronger 150 Hz than 90 Hz signals on both LOC and GS channels. The correct actions to be taken to place the aircraft on the centerline and on the glidepath are to fly: a. DOWN and LEFT b. UP and LEFT c. UP and RIGHT d. DOWN and RIGHT In elevation the upper and lower limits of an ILS glide path transmitter having a 3.0 degree glide slope are: a. 0.35° 0.70° b. 3.000° at least 6° c. 5.25° 1.35° d. 10.0° 35.0° Which of these ILS indicators shows an aircraft on final approach left of the center line and at maximum safe deviation below the glide path ? D An aircraft tracking to intercept the ILS localizer inbound on the approach side but outside the published coverage angle: a. will receive false on-course or reverse sense signals. b. will not normally receive signals. c. will receive signals without coding. d. can expect signals to give correct indications. The specified maximum safe FLY UP indication on a 5 dot CDI is: a. half full scale needle deflection above the center line b. 2.5 dots fly up. c. just before full scale deflection. d. 1.3 dots fly up. An aircraft is attempting to use an ILS approach outside the coverage sectors of an ICAO standard system: a. From the glideslope needle the pilot may be receiving false course and reverse sense indications and from the localizer needle intermittent and incorrect indications. b. The aircraft's receiver is not detecting any transmissions and the ILS needle OFF flags are visible. c. From the localizer needle the pilot may be receiving false course and intermittent indications and from the glideslope needle reverse sense and incorrect indications. d. From the localizer needle the captain may be receiving false course and reverse sense indications and from the glideslope needle intermittent and incorrect indications. The factor which determines the maximum range of a radar is: a. pulse repetition rate b. pulse width c. power d. beamwidth The main advantage of continuous wave radars is: a. No maximum range limitation b. Better range resolution c. No minimum range limitation d. Better range resolution If the PRF of a primary radar is 500 pulses per second, the maximum range will be: a) 324 nm b. 300 nm c. 162 nm d. 600nm To double the range of a primary radar would require the power to be increased by a factor of: a) 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 16 The time between the transmission of a pulse and the reception of the echo from a target is 1720 microseconds. What is the range of the target? a. 139 km b. 258 km c. 278 km d. 516 km A radar is required to have a maximum range of 100 nm. What is the maximum PRF that will achieve this? a. 1620 pulses per second (pps) b. 1234 pps c. 617 pps d. 810 pps If the PRI of a radar is 2100 microseconds, the maximum range of the radar is: a) 170 nm b. 315 nm c. 340 nm d. 630 nm To improve the resolution of a radar display requires: a. a narrow pulse width and a narrow beam width b. a high frequency and a large reflector c. a wide beamwidth and a wide pulse width d. a low frequency and a narrow pulse width An advantage of a phased array slotted antenna. is: a. better resolution b. less power required c. reduced sidelobes and clutter d. all of the above An echo is received from a target 900 microseconds after the pulse was transmitted. The range to the target is: a. 73 nm b. 270 nm c. 135 nm d. 146 mn The factor which limits the minimum detection range of a radar is: a. pulse repetition interval b. transmitter power c. pulse width d. pulse repetition frequency A frequency used by airborne weather radar is: a. 8800 MHz b. 9.375 GHz c. 93.75 GHz d. 1213 MHz An airborne weather radar is required to detect targets up to a maximum range of 200 nm.Ignoring pulse length and flyback in the CRT calculate the maximum PRR. a. 405 pps b. 810 pps c. 1500 pps d. 750 pps Using airborne weather radar the weather beam should be used in preference to the fan shaped beam for mapping in excess of nm: a. 20 to 25 b. 60 to 70 c. 100 to 150 d. 150 to 200 Airborne Weather Radar is an example of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ radar operating on a frequency of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ band. a. primary 8800 MHz SHF b. secondary 9.375 MHz UHF c. secondary 9375 MHz SHF d. primary 9375 MHz SHF A prominent island is identified on the 30° right bearing line and the 10 nm range marker of an airborne weather radar. If the heading is 045° (T) and the aircraft is at F1360 what range and bearing should be plotted in order to obtain a fix? a. 10nm 030° (T) b. 10nm 075° (T) c. 8nm 075° (T) d. 8nm 255° (T) The correct sequence of colors of a color Airborne Weather Radar as returns get stronger is: a) red yellow green b. yellow green red c. green yellow red. d. red green yellow. A false indication of water may be given by the AWR display when: a. flying over land with the Land/Sea switch in the Sea position. b. flying over mountainous terrain. c. there is cloud and precipitation between the aircraft and a cloud target. d. attempting to use the mapping beam for mapping in excess of 50 nm. An aircraft heading 017° (T) has a small island showing on the AWR at 45nm range on the 60° left azimuth line. To obtain a fix from this information you should plot: a. range 45nm and QTE 060 from the center of the island b. range 45nm and QTE 240 from the center of the island c. range 45nm and QTE 317 from the center of the island d. range 45nm and QTE 137 from the center of the island An aircraft heading 137° (M) has a small island showing on the AWR at 45nm range on the 30°left azimuth line. Local variation is 12° W. To obtain a fix from this information you should a. range 45 nm and QTE 095 from the center of the island. b. range 45 nm and QTE 275 from the center of the island. c. range 45 nm and QTE 107 from the center of the island. d. range 45 nm and QTE 287 from the center of the island. Airborne weather radar operates on a frequency of: a. 8800 MHz because gives the best returns from all types of precipitation b. 13300 MHz because it gives possibility to detect hail c. 9375 MHz because it gives the best returns from rainfall associated with Cb d. 9.375 GHz because this frequency is best for detecting aircraft in flight. The mapping mode of Airborne Weather Radar utilizes: a. pencil/weather beam from 70 nm to 150 nm b. a cosecant/fan shaped beam which is effective to 150 nm. c. a pencil/weather beam with a maximum range of 70 nm. d. a cosecant/ fan shaped beam effective 50 nm to 70 nm. An Airborne Weather Radar system uses a frequency of around 9 GHZ because: a. it has a short wavelength so producing higher frequency returns. b. the short wavelength allows signals to be reflected from cloud water droplets of all Sizes. c. the wavelength is such that reflections are obtained only from the larger water droplets. d. the frequency penetrates clouds quite easily enabling good mapping of ground features in the mapping mode. The antenna of an Airborne Weather Radar is stabilized: a. in pitch, roll and yaw. b. in pitch and roll. c. in pitch and roll whether the stabilization is on or off. d. in pitch and roll but only when 0° tilt has been selected The center of a small island is identified at the intersection of the 60° left bearing line and 15nm range arc of an airborne weather radar. If the aircraft's heading and height are 035° (M) and 42,500ft what QTE and range should be plotted in order to obtain a fix from the island? (variation is 20°W) a. 175 15nm b. 135 15nm c. **135** 13mm d. 155 14nm The colors used to denote variations in rainfall rate on an Airborne Weather Radar screen are: \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ for very light or no returns, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ for light returns,\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ for medium returns and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ for strong returns. a. black, yellow, green, magenta. b. black, green, yellow, magenta c. grey, green, yellow, red. d. black, green, yellow, red. The radar in an aircraft at FL370 detects a cloud at 60 nm. The cloud disappears when the tilt is selected to 2° UP. If the beamwidth of the radar is 6° What altitude are the tops of the clouds at? a) 6,000 ft b. 31,000 ft c. 43,000 ft d. 49,000 ft The special SSR codes are as follows: emergency \_\_\_\_\_ , radio failure \_\_\_\_\_, IFR entering controlled airspace \_\_\_\_\_ unlawful interference with the conduct of the flight\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ a. 7700; 7600; 2000; 7500. b. 7700; 7600; 7500; 2000. c. 7600; 7500; 2000; 7700. d. 7500; 7600; 2000; 7700. Secondary Surveillance Radar is a form of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ radar with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ type emissions operating in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ band. \' a\) primary pulse SHF --------------- ------- ----- b\) primary pulse UHF c\) secondary FM SHF d\) secondary pulse UHF If the SSR transponder IDENT button is pressed a. it causes a momentary distinctive display to appear on the controller\'s screen b. an identification pulse is automatically and continuously transmitted for 20 seconds, 4.3μ sec before the last framing pulse. c. an identification pulse is automatically and continuously transmitted for 10 seconds, 4.35μ sec after the last framing pulse. d. an identification pulse is automatically and continuously transmitted for 20 seconds, 4.35μ sec after the last framing pulse. When using SSR the ground controller will ask the pilot to cancel mode C if there is a discrepancy of more than \_\_\_\_\_\_ feet between the altitude detected by the radar from the reply pulses and the altitude reported by the pilot read from an altitude with the subscale set