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Private Pilot Ground School Lesson 6 of 15: Stage 1 Review and Exam Objectives and Completion Standards Objectives Review knowledge of the subjects covered in Ground Lessons 1 through 5. Completion Standards Demonstrate knowledge of the subjects covered in Ground Lessons 1 through 5 thr...

Private Pilot Ground School Lesson 6 of 15: Stage 1 Review and Exam Objectives and Completion Standards Objectives Review knowledge of the subjects covered in Ground Lessons 1 through 5. Completion Standards Demonstrate knowledge of the subjects covered in Ground Lessons 1 through 5 through a multiple-choice exam. Sequence of Content 6.1 Knowledge Review Ground Lesson 1 Ground Lesson 2 Ground Lesson 3 Ground Lesson 4 Ground Lesson 5  6.1 Knowledge Review Ground Lesson 1 Ground Lesson 2 Ground Lesson 3 Ground Lesson 4 Ground Lesson 5  Category Class Type Endorsement Intended use or operating Broad grouping of aircraft Similar in design limitations having similar characteristics of propulsion, 737-700 and 737-700C Normal flight, or landing G-IV and G-IV-X Utility Acrobatic Airplane Limited ○ Landplane Restricted ○ Seaplane Aircraft Provisional Rotorcraft Glider Balloon Broad classification of Aircraft within a category Aircraft the FAA requires Aircraft the FAA requires aircraft having similar operating pilots to have a type rating pilots to have an characteristics to operate endorsement to operate Airplane Rotorcraft Single engine Large Aircraft Tail-Wheel Glider Multiengine ○ >12,500 lbs Complex Lighter-than-air Land Turbojet ○ Retractable Gear Water ○ Controllable Pitch Prop ○ Movable Flaps Gyroplane High-Performance Helicopter ○ >200 HP Engine Airship High Altitude Pilot Balloon ○ >25,000’ MSL  Quiz Questions With respect to pilot certification, which is a category and class of aircraft? A. B. Large Aircraft (> 12,500 lbs) & Turbojet Airplane, Multi-Engine Land ? C. Tailwheel, Complex, High Performance (> 200 HP) B. Airplane, Multi-Engine Land  Quiz Questions With respect to the certification of aircraft, which are categories of aircraft? A. B. Glider, Balloon, Airplane Normal, Utility, Acrobatic ? C. 737-700, G-IV B. Normal, Utility, Acrobatic  Endorsements The FAA requires pilots to have an To act as a Pilot In endorsement to operate: Command (PIC) of an aircraft requiring an Tail-Wheel Complex (FAA defines as…) endorsement, such as ○ Retractable Landing Gear operating a tailwheel ○ Controllable Pitch Propeller ○ Flaps aircraft, the FAA requires High-Performance you to: ○ >200 HP Engine High Altitude Receive ground & flight ○ >25,000’ MSL instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses your logbook  Quiz Questions How does the FAA define a complex airplane? A. B. An airplane with retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable-pitch propeller An airplane with many moving parts ? C. An airplane with an engine more than 200 horsepower A. An airplane with retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable-pitch propeller  Quiz Questions What requirement must you meet to act as Pilot In Command (PIC) of a tail-wheel airplane? A. Pass a ground test with a Certified Flight Instructor (CFI) B. Pass a knowledge test on tail-wheel aircraft and ? receive an endorsement in your logbook you are competent to act as PIC C. Receive ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses your C. logbook Receive ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses your logbook Private Pilot Pilot-in-Command (PIC) Limitations & Privileges (after receiving a Private Pilot Certificate) May act as pilot-in-command Has final authority and (PIC) carrying passengers responsibility for the May not carry passengers or operation and safety of the property for compensation or flight hire Has been designated as May split costs with pilot-in-command (PIC) passengers but only that of before or during the flight; the pro rata costs of the flight and… (even split) Holds the appropriate category, class, and type rating, if appropriate, for the conduct of the flight  Quiz Questions Who has the final responsibility for the safe operation of an aircraft? A. B. Pilot In Command (PIC) The person in the right seat ? C. Pilot with the most total hours A. Pilot in Command (PIC) Private Pilot Pilot-in-Command (PIC) Currency Requirements (after receiving Private Pilot Certificate) In the preceding 24 calendar months received a flight review from an authorized instructor To carry passengers during the day, in the preceding 90 days have completed 3 takeoffs and 3 landings in the same category and class aircraft To carry passengers during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise (night), in the preceding 90 days completed 3 takeoffs and 3 landings to a full stop in the same category and class aircraft Quiz Questions Which are currency requirements you must meet to act as Pilot in Command of an airplane carrying passengers? A. B. ? Flight review every 12 calendar months; 6 takeoff and landings within the preceding 30 days Flight review every 24 calendar months; 3 takeoff and landings within the preceding 60 days C. Flight review every 24 calendar months; 3 takeoff and landings within the preceding 90 days C. Flight review every 24 calendar months; 3 takeoff and landings within the preceding 90 days  Quiz Questions When is a flight review required? A. B. Within the past 36 calendar months to act as Pilot In Command (PIC) if carrying passengers Within the past 12 calendar months to act as Pilot In Command (PIC) when flying solo ? C. Within the past 24 calendar months to act as Pilot In Command (PIC) whether flying solo or carrying passengers C. Within the past 24 calendar months to act as Pilot In Command (PIC) whether flying solo or carrying passengers Single-Pilot Resource Management (SRM) Concepts The 5P Approach: The IM SAFE Checklist ○ Plan: Weather, route, fuel, pubs ○ Illness: symptoms? ○ Plane: Airