Summary

This document contains a medical protocol exam. The exam covers various medical procedures, dosages, and treatment options for various conditions. The questions focus on pediatric medicine, including dosages for different medications and emergency procedures.

Full Transcript

Protocol Exam 1. What is the recommended pediatric dose for Zofran? A. 0.1mg/kg B. 0.15mg/kg C. 0.2mg/kg D. 0.3mg/kg 2. What is NOT recommended for pediatric abdominal pain? A. Ibuprofen B. Morphine C. Acetaminophen D. Ketamine 3. Which of the following drugs can be used for nasotracheal intubati...

Protocol Exam 1. What is the recommended pediatric dose for Zofran? A. 0.1mg/kg B. 0.15mg/kg C. 0.2mg/kg D. 0.3mg/kg 2. What is NOT recommended for pediatric abdominal pain? A. Ibuprofen B. Morphine C. Acetaminophen D. Ketamine 3. Which of the following drugs can be used for nasotracheal intubation? A. Phenylephrine B. Lidocaine C. Oxymetazoline D. All of the above 4. What is the adjunctive therapy for cardioversion analgesia? A. Morphine 0.1mg/kg B. Diazepam 0.5mg/kg C. Etomidate 0.15mg/kg D. Ketamine 1mg/kg 5. What is the sedation dose of Etomidate for pacing? A. 0.15mg/kg B. 0.2mg/kg C. 0.25mg/kg D. 0.3mg/kg 6. What should be avoided in suspected croup cases? A. Nebulized saline B. Nebulized epinephrine C. IV fluids D. Oxygen therapy 7. What is the moderate hypothermic temperature range? A. 75º-82º B. 82º-90º C. 90º-95º D. 95º-100º 8. What is the maximum dose for Ketamine in severe aggravated behavioral cases? A. 100mg B. 200mg C. 300mg D. 400mg 9. Which location does NOT have NIR services? A. Mountain View B. Sunrise C. Summerlin D. UMC 10. What is the immediate action for an unresponsive patient? A. Check for a pulse B. Start CPR C. Apply AED D. Administer oxygen 11. What is the best position for a cord presentation during delivery? A. Supine B. Trendelenburg C. Left lateral D. Semi-Fowler’s 12. What is the ratio for newborn CPR? A. 15:1 B. 5:1 C. 3:1 D. 1:1 13. When should an APGAR score be assessed? A. At birth B. At 1 and 5 minutes C. Every minute for 10 minutes D. Only if resuscitation is needed 14. What is the correct dose of Amiodarone for wide complex tachycardia in adults? A. 100mg over 5 minutes B. 150mg over 10 minutes C. 300mg over 30 minutes D. 400mg over 20 minutes 15. What drug is contraindicated for IN administration? A. Midazolam B. Diazepam C. Ketamine D. Fentanyl 16. What is the initial dose of Adenosine for pediatric narrow complex stable tachycardia? A. 0.1mg/kg B. 0.2mg/kg C. 0.3mg/kg D. 0.4mg/kg 17. What is the maximum dose of Fentanyl for post-intubation analgesia in adults? A. 50mcg B. 100mcg C. 200mcg D. 400mcg 18. What is the maximum dose of Ketamine for pediatric induction? A. 2mg/kg B. 3mg/kg C. 4mg/kg D. 5mg/kg 19. What is the maximum dose of Etomidate for pediatric induction? A. 10mg B. 20mg C. 30mg D. 40mg 20. Which agent is NOT recommended for pacing or cardioversion sedation? A. Ketamine B. Etomidate C. Midazolam D. Diazepam 21. What is the maximum dose of Midazolam for pediatric post-intubation sedation? A. 5mg B. 10mg C. 15mg D. 20mg 22. What is the preferred treatment for seizures in pregnant patients? A. Diazepam B. Magnesium sulfate C. Midazolam D. Ketamine 23. What is the magnesium sulfate dose for preeclampsia? A. 1mg/50mL over 10 minutes B. 2mg/50mL over 10 minutes C. 4mg/50mL over 20 minutes D. 6mg/50mL over 20 minutes 24. What is the maximum dose of Amiodarone for monomorphic VT in pediatrics? A. 5mg/kg B. 10mg/kg C. 15mg/kg D. 20mg/kg 25. What is the correct defibrillation energy dose for pediatric Torsades? A. 1j/kg B. 2j/kg C. 4j/kg D. 6j/kg 26. What is the initial Atropine dose for pediatric bradycardia? A. 0.01mg/kg B. 0.02mg/kg C. 0.03mg/kg D. 0.04mg/kg 27. What defines moderate hypothermia? A. Below 82ºF B. 82º-90ºF C. 90º-95ºF D. Above 95ºF 28. For pediatric SVT (stable), what is the initial treatment without orders? A. Adenosine B. Vagal maneuvers C. Defibrillation D. Amiodarone 29. What is the analgesic dose of Fentanyl for pacing? A. 0.5mcg/kg B. 1mcg/kg C. 2mcg/kg D. 4mcg/kg 30. Which condition requires administering D10 for altered mental status? A. BGL < 40 B. BGL < 50 C. BGL < 60 D. BGL < 70 31. Which spinal stabilization contraindication is correct? A. Penetrating trauma to the head B. CPR in progress C. No spinal injury suspected D. All of the above 32. What is the maximum dose of Ketamine for adult induction? A. 200mg B. 300mg C. 400mg D. 500mg 33. What is the first step for a suspected sepsis patient? A. Start broad-spectrum antibiotics B. Monitor vitals C. Assess for signs of infection and vitals criteria D. Administer fluids 34. What is the recommended action for mechanical CPR? A. Minimize interruptions B. Perform over manual CPR C. Use only for pediatrics D. Use only for hypothermia cases 35. What is the correct magnesium sulfate dose for pediatric Torsades? A. 15mg/kg B. 20mg/kg C. 25mg/kg D. 30mg/kg 36. What is the correct administration method for Ondansetron? A. Selective serotonin blocking agent B. Dopamine agonist C. Acetylcholine receptor blocker D. GABA agonist 37. What is the APGAR score for flexed arms, grimace, normal skin, HR 110, and loud cry? A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 9 38. What is the dose of Diazepam for pediatric post-intubation sedation? A. 0.2mg/kg IV B. 0.5mg/kg PR C. 1mg/kg IM D. 2mg/kg IV 39. For suspected croup, what should be administered first? A. Epinephrine B. Oxygen C. Nebulized saline D. Steroids 40. What should be given for eclamptic seizures if magnesium sulfate is refractory? A. Diazepam B. Midazolam C. Ketamine D. Fentanyl 41. What is the standard dose of Etomidate for adult induction? A. 0.1mg/kg B. 0.2mg/kg C. 0.3mg/kg D. 0.4mg/kg 42. How should pediatric narrow complex tachycardia be treated if Adenosine fails? A. Amiodarone B. Vagal maneuver C. Cardioversion D. Fentanyl 43. What is the defibrillation dose for pediatric V-tach? A. 1j/kg B. 2j/kg C. 3j/kg D. 4j/kg 44. Which medication is used for left Trendelenburg during a cord prolapse? A. Magnesium sulfate B. Phenylephrine C. None; position is the intervention D. Epinephrine 45. Which IV induction agent has a maximum adult dose of 30mg? A. Ketamine B. Midazolam C. Etomidate D. Fentanyl 46. What is the preferred dose of Midazolam for sedation during pacing? A. 0.05mg/kg B. 0.1mg/kg C. 0.2mg/kg D. 0.5mg/kg 47. What is the maximum dose of Diazepam for adult post-intubation sedation? A. 5mg B. 10mg C. 15mg D. 20mg 48. What action is necessary for pediatric altered mental status with BGL >60? A. Cardiac monitoring B. Administer D10 C. Reassess vitals D. Defibrillate 49. What is the pediatric dose for Adenosine in narrow complex tachycardia? A. 0.05mg/kg B. 0.1mg/kg C. 0.15mg/kg D. 0.2mg/kg 50. What is the maximum dose of Magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia? A. 2mg over 10 minutes B. 4mg over 20 minutes C. 6mg over 30 minutes D. 8mg over 40 minutes 51. Which agent is NOT used for nasotracheal intubation? A. Phenylephrine B. Ketamine C. Oxymetazoline D. Lidocaine 52. What is the correct dose of Diazepam for sedation during cardioversion? A. 2mg B. 5mg C. 10mg D. 15mg 53. What is the pediatric dose of Magnesium sulfate for Torsades? A. 15mg/kg B. 20mg/kg C. 25mg/kg D. 30mg/kg 54. What defines an unstable tachycardia in pediatrics? A. Bradycardia with a pulse B. Narrow QRS complex C. Poor perfusion with wide QRS complex D. Altered mental status with normal vital signs 55. What is the action for an altered mental status patient with BGL 20 D. Blood glucose >200 77. What is the action for a patient presenting with a double long bone fracture? A. Splint and transport to the nearest facility B. Transport to UMC or Sunrise C. Administer morphine and monitor D. Call for air transport 78. What is the maximum dose of Ketamine for pediatric behavioral emergencies? A. 200mg B. 300mg C. 400mg D. 500mg 79. Which intervention is recommended for mechanical CPR? A. Allow interruptions between compressions B. Use only for refractory VF/VT C. Minimize interruptions D. Use for pediatric patients only 80. What is the initial action for a suspected cord prolapse during delivery? A. Apply fundal pressure B. Perform a C-section C. Position the patient in Trendelenburg D. Administer magnesium sulfate 81. What is the first step in managing an unresponsive patient? A. Administer oxygen B. Begin chest compressions C. Check for a pulse D. Apply an AED 82. What medication is contraindicated for IN (intranasal) administration? A. Ketamine B. Diazepam C. Fentanyl D. Midazolam 83. Which condition is a contraindication for cervical stabilization? A. Suspected spinal injury B. CPR in progress C. Altered mental status D. Blunt head trauma 84. What is the initial dose of Adenosine for stable pediatric narrow complex tachycardia? A. 0.05mg/kg B. 0.1mg/kg C. 0.2mg/kg D. 0.3mg/kg 85. What is the second dose of Adenosine for pediatric SVT if the first dose is ineffective? A. 0.15mg/kg B. 0.2mg/kg C. 0.25mg/kg D. 0.3mg/kg 86. What is the pediatric dose of Amiodarone for monomorphic VT? A. 2mg/kg B. 3mg/kg C. 5mg/kg D. 7mg/kg 87. What defines a suspected sepsis case in terms of temperature? A. Temp >98°F B. Temp >100°F C. Temp >101°F D. Temp >102°F 88. Which medication is NOT used for pediatric post-intubation sedation? A. Diazepam B. Ketamine C. Etomidate D. Midazolam 89. What is the appropriate defibrillation energy dose for pediatric Torsades? A. 1j/kg B. 2j/kg C. 3j/kg D. 4j/kg 90. What should be given to a pregnant patient with seizures as the initial treatment? A. Diazepam B. Ketamine C. Magnesium sulfate D. Fentanyl 91. What is the APGAR score for a baby with blue extremities, a strong cry, HR of 120, and active movement? A. 7 B. 8 C. 9 D. 10 92. What is the maximum dose of Etomidate for adult intubation? A. 10mg B. 20mg C. 30mg D. 40mg 93. Which medication is used as an antiemetic in pediatric protocols? A. Ondansetron B. Diphenhydramine C. Lorazepam D. Metoclopramide 94. What is the maximum dose of Midazolam for adult sedation during pacing? A. 5mg B. 7mg C. 10mg D. 12mg 95. What should be the initial action in a pediatric patient with bradycardia? A. Start chest compressions B. Administer Atropine C. Administer Epinephrine D. Provide oxygen and check for reversible causes 96. What is the correct action for a closed ankle fracture in a remote outpatient ER? A. Splint and transport to a trauma center B. Administer pain medication and discharge C. Splint, monitor, and follow up D. Immobilize, provide analgesia, and arrange for follow-up care 97. Which drug should be avoided for sedation during cardioversion? A. Diazepam B. Midazolam C. Ketamine D. Fentanyl 98. What is the recommended dose of Morphine for pain management during pacing? A. 0.05mg/kg B. 0.1mg/kg C. 0.15mg/kg D. 0.2mg/kg 99. What is the appropriate action for a patient presenting with altered mental status and a BGL of 70? A. Administer D10 B. Administer glucagon C. Monitor cardiac activity D. Provide oxygen 100. What is the maximum dose of Ketamine for IM administration in pediatric induction? A. 100mg B. 200mg C. 300mg D. 400mg Answer Key: 1. B 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. A 6. A 7. B 8. D 9. A & C 10. A 11. B 12. C 13. B 14. B 15. B 16. A 17. B 18. C 19. B 20. A 21. B 22. B 23. B 24. A 25. B 26. B 27. B 28. B 29. B 30. C 31. D 32. C 33. C 34. A 35. C 36. A 37. C 38. B 39. A 40. B 41. C 42. C 43. B 44. C 45. C 46. B 47. B 48. A 49. B 50. B 51. B 52. B 53. C 54. C 55. A 56. B 57. B 58. B 59. A 60. B 61. A 62. B 63. C 64. D 65. A 66. C 67. C 68. B 69. C 70. D 71. B 72. D 73. A 74. A 75. B 76. D 77. B 78. C 79. C 80. C 81. C 82. B 83. B 84. B 85. B 86. C 87. C 88. C 89. B 90. C 91. B 92. C 93. A 94. C 95. D 96. D 97. C 98. B 99. C 100. D

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