GRE Psychology Subject Test Practice Book PDF

Practice Book for the GRE ® Subject Test in Psychology This book contains ◾ one full-length GRE Psychology Test ◾ test-taking strategies Become familiar with ◾ test structure and content ◾ test instructions and answering procedures Plus: Comp...

Practice Book for the GRE ® Subject Test in Psychology This book contains ◾ one full-length GRE Psychology Test ◾ test-taking strategies Become familiar with ◾ test structure and content ◾ test instructions and answering procedures Plus: Compare your practice test results with the performance of those who took the test at a GRE administration. ets.org/gre  Table of Contents Overview...............................................................................................................3 Test Content..........................................................................................................3 Preparing for the Test...........................................................................................5 Test-Taking Strategies..........................................................................................5 What Your Scores Mean........................................................................................5 Taking the Practice Test........................................................................................5 Scoring the Practice Test.......................................................................................6 Evaluating Your Performance................................................................................6 Practice Test...........................................................................................................7 Worksheet for Scoring the Practice Test.............................................................32 Score Conversion Table......................................................................................34 Test takers with disabilities or health-related needs who need test preparation materials in an alternate format should contact the ETS Office of Disability Services at [email protected]. For additional information, visit www.ets.org/gre/test-takers/subject-tests/register/disability- accommodations.html. Copyright © 2024 by ETS. All rights reserved. ETS, GRADUATE RECORD EXAMINATIONS, and GRE are registered trademarks of ETS in the United States and other countries. The Eight-Point Logo is a trademark of ETS. Overview There are questions in six major content categories: The GRE® Psychology Test consists of 144 multiple- I. Biological – 30 questions choice questions. Some of the stimulus materials, such as a description of an experiment or a graph, may A. Sensation and Perception (9–11 questions) serve as the basis for several questions. Testing time is 1. Psychophysics, Signal Detection 2 hours; there are no separately-timed sections. 2. Attention This publication provides a comprehensive overview of the GRE Psychology Test to help you get 3. Perceptual Organization ready for test day. It is designed to help you: 4. Vision 5. Audition Understand what is being tested Gain familiarity with the question types 6. Gustation Review test-taking strategies 7. Olfaction Understand scoring 8. Somatosenses Practice taking the test 9. Vestibular and Kinesthetic Senses To learn more about the GRE Subject Tests, and 10. Theories, Applications and Issues their computer-based administration beginning in B. Physiological/Behavioral Neuroscience September 2023, visit www.ets.org/gre/test-takers/ (19–21 questions) subject-tests/about.html. 1. Neurons Test Content 2. Sensory Structures and Processes The questions in the Psychology Test are drawn from 3. Motor Structures and Functions the core of knowledge most commonly encountered 4. Central Structures and Processes in courses offered at the undergraduate level within 5. Motivation, Arousal, Emotion the broadly defined field of psychology. A question may require recalling factual information, analyzing 6. Cognitive Neuroscience relationships, applying principles, drawing conclusions 7. Neuromodulators and Drugs from data, and/or evaluating a research design. 8. Hormonal Factors The Psychology Test administered beginning in September 2023 yields a total scaled score and 9. Comparative and Ethology six percent correct scores in the following content areas: 10. States of Consciousness Biological 11. Theories, Applications and Issues Cognitive II. Cognitive – 29 questions Social A. Learning (6−8 questions) Developmental 1. Classical Conditioning Clinical 2. Instrumental Conditioning Measurement, Methodology and Other 3. Observational Learning, Modeling The questions on which percent correct scores are 4. Theories, Applications and Issues based are distributed throughout the test; they are not set aside and labeled separately, although several questions B. Language (4−6 questions) from a single content area may appear consecutively. 1. Units (phonemes, morphemes, phrases) 2. Syntax 3. Meaning 4. Speech Perception and Processing GRE ® Psychology Test Practice Book 3 Page  5. Reading Processes F. Social, Personality 6. Verbal and Nonverbal Communication G. Emotion 7. Bilingualism H. Socialization, Family and Cultural 8. Theories, Applications and Issues I. Theories, Applications and Issues C. Memory (10–12 questions) V. Clinical – 23 questions 1. Working Memory A. Personality (4–6 questions) 2. Long-term Memory 1. Theories 3. Types of Memory 2. Structure 4. Memory Systems and Processes 3. Assessment 5. Theories, Applications and Issues 4. Personality and Behavior D. Thinking (5–7 questions) 5. Applications and Issues 1. Representation (Categorization, Imagery, B. Clinical and Abnormal (17–19 questions) Schemas, Scripts) 1. Stress, Conflict, Coping 2. Problem Solving 2. Diagnostic Systems 3. Judgment and Decision-Making 3. Assessment Processes 4. Causes and Development of Disorders 4. Planning, Metacognition 5. Neurophysiological Factors 5. Intelligence 6. Treatment of Disorders 6. Theories, Applications and Issues 7. Epidemiology III. Social – 19 questions 8. Prevention A. Social Perception, Cognition, Attribution, Beliefs 9. Health Psychology B. Attitudes and Behavior 10. Cultural or Gender Issues C. Social Comparison, Self 11. Theories, Applications and Issues D. Emotion, Affect, and Motivation VI. Measurement, Methodology and Other – 25 questions E. Conformity, Influence, and Persuasion A. General (7–9 questions) F. Interpersonal Attraction and Close Relationships 1. History G. Group and Intergroup Processes 2. Industrial-Organizational H. Cultural or Gender Influences 3. Educational I. Evolutionary Psychology, Altruism and B. Measurement and Methodology Aggression (16–18 questions) J. Theories, Applications and Issues 1. Psychometrics, Test Construction, Reliability, Validity IV. Developmental – 18 questions 2. Research Designs A. Nature-Nurture 3. Statistical Procedures B. Physical and Motor 4. Scientific Method and the Evaluation of C. Perception and Cognition Evidence D. Language 5. Ethics and Legal Issues E. Learning, Intelligence 6. Analysis and Interpretation of Findings 4 Page GRE ® Psychology Test Practice Book Preparing for the Test What Your Scores Mean GRE Subject Test questions are designed to measure skills and knowledge gained over a long period of Total Scaled Score time. Although you might increase your scores to The number of questions you answered correctly on some extent through preparation a few weeks or the entire test (total correct score) is converted to the months before you take the test, last minute cramming total scaled score for score reporting. This conversion is unlikely to be of further help. The following ensures that a scaled score reported for any edition information may be helpful. of a GRE Psychology Test is comparable to the same A general review of your college courses is scaled score earned on any other edition of the test. probably the best preparation for the test. Thus, equal scaled scores on a particular test indicate However, the test covers a broad range of essentially equal levels of performance