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Question ID dadd5a11 Question ID dadd5a11 Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Command of Hard...

Question ID dadd5a11 Question ID dadd5a11 Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Command of Hard Ideas Evidence ID: dadd5a11 Approximate Rates of Speech and Information Conveyed for Five Languages Language Rate of speech (syllables per second) Rate of information conveyed (bits per second) Serbian 7.2 39.1 Spanish 7.7 42.0 Vietnamese 5.3 42.5 Thai 4.7 33.8 Hungarian 5.9 34.6 A group of researchers working in Europe, Asia, and Oceania conducted a study to determine how quickly different Eurasian languages are typically spoken (in syllables per second) and how much information they can effectively convey (in bits per second). They found that, although languages vary widely in the speed at which they are spoken, the amount of information languages can effectively convey tends to vary much less. Thus, they claim that two languages with very different spoken rates can nonetheless convey the same amount of information in a given amount of time. Which choice best describes data from the table that support the researchers’ claim? A. Among the five languages in the table, Thai and Hungarian have the lowest rates of speech and the lowest rates of information conveyed. B. Vietnamese conveys information at approximately the same rate as Spanish despite being spoken at a slower rate. C. Among the five languages in the table, the language that is spoken the fastest is also the language that conveys information the fastest. D. Serbian and Spanish are spoken at approximately the same rate, but Serbian conveys information faster than Spanish does. ID: dadd5a11 Answer Correct Answer: B Rationale Choice B is the best answer because it provides the most direct support from the table for the claim that two languages can convey similar amounts of information even if they’re spoken at different rates. The table shows the languages can convey similar amounts of information even if they’re spoken at different rates. The table shows the approximate rates at which five languages are spoken and the rates at which those five languages convey information. Vietnamese is spoken at around 5.3 syllables per second, whereas Spanish is spoken at around 7.7 syllables per second, but the two languages convey information at very similar rates: Vietnamese at a rate of around 42.5 bits per second and Spanish at a rate of around 42.0 bits per second. Thus, the description of Vietnamese conveying information at around the same rate that Spanish does despite being spoken more slowly supports the claim in the text that languages can convey the same amount of information even if spoken at different rates. Choice A is incorrect because it isn’t true that Thai and Hungarian have the lowest rates of speech of the five languages shown. According to the table, Hungarian is spoken at around 5.9 syllables per second, which is faster than Vietnamese (5.3 syllables per second). Additionally, even if this statement were true, the assertion that two languages are spoken the slowest and convey information the slowest wouldn’t support the claim that languages can convey the same amount of information even if they’re spoken at different rates. Choice C is incorrect because it isn’t true that the fastest-spoken language (Spanish, at 7.7 syllables per second) also conveys information the fastest: Spanish conveys information at 42.0 bits per second, which is slower than the 42.5 bits-per-second rate at which Vietnamese conveys information. Additionally, even if this statement were true, the assertion that the language spoken the fastest also conveys information the fastest has no bearing on the claim that languages can convey the same amount of information even if they’re spoken at different rates. Choice D is incorrect because it isn’t true that Serbian conveys information faster than Spanish does. According to the table, Serbian conveys information at a rate of around 39.1 bits per second, which is slower than the 42.0 bits-per-second rate at which Spanish conveys information. Question Difficulty: Hard Question ID 2d15748e Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Command of Hard Ideas Evidence ID: 2d15748e Electra is a circa 420–410 BCE play by Sophocles, translated in 1870 by R.C. Jebb. Electra, who is in mourning for her dead father and her long-absent brother, is aware of the intensity of her grief but believes it to be justified: ______ Which quotation from Electra most effectively illustrates the claim? A. “O thou pure sunlight, and thou air, earth’s canopy, how often have ye heard the strains of my lament, the wild blows dealt against this bleeding breast, when dark night fails!” B. “Send to me my brother; for I have no more the strength to bear up alone against the load of grief that weighs me down.” C. “I know my own passion, it escapes me not; but, seeing that the causes are so dire, will never curb these frenzied plaints, while life is in me.” D. “But never will I cease from dirge and sore lament, while I look on the trembling rays of the bright stars, or on this light of day.” ID: 2d15748e Answer Correct Answer: C Rationale Choice C is the best answer. Electra states that she “knows her own passion,” which shows that she’s aware of the intensity of her grief. But she also claims that the “causes are so dire”—meaning the reasons for her grief are so awful— that she can’t let it go, which shows that she believes her grief is justified. Choice A is incorrect. This quotation doesn’t show that Electra believes her grief is justified. It shows that Electra is aware of its intensity, but it doesn’t suggest that she believes she has a legitimate reason for feeling that way. Choice B is incorrect. This quotation doesn’t show that Electra believes her grief is justified. It shows that Electra is aware of its intensity, but it doesn’t suggest that she believes she has a legitimate reason for feeling that way. Choice D is incorrect. This quotation doesn’t show that Electra believes her grief is justified. It shows that Electra is aware of the intensity of her grief, but it doesn’t suggest that she has a legitimate reason for feeling that way. Question Difficulty: Hard Question ID 49adb38e Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Command of Hard Ideas Evidence ID: 49adb38e Many archaeologists will tell you that categorizing excavated fragments of pottery by style, period, and what objects they belong to relies not only on standard criteria, but also on instinct developed over years of practice. In a recent study, however, researchers trained a deep-learning computer model on thousands of images of pottery fragments and found that it could categorize them as accurately as a team of expert archaeologists. Some archaeologists have expressed concern that they might be replaced by such computer models, but the researchers claim that outcome is highly unlikely. Which finding, if true, would most directly support the researchers’ claim? A. In the researchers’ study, the model was able to categorize the pottery fragments much more quickly than the archaeologists could. B. In the researchers’ study, neither the model nor the archeologists were able to accurately categorize all the pottery fragments that were presented. C. A survey of archaeologists showed that categorizing pottery fragments limits the amount of time they can dedicate to other important tasks that only human experts can do. D. A survey of archaeologists showed that few of them received dedicated training in how to properly categorize pottery fragments. ID: 49adb38e Answer Correct Answer: C Rationale Choice C is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would support the researchers’ claim that archaeologists are unlikely to be replaced by certain computer models. The text explains that although archaeologists hold that categorizing pottery fragments relies on both objective criteria and instinct developed through direct experience, researchers have found that a computer model can categorize the fragments with the same degree of accuracy as the humans can—a finding that has caused some archaeologists to worry that their own work won’t be needed any longer. If survey results indicate that categorizing pottery fragments limits the amount of time archaeologists can dedicate to other important tasks that only human experts can do, that would mean that computer models aren’t able to do all of the important things archaeologists do, thus supporting the researchers’ claim that computer models are unlikely to replace human archaeologists. Choice A is incorrect because if it were true that the computer model could categorize the pottery fragments much more quickly than the archaeologists could, that would weaken the researchers’ claim that archaeologists are unlikely more quickly than the archaeologists could, that would weaken the researchers’ claim that archaeologists are unlikely to be replaced by certain computer models, since it would demonstrate that the models could conduct the archaeologists’ work not only with equal accuracy but also at a faster pace. Choice B is incorrect because the inability of both the computer model and the archaeologists to accurately categorize all of the pottery fragments presented wouldn’t support the researchers’ claim that archaeologists are unlikely to be replaced by certain computer models. The text indicates that some archaeologists are worried because the computer model’s accuracy is equal to their own, and that could be the case whether both were perfectly accurate or were unable to achieve complete accuracy. Choice D is incorrect because survey results showing that few archaeologists received special training in properly categorizing pottery fragments wouldn’t support the researchers’ claim that archaeologists are unlikely to be replaced by certain computer models. The amount of special training in categorizing pottery fragments that archaeologists have received has no direct bearing on whether computer models’ success at categorizing fragments will lead to the models replacing the archaeologists. Question Difficulty: Hard Question ID e7899abb Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Command of Hard Ideas Evidence ID: e7899abb E-book Sales as a Percentage of Total Unit Sales in All Book Formats for a Large US Trade Publisher, by Genre, 2006, 2011, 2016 Genre 2006 2011 2016 science fiction and fantasy 0.6 27.7 36.7 cookbooks 0 2.9 10.5 travel guides 0 5.5 24.6 romance 0.3 40.6 56.2 E-books became an increasingly popular means of reading in the United States in the 2000s and 2010s, though that popularity was concentrated in titles that, like those in most fiction genres, are meant to be read straight through from beginning to end. For books in nonfiction genres that do not tell stories and require the reader to flip back and forth through a volume, e-books were significantly less commercially successful. This can be seen by comparing ______ Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to illustrate the claim? A. the percentage of 2016 cookbook sales that were e-books with the percentage of 2016 science fiction and fantasy sales that were e-books. B. the percentage of 2006 romance sales that were e-books with the percentage of 2016 romance sales that were e-books. C. the percentage of 2006 romance sales that were e-books with the 2006 science fiction and fantasy sales that were e-books. D. the percentage of 2011 travel guide sales that were e-books with the percentage of 2016 travel guide sales that were e-books. ID: e7899abb Answer Correct Answer: A Rationale Choice A is the best answer because it uses data from the table to effectively support the claim that book genres that typically require the reader to start at the beginning of the story and read straight through are more commercially successful as e-books than other genres. For each of three years, the table presents four book genres and the percentage of total sales for each genre in e-book format. Cookbooks, a nonfiction genre, do not require the reader to read straight through. According to the table, 10.5 percent of total cookbook sales in 2016 were in the e-book format. The 2016 percentage of e-book sales was 36.7 percent in the science fiction and fantasy genre, which are typically stories read straight through from start to finish. The higher percentage of total sales of the story-based e-books in 2016 supports the claim in the text. Choice B is incorrect because it compares the e-book sales of romance books in 2006 to those in 2016. Romance books are meant to be read straight through from start to finish. The text claims that books that are not stories and do not require reading straight through are not as commercially successful in e-book format as those that do. As this choice is only comparing e-book sales for one genre, it does not support the claim. Choice C is incorrect because both science fiction and fantasy and romance novels are fiction books meant to be read straight through from beginning to end. The text claims that books that are not stories and do not require reading straight through are less commercially successful in e-book format than those that do. As this choice does not compare e-book sales of story genres to e- book sales in genres that are not stories, it does not support the claim. Choice D is incorrect. Although the data in the table show that the travel guide e-books made up a greater percentage of total sales in 2016 than in 2011, this doesn’t illustrate the claim in the text that e-books in nonfiction genres not meant to be read straight through are less commercially successful. The claim cannot be supported without comparing the percentage of e-book sales between fiction and nonfiction book genres from the table. Question Difficulty: Hard Question ID d5abe412 Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Command of Hard Ideas Evidence ID: d5abe412 An Ideal Husband is an 1895 play by Oscar Wilde. In the play, which is a satire, Wilde suggests that a character named Lady Gertrude Chiltern is perceived as both extremely virtuous and unforgiving, as is evident when another character says ______ Which quotation from An Ideal Husband most effectively illustrates the claim? A. “Lady Chiltern is a woman of the very highest principles, I am glad to say. I am a little too old now, myself, to trouble about setting a good example, but I always admire people who do.” B. “Do you know, [Lady Chiltern], I don’t mind your talking morality a bit. Morality is simply the attitude we adopt towards people whom we personally dislike.” C. “[Lady Chiltern] does not know what weakness or temptation is. I am of clay like other men. She stands apart as good women do—pitiless in her perfection—cold and stern and without mercy.” D. “Lady Chiltern, you are a sensible woman, the most sensible woman in London, the most sensible woman I know.” ID: d5abe412 Answer Correct Answer: C Rationale Choice C is the best answer because it most effectively uses a quotation to illustrate the claim that Lady Gertrude Chiltern is perceived as “both extremely virtuous and unforgiving.” In the quotation, a man describes Lady Chiltern as someone who “does not know what weakness or temptation is.” In other words, the man regards her as someone who is strong and adheres to a strict definition of moral perfection. However, he ironically suggests that this definition excludes mercy and forgiveness—qualities that are also thought of as virtues; according to him, Lady Chiltern is “pitiless in her perfection—cold and stern and without mercy.” This description supports the idea that Lady Chiltern is perceived by others as virtuous as well as unforgiving. Choice A is incorrect. The quotation supports the claim that Lady Chiltern is perceived as virtuous, in that it describes her as “a woman of the very highest principles.” However, it doesn’t characterize her as unforgiving or being perceived as such. Choice B is incorrect. The quotation suggests that Lady Chiltern is concerned with morality, but it suggests that her interest in discussing it is fundamentally hypocritical and functions as a means by which to judge others. However, the quotation doesn’t address the question of whether Lady Chiltern is unmerciful to those who seek forgiveness for harm they have caused. Choice D is incorrect because it doesn’t address either Lady Chiltern’s perceived virtuousness or her perceived lack of forgiveness; instead, it expresses the belief that she is sensible. perceived virtuousness or her perceived lack of forgiveness; instead, it expresses the belief that she is sensible. Question Difficulty: Hard Question ID 8b39297d Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Command of Hard Ideas Evidence ID: 8b39297d Pulitzer Prize–winning writer Héctor Tobar has built a multifaceted career as both a journalist and an author of short stories and novels. In an essay about Tobar’s work, a student claims that Tobar blends his areas of expertise by applying journalism techniques to his creation of works of fiction. Which quotation from a literary critic best supports the student’s claim? A. “For one novel, an imagined account of a real person’s global travels, Tobar approached his subject like a reporter, interviewing people the man had met along the way and researching the man’s own writings.” B. “Tobar got his start as a volunteer for El Tecolote, a community newspaper in San Francisco, and wrote for newspapers for years before earning a degree in creative writing and starting to publish works of fiction.” C. “Many of Tobar’s notable nonfiction articles are marked by the writer’s use of techniques usually associated with fiction, such as complex narrative structures and the incorporation of symbolism.” D. “The protagonist of Tobar’s third novel is a man who wants to be a novelist and keeps notes about interesting people he encounters so he can use them when developing characters for his stories.” ID: 8b39297d Answer Correct Answer: A Rationale Choice A is the best answer. The example of Tobar approaching his subject “like a reporter,” including conducting “interviews” and “research,” shows Tobar applying journalism techniques to his fiction-writing. Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t support the claim. It tells us about Tobar’s initial career as a journalist, but it doesn’t say anything about him “applying journalism techniques” to his fiction-writing. Choice C is incorrect. This choice doesn’t support the claim. It tells us that Tobar applied fiction techniques to his nonfiction writing, but we’re looking for evidence of the other way around: that Tobar applied journalism techniques to his fiction-writing. Choice D is incorrect. This choice doesn’t support the claim. It tells us that a character in one of Tobar’s novels applied a journalism technique to his fiction-writing, but it doesn’t tell us that Tobar did that himself. Question Difficulty: Hard Question ID 6610977e Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Command of Hard Ideas Evidence ID: 6610977e Archaeologist Petra Vaiglova, anthropologist Xinyi Liu, and their colleagues investigated the domestication of farm animals in China during the Bronze Age (approximately 2000 to 1000 BCE). By analyzing the chemical composition of the bones of sheep, goats, and cattle from this era, the team determined that wild plants made up the bulk of sheep’s and goats’ diets, while the cattle’s diet consisted largely of millet, a crop cultivated by humans. The team concluded that cattle were likely raised closer to human settlements, whereas sheep and goats were allowed to roam farther away. Which finding, if true, would most strongly support the team’s conclusion? A. Analysis of the animal bones showed that the cattle’s diet also consisted of wheat, which humans widely cultivated in China during the Bronze Age. B. Further investigation of sheep and goat bones revealed that their diets consisted of small portions of millet as well. C. Cattle’s diets generally require larger amounts of food and a greater variety of nutrients than do sheep’s and goats’ diets. D. The diets of sheep, goats, and cattle were found to vary based on what the farmers in each Bronze Age settlement could grow. ID: 6610977e Answer Correct Answer: A Rationale Choice A is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most strongly support the team’s conclusion that cattle were likely raised closer to human settlements than sheep and goats were. The text explains that Vaiglova, Liu, and their colleagues analyzed the chemical composition of sheep, goat, and cattle bones from the Bronze Age in China in order to investigate the animals’ domestication, or their adaptation from a wild state to a state in which they existed in close connection with humans. According to the text, the team’s analysis showed that sheep and goats of the era fed largely on wild plants, whereas cattle fed on millet—importantly, a crop cultivated by humans. If analysis of the animal bones shows that the cattle’s diet also consisted of wheat, another crop cultivated by humans in China during the Bronze Age, the finding would support the team’s conclusion by offering additional evidence that cattle during this era fed on human-grown crops—and, by extension, that humans raised cattle relatively close to the settlements where they grew these crops, leaving goats and sheep to roam farther away in areas with wild vegetation, uncultivated by humans. uncultivated by humans. Choice B is incorrect because if it were true that sheep’s and goats’ diets consisted of small portions of millet, which the text states was a crop cultivated by humans, the finding would suggest that sheep and goats were raised relatively close to human settlements, weakening the team’s conclusion that cattle were likely raised closer to those settlements than sheep and goats were. Choice C is incorrect because the finding that cattle