to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. a. 100 ft Regional QNH b. 300 ft 1013 HPa c. 50 ft 1013 HPa d. 300 ft Regional QNH The SSR code should be set for inbound or crossing flight, where: no other \"squawk\" has been allocated is: a. 7500 b. 7600 c. 7700 d. 2000 Secondary radars require: a. a target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target will always be an aircraft. b. a target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target will always be ground based. c. a target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target may be either-an aircraft or a ground based transponder. d. a quiescent target. Airborne DME equipment is able to discriminate between pulses intended for itself and pulses intended for other aircraft because: a. aircraft transmit and receive on different frequencies. b. aircraft will only accept unique twin pulses. c. aircraft reject pulses not synchronized with its own random pulse recurrence rate. d. each aircraft has its own frequency allocation A DME beacon having a transmit frequency of 962 MHz would have a receive frequency of: a) 1030 MHz b. 902 MHz c. 1025 MHz d. 962\. MHz A VOR/DME share the same first two letters of their respective identifiers; the last identifying letter of the DME is a Z. This **could** means that: a. they are collocated b. they are more than 600m apart but serve the same location c. they are widely separated and do not serve the same location. d. they are a maximum distance of 30m apart. Distance Measuring Equipment is an example of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ radar operating on a frequency of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ band. a\) Primary 8800 MHz SHF --------------- ---------- ----- b\) secondary 1030 MHz UHF c\) secondary 962 MHz UHF d\) primary 9375 MHz SHF A DME transponder does not respond to pulses received from radars other than DME because: a. each aircraft transmits pulses at a random rate. b. DME transmits and receives on different frequencies. c. it will only accept the unique twin DME pulses. d. DME only responds to the strongest 100 interrogators. The range indicated by DME is considered to be accurate to within: a. 3% of range b. 1.25 % of range c. 0.5 nm d. +/-0.25 nm +/-1.25% of range A DME receiver is able to distinguish between replies to its own interrogations and replies to other aircraft because: a. DME is secondary radar and each aircraft transmits and receives on a different frequency. b. DME transponders reply to interrogations with twin pulses and the airborne equipment rejects all other pulses. c. Each aircraft transmits pulses at a random rate and will only accept synchronized replies. d. When DME is in the search mode it will only accept pulses giving the correct range. When a DME transponder becomes saturated: a. it reverts to standby b. it increases the number of pulse pairs to meet the demand. c. it increases the receiver threshold to remove weaker signals. d. it goes into a selective response mode of operation. An aircraft flying at FL250 wishes to interrogate a DME beacon situated 400ft amsl. What is the maximum range likely to be achieved? a. 210 nm b. 198 nm c. 175 nm d. 222 nm For a DME and a VOR to be said to be associated it is necessary for: a. the DME to transmit on the same VHF frequency as the VOR. b. the aerial separation not to exceed 100 feet in a TMA or 2000 feet outside a TMA. c. the aerial separation not to exceed 100 meters in a TMA or 2000m outside a TMA d. both beacons to have the same first two letters for their ident\' but the last letter of DME to be a \'Z\'. The transmission frequency of a DME beacon shifted by 63 MHz from the aircraft interrogator frequency to prevent: a. interference from other radars. b. the airborne receiver locking on to primary returns from its own transmissions. c) static interference. The accuracy associated with DME is: a. +/- 3% of range, or 0.5nm. whichever is greater b. +/- 1.25% of range c. +/- 3% of range d. +/-0.25 nm +/-1.25% of range For a VOR and a DME beacon to be said to be associated the aerial separation must not exceed \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in a terminal area and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ outside a terminal area. a. 100 m 2000 m b. 50 feet 200 feet c. 30m 600m d. 50 m 200 m DME is a \_\_\_\_\_\_ radar operating in the \_\_\_\_\_ band and uses \_\_\_\_in order to obtain range information. The correct words to complete the above statement are: a. primary SHF CW signals b. secondary UHF twin pulses c. secondary SHF "jittered pulses" d. primary UHF pulse pairs The receiver of airborne DME equipment is able to lock on to its own reply pulses because: a. each aircraft has its own unique transmitter frequency and the receiver only accepts reply pulses having this frequency. b. the reply pulses from the ground transmitter have the same frequency as the incoming interrogation pulses from the aircraft. c. the aircraft receiver only accepts reply pulses which have the same time interval between successive pulses as the pulses being transmitted by its own transmitter. d. the aircraft receiver only accepts reply pulses which arrive at a constant time interval. DME operates in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ frequency band, it transmits \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ which give it the emission designator of \_\_\_\_\_\_. a. SHF double size pulses PO1 b. UHF twin pulses PON c. EHF twin pulses A9F d. UHF double pulses 13E Referring to DME during the initial stage of the search pattern before lock on: a. the airborne receiver checks 150 pulses each second b. the airborne transmitter transmits 150 pulses each second c. the ground receiver maintains the ground transmitter pulse transmission rate at no more than 150 per second. d. the aircraft transmits 24 pulses per second and the receiver checks a maximum of 150 pulses per second. DME and VOR are frequency paired because: a. the same receiver can be used for both aids. b. the VOR transmitter is easily converted to the required DME frequency c. cockpit workload is reduced. d. both ground transmitter aerials can be placed on the same site if required. A DME receiver is able to distinguish between replies to its own interrogation pulses and those intended for other aircraft using the same transponder because: a. DME is a secondary radar and each aircraft transmits and receives on a different frequency. b. DME transponders reply to interrogations by means of twin pulses and the airborne equipment rejects all single pulses. c. each aircraft transmits pulses at a random rate, jittering, and will only accept replies that match this randomization. d. when DME is in the range search mode it will accept only pulses separated by +/- 63 MHz from the interrogation frequency. Which display shows the expanded ILS mode? Mark correct display. C  Which mode is display in below? a. Centre map b. Map c. Plan d. Expanded nav Which mode is display in below?  a. full ILS b. full VOR c. full nav d. full map On display below, what is the aircraft's track? a. 130° b. 165° c. 146° d. 135° The EASA C525 color code for ILS deviation pointer is: a. magenta b. cyan c. green d. amber The EASA CS-25 color code for selected heading is: a. green b. magenta c. amber d. white The EASA CS-25 color code for precipitation rate in excess of 50 mm/hr is: a. red b. amber c. magenta d. white or magenta The EASA CS-25 color code for the active route is: a. yellow b. magenta c. green d. cyan The EASA CS-25 color code for a down path waypoint is: a. white b. magenta c. green d. cyan The horizontal deviation on the expanded ILS display represented by one dot is approximately: a) 1° b. 2° c. 0.5° d. 5° The heading inputs to the EHSI are from: a. The IRS b. The FMC c. the IRS through the symbol generator d. the FMC through the symbol generator The track direction from BANTU to ZAPPO on display below is:  a. 360° (M) b. 130° (M) c. 360° (T) d. 130° (T) The EASA CS-OPS1 recommended color code for an in-use radio navigation facility is: a) cyan b. magenta c. white d. green NAVSTAR/GPS operates in the \_\_\_\_\_\_ band and the receiver determines position by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_; a. UHF range position lines b. UHF, secondary radar principles c. SHF, secondary radar principles d. SHF, range position lines The NAVSTAR/ GPS control segment comprises: a. the space segment, the user segment and the ground segment b. a ground segment and the INMARSAT geostationary satellites c. a master control station, a back-up control station and five monitoring stations d. a master control station, a back-up control station, five monitoring stations and the INMARSAT geostationary satellites The orbital height and inclination of the NAVSTAR/GPS constellation are: a. 20180 km, 65° b. 20180 km, 55° c. 19099 km, 65° d. 19099 km, 55° The model of the earth used for NAVSTAR/GPS is: a. WGS90 b. P290 c. WGSS4 d. PZS4 The minimum number of satellites required for a 3D fix is: a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 The NAVSTAR/GPS operational constellation comprises how many satellites a) 12 b. 21 c. 24 d. 30 The most accurate fixing information will be obtained from: a. four satellites spaced 90° apart at 30° above the visual horizon b. one satellite close to the horizon and 3 equally at 60\" above the horizon c. one satellite directly overhead and 3 equally spaced at 60\" above the horizon d. one satellite directly overhead and 3 spaced 120° apart close to the horizon The most significant error of GNSS is: a. GDOP (geometric dilution of precision) b. Receiver clock c. Ionospheric propagation d. Ephemeris The frequency available to non-authorized users of NAVSTAR/GPS is: a. 1227.6 MHz b. 1575.42 MHz c. 1602 MHz d. 1246 MHz