regardless of the subject matter, and no one is expected to be test edition taken. familiar with the content of every question. GRE Psychology total scaled scores are reported Become familiar with the types of questions on a 200 to 990 score scale in ten-point increments. in the GRE Psychology Test, paying special Total scaled scores should be compared only with other attention to the directions. If you thoroughly scores on the Psychology Test. For example, a total understand the directions before you take the score of 740 on the Psychology Test is not equivalent test, you will have more time during the test to a total score of 740 on the Mathematics Test. to focus on the questions themselves. Percent Correct Scores in Content Areas Test-Taking Strategies Six percent correct scores (Biological; Cognitive; Social; Developmental; Clinical; and Measurement, The questions in the practice test illustrate the types Methodology and Other) are reported on a range from of multiple-choice questions in the test. 0 to 100 percent. Percent correct scores indicate the The following are some general test-taking percentage of questions you answered correctly within strategies you may want to consider. a particular content area. Read the test directions carefully, and work as Note that percent correct scores from one test rapidly as you can without being careless. For edition cannot be compared with percent correct each question, choose the best answer from scores on other test editions because these scores are the available options. not equated. For example, a percent correct score of All questions are of equal value; do not waste 80 on Cognitive from one Psychology Test edition time pondering individual questions you find is not equivalent to a percent correct score of 80 on extremely difficult or unfamiliar. Cognitive from another Psychology Test edition. You may want to work through the test quickly, first answering only the questions Taking the Practice Test about which you feel confident, then going The practice test begins on page 7. The total time that back and answering questions that require you should allow for this practice test is 2 hours. more thought, and concluding with the most It is best to take this practice test under timed difficult questions if there is time. conditions. Find a quiet place to take the test and Your score will be determined by the number make sure you have a minimum of 2 hours available. of questions you answer correctly. Questions Before you begin the practice test, gather a few you answer incorrectly or for which you sheets of scratch paper for your notes and calculations choose no answer or more than one answer are during the test. When you are ready to begin the test, counted as incorrect. Nothing is subtracted note the time and begin marking your answers in the from a score if you answer a question test. Stop working on the test when 2 hours have incorrectly. Therefore, to maximize your score elapsed. it is better for you to guess at an answer than not to respond at all. GRE ® Psychology Test Practice Book 5 Page Scoring the Practice Test show, for each scaled score, the percentage of test takers who received lower scores. To compare yourself The worksheet on page 32 lists the correct answers to with this population, look at the percentage next to the questions. The “Correct Response” columns are the scaled score you earned on the practice test. Note provided for you to mark those questions for which that these interpretive data are updated annually and you chose the correct answer. The “Content Area” reported on GRE score reports. columns indicate the primary content area to which Your six percent correct scores provide information each question contributes. about your strengths or weaknesses in the six content Mark each question that you answered correctly. areas of the Psychology Test. You may wish to Then, add up your correct answers and enter your concentrate your review efforts on topics in content total number of correct answers in each space labeled areas where your percent correct scores are lower than “Total Correct” at the bottom of page 33. Next, use other areas. the “Total Score” conversion table on page 34 to find It is important to realize that the conditions under the corresponding total scaled score. For example, which you tested yourself will not be exactly the same suppose you chose the correct answers to 136 of all of as those you will encounter during your actual test the questions on the test. The “Total Correct” entry administration. It is impossible to predict how different in the “Total Score” conversion table of 136 shows test-taking conditions will affect test performance, and that your total scaled score is 820. this is only one factor that may account for differences To calculate each percent correct score, enter the between your practice test scores and your actual test number of questions you answered correctly in each scores. By comparing your performance on this practice of the six content areas in the space labeled with test with the performance of other individuals who took the corresponding Questions Correct in Content the GRE Psychology Test, however, you will be able to Area (1–6). Compute each percent correct score determine your strengths and weaknesses and can then by dividing the number of questions you answered plan a program of study to prepare yourself for taking correctly in that content area by the total number of the GRE Psychology Test under standard conditions. questions in that content area and multiplying the value by 100, and rounding to a whole number. For example, suppose you answered 14 of the 30 questions in content area 1 correctly. Your percent correct score 1 would be: (14/30) *100 = 46.7 = 47 Evaluating Your Performance Now that you have scored your test, you may wish to compare your performance with the performance of others who took this test. The data in the worksheet on pages 32–33 are based on the performance of a sample of the test takers who took the GRE Psychology Test in the United States. The numbers in the column labeled “P+” on the worksheet indicate the percentages of examinees in this sample who answered each question correctly. You may use these numbers as a guide for evaluating your performance on each test question. Interpretive data based on the scores earned by a recent cohort of test takers are available on the GRE website at www.ets.org/gre/test-takers/subject-tests/ scores/understand-scores.html. The interpretive data 6 Page GRE ® Psychology Test Practice Book  GRADUATE RECORD EXAMINATIONS® PSYCHOLOGY PRACTICE TEST FORM GR1783 GRE ® Psychology Test Practice Book 7 Page  PSYCHOLOGY PRACTICE TEST Time — 120 minutes 144 Questions Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by five suggested answers or completions. In each case, select the one that is best and then completely fill in the corresponding space on the answer sheet. 1. The ability of a postsynaptic neuron to respond 4. Consider the sentence “The dishwasher is to the presence of a particular neurotransmitter running.” Which of the following is true? that is released from a neighboring presynaptic (A) It can have more than one surface structure. neuron is dependent on which of the following (B) It can have more than one deep structure. conditions? (C) It is grammatically incorrect. (A) The storage of the neurotransmitter in the (D) It can have more than one syntax. presynaptic neuron (E) It violates the rules of bottom-up processing. (B) The ability of the neurotransmitter to penetrate the membrane of the postsynaptic 5. According to the Diagnostic and Statistical neuron Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, Text Revision (DSM-5-TR ), children with separation TM (C) The presence of receptors on the postsynaptic neuron that have an affinity for that anxiety disorder often experience which of the particular neurotransmitter following symptoms in addition to excessive fear (D) Whether or not the neurotransmitter or anxiety over separation from attachment figures? is excitatory or inhibitory (A) Excessive concern about the safety and well- (E) Whether or not the postsynaptic neuron being of attachment figures has an axon that is myelinated (B) Persistent desire to develop relationships with adults other than those who serve as major 2. Organizing the string of letters B-F-J-T-A-V-K-C attachment figures into JFK-TV-CAB is an example of (C) Pervasive anxiety about failure in school or (A) simplifying social situations (B) clustering (D) Perceptual delusions that the child’s parents (C) seriating have been replaced by physically identical (D) chunking imposters (E) paraphrasing (E) Irresistible urges to perform and repeat a certain act over and over again 3. When persuasive communications follow the peripheral route, they focus on which of the following? (A) Beliefs (B) Facts (C) Values (D) Emotions (E) Cognitions 8 Page GRE ® Psychology Test Practice Book 6. Patients with bilateral damage to the hippocampal 9. Which of the following best characterizes an formation are tested on motor learning tasks such infant’s object concept at six months of age? as the Tower of Hanoi. Studies show that the (A) The infant’s visual system is too immature patients improve their performance with repeated to enable focusing on an object in the exposures. When asked whether they have ever seen visual field. the task, even after numerous test sessions with it, (B) The infant is unable to track moving objects they typically report not having seen it before. Such in the visual field. results have led to which of the following (C) The infant is not surprised when two objects conclusions? are seen to occupy the same space at the (A) Patients with hippocampal injury suffer from same time. confabulation similar to Korsakoff’s (D) The infant’s understanding of object patients. mechanics is as sophisticated as the (B) The inability to remember the Tower of adult’s understanding. Hanoi reflects a fundamental lesion-induced (E) The infant understands objects to be solid inability to name objects. bounded entities that take up space and (C) Although procedural memory may not rely move on continuous paths. on normal hippocampal functioning, declarative memory does. 10. A 40-item vocabulary test was administered (D) Hippocampal injury enhances the acquisition to a group of students. A second, similar test of of tasks relying on motor learning. vocabulary terms was administered to this same (E) Whereas procedural memory is severely group of students approximately one week later. impaired after hippocampal injury, The researcher reported that the correlation reference memory is intact. between these two tests was r =.90. What type of reliability is represented in this example? 7. Which of the following is chemically similar (A) Test-retest to opiates, has the ability to reduce pain, and (B) Internal consistency is blocked by the action of naloxone? (C) Alternate forms (A) Norepinephrine (D) Split-half (B) Acetylcholine (E) Inter-rater (C) Serotonin (D) Endorphin (E) Dopamine 8. When stress is prolonged, the most likely result is (A) generalized weakening of the immune system (B) damage to brain areas within the pons and medulla (C) an increase in the level of naturally produced endorphins (D) intensification of the effects of natural killer cells (E) an increase in the number of T cells GRE ® Psychology Test Practice Book 9 Page Questions 11-13 refer to the information below. 11. Which of the following describes the pattern of findings displayed in the graph? A researcher was interested in whether or not (A) Men who heard the jazz piece and women jazz vocals and opera influence men’s and women’s who heard the operatic piece scored higher emotional states. She hypothesized that these types on the mood inventory than those in the of music influence men and women differently. In other two groups. a study investigating this hypothesis, 40 men and (B) People who heard the operatic piece scored 40 women heard a jazz piece, and 40 men and higher on the mood inventory than those 40 women heard an operatic piece. The jazz piece who heard the jazz piece. was sung by a man, and the operatic piece was sung (C) People who heard the jazz piece scored by a woman. Afterward, participants rated themselves higher on the mood inventory than those on an inventory measuring emotional state. Higher who heard the operatic piece. scores on the inventory indicate positive mood. (D) Men scored higher than women on the mood Results of this study are represented in the graph inventory regardless of the type of music below. they heard. (E) Women scored higher than men on the mood inventory regardless of the type of music they heard. 12. The researcher concludes from her study that jazz music positively changes men’s moods and operatic music positively changes women’s moods. Which of the following invalidates that conclusion? (A) The participants were college students who were not music majors. (B) Only one scale was used to measure mood. (C) Men and women were randomly assigned to groups. (D) Previous studies have shown that men are less emotional than women. (E) Men’s and women’s moods were not mea- sured before exposure to the two types of music. 13. Which of the following is the most serious problem with the methodology of this research? (A) Men and women did not listen to both types of music. (B) The singers were not the same gender. (C) The sample size was too small to draw a valid conclusion. (D) The participants were not musicians. (E) Only one type of music should have been used. 10 Page GRE ® Psychology Test Practice Book 14. The preference for a loosely knit social frame- 17. Which of the following is the best example of work in which individuals are responsible only the categorical perception of human speech? for the care of their children and themselves is (A) Listeners are able to categorize speech known as samples in terms of the gender of the (A) collectivism speaker. (B) individualism (B) Listeners are able to categorize a stream (C) ethnocentrism of words into a series of distinct words, (D) egocentrism because they can identify the brief pauses (E) interactionism that appear between words. (C) When a sound is presented that is inter- 15. Over many trials a puff of air aimed at JoAnne’s mediate between the phonemes /b/ and eyes is paired with a loud noise and a subtle /p/, listeners report that they heard either smell. Afterward, it is very likely that JoAnne’s a distinct /b/ or a distinct /p/. conditioned eye blink will be under the control (D) During speech perception, listeners auto- of the loud noise and not the subtle smell. This matically place phonemes into one of two phenomenon is an example of categories, vowels or consonants. (E) After hearing a sentence, people process (A) overshadowing each word and make decisions about the (B) conditioned suppression word’s function within that sentence. (C) generalization (D) counterconditioning (E) reinstatement 18. Charles Scott Sherrington proposed that rapid stimulation of a specific synapse is likely to 16. The idea that people cope with stress by moving produce a cumulative effect in the postsynaptic toward people, away from people, or against cell because of people is most consistent with the views of (A) spatial summation (A) Aaron Beck (B) temporal summation (B) Carl Rogers (C) saltatory conduction (C) Karen Horney (D) neuromodulation (D) Erik Erikson (E) spreading depression (E) Erich Fromm 19. Which of the following is an atypical developmental pattern characterized by stereotyped motor responses and poor communication skills? (A) Tardive dyskinesia (B) Autism spectrum disorder (C) Down syndrome (D) Williams syndrome (E) Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder GRE ® Psychology Test Practice Book 11 Page 20. The sharing of information about oneself 24. Using a pendulum apparatus, a participant is referred to as attempts to derive the physical laws that (A) social exchange determine the rate at which a pendulum swings. (B) experience sampling The participant’s approach to solving this problem (C) communal sharing is to hold a relevant factor (X) constant and to (D) self-disclosure vary a second relevant factor (Y), and then to (E) authority ranking reverse this procedure by holding Y constant and varying X. According to Jean Piaget, the 21. Research on children’s social behavior shows participant’s level of cognitive functioning is most that relative to young adolescent boys, young likely adolescent girls exhibit more of which type of (A) preoperational aggression? (B) concrete operational (A) Hostile (C) formal operational (B) Instrumental (D) sensorimotor (C) Physical (E) conventional (D) Relational (E) Displaced 25. A child has just developed the ability to lie with the intention of deceiving another person. This 22. The visual pathway that tells us what we new ability is probably based most directly on a change in the child’s are looking at is called the (A) knowledge about mental representations (A) corticospinal tract (B) skill in making transitive inferences (B) solitary tract (C) spinothalamic tract (C) formal operational thinking (D) social referencing (D) dorsal stream (E) temperament (E) ventral stream 26. Rapid eye movements are most closely associated 23. Which theorist revised Sigmund Freud’s stages of with which of the following? development, replacing Freud’s psychosexual stages with psychosocial stages? (A) Alpha waves (B) Delta waves (A) Karen Horney (C) Dreaming (B) Erik Erikson (D) Apnea (C) Alfred Adler (E) Stage II sleep (D) Viktor Frankl (E) Abraham Maslow 12 Page GRE ® Psychology Test Practice Book 27. If a psychological disorder has a genetic basis, 29. Juanita’s classmates enjoy being with her because one would expect to find the highest concordance she is always sociable, easygoing, and lively. On rate for the illness between which of the Eysenck’s basic personality dimensions, she following? would be classified as (A) Mother and child (A) unstable introverted (B) Father and child (B) extroverted stable (C) Identical twins (C) passive-aggressive (D) Fraternal twins (D) intrinsically motivated (E) Nontwin siblings (E) cyclothymic dysthymic 28. All of the following statements about 30. Annette is looking for a psychotherapist whose psychodynamic theorists are correct EXCEPT: clinical work is rooted in object relations theory. The best match for Annette would be a therapist (A) Karen Horney stressed the importance of who emphasizes social relationships between children and their parents. (A) the use of medication (B) Alfred Adler claimed that childhood feelings (B) the here and now of inferiority lead to striving for superiority. (C) cognitive distortions (C) Carl Jung identified two components of the (D) early life relationships unconscious: the preconscious and the (E) counterconditioning formal unconscious. (D) Erik Erikson described conflicts at different stages of development. (E) Sigmund Freud stressed the interaction of the id, the ego, and the superego. GRE ® Psychology Test Practice Book 13 Page Questions 31-33 refer to the following passage. Depression is more common among people with insomnia than among those with satisfactory sleep. To determine the reasons for this relationship, investigators identified 40 people suffering from both depression and insomnia. For each of these 40, they paired two other people of the same gender and age who were neither depressed nor suffering from any sleep disorder. One of these was designated the “normal-sleep control,” and the other was designated the “yoked control.” All participants slept in a laboratory for one week. The normal-sleep control person slept without restrictions. During that same time, the yoked control was permitted to sleep when the depressed-insomniac person slept, but was required to awaken whenever the depressed-insomniac person awakened. A valid questionnaire for measuring depression was administered at the end of the one-week study. Assume that higher scores on the questionnaire reflect greater depressive symptomatology. 31. What pattern of results on the depression questionnaire would justify the conclusion that sleeplessness leads to depression? (A) Normal sleep control < yoked control = depressed (B) Normal sleep control = yoked control = depressed (C) Normal sleep control = yoked control < depressed (D) Yoked control < normal sleep control < depressed (E) Yoked control < normal sleep control = depressed 32. What pattern of results on the depression questionnaire would one expect if depression were to arise for reasons other than sleeplessness? (A) Normal sleep control < yoked control = depressed (B) Normal sleep control = yoked control = depressed (C) Normal sleep control = yoked control < depressed (D) Yoked control < normal sleep control < depressed (E) Yoked control < normal sleep control = depressed 33. Suppose that the results were consistent with the hypothesis that sleeplessness does not lead to depression. Of the following, which would be the most serious criticism of the study and its conclusion? (A) Although the questionnaire to measure depression was known to be valid, it may not have been reliable. (B) The study failed to examine other factors that might also contribute to depression. (C) The yoked-control group was unnecessary. (D) One week of sleep deprivation may have been inadequate to produce depression. (E) The normal sleep-control group was unnecessary. 14 Page GRE ® Psychology Test Practice Book 34. Which of the following predictions is reasonable 37. The use of polite words such as “please” and based on Baddeley and Hitch’s theory of working “thank you” in everyday speech is called memory? (A) morphology (A) If two tasks using the same component are (B) syntax done concurrently, performance will be (C) semantics improved on one or both. (D) pragmatics (B) If two tasks using the same component are (E) phonetics done concurrently, performance will be impaired on one or both. 38. Which of the following factors would best explain (C) If two tasks that do not use the same why monozygotic twins, raised together, component are done concurrently, nevertheless develop different personalities? performance will be improved on (A) Shared genetic material one or both. (B) Non-shared genetic material (D) If two tasks that do not use the same (C) Shared environments component are done concurrently, (D) Non-shared environments performance will be impaired on (E) Shared histories one or both. (E) If two tasks are done concurrently, whether 39. Which of the following visual experiences or not they use the same component, most attracts a newborn’s gaze? performance will be unchanged. (A) The color beige 35. Which of the following was the first to (B) The color black systematically and empirically study memory (C) The color white by developing an innovative approach based (D) A black-and-white pattern on consonant-vowel-consonant combinations? (E) A beige-and-white pattern (A) Hermann Ebbinghaus 40. Edmundo got into an argument with the grocery (B) James Mill clerk. When he returned to his car after shopping, (C) John B. Watson he discovered that he received a parking ticket. (D) Max Wertheimer Edmundo furiously crumpled up the ticket and (E) Christian von Ehrenfels threw it on the ground. When his friend Terri told him to calm down, he screamed at her to mind her own business. Which of the following theories 36. Which memory store is believed to have the best accounts for Edmundo’s behavior? largest capacity? (A) Excitation transfer (A) The sensory store (B) Social identity (B) The short-term store (C) Correspondent inference (C) The long-term store (D) Distraction-conflict (D) The phonological loop (E) Normative focus (E) The visuospatial sketch pad 41. Cleotha finds out that her roommate Leontyne is a better pool player than she is. However, Cleotha reminds herself that she can play poker better than Leontyne. Cleotha is engaging in which of the following? (A) Self-verification (B) Self-efficacy (C) Self-affirmation (D) Self-monitoring (E) Self-awareness GRE ® Psychology Test Practice Book 15 Page 42. According to the theory of cognitive development 47. A fixed action pattern is defined as a response to a proposed by Lev Vygotsky, children learn best by working (A) secondary reinforcer (B) generalization gradient (A) independently (C) conditioned stimulus (B) with adults and advanced peers (D) drop in reticular activity (C) with less advanced peers (E) sign stimulus (D) with visually simple objects (E) with visually complex objects 48. Based on research by Mary Ainsworth, which of the following best describes how an infant who 43. According to Jean Piaget, young infants are in has formed a secure maternal attachment would which stage of development? be expected to respond to the mother’s leaving (A) Proximal and/or returning? (B) Psychosocial (A) Upon the mother’s return, the infant will be (C) Attachment pleased to see her and will go to her to be (D) Sensorimotor held. (E) Preoperational (B) Upon the mother’s return, the infant will cry and will cling to her. 44. Fred was keenly interested in a new science (C) Upon the mother’s return, the infant will fiction film and therefore was surprised when he actively avoid her. arrived at the theater on opening night and found (D) The infant will not be upset by the mother’s only a few people there. Fred’s mistaken leaving and will not go to the mother upon judgment of the popularity of the film illustrates her return. (A) the self-serving bias (E) The infant will cry and cling to the mother (B) self-handicapping as she leaves and will continue to cry (C) pluralistic ignorance throughout the mother’s absence. (D) the actor-observer effect (E) the false consensus effect 49. Damaging the suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus in rats will 45. According to the evolutionary principle of (A) impair the ability to acquire spatial kin selection, people are more likely to help information someone who (B) reduce the threshold for pain resulting (A) is physically attractive from injury to the limbs (B) shares their genes (C) promote the development of maternal (C) will return the favor behavior in males (D) is a potential mate (D) interfere with the biological clock that (E) is of higher status is synchronized with light (E) decrease aggressive behavior directed 46. An individual suffering from damage to at rats of the same sex Wernicke’s area would most likely exhibit which of the following behaviors? (A) Impaired comprehension of language (B) An inability to determine what is socially acceptable behavior (C) An explosive temper with even slight provocation (D) An inability to form new memories (E) An uncontrollable tremor of the hands 16 Page GRE ® Psychology Test Practice Book 50. Aunt Sybil paid her first visit to her niece Angela 54. The tendency to attribute your successes to when the baby was 3 months old. Aunt Sybil dispositional factors and your failures to enjoyed holding and playing with the baby. situational factors is called the Aunt Sybil visited again when Angela was (A) autokinetic effect 9 months old. She was dismayed when the little (B) hostile attribution bias girl took one look at her and burst into tears. (C) self-serving bias Angela was exhibiting a normal emotional (D) self-fulfilling prophecy reaction called (E) fundamental attribution error (A) separation anxiety (B) avoidant attachment 55. What term is best used to describe the smallest (C) ambivalent attachment meaningful unit of a language? (D) emotional regulation (E) stranger anxiety (A) Phone (B) Phoneme 51. Which of the following therapeutic techniques can (C) Morpheme be explained by classical conditioning principles? (D) Syntax (E) Semantic (A) Modeling and implosion (B) Modeling and systematic desensitization 56. According to Johnston and Heinz’s multimode (C) Modeling and token economies theory of attention, why is it dangerous to drive (D) Systematic desensitization and flooding an automobile while talking on a cell phone? (E) Systematic desensitization and token economies (A) Driving is an automatic task, but talking requires attentional resources. 52. Joe’s therapist frequently exhibits genuineness (B) Talking on the phone results in the filtering and empathy toward Joe. These elements are of all other stimuli, including those relevant defining features of which of the following to driving. therapeutic approaches? (C) People can both talk and drive effectively, but they will not be able to remember (A) Existential anything about either the phone (B) Psychoanalytic conversation or events related to driving. (C) Behavioral (D) Both talking and driving require attentional (D) Cognitive resources, and adequate attentional (E) Client-centered resources may not be allocated to driving. (E) Talking is an automatic task, but attentional 53. Georgia sees a sign in the bathroom stall resources need to be allocated to driving. that says, “Do not write on the walls under any circumstances!” Georgia takes out her 57. The transformation of energy into electrical pen and begins to write all over the walls. impulses is According to social psychologists, Georgia (A) neural processing is experiencing (B) transduction (A) selective avoidance (C) sensation (B) trivialization (D) a difference threshold (C) reactance (E) an energy current (D) symbolic self-awareness (E) jeer pressure GRE ® Psychology Test Practice Book 17 Page 58. The action potential is triggered at which 63. The inability to recognize a once-familiar face, of the following parts of a neuron? while still being able to accurately describe elements of the face, is a characteristic (A) Dendrite symptom of (B) Soma (C) Terminal button (A) amnesia (D) Axon hillock (B) blindsight (E) Spine (C) prosopagnosia (D) sensory neglect 59. What function is served by the white myelin (E) transcortical aphasia sheath that may cover an axon? 64. Ability derived directly from previous experience (A) It protects the axon from overheating. is known as (B) It protects the axon from microorganisms. (C) It increases the speed of the electrical (A) crystallized intelligence impulses. (B) fluid intelligence (D) It provides the axon with nutrients. (C) formal operations (E) It prohibits the axon from carrying impulses. (D) concrete operations (E) prospective memory 60. Which of the following is the name given to the process of differentiating oneself from others by 65. Cohorts born in different decades have been found emphasizing one’s uniqueness? to differ in their personality characteristics during (A) Personality adolescence. Such findings most directly suggest (B) Impression formation that personality development (C) Deindividuation (A) follows a different course for males and for (D) Individuation females during late childhood (E) Social categorization (B) is influenced primarily by hormonal factors (C) is based on experience during a critical period 61. Which of the following theories places the in early childhood greatest emphasis on the effects of early (D) is influenced by the historical context in which childhood experiences on personality? it occurs (A) Psychodynamic (E) is influenced more by peers than by parents (B) Humanistic during adolescence (C) Trait (D) Social cognitive 66. “Of several responses made to the same situation, (E) Behavioral those which are accompanied or closely followed by satisfaction to the animal will, other things 62. A neuron that receives excitation from other being equal, be more firmly connected with the neurons and conducts impulses from its soma situation... ; those which are accompanied or in the spinal cord to muscle or gland cells is closely followed by discomfort to the animal will, called a other things being equal, have their connections (A) sensory neuron with that situation weakened.” (B) motor neuron (C) neuroglia The statement above was written by (D) oligodendrocyte (A) Albert Bandura (E) Schwann cell (B) Edwin Guthrie (C) Ivan Pavlov (D) B. F. Skinner (E) Edward Thorndike 18 Page GRE ® Psychology Test Practice Book  Questions 67-71 7 1 refer to the passage below. When Dr. Elkin interviewed Michael, she found that his behavior was very strange and his thinking seemed paranoid and bizarre. Michael seemed to be having a conversation with his mother, who he insisted was sitting in the room with him, although she had died two years earlier. When Michael spoke to Dr. Elkin, he told her that the cashiers at the local grocery store were intentionally contaminating the cereals and bottled water he customarily purchased. On one occasion he harmed a cashier as she picked up the telephone to do a price check. In explaining his action, Michael insisted that he heard his mother’s voice over the loudspeaker telling him to hurt the cashier. Shortly after the death of his mother, Michael quit college, terminated all his social relationships and began an unhealthy diet consisting exclusively of sweetened cereals and water. Last year, Michael’s father had taken him to see a psychiatrist, who diagnosed Michael as having schizophrenia, and recommended psychotherapy and antipsychotic medication, but Michael vehemently refused both. Michael’s father indicated that Michael’s grandfather also had been classified as exhibiting schizophrenia. 