generally require more food and nutrients than do sheep and goats wouldn’t support the team’s conclusion that cattle were likely raised closer to human settlements than sheep and goats were. Nothing in the text suggests that cattle were incapable of obtaining sufficient food and nutrients without access to human-grown crops. Hence, even if cattle’s diets are found to have different requirements than the diets of sheep and goats, the cattle could have met those requirements from food located far from human settlements. Choice D is incorrect because if it were true that the diets of sheep, goats, and cattle varied based on what the farmers in each Bronze Age settlement could grow, the finding would weaken the team’s conclusion that cattle were likely raised closer to human settlements than sheep and goats were, suggesting instead that all three types of animals were raised close enough to human settlements to feed on those settlements’ crops. Question Difficulty: Hard Question ID 4d68ca10 Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Inferences Hard Ideas ID: 4d68ca10 Mosses can struggle in harsh desert conditions because these plants require enough sunlight for photosynthesis but not so much that they risk drying out. Researchers Jenna Ekwealor and Kirsten M. Fisher found several species of Syntrichia caninervis, a type of desert moss, growing under quartz crystals in California’s Mojave Desert. To evaluate whether these semitransparent rocks benefited the moss, the researchers compared the shoot tissue, a measure of plant growth, of S. caninervis when growing on the soil surface versus when the moss was growing under the quartz rocks. They found that the shoot tissue was 62% longer for moss growing under the quartz as compared to moss on the soil surface, suggesting that ______ Which choice most logically completes the text? A. S. caninervis is one of the few types of moss that can survive under semitransparent rocks. B. quartz crystals do not transmit the necessary sunlight for photosynthesis in S. caninervis. C. S. caninervis growing under quartz crystals experience lower light intensity and are thus able to retain more moisture. D. quartz crystals are capable of supporting S. caninervis growth if the crystals are not too thin. ID: 4d68ca10 Answer Correct Answer: C Rationale Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text. The text explains that while desert moss species need sufficient sunlight for photosynthesis, exposure to sunlight can also affect the plants negatively by drying them out. Ekwealor and Fisher’s team found specimens of S. caninervis moss growing under quartz crystals that were semitransparent, allowing some but not all sunlight to pass through them, and the shoot tissue of these specimens was longer than that of S. caninervis specimens found growing on the surface that were unprotected by such crystals. Since, as the text explains, the length of shoot tissue is an indicator of plant growth, and since greater exposure to sunlight results in greater loss of moisture, it can be inferred that S. caninervis growing under quartz crystals experience lower light intensity and are thus able to retain more moisture. Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t mention another moss species besides S. caninervis or discuss whether other such species are able to grow under transparent crystals, as S. caninervis is. Choice B is incorrect because, as the text explains, specimens of S. caninervis were found growing under quartz crystals and exhibited more plant growth than specimens growing on the soil surface. This wouldn’t have been the case if the crystals transmitted insufficient light for the moss’s photosynthesis. Choice D is incorrect. The text contrasts the growth of S. caninervis specimens found beneath semitransparent quartz crystals with that of specimens found on the soil surface absent such crystals, but it doesn’t make a comparison among specimens growing beneath crystals of different degrees of thickness or consider how the relative thickness of the crystals affects the growth of the moss. Question Difficulty: Hard Question ID 0f123a3f Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Inferences Hard Ideas ID: 0f123a3f Researchers recently found that disruptions to an enjoyable experience, like a short series of advertisements during a television show, often increase viewers’ reported enjoyment. Suspecting that disruptions to an unpleasant experience would have the opposite effect, the researchers had participants listen to construction noise for 30 minutes and anticipated that those whose listening experience was frequently interrupted with short breaks of silence would thus ______ Which choice most logically completes the text? A. find the disruptions more irritating as time went on. B. rate the listening experience as more negative than those whose listening experience was uninterrupted. C. rate the experience of listening to construction noise as lasting for less time than it actually lasted. D. perceive the volume of the construction noise as growing softer over time. ID: 0f123a3f Answer Correct Answer: B Rationale Choice B is the best answer. It most logically completes the text. The text tells us that disruptions to an enjoyable experience increase viewers’ enjoyment. It also says that researchers suspect the opposite is true for disruptions to an unpleasant experience. Thus, we can infer that the researchers expect to find that the interrupted unpleasant experience was worse for listeners than the uninterrupted unpleasant experience. Choice A is incorrect. It doesn’t logically complete the text. The text never makes any claims about how irritating the disruptions themselves are perceived to be. Rather, the text says that pleasant experiences are perceived as more enjoyable with interruptions, and that the opposite is suspected to be true of unpleasant experiences. Choice C is incorrect. It doesn’t logically complete the text. The text never makes any claims about how long any experience is perceived to be. Rather, the text says that pleasant experiences are perceived as more enjoyable with interruptions, and that the opposite is suspected to be true of unpleasant experiences. Choice D is incorrect. It doesn’t logically complete the text. The text never makes any claims about how interruptions affect the perceived volume of the unpleasant or pleasant experience. Rather, the text says that pleasant experiences are perceived as more enjoyable with interruptions, and that the opposite is suspected to be true of unpleasant experiences. Question Difficulty: Hard Question Difficulty: Hard Question ID 2263adb4 Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Inferences Hard Ideas ID: 2263adb4 Scholars have noted that F. Scott Fitzgerald’s writings were likely influenced in part by his marriage to Zelda Fitzgerald, but many don’t recognize Zelda as a writer in her own right. Indeed, Zelda authored several works herself, such as the novel Save Me the Waltz and numerous short stories. Thus, those who primarily view Zelda as an inspiration for F. Scott’s writings ______ Which choice most logically completes the text? A. overlook the many other factors that motivated F. Scott to write. B. risk misrepresenting the full range of Zelda’s contributions to literature. C. may draw inaccurate conclusions about how F. Scott and Zelda viewed each other’s works. D. tend to read the works of F. Scott and Zelda in an overly autobiographical light. ID: 2263adb4 Answer Correct Answer: B Rationale Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Zelda Fitzgerald’s contributions to literature. The text begins by saying that many scholars view Zelda mainly in terms of her marriage to F. Scott Fitzgerald and “don’t recognize Zelda as a writer in her own right.” The text then mentions a novel and “numerous short stories” that she wrote and that such scholars tend to ignore. Therefore, those scholars who focus on Zelda only as an inspiration for F. Scott’s writings risk misrepresenting the full range of Zelda’s contributions to literature. Choice A is incorrect. Although the text does mention that Zelda Fitzgerald “likely influenced” her husband’s literary work, its focus is on Zelda’s own writing, not on her husband’s writing or factors that might have influenced it. Choice C is incorrect because the text does not discuss F. Scott and Zelda Fitzgerald’s opinions of each other’s works. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text does suggest that F. Scott Fitzgerald’s works were “likely influenced in part” by his marriage to Zelda, it does not discuss autobiographical interpretations of the works of either F. Scott or Zelda. Question Difficulty: Hard Question ID 50bdebcc Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Command of Hard Ideas Evidence ID: 50bdebcc Urban Population of Algeria, France, Japan, and Nigeria 100 90 Percent of population 80 living in cities 70 60 50 40 30 20 10 0 70 80 90 00 10 20 19 19 19 20 20 20 Year Algeria France Japan Nigeria The share of the world’s population living in cities has increased dramatically since 1970, but this change has not been uniform. France and Japan, for example, were already heavily urbanized in 1970, with 70% or more of the population living in cities. The main contributors to the world’s urbanization since 1970 have been countries like Algeria, whose population went from ______ Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the assertion? A. around 50% urban in 1970 to around 90% urban in 2020. B. less than 40% urban in 1970 to around 90% urban in 2020. C. less than 20% urban in 1970 to more than 50% urban in 2020. D. around 40% urban in 1970 to more than 70% urban in 2020. ID: 50bdebcc Answer Correct Answer: D Rationale Choice D is the best answer. This choice effectively uses data from the graph to complete the example. The line representing the percent of Algeria’s population living in cities is the black triangle line. According to the graph, it started at 40% in 1970 and reached 70% in 2020. Choice A is incorrect. This choice misreads the graph. The line representing the percent of Algeria’s population living in cities is the black triangle line. According to the graph, it started at 40% in 1970 and reached 70% in 2020. Choice B is incorrect. This choice misreads the graph. The line representing the percent of Algeria’s population living in cities is the black triangle line. According to the graph, it started at 40% in 1970 and reached 70% in 2020. Choice C is incorrect. This choice misreads the graph. The line representing the percent of Algeria’s population living in cities is the black triangle line. According to the graph, it started at 40% in 1970 and reached 70% in 2020. Question Difficulty: Hard Question ID afd16fcc Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Command of Hard Ideas Evidence ID: afd16fcc Jan Gimsa, Robert Sleigh, and Ulrike Gimsa have hypothesized that the sail-like structure running down the back of the dinosaur Spinosaurus aegyptiacus improved the animal’s success in underwater pursuits of prey species capable of making quick, evasive movements. To evaluate their hypothesis, a second team of researchers constructed two battery-powered mechanical models of S. aegyptiacus, one with a sail and one without, and subjected the models to a series of identical tests in a water-filled tank. Which finding from the model tests, if true, would most strongly support Gimsa and colleagues’ hypothesis? A. The model with a sail took significantly less time to complete a sharp turn while submerged than the model without a sail did. B. The model with a sail displaced significantly more water while submerged than the model without a sail did. C. The model with a sail had significantly less battery power remaining after completing the tests than the model without a sail did. D. The model with a sail took significantly longer to travel a specified distance while submerged than the model without a sail did. ID: afd16fcc Answer Correct Answer: A Rationale Choice A is the best answer. This finding would most strongly support the hypothesis. The hypothesis is that the sail improved the dinosaur’s ability to chase quick, evasive prey. This finding suggests that the sail helped the dinosaur make sharp turns more quickly, which supports that hypothesis. Choice B is incorrect. This finding wouldn’t necessarily support the hypothesis. The hypothesis is that the sail improved the dinosaur’s ability to chase quick, evasive prey. It’s unclear how the sail displacing more water would relate to that hypothesis—it doesn’t seem to be relevant. Choice C is incorrect. This finding wouldn’t necessarily support the hypothesis. The hypothesis is that the sail improved the dinosaur’s ability to chase quick, evasive prey. It’s unclear how the difference in battery power between the models would relate to that hypothesis—it doesn’t seem to be relevant. Choice D is incorrect. This finding would actually weaken the hypothesis. The hypothesis is that the sail improved the dinosaur’s ability to chase quick, evasive prey. This finding suggests that the sail slowed the dinosaur down—which would probably make it worse at catching quick, evasive prey. down—which would probably make it worse at catching quick, evasive prey. Question Difficulty: Hard Question ID ce4dc739 Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Central Ideas and Hard Ideas Details ID: ce4dc739 The following text is adapted from Edgar Allan Poe’s 1849 story “Landor’s Cottage.” During a pedestrian trip last summer, through one or two of the river counties of New York, I found myself, as the day declined, somewhat embarrassed about the road I was pursuing. The land undulated very remarkably; and my path, for the last hour, had wound about and about so confusedly, in its effort to keep in the valleys, that I no longer knew in what direction lay the sweet village of B——, where I had determined to stop for the night. Which choice best states the main idea of the text? A. The narrator remembers a trip he took and admits to getting lost. B. The narrator recalls fond memories of a journey that he took through some beautiful river counties. C. The narrator describes what he saw during a long trip through a frequently visited location. D. The narrator explains the difficulties he encountered on a trip and how he overcame them. ID: ce4dc739 Answer Correct Answer: A Rationale Choice A is the best answer. The narrator is “embarrassed” about the route he took, which ends up leaving him lost and confused about how to get to his destination for the evening. Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t match the passage. The narrator is embarrassed, rather than fond, and he doesn’t describe the beauty of the place. Choice C is incorrect. This choice doesn’t match the passage. We don’t know from this excerpt whether or not the narrator has visited this part of New York multiple times. Choice D is incorrect. This choice doesn’t match the passage. The narrator doesn’t explain how he overcame being lost in this excerpt. Question Difficulty: Hard Question ID 68119550 Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Central Ideas and Hard Ideas Details ID: 68119550 Paleontologist Lucas E. Fiorelli and colleagues have reported the discovery at a mine in Brazil of several egg clutches, partially preserved single eggs, and egg shells from the Late Cretaceous period. The researchers have concluded that the area was once a nesting and breeding site for titanosaurs, a group of sauropod dinosaurs. The finding is significant given the previous lack of known nesting sites in northern regions of South America, which led many paleontologists to assume that titanosaurs migrated south to lay eggs. What does the text most strongly suggest about the site discovered by the researchers? A. It is the earliest known example of a titanosaur nesting and breeding site. B. It was very difficult to excavate given that it was discovered in a mine. C. It may have been occupied by other sauropods in addition to titanosaurs. D. It is farther north than any other nesting site discovered in South America. ID: 68119550 Answer Correct Answer: D Rationale Choice D is the best answer because it presents a statement about the site discovered by the researchers that is supported by the text. The text discusses Fiorelli and colleagues’ discovery of egg clutches, single eggs, and eggshells in a Brazilian mine. According to the text, the presence of these eggs, which are from the Late Cretaceous period, led the researchers to conclude that the location was once a nesting and breeding site for titanosaurs. The text then explains that the finding is important because of the “previous lack of known nesting sites in northern regions of South America.” If there haven’t been any other discoveries of a nesting site in South America’s northern regions and the site in the Brazilian mine is the first, then the text strongly suggests that the site is farther north than other nesting sites that have been discovered in South America. Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that the site discovered by Fiorelli and colleagues is the earliest titanosaur nesting and breeding site known to paleontologists but rather that it’s the first nesting site found in northern regions of South America. Moreover, the text doesn’t suggest how the timeline of the newly discovered site compares with that of other titanosaur nesting and breeding sites. Choice B is incorrect because there is no mention in the text about any difficulties that Fiorelli and colleagues faced when they were excavating the nesting and breeding site in the Brazilian mine. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t support the idea that the nesting and breeding site in the Brazilian mine was occupied by sauropods other than titanosaurs. The text simply mentions that titanosaurs are sauropod dinosaurs and presents the researchers’ conclusion that the site they discovered was for titanosaurs. Question Difficulty: Hard Question ID f5d5e224 Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Inferences Hard Ideas ID: f5d5e224 “Gestures” in painting are typically thought of as bold, expressive brushstrokes. In the 1970s, American painter Jack Whitten built a 12-foot (3.7-meter) tool he named the “developer” to apply paint to an entire canvas in one motion, resulting in his series of “slab” paintings from that decade. Whitten described this process as making an entire painting in “one gesture,” signaling a clear departure from the prevalence of gestures in his work from the 1960s. Some art historians claim this shift represents “removing gesture” from the process. Therefore, regardless of whether using the developer constitutes a gesture, both Whitten and these art historians likely agree that ______ Which choice most logically completes the text? A. any tool that a painter uses to create an artwork is capable of creating gestures. B. Whitten’s work from the 1960s exhibits many more gestures than his work from the 1970s does. C. Whitten became less interested in exploring the role of gesture in his work as his career progressed. D. Whitten’s work from the 1960s is much more realistic than his work from the 1970s is. ID: f5d5e224 Answer Correct Answer: B Rationale Choice B is the best answer. Whitten thinks the tool made “one gesture” paintings, while historians think the tool “removed gesture” from the process completely. But putting that debate aside, both Whitten and the historians would agree that the paintings he made with the tool in the ’70s have way fewer gestures than his paintings from the ’60s, in which gestures are “prevalent,” meaning widely and extensively present. Choice A is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The text only discusses the “developer”—it never mentions other tools. Choice C is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. If anything, the text suggests the opposite: that Whitten became more interested in exploring the role of gesture in his work as his career progressed, as his earlier paintings had many gestures, and his ’70s paintings only had “one gesture.” Choice D is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The text never discusses the “realism” of Whitten’s art. Question Difficulty: Hard Question ID adcc7e63 Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Central Ideas and Hard Ideas Details ID: adcc7e63 Utah is home to Pando, a colony of about 47,000 quaking aspen trees that all share a single root system. Pando is one of the largest single organisms by mass on Earth, but ecologists are worried that its growth is declining in part because of grazing by animals. The ecologists say that strong fences could prevent deer from eating young trees and help Pando start thriving again. According to the text, why are ecologists worried about Pando? A. It isn’t growing at the same rate it used to. B. It isn’t producing young trees anymore. C. It can’t grow into new areas because it is blocked by fences. D. Its root system can’t support many more new trees. ID: adcc7e63 Answer Correct Answer: A Rationale Choice A is the best answer because it presents an explanation that is directly stated in the text for why ecologists are worried about Pando. The text states that Pando is a colony of about 47,000 quaking aspen trees that represents one of the largest organisms on Earth. According to the text, ecologists are worried that Pando’s growth is declining, partly because animals are feeding on the trees. In other words, the ecologists are worried that Pando isn’t growing at the same rate it used to. Choice B is incorrect. Rather than indicating that Pando isn’t producing young trees anymore, the text reveals that Pando is indeed producing young trees, stating that those trees can be protected from grazing deer by strong fences. Choice C is incorrect because the text states that fences can be used to prevent deer from eating Pando’s young trees, not that Pando itself can’t grow in new areas because it’s blocked by fences. Choice D is incorrect because the text offers no evidence that Pando’s root system is incapable of supporting new trees or is otherwise a cause of worry for ecologists. Question Difficulty: Hard Question ID 084f845a Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Command of Hard Ideas Evidence ID: 084f845a Estimates of Tyrannosaurid Bite Force Study Year Estimation method Approximate bite force (newtons) Cost et al. 2019 muscular and skeletal modeling 35,000–63,000 Gignac and Erickson 2017 tooth-bone interaction analysis 8,000–34,000 Meers 2002 body-mass scaling 183,000–235,000 Bates and Falkingham 2012 muscular and skeletal modeling 35,000–57,000 The largest tyrannosaurids—the family of carnivorous dinosaurs that includes Tarbosaurus, Albertosaurus, and, most famously, Tyrannosaurus rex—are thought to have had the strongest bites of any land animals in Earth’s history. Determining the bite force of extinct animals can be difficult, however, and paleontologists Paul Barrett and Emily Rayfield have suggested that an estimate of dinosaur bite force may be significantly influenced by the methodology used in generating that estimate. Which choice best describes data from the table that support Barrett and Rayfield’s suggestion? A. The study by Meers used body-mass scaling and produced the lowest estimated maximum bite force, while the study by Cost et al. used muscular and skeletal modeling and produced the highest estimated maximum. B. In their study, Gignac and Erickson used tooth-bone interaction analysis to produce an estimated bite force range with a minimum of 8,000 newtons and a maximum of 34,000 newtons. C. The bite force estimates produced by Bates and Falkingham and by Cost et al. were similar to each other, while the estimates produced by Meers and by Gignac and Erickson each differed substantially from any other estimate. D. The estimated maximum bite force produced by Cost et al. exceeded the estimated maximum produced by Bates and Falkingham, even though both groups of researchers used the same method to generate their estimates. ID: 084f845a Answer Correct Answer: C Rationale Choice C is the best answer because it accurately describes data from the table that support Barrett and Rayfield’s suggestion about bite force estimates. According to the text, Barrett and Rayfield believe that estimates of dinosaur bite force may be strongly influenced by the methods used to produce them—that is, that different methods may produce significantly different results. The table shows that the studies by Bates and Falkingham and by Cost et al. used the same estimation method (muscular and skeletal modeling) and produced similar bite force estimates (approximately 35,000–57,000 newtons and 35,000–63,000 newtons, respectively). The study by Meers, however, used body-mass scaling and produced a much higher bite force estimate (183,000–235,000 newtons), while the study by Gignac and Erickson used tooth-bone interaction analysis and produced a much lower bite force estimate (8,000– 34,000 newtons). The fact that one method produced similar estimates in two different studies and that two different methods used in other studies produced substantially different estimates supports the idea that dinosaur bite force estimates are significantly influenced by the methodology used to produce them. Choice A is incorrect because it inaccurately describes data from the table. The table does show that the studies by Meers and by Cost et al. used different estimation methods and produced very different ranges of estimated dinosaur bite force, which would support Barrett and Rayfield’s suggestion that different methodologies may produce significantly different estimates. However, the table doesn’t show that the study by Meers produced the lowest estimated maximum bite force while the study by Cost et al. produced the highest. In fact, the study by Meers estimated a maximum bite force of approximately 235,000 newtons, which is the highest of all the estimated maximums. Choice B is incorrect. Although the data from Gignac and Ericson’s study are accurately described, a single set of findings from one study using only one methodology can’t show that different methodologies may produce significantly different dinosaur bite force estimates, as Barrett and Rayfield suggest. Choice D is incorrect. Although the table shows that the maximum bite force estimated by Cost et al. was higher than that estimated by Bates and Falkingham, the difference is relatively small; in fact, both teams estimated a minimum bite force of approximately 35,000 newtons and a maximum bite force close to approximately 60,000 newtons. Because these findings demonstrate that a single methodology (muscular and skeletal modeling) produced similar overall results in two studies, the findings don’t support Barrett and Rayfield’s suggestion that different methodologies may produce significantly different dinosaur bite force estimates. Question Difficulty: Hard Question ID 80bae6d9 Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Inferences Hard Ideas ID: 80bae6d9 Ana Castillo’s 1986 novel The Mixquiahuala Letters is a story told entirely through expressive letters from the narrator to her friend—letters that Castillo suggests could be read in several different orders. As they began reading it in class, some students remarked that they found the novel’s letter format daunting and its treatment of gender relations old-fashioned. The professor, however, pointed out that the novel is written in modern-sounding language and addresses issues that still matter today, suggesting that The Mixquiahuala Letters ______ Which choice most logically completes the text? A. has more to say about gender relations than other novels from the same period. B. is more relevant to contemporary audiences than it may seem at first. C. is easier to read than many contemporary novels that focus on friendship. D. is best understood after multiple readings in different orders. ID: 80bae6d9 Answer Correct Answer: B Rationale Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Ana Castillo’s 1986 novel The Mixquiahuala Letters. The text states that the novel consists entirely of letters from the narrator to her friend—a format that some students reading the novel in a class found intimidating. According to the text, those students also found the novel’s treatment of gender to be old-fashioned. In response to the students’ concerns, their professor emphasized the novel’s relevance: it’s written in modern-sounding language and addresses issues that still matter. This, in turn, suggests that The Mixquiahuala Letters is more relevant to contemporary audiences than it may initially seem. Choice A is incorrect because the professor’s response to the students only mentions The Mixquiahuala Letters: it doesn’t compare the novel to others from the same period. Choice C is incorrect because nothing in the professor’s response to the students compares The Mixquiahuala Letters to contemporary novels about friendship. Choice D is incorrect because the professor’s response to the students doesn’t address the idea of reading the novel’s letters multiple times and in different orders. Question Difficulty: Hard Question ID 6f16c217 Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Central Ideas and Hard Ideas Details ID: 6f16c217 Algae living within the tissues of corals play a critical role in keeping corals, and the marine ecosystems they are part of, thriving. Some coral species appear brown in color when healthy due to the algae colonies living in their tissues. In the event of an environmental stressor, the algae can die or be expelled, causing the corals to appear white. To recover the algae, the bleached corals then begin to produce bright colors, which block intense sunlight, encouraging the light-sensitive algae to recolonize the corals. What does the text most strongly suggest about corals that produce bright colors? A. These corals have likely been subjected to stressful environmental conditions. B. These corals are likely more vulnerable to exposure from intense sunlight than white corals are. C. These corals have likely recovered from an environmental event without the assistance of algae colonies. D. These corals are more likely to survive without algae colonies than brown corals are. ID: 6f16c217 Answer Correct Answer: A Rationale Choice A is the best answer. The text says that corals produce bright colors to block sunlight and encourage algae to recolonize after “an environmental stressor.” From this, we can infer that corals that produce bright colors have probably been subjected to an environmental stressor. Choice B is incorrect. The text says that corals produce bright colors to block intense sunlight, which protects the light- sensitive algae that keep the coral healthy. In other words, bright colors make the coral’s health less vulnerable to intense sunlight. Choice C is incorrect. The text says that corals produce bright colors to encourage algae to recolonize, not that they have recovered without the assistance of algae colonies. Choice D is incorrect. The text never compares the likelihood of differently colored corals surviving without algae colonies. Question Difficulty: Hard Question ID 366038a0 Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Command of Hard Ideas Evidence ID: 366038a0 Neural networks are computer models intended to reflect the organization of human brains and are often used in studies of brain function. According to an analysis of 11,000 such networks, Rylan Schaeffer and colleagues advise caution when drawing conclusions about brains from observations of neural networks. They found that when attempting to mimic grid cells (brain cells used in navigation), while 90% of the networks could accomplish navigation-related tasks, only about 10% of those exhibited any behaviors similar to those of grid cells. But even this approximation of grid-cell activity has less to do with similarity between the neural networks and biological brains than it does with the rules programmed into the networks. Which finding, if true, would most directly support the claim in the underlined sentence? A. The rules that allow for networks to exhibit behaviors like those of grid cells have no equivalent in the function of biological brains. B. The networks that do not exhibit behaviors like those of grid cells were nonetheless programmed with rules that had proven useful in earlier neural-network studies. C. Neural networks can often accomplish tasks that biological brains do, but they are typically programmed with rules to model multiple types of brain cells simultaneously. D. Once a neural network is programmed, it is trained on certain tasks to see if it can independently arrive at processes that are similar to those performed by biological brains. ID: 366038a0 Answer Correct Answer: A Rationale Choice A is the best answer. While many networks can perform