The purpose of the pseudo-random noise codes in NAVSTAR/GPS is to: a. identify the satellites b. pass the almanac data c. pass the navigation and system data d. pass the ephemeris and time information The minimum number of satellites required for receiver autonomous integrity monitoring is: a) 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 If a receiver has to download the almanac, the time to do this will be: a. 2.5 minutes b. 12.5 minutes c. 25 minutes d. 15 minutes The use of LAAS(Local Area Augmentation System) and WAAS (Wide Area Augmentation System) remove the errors caused by: a. propagation, selective availability, satellite ephemeris and clock b. selective availability, satellite ephemeris and clock c. GDOP(geometric dilution of precision), selective availability and propagation d. receiver clock, GDOP(geometric dilution of precision), satellite ephemeris and clock The most accurate satellite fixing information will be obtained from: a. NAVSTAR/GPS & GLONASS b. TRANSIT & NAVSTAR/GPS c. COSPAS/SARSAT & GLONASS A LAAS (Local Area Augmentation System) requires: a. an accurately surveyed site on the aerodrome and a link through the INMARSAT geostationary satellites to pass corrections to X, Y & Z co-ordinates to aircraft b. an accurately surveyed site on the aerodrome and a link through the INMARSAT geostationary satellites to pass satellite range corrections to aircraft c. an accurately surveyed site on the aerodrome and a system known as a pseudo-satellite to pass satellite range corrections to aircraft d. an accurately surveyed site on the aerodrome and system known as a pseudo-satellite to pass corrections to X, Y & Z co-ordinates to aircraft The position derived from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites may be subject to the following errors: a. selective availability, skywave interference, GDOP (geometric dilution of precision) b. propagation, selective availability, ephemeris c. GDOP(geometric dilution of precision) static interference, instrument d. ephemeris, GDOP (geometric dilution of precision), siting EGNOS European Geostationary Navigation Overlay Service is: a. the proposed European satellite navigation system b. a LAAS c. a WAAS d. a system to remove errors caused by the difference between the model of the earth and the actual shape of the earth The PRN (pseudo-random noise codes) are used to; a. determine the time interval between the satellite transmission and receipt of the signal at the receiver b. pass ephemeris and clock data to the receivers c. synchronize the receiver clocks with the satellites clocks d. determine the range of the satellites from the receiver a. removes SV ((Satellite Vehicles) ephemeris and clock errors b. reduces propagation errors c. reduces-errors caused by GODP(geometric dilution of precision) d. removes receiver clock errors The NAVSTAR/GPS reference system is: a. A geo-centered 3D Cartesian co-ordinate system fixed with reference to the sun b. A geo-centered 3D Cartesian co-ordinate system fixed with reference to the prime meridian, equator and pole c. A geo-centered 3D Cartesian co-ordinate system fixed with reference to space The initial range calculation at the receiver is known as a pseudo-range, because it is not yet corrected for: a. receiver clock errors b. receiver and satellite clock errors c. receiver and satellite clock errors and propagation errors d. receiver and satellite clock errors and ephemeris errors The navigation and system data message is transmitted through the: a. 50 Hz modulation b. The C/A (Civilian Access) and P (Precision) PRN (pseudo-random noise) codes. c. The C/A (Civilian Access ) code d. The P (Precision) code a. informs the operator that all the satellites required for fixing and RAIM are in available b. checks all the satellites in view and selects the 4 with the best geometry for fixing c. requires 5 satellites to produce a 4D fix d. uses all the satellites in view for fixing When using GNSS to carry out a non-precision approach the MDA will be determined using: a\) barometric altitude b. GPS altitude c. Radio altimeter height d. Either barometric or radio altimeter altitude If an aircraft maneuver puts a satellite being used for fixing into the wing shadow then: a. the accuracy will be unaffected b. the accuracy will be temporarily downgraded c. the receiver will automatically select another satellite with no degradation in positional accuracy d. the receiver will maintain lock using signals reflected from other parts of the aircraft with a small degrading of positional accuracy Which of the following statements concerning NAVSTAR/GPS time is correct? a. satellite time is the same as UTC b. the satellite runs its own time based on seconds and weeks which is independent of UTC c. the satellite runs its own time based on seconds and weeks which is correlated with UTC d. satellite time is based on sidereal time