67. Which of the following best represents Michael’s mental disorder according to the diathesis-stress model? Diathesis Stress (A) Genetic history of schizophrenia Death of his mother (B) Death of his mother Genetic history of schizophrenia (C) Genetic history of schizophrenia Paranoid beliefs (D) Death of his mother Paranoid beliefs (E) Dropping out of college Death of his mother 68. Michael’s false belief that the cashiers were 70. Which section of a report would most likely plotting against him is an example of include a description of Michael’s life experiences that are relevant to his mental disorder? (A) a hallucination (B) a delusion (A) Diagnosis (C) a cognitive distortion (B) Mental status (D) an attribution error (C) General assessment of functioning (E) a dysfunctional attitude (D) Treatment plan (E) Psychosocial history 69. Michael reported that he harmed the cashier in response to an instruction from his dead mother. 71. In the case of Michael, which of the following This phenomenon is called statements is true regarding the positive and (A) a delusion of reference negative symptoms of schizophrenia? (B) a somatic delusion (A) Hearing voices is a positive symptom. (C) a gustatory hallucination (B) The fact that Michael’s grandfather had (D) a command hallucination schizophrenia is a positive symptom. (E) magical thinking (C) The perception of his mother instructing him to harm the cashier is a negative symptom. (D) Michael’s vehement refusal to take medication is a negative symptom. (E) Michael’s unhealthy diet is a negative symptom. GRE ® Psychology Test Practice Book 19 Page 72. Which of the following approaches to assessment Questions 75-76 refer to the following of intelligence is most consistent with the theories information. of both Howard Gardner and Robert Sternberg? A researcher conducted a study to determine the (A) Using biological indexes of intelligence effects of gender and status on the perceived instead of the Stanford-Binet IQ test credibility of an eyewitness testifying in a trial. (B) Narrowing the definition of intelligence Participants watched one of four video recordings to include fewer key skill areas depicting the eyewitness and rated the credibility of (C) Increasing the reliability of IQ tests the eyewitness. (D) Increasing the emphasis on measuring g rather than specific abilities 75. What type of design was used in this study? (E) Increasing the emphasis on measuring specific abilities rather than g (A) Between-subjects (B) Within-subjects 73. Which of the following are two competing (C) Between- and within-subjects theories of color vision that describe events (D) Multivariate correlational that take place at different levels of the nervous (E) Longitudinal system? 76. In order to determine whether gender, as a (A) Frequency versus place specific variable, had an effect on perceived cred- (B) Trichromatic versus opponent-process ibility of the eyewitness, which of the following (C) Specificity versus pattern must be significant? (D) Frequency versus pattern (A) The main effect of gender (E) Trichromatic versus specificity (B) A post hoc analysis of gender (C) The main effect of status 74. Smokers were randomly assigned to one of two (D) A post hoc analysis of status groups. Those in the experimental group were told (E) The interaction between gender and status that they would be listening to tapes with sublim- inal messages urging them to quit smoking. Those in the control group did not listen to the tapes, nor were they told about them. A week after listening 77. Damage to which area of the brain leads to to the tapes, members of the experimental group a decrease in physically aggressive behavior had decreased their smoking significantly more and social rank? than members of the control group. The inves- tigator concluded that listening to the subliminal (A) Lateral hypothalamus messages reduces smoking. Which of the fol- (B) Hippocampus lowing, if true, casts the greatest doubt on the (C) Amygdala investigator’s conclusion? (D) Basal ganglia (E) Medial geniculate (A) During the week, some participants in the control group read articles on the hazards of smoking. (B) During the week, only a few of the experi- mental participants reduced their smoking appreciably. (C) Participants in the experimental group were influenced by their expectations of the tapes’ effects. (D) The two groups had similar initial (baseline) smoking rates. (E) The two groups were both quite large, but unequal in size. 20 Page GRE ® Psychology Test Practice Book 78. Consider the following version of an interference 80. Mel is doing very well academically in college, task. but feels academically incompetent. His therapist has instructed him to explain in writing how his As fast as possible, say how many items are in hard work and personal abilities contributed to each row for set 1 and for set 2 each of the good grades he received during the previous semester. This activity is characteristic Set 1 Set 2 of which of the following therapeutic approaches? $$$ 222 (A) Psychoanalytic (B) Cognitive # 5 (C) Biomedical 44 (D) Behavioral ** (E) Gestalt &&&& 3333 81. The Flynn effect is the phenomenon of If participants can say how many items are in set 1 faster than they can say how many are in (A) the gradual increase in IQ scores over the last set 2, the result is most consistent with century (B) higher IQ scores among children who were (A) task-general resources breast-fed (B) the pop-out effect (C) higher IQ scores among people with higher (C) context-dependent memory levels of education (D) the Stroop effect (D) a stronger correlation between the IQ scores (E) task-specific resources of monozygotic twins than between those of dizygotic twins 79. Researchers using a variety of methods, peoples, (E) a stronger correlation between the IQ scores and cultures have concluded that five major of siblings reared together than between personality traits exist. The traits are those of siblings reared apart (A) sociability, suspiciousness, practicality, 82. In which of the following cognitive tasks dependency, and shyness do the performances of older adults show (B) enthusiasm, calmness, adventure, docility, the greatest difference compared to the and hypochondria scores of young adults? (C) extraversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, emotional stability, (A) Divided attention task and openness to experience (B) Recognition memory of narrative (D) obedience, self-control, astuteness, tension, (C) Recognition memory of word list and self-criticism (D) Semantic memory test (E) emotional stability, apprehension, social (E) Implicit memory test awareness, independence, and avoidance 83. According to current conceptions, working memory is characterized by (A) stress on episodic rather than semantic memory (B) its unitary nature (C) maintenance of information in current use (D) greater importance for procedural than for declarative memory (E) required use of mnemonics GRE ® Psychology Test Practice Book 21 Page 84. Before taking an exam, Sinead imagines that she 89. Albert recently noticed that he has difficulty will get the worst grade in the class, even though hearing people at crowded parties even though she usually performs very well. Imagining the his hearing seems fine in quiet surroundings. worst seems to help her deal with the anxiety He most likely has damage to his associated with the exam. What term best (A) pinna describes Sinead’s strategy? (B) eardrum (A) Intrinsic motivation (C) stapes (B) Defensive pessimism (D) oval window (C) Self-handicapping (E) hair cells (D) Self-monitoring (E) Self-regulation 90. John recently moved to a large city and experienced an increase in the level of noise. 85. Which of the following techniques of studying the His new home was located adjacent to a brain involves the use of x-rays? railroad track. The rail service was frequent and maintained a consistent schedule. John was (A) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) awakened frequently each night as trains passed (B) Computed tomography (CT) his home. However, after several months he was (C) Electroencephalography (EEG) not awakened and he became less aware of the (D) Immunohistochemistry trains passing by his home. What mechanism (E) Microiontophoresis accounts for John’s adaptation to his environment? 86. Damage to the lateral hypothalamus of rats is known to produce deficits in regulation of (A) Orienting response (B) Sensitization (A) respiration (C) Habituation (B) pupillary reflexes (D) Conditioned response (C) sleep (E) Conditioned stimulus (D) eating and drinking (E) oxytocin levels 91. Which of the following is a chronic condition that 87. According to a current model, learned can cause anterograde amnesia in some people? helplessness in humans is determined by (A) Alcoholism causal explanations of prior uncontrollable (B) Fibromyalgia events. These causal explanations are (C) Muscular dystrophy referred to as (D) Panic disorder (A) aggregation (E) Bipolar disorder (B) attributions (C) circular reasoning 92. Lo is an advocate of personal construct theory. (D) personal constructs Which of the following processes does Lo believe (E) valuations are most important in the study of personality? (A) Biological 88. Amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles (B) Unconscious are most often characteristic of (C) Cultural (A) substance-induced persisting amnestic (D) Emotional disorder (E) Cognitive (B) Alzheimer’s disease (C) Parkinson’s disease (D) bipolar disorder (E) schizophrenia 22 Page GRE ® Psychology Test Practice Book 93. According to Albert Bandura’s approach to 96. Which of the following represents the correct observational learning, which of the following order of stages in Bibb Latané and John Darley’s is the best example of vicarious punishment? model of helping? (A) A child stops throwing pencils after watching I. Interpretation a teacher scold another child for throwing a II. Knowing how to help pencil across the room. III. Noticing (B) A child watches a teacher say to another IV. Perception of responsibility child, “You did so well on that homework V. Deciding to help that you do not need to take the test (A) I, III, V, IV, II tomorrow.” (B) III, I, IV, II, V (C) A child acquires a schema about the (C) III, IV, I, II, V difference between socially punished (D) III, IV, II, V, I behavior and socially rewarded behavior. (E) III, IV, I, V, II (D) A child escapes punishment by cleaning up a mess before anyone notices it. 97. What is a limitation of Elisabeth Kübler-Ross’s (E) A child is punished on a variable ratio stages of coping with death (denial, anger, schedule, rather than being punished every bargaining, depression, and acceptance) ? time a mistake is made. (A) The stages are not relevant to terminally ill 94. Cephalocaudal development refers to patients. development that proceeds from (B) The stages are based on a study with fewer than twenty individuals. (A) the trunk outward (C) Not all people experience every stage. (B) head to tail (D) Few people in Western cultures experience (C) bottom to top the depression stage. (D) the perimeter toward the center (E) The stages are generally not relevant to (E) the general to the specific younger adults. 95. Which of the following best states the major shortcomings of the place and the frequency- 98. Which of the following statements about matching (volley) theories of audition? subliminal messages is most accurate? (A) Neither theory can be studied empirically. (A) Visual messages are more effective than (B) Initial evidence in support of these theories auditory messages in influencing attitude cannot be replicated. and behavior change. (C) Neither theory can account for auditory dis- (B) There is evidence they can influence short- orders that are caused by structural defects term attitude change. in the temporal lobe. (C) They are one of the most common techniques (D) Place theory applies primarily to loud sounds, used by advertisers to influence attitude and whereas frequency-matching theory applies behavior change. primarily to barely audible sounds. (D) They are more effective than personal (E) Place theory does not explain the coding of testimonial advertising campaigns in very low frequencies, whereas frequency- influencing attitude and behavior change. matching theory does not explain the coding (E) They are consciously perceived by of very high frequencies. participants nearly 100% of the time. GRE ® Psychology Test Practice Book 23 Page 99. Brain imaging techniques have shown that 101. In which of Erik Erikson’s psychosocial stages of compared to unaffected individuals, individuals development is the central task to develop and diagnosed with schizophrenia have exercise self-control and independence? (A) enlarged ventricles and a reduction of the (A) Trust versus mistrust prefrontal cortex (B) Autonomy versus shame and doubt (B) reduced ventricles and a reduction of the (C) Initiative versus guilt parietal cortex (D) Industry versus inferiority (C) an enlarged parietal cortex and a reduction (E) Generativity versus stagnation of the hypothalamus (D) lesions in the parietal lobe and increased cells 102. A recent article in an educational journal in the orbital frontal cortex described a university at which the average age (E) lesions in the temporal lobe and increased is 26. This article also mentioned that 38 percent cells in the prefrontal cortex of the students are over 25 years of age. What can be concluded from this information? 100. Research by Solomon Asch supports which of the (A) The median age must be greater than the following? mean age. (A) Conformity increases as group size increases (B) The standard deviation must be relatively from two people to four or five people. small. (B) The presence of one dissenter in a group is (C) The mode must be either 25 or 26. not strong enough to reduce conformity. (D) The distribution must be skewed. (C) Higher levels of conformity are found in (E) The distribution must be bimodal. individualistic societies than in collectivist societies. (D) A person’s behavior changes when that person plays a role as a prisoner or prison guard in an experiment. (E) Individuals will follow orders to shock innocent strangers. 103. Which of the following concepts does the figure above illustrate? (A) The general adaptation syndrome (B) An intermittent schedule of reinforcement (C) A continuous schedule of reinforcement (D) The diathesis-stress model (E) Signal detection theory 24 Page GRE ® Psychology Test Practice Book 104. An experimenter predicts that bright colors 108. In a lexical decision task, two groups of enhance creativity. She provides brightly participants are instructed to make a fast decision colored crayons to the first 15 children who on whether each item is or is not an English word. show up for an experiment and muted colored The first group of participants is presented with crayons for the remaining 15. She then examines the word “robin,” followed by the word “bird.” their drawings and judges the brightly colored The second group is presented with the word drawings to be more creative. The study is “chair,” followed by the word “bird.” The first flawed because it lacks group’s responses to “bird” will most likely be (A) a double-blind procedure and an independent (A) slower because of Stroop-like interference variable (B) slower because of lateral inhibition (B) an independent variable and demand (C) slower because of a sequence effect characteristics (D) faster because of semantic priming (C) demand characteristics and a dependent (E) faster because of response bias variable (D) a dependent variable and random assignment 109. The antianxiety effects of benzodiazepines (E) random assignment and a double-blind such as diazepam result from their binding procedure with the receptor for which of the following neurotransmitters found in the amygdala? 105. Which of the following is an example of a (A) Serotonin self-conscious emotion? (B) Acetylcholine (A) Joy (C) Substance P (B) Fear (D) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) (C) Guilt (E) Norepinephrine (D) Sadness (E) Disgust 110. A persistent, unreasonable, and unwanted thought is known as 106. A behavioral approach to personality would argue (A) a negative symptom that the root of pathology lies in (B) a hallucination (A) unrealistic beliefs (C) a compulsion (B) maladaptive learned-response patterns (D) an obsession (C) disordered functioning of construct systems (E) a fugue (D) fixation and regression (E) incongruence 111. Which of the following distinguishes experts from novices in many fields of endeavor? 107. Five randomly selected groups of participants (A) More social connections are shown a list of words, one word at a time. (B) Speed in recognizing relevant complex Each group of participants is assigned a different patterns task to perform on each word on the list. After (C) Innate talent for performing in the particular completing the list, the participants are given a field surprise test for recall of the words. Which of the (D) Greater short-term memory capacity following assigned tasks is most likely to result in (E) Shorter reaction times to simple stimuli the best recall? (A) Counting the number of vowels in each of the words (B) Indicating whether each of the words contains the letter “t” (C) Producing a rhyme for each of the words (D) Saying each of the words three times in rapid succession (E) Producing a synonym for each of the words GRE ® Psychology Test Practice Book 25 Page  115. Which of the following hormones is responsible for preparing the uterus for the implantation of an ovum that has been fertilized? (A) Progesterone (B) Melatonin (C) Oxytocin (D) Vasopressin (E) Aldosterone 116. An adolescent who says, “I won’t become ill 112. Consider the diagram above in which the from smoking; I never get sick,” is most likely outcomes for two people (Joanne and Malik) are operating under which aspect of egocentrism? represented as a series of numbers, depending on (A) Personal fable their own behavior and the behavior of the other (B) Imaginary audience person. A scientist uses these outcomes to predict (C) Deductive reasoning the likely behavior of each of the individuals. (D) Immanent justice The scientist is most likely studying which of (E) Hypothetical reasoning the following? (A) Self-perception 117. Alfred Adler developed his theory of individual (B) Cognitive heuristics psychology as a result of his disagreement with (C) The self-fulfilling prophecy which of the following? (D) Attribution theory (A) Carl Roger’s belief that human growth is (E) Social exchange dependent on unconditional positive regard (B) Sigmund Freud’s emphasis on universal 113. Eliciting sympathy in order to create a positive biological forces in the personality impression is consistent with which of the (C) Albert Bandura’s focus on reciprocal following self-presentation strategies? determinism as a key factor in shaping (A) Modesty personality (B) Intimidation (D) Gordon Allport’s belief that personality is (C) Exemplification made up of individual fundamental traits (D) Supplication (E) Abraham Maslow’s emphasis on a hierarchy (E) Conformity of needs in creating motivation 114. Which of the following statements describes 118. Which school of psychology rejected the concept normative influence? of consciousness and defined psychology as an objective natural science? (A) The process by which we come to evaluate and know others (A) Structuralism (B) The tendency for impressions of others to (B) Functionalism be heavily influenced by information (C) Behaviorism (D) Humanistic psychology gathered early in an interaction (E) Gestalt psychology (C) A set of theories describing how people explain causes of behavior 119. Which of the following is a memory store that is (D) Conformity motivated by a fear of social highly sensitive to masking stimuli presented rejection within 200–300 milliseconds of the presentation (E) Conformity motivated by the belief that of an array of letters? others are correct (A) Sensory memory (B) Short-term memory (C) Working memory (D) Implicit memory (E) Semantic memory 26 Page GRE ® Psychology Test Practice Book 120. The neural hub of the central executive portion of 124. The overjustification effect states which of the working memory is thought to be located in the following? (A) prefrontal cortex (A) Positive reinforcement is consistently (B) somatosensory cortex more effective than negative reinforcement. (C) brainstem (B) Extrinsic rewards can diminish children’s (D) temporal lobe intrinsic motivation to learn. (E) occipital lobe (C) Extrinsic rewards are best when used with intrinsically motivated students. 121. In an experimental procedure, an animal receives (D) Academic grades increase students’ intrinsic a half second of foot shock, then a half second of motivation to learn. no stimulus, and then a tone. In a later presentation (E) Behavior modification improves internal of the tone, the animal displays a fear response. motivation in large classrooms. This result most likely indicates the occurrence of 125. The belief that differences among spoken (A) backward conditioning languages cause differences in the thinking and (B) forward conditioning problem-solving styles of speakers is called (C) delayed conditioning (D) simultaneous conditioning (A) taxonomic bias (E) operant conditioning (B) whole-object bias (C) the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon 122. The full Moon looks much larger when it is on the (D) the typicality effect horizon than when it is high in the sky. Which of (E) the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis the following is the best explanation for this phenomenon? 126. Which of the following is the correct sequence of stages of prenatal development? (A) More rods are stimulated by the Moon when it is just above the horizon than when it is (A) Embryo, gestation, neonate high in the sky. (B) Gestation, embryo, fertilized ovum (B) Size judgment is based on visual cues (C) Embryo, fertilized ovum, fetus between the viewer and the image of the (D) Fertilized ovum, embryo, fetus Moon. (E) Fetus, embryo, fertilized ovum (C) Brightness constancy cues are disrupted by interfering stimulation. 127. Participants in a social psychological experiment (D) The image of the Moon high in the sky observe through a one-way glass as two students exceeds the difference threshold. take an oral quiz. The situation is arranged (E) Judgment is based on the Gestalt principle such that both Arthur and Sheri get 15 of the of proximity. 25 questions correct, but Arthur gets each of the first 5 questions correct, while Sheri gets none of 123. Which of the following philosophers insisted the first 5 correct. Most participant observers that the mind at birth is like a blank slate devoid would likely conclude that of character or ideas? (A) Arthur is a better student than Sheri (A) François-Marie Arouet de Voltaire (B) Sheri is a better student than Arthur (B) James Mill (C) Arthur and Sheri are approximately (C) John Stuart Mill equally able students (D) David Hume (D) the exper