navigation tasks, or even mimic grid cells, it doesn’t mean they’re actually behaving like biological brains—this finding suggests that the rules that govern neural network behavior are completely unlike the way real brains work. Choice B is incorrect. Although it mentions the rules that are programmed into the networks, this finding wouldn’t clarify whether or not these rules have anything to do with the function of biological brains. Choice C is incorrect. This choice suggests that neural networks are modeled after multiple types of brain cells, which sidesteps the question of whether these rule-based networks are genuinely similar to biological brains. Choice D is incorrect. This choice doesn’t address the key point of the claim, which is that the apparent similarity between neural networks and biological brains is only due to the rules programmed into the networks. It focuses on training tasks, not the originally programmed rules. Question Difficulty: Hard Question ID 6649150d Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Command of Hard Ideas Evidence ID: 6649150d Tadpole Body Mass and Toxin Production after Three Weeks in Ponds Average Average number of Average amount of Average bufadienolide tadpole body distinct bufadienolide per concentration (nanograms per Population mass bufadienolide toxins tadpole milligram of tadpole body density (milligrams) per tadpole (nanograms) mass) High 193.87 22.69 5,815.51 374.22 Medium 254.56 21.65 5,525.72 230.10 Low 258.97 22.08 4,664.99 171.43 Ecologist Veronika Bókony and colleagues investigated within-species competition among common toads (Bufo bufo), a species that secretes various unpleasant-tasting toxins called bufadienolides in response to threats. The researchers tested B. bufo tadpoles’ responses to different levels of competition by creating ponds with different tadpole population densities but a fixed amount of food. Based on analysis of the tadpoles after three weeks, the researchers concluded that increased competition drove bufadienolide production at the expense of growth. Which choice uses data from the table to most effectively support the researchers’ conclusion? A. The difference in average tadpole body mass was small between the low and medium population density conditions and substantially larger between the low and high population density conditions. B. Tadpoles in the low and medium population density conditions had substantially lower average bufadienolide concentrations but had greater average body masses than those in the high population density condition. C. Tadpoles in the high population density condition displayed a relatively modest increase in the average amount of bufadienolide but roughly double the average bufadienolide concentration compared to those in the low population density condition. D. Tadpoles produced approximately the same number of different bufadienolide toxins per individual across the population density conditions, but average tadpole body mass decreased as population density increased. ID: 6649150d Answer Correct Answer: B Rationale Choice B is the best answer. This data shows that the tadpoles in the high-density pond (meaning those with the most competition) didn’t grow as big as the other two groups but produced more bufadienolide. Choice A is incorrect. This doesn’t fully support the conclusion. It doesn’t include any data about bufadienolide production. Choice C is incorrect. This doesn’t fully support the conclusion. It doesn’t include any data about growth. Choice D is incorrect. This doesn’t fully support the conclusion. It doesn’t demonstrate that the tadpoles in the high- density pond produced more bufadienolide overall. The fact that they didn’t produce more kinds of bufadienolide isn’t relevant to the conclusion. Question Difficulty: Hard Question ID 3a78185d Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Central Ideas and Hard Ideas Details ID: 3a78185d Philadelphia’s Black Pearl Chamber Orchestra, founded by Jeri Lynne Johnson, performs classical music, from well-known compositions by Beethoven to contemporary works by Jessie Montgomery. For the orchestra’s iConduct! program, Johnson invites community members to learn some basic elements of conducting and then experience conducting the Black Pearl orchestra themselves. Which choice best states the main idea of the text? A. The Black Pearl orchestra performs music from all over the world but mostly performs music composed by Philadelphians. B. Johnson founded the Black Pearl orchestra to perform classical music by contemporary artist Jessie Montgomery. C. The Black Pearl orchestra gives community members the chance to both listen to and participate in classical music performance. D. Johnson has community members conduct an orchestra to demonstrate how difficult the task is. ID: 3a78185d Answer Correct Answer: C Rationale Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. The text begins by stating that the Black Pearl orchestra performs classical music, and then goes on to explain that the orchestra offers an iConduct! program. According to the text, this program offers community members the opportunity to learn some basics about conducting and then apply what they learn by conducting the orchestra themselves. Thus, the main idea of the text is that community members can both listen to and participate in a classical music performance. Choice A is incorrect. Although the text states that the Black Pearl orchestra is based in Philadelphia, it doesn’t indicate that most of the music it plays was composed by Philadelphians. Choice B is incorrect. Although the text does state that Johnson founded the Black Pearl orchestra, this is just a detail and not the main focus of the text. Moreover, while the text does say that the orchestra sometimes plays music by Montgomery, it doesn’t assert that the orchestra was founded solely for the purpose of performing Montgomery’s work. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text explains that community members are invited to conduct the Black Pearl orchestra after participating in the iConduct! program, the text doesn’t indicate that Johnson allows community members to do this for the specific purpose of showing how difficult the task is. Question Difficulty: Hard Question ID 2d3b8ce9 Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Command of Hard Ideas Evidence ID: 2d3b8ce9 “The Young Girl” is a 1920 short story by Katherine Mansfield. In the story, the narrator takes an unnamed seventeen-year-old girl and her younger brother out for a meal. In describing the teenager, Mansfield frequently contrasts the character’s pleasant appearance with her unpleasant attitude, as when Mansfield writes of the teenager, ______ Which quotation from “The Young Girl” most effectively illustrates the claim? A. “I heard her murmur, ‘I can’t bear flowers on a table.’ They had evidently been giving her intense pain, for she positively closed her eyes as I moved them away.” B. “While we waited she took out a little, gold powder-box with a mirror in the lid, shook the poor little puff as though she loathed it, and dabbed her lovely nose.” C. “I saw, after that, she couldn’t stand this place a moment longer, and, indeed, she jumped up and turned away while I went through the vulgar act of paying for the tea.” D. “She didn’t even take her gloves off. She lowered her eyes and drummed on the table. When a faint violin sounded she winced and bit her lip again. Silence.” ID: 2d3b8ce9 Answer Correct Answer: B Rationale Choice B is the best answer because it most effectively illustrates the claim in the text that in describing the teenaged girl, Mansfield contrasts the character’s pleasant appearance with her unpleasant attitude. In the quotation, Mansfield describes the teenager as having a “lovely nose” (a compliment about her appearance) but also as treating her makeup puff “as though she loathed it” (a judgment suggesting her unpleasant attitude). Choice A is incorrect because the teenager′s reaction to the flowers doesn’t make it clear that she has an unpleasant attitude, and nothing in the quotation indicates that any part of her appearance is pleasant. Choice C is incorrect because the quotation suggests that the teenager has an unpleasant attitude (being upset with the location and leaving the table before the narrator has paid for the meal) but doesn’t give any indication that she has a pleasant appearance. Choice D is incorrect because the quotation suggests that the teenager may have an unpleasant attitude (lowering her eyes, wincing, and sitting in silence) but doesn’t give any indication that any part of her appearance is pleasant. Question Difficulty: Hard Question ID 33e2ed66 Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Inferences Hard Ideas ID: 33e2ed66 By running computer simulations of the development of our solar system, André Izidoro, Rajdeep Dasgupta, and colleagues concluded that the Sun may have been surrounded by three giant dust rings before the planets started to form. The researchers suggest that the materials in the innermost ring became the four planets closest to the Sun, the materials in the middle ring produced the rest of the planets, and the materials in the outermost ring created the asteroids and other small bodies in the region beyond Neptune. In one simulation, the researchers delayed the initial formation of the middle ring, causing oversized super-Earths to begin developing from the innermost ring. The researchers therefore hypothesize that ______ Which choice most logically completes the text? A. the middle ring formed earlier in the solar system’s development than the initial simulations suggested. B. the timing of the initial formation of the middle ring played an important role in determining the eventual size of Earth. C. if the formation of the outermost ring had occurred earlier in a simulation, all the planets would have become super-Earths. D. the innermost ring actually formed into all the planets in our solar system, not just the four closest to the Sun. ID: 33e2ed66 Answer Correct Answer: B Rationale Choice B is the best answer because it most logically follows from the text’s discussion of André Izidoro, Rajdeep Dasgupta, and colleagues’ computer simulations of our solar system’s development. The text begins by stating that the simulations led the researchers to conclude that the solar system likely formed from three giant dust rings that encircled the Sun. The text explains that the four inner planets, including Earth, formed from the innermost ring and that the remaining planets formed from the middle ring. It then explains that in one simulation, the researchers delayed the formation of the middle ring—that is, they tested to see what would happen if the middle ring had formed later than it actually did. They found that doing so affected the size of the innermost planets, resulting in oversized super-Earths, planets that are much larger than Earth. Since the delayed timing had the effect of changing the size of Earth in the simulation relative to Earth’s real size, it’s reasonable to conclude that the timing of the middle ring’s formation was important in determining Earth’s eventual size. Choice A is incorrect. Although the text explains that when the researchers delayed the formation of the middle ring in one simulation, the size of the innermost planets was affected (which suggests that the middle ring likely formed earlier than it did in this simulation), the text doesn’t indicate that this was an initial simulation—that is, a simulation that was conducted before other simulations. Moreover, the text makes no reference to the specific results of any other simulations; therefore, there is no basis for comparing any conclusions based on the simulation in which the middle ring’s formation was delayed with conclusions based on other simulations. Choice C is incorrect because the text discusses how altering the timing of the formation of the middle ring, not the outermost ring, affected the four innermost planets’ eventual size in the researchers’ simulation; therefore, the simulation offers no basis for a conclusion about how the outermost ring’s formation affected the size of the planets. Choice D is incorrect because there is nothing in the text to suggest that the innermost ring produced all the solar system’s planets. Rather, the text states that the simulations showed that the innermost planets formed from the innermost ring and that the remaining planets formed from the middle ring. Question Difficulty: Hard Question ID d0bc361d Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Central Ideas and Hard Ideas Details ID: d0bc361d Some animal-behavior studies involve observing wild animals in their natural habitat, and some involve capturing wild animals and observing them in a laboratory. Each approach has advantages over the other. In wild studies, researchers can more easily presume that the animals are behaving normally, and in lab studies, researchers can more easily control factors that might affect the results. But if, for example, the results from a wild study and a lab study of Western scrub-jays (Aphelocoma californica) contradict each other, one or both of the studies must have failed to account for some factor that was relevant to the birds’ behavior. Which choice best states the main idea of the text? A. When the results of a natural-habitat study and those from a lab study of a wild animal such as the Western scrub-jay conflict, the study in the natural habitat is more likely than the lab study to have accurate results. B. Studying wild animals such as the Western scrub-jay in both their natural habitat and lab settings is likely to yield conflicting results that researchers cannot fully resolve. C. Wild animals such as the Western scrub-jay can be effectively studied in their natural habitat and in the lab, but each approach has drawbacks that could affect the accuracy of the findings. D. Differing results between natural-habitat and lab studies of wild animals such as the Western scrub- jay are a strong indication that both of the studies had design flaws that affected the accuracy of their results. ID: d0bc361d Answer Correct Answer: C Rationale Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. The text begins by explaining that wild animals can be studied in their natural habitat or in a laboratory setting, with each setting offering unique advantages to researchers. The text then highlights an instance in which Western scrub-jays were studied in both settings but with conflicting results, indicating that one or both studies may have failed to account for the disadvantages of its research setting. Thus, the main idea of the text is that while wild animals can be effectively studied in natural or lab settings, there are drawbacks to each that need to be considered to ensure accurate results. Choice A is incorrect because the text does not position one study setting (natural or lab) as superior to the other; rather, the text states that each one has advantages over the other. Choice B is incorrect. The text provides a rather, the text states that each one has advantages over the other. Choice B is incorrect. The text provides a hypothetical example of two studies in different environments with conflicting results, but this single example cannot be extrapolated to a general claim about the likelihood that results of studies in different environments will conflict. Additionally, the text does not assert anything about how researchers can or cannot resolve conflicting study results. Choice D is incorrect because the text does not state that discrepancies between natural-habitat and lab-based animal behavior studies are due to both of the designs being flawed. Rather, the text states that the conflict in results can be the consequence of one or both of the studies having failed to account for some factor. Question Difficulty: Hard Question ID cef8f768 Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Central Ideas and Hard Ideas Details ID: cef8f768 For many years, the only existing fossil evidence of mixopterid eurypterids—an extinct family of large aquatic arthropods known as sea scorpions and related to modern arachnids and horseshoe crabs— came from four species living on the paleocontinent of Laurussia. In a discovery that expands our understanding of the geographical distribution of mixopterids, paleontologist Bo Wang and others have identified fossilized remains of a new mixopterid species, Terropterus xiushanensis, that lived over 400 million years ago on the paleocontinent of Gondwana. According to the text, why was Wang and his team’s discovery of the Terropterus xiushanensis fossil significant? A. The fossil constitutes the first evidence found by scientists that mixopterids lived more than 400 million years ago. B. The fossil helps establish that mixopterids are more closely related to modern arachnids and horseshoe crabs than previously thought. C. The fossil helps establish a more accurate timeline of the evolution of mixopterids on the paleocontinents of Laurussia and Gondwana. D. The fossil constitutes the first evidence found by scientists that mixopterids existed outside the paleocontinent of Laurussia. ID: cef8f768 Answer Correct Answer: D Rationale Choice D is the best answer because it states why Wang and his team’s discovery of the Terropterus xiushanensis fossil was significant. The text explains that up until Wang and his team’s discovery, the only fossil evidence of mixopterids came from the paleocontinent of Laurussia. Wang and his team, however, identified fossil remains of a mixopterid species from the paleocontinent Gondwana. Therefore, the team’s discovery was significant because the fossil remains of a mixopterid species were outside of the paleocontinent Laurussia. Choice A is incorrect. Although the text states that Wang and his team identified fossilized remains of a mixopterid species that lived more than 400 million years ago, it doesn’t indicate that mixopterid fossils previously found by scientists dated to a more recent period than that. Choice B is incorrect. Although the text states that mixopterids are related to modern arachnids and horseshoe crabs, it doesn’t suggest that the fossil discovered by Wang and his team related to modern arachnids and horseshoe crabs, it doesn’t suggest that the fossil discovered by Wang and his team confirmed that this relationship is closer than scientists had previously thought. Choice C is incorrect because the team’s fossil established the presence of mixopterids on Gondwana, not on Laurussia. Moreover, the text only discusses the fossil in relation to the geographical distribution of mixopterids, not in relation to their evolution. Question Difficulty: Hard Question ID 0695d037 Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Command of Hard Ideas Evidence ID: 0695d037 Seed Germination with and without H₂S Treatment 100 90 Seeds germinated (%) 80 70 60 50 40 30 20 10 0 24 48 72 168 Time (hours) 500 micromoles per liter 10 micromoles per liter untreated In high concentrations, hydrogen sulfide (H₂S) is typically toxic to many plants. Frederick D. Dooley and colleagues wanted to understand what effects low doses of H₂S might have on plant growth. They treated bean, corn, wheat, and pea seeds with various concentrations (measured in micromoles per liter) of H₂S and tracked the germination of those seeds along with the germination of untreated seeds. Treatment with particular concentrations of H₂S was associated with accelerated germination: for example, ______ Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the statement? A. at 24 hours, less than 10% of seeds treated with H₂S at a concentration of 10 micromoles per liter had germinated, whereas more than 90% of those seeds had germinated at 168 hours. B. at 48 hours, more than 70% of seeds treated with H₂S at a concentration of 10 micromoles per liter had germinated, whereas only approximately 50% of untreated seeds had germinated. C. at 168 hours, more than 90% of seeds treated with H₂S at concentrations of 10 or 500 micromoles per liter had germinated, whereas less than 70% of untreated seeds had germinated. D. at 48 hours, approximately 50% of seeds treated with H₂S at a concentration of 10 micromoles per liter had germinated, whereas only approximately 30% of untreated seeds had germinated. ID: 0695d037 Answer Correct Answer: B Rationale Choice B is the best answer. The claim is that some concentrations of H₂S led to increased germination rates, and this choice accurately shows that seeds treated with 10 micromoles per liter of H₂S tended to germinate faster than untreated seeds. Choice A is incorrect. This choice doesn’t justify the claim. The claim compares the germination rates of seeds exposed to certain concentrations of H₂S to untreated seeds, but this choice only discusses one concentration of H₂S, so it can’t support any comparison between treated and untreated groups. Choice C is incorrect. This choice misreads the graph. At 168 hours, only about 85% of seeds treated with H₂S at 500 micromoles per liter and well over 70% of untreated seeds had germinated (about 80%). Choice D is incorrect. This choice misreads the graph. At 48 hours, about 70% of seeds treated with H₂S at 10 micromoles per liter and about 50% of untreated seeds had germinated. Question Difficulty: Hard Question ID 4e5d5c4f Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Central Ideas and Hard Ideas Details ID: 4e5d5c4f Biologists have predicted that birds’ feather structures vary with habitat temperature, but this hadn’t been tested in mountain environments. Ornithologist Sahas Barve studied feathers from 249 songbird species inhabiting different elevations—and thus experiencing different temperatures—in the Himalaya Mountains. He found that feathers of high-elevation species not only have a greater proportion of warming downy sections to flat and smooth sections than do feathers of low-elevation species, but high-elevation species’ feathers also tend to be longer, providing a thicker layer of insulation. Which choice best states the main idea of the text? A. Barve’s investigation shows that some species of Himalayan songbirds have evolved feathers that better regulate body temperature than do the feathers of other species, contradicting previous predictions. B. Barve found an association between habitat temperature and feather structure among Himalayan songbirds, lending new support to a general prediction. C. Barve discovered that songbirds have adapted to their environment by growing feathers without flat and smooth sections, complicating an earlier hypothesis. D. The results of Barve’s study suggest that the ability of birds to withstand cold temperatures is determined more strongly by feather length than feather structure, challenging an established belief. ID: 4e5d5c4f Answer Correct Answer: B Rationale Choice B is the best answer. The text describes how Barve found an association between habitat temperature and feather structure among Himalayan songbirds, which supports the general prediction that birds’ feather structures vary with habitat temperature. Choice A is incorrect. Barve’s study isn’t said to contradict previous predictions. In fact, the study supports the prediction described in the first sentence, which is that birds’ feather structures vary with habitat temperature. Choice C is incorrect. Barve’s study isn’t said to “complicate an earlier hypothesis.” In fact, the study supports the earlier prediction described in the first sentence, which is that birds’ feather structures vary with habitat temperature. Choice D is incorrect. The text doesn’t compare the importance of feather length and feather structure, and it doesn’t say that Barve’s study challenges any established beliefs. In fact, the study supports the prediction described in the first Barve’s study challenges any established beliefs. In fact, the study supports the prediction described in the first sentence, which is that birds’ feather structures vary with habitat temperature. Question Difficulty: Hard Question ID 91f4c01b Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Command of Hard Ideas Evidence ID: 91f4c01b A student is writing a paper about One Night in Miami..., a 2020 film directed by Regina King and written by Kemp Powers. Powers adapted the film’s screenplay from his 2013 play, which he wrote after learning about a 1964 meeting that took place in Miami, Florida, between four prominent figures of the Civil Rights movement: Malcolm X, Muhammad Ali, Jim Brown, and Sam Cooke. The student claims that although Powers was inspired by this meeting, the film is best understood not as a precise retelling of historical events but rather as a largely imagined but informed representation of them. Which quotation from an article about One Night in Miami... would be the most effective evidence for the student to include in support of this claim? A. “When Powers learned of the meeting, he initially planned to write a much longer work about its four famous participants rather than focusing on the meeting itself.” B. “One Night in Miami... received numerous awards and nominations, including an Academy Award nomination for Powers for Best Adapted Screenplay.” C. “Powers has described One Night in Miami... as the story of four friends encouraging and supporting one another while engaged in a crucial political debate about how best to achieve equality for Black people in the United States.” D. “Powers could find only the most superficial historical details about the meeting, so he read extensively about the four individuals and their thinking at the time in an effort to portray what might have happened between them.” ID: 91f4c01b Answer Correct Answer: D Rationale Choice D is the best answer because it provides a quotation that effectively supports the student’s claim about the film One Night in Miami…. The quotation states that in researching the play on which the film was based, Kemp Powers only found superficial details about what actually happened during the 1964 meeting in Miami between four leading Civil Rights leaders, meaning that there is very little information about the meeting in the historical record. In the absence of greater details, it wouldn’t have been possible for the film to be a precise retelling of the historical events it depicts. The quotation explains that to compensate for this lack of information about the meeting, Powers did extensive research into the four figures and how they thought at the time in order to speculate in an informed way about what they might have said or what might have occurred between them. Therefore, the quotation effectively supports the claim that the have said or what might have occurred between them. Therefore, the quotation effectively supports the claim that the film is best understood not as a precise retelling of a historical event but as a deeply informed imaginative rendering of that event. Choice A is incorrect. Although the quotation discusses how on learning about the 1964 meeting in Miami, Powers was inspired to write a play and, later, to adapt it into a screenplay, it doesn’t discuss Powers’s approach to representing what had occurred in the meeting. Instead, it states that Powers didn’t initially plan to write a story only “focusing on the meeting itself” but rather had considered writing a “much longer” and more expansive work about the meeting’s four participants. Choice B is incorrect because the quotation doesn’t discuss Powers’s approach to representing historical events in his play and in the film; instead, the quotation focuses on the film’s positive critical reception by mentioning that it received numerous awards and nominations. Choice C is incorrect. Although the quotation references historical events that are discussed directly in the play and film by explaining how the four historical figures featured in the story engage in political debates about contemporary issues, it doesn’t specify to what extent Powers’s representation of what occurred during the 1964 meeting in Miami is a factual retelling of what happened and how much is an imaginative rendering of what might have happened. Rather, the quotation focuses on Powers’s description of the film’s basic premise and how the characters engage with the historical context of its setting. Question Difficulty: Hard Question ID fa812387 Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Inferences Hard Ideas ID: fa812387 Volunteering, or giving time for a community service for free, is a valuable form of civic engagement because helping in a community is also good for society as a whole. In a survey of youths in the United States, most young people said that they believe volunteering is a way to help people on an individual level. Meanwhile, only 6% of the youths said that they think volunteering is a way to help fix problems in society overall. These replies suggest that ______ Which choice most logically completes the text? A. many young people think they can volunteer only within their own communities. B. volunteering may be even more helpful than many young people think it is. C. volunteering can help society overall more than it can help individual people. D. many young people may not know how to find ways to volunteer their time. ID: fa812387 Answer Correct Answer: B Rationale Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of volunteering. The text asserts that volunteering benefits both the community in which one volunteers and society as a whole. It then states that in a survey of young people, a majority of respondents said that volunteering helps individuals, but only 6% of respondents said that volunteering helps society as a whole. If volunteering does in fact help society as a whole, as the text says, but only 6% of young people believe it does, then it’s reasonable to conclude that volunteering is more helpful than many young people think it is. Choice A is incorrect because the text discusses young people’s beliefs about the benefits of volunteering, not where young people believe they are able to volunteer. Nothing in the text suggests that many young people believe they are only able to volunteer in their own communities. Choice C is incorrect. Although the text indicates that volunteering is beneficial for society as a whole, nothing in the text suggests that volunteering can benefit society more than it can benefit individual people. The text doesn’t compare the benefits to society with the benefits to individuals. Choice D is incorrect because the text discusses young people’s beliefs about the benefits of volunteering, not how to find volunteering opportunities. There’s nothing in the text to suggest that many young people don’t know how to volunteer. Question Difficulty: Hard Question ID 420a24bd Assessment Test Domain Skill Difficulty PSAT 8/9 Reading and Writing Information and Command of Hard Ideas Evidence ID: 420a24bd Hedda Gabler is an 1890 play by Henrik Ibsen. As a woman in the Victorian era, Hedda, the play’s central character, is unable to freely determine her own future. Instead, she seeks to influence another person’s fate, as is evident when she says to another character, ______ Which quotation from a translation of Hedda Gabler most effectively illustrates the claim? A. “Then what in heaven’s name would you have me do with myself?” B. “I want for once in my life to have power to mould a human destiny.” C. “Then I, poor creature, have no sort of power over you?” D. “Faithful to your principles, now and for ever! Ah, that is how a man should be!” ID: 420a24bd Answer Correct Answer: B Rationale Choice B is the best answer because it most effectively illustrates the claim in the text that Hedda seeks to influence another character’s fate. In the quotation, Hedda says that she wants “to have power to mould a human destiny,” or shape a person’s fate, just as the text indicates. Additionally, the phrase “for once in my life” suggests that Hedda feels that she has never been able to shape anyone’s life, including her own, supporting the text’s assertion that she “is unable to freely determine her own future.” Choice A is incorrect because this quotation shows Hedda being uncertain about what to do with her own life, not wanting to influence another person’s fate. Choice C is incorrect because while this quotation shows Hedda’s interest in finding out whether she has any power over another character, it doesn’t clearly show that she wants to influence that person’s fate. In this quotation, Hedda seems to have inferred or concluded (“then”) that she doesn’t have any influence over the person to whom she’s speaking, and she’s asking that person to confirm her lack of influence. Choice D is incorrect because this quotation expresses Hedda’s belief that a man should be true to his principles, not her desire to influence another person’s fate. Question Difficulty: Hard Question ID 8bab41ce Assessment Test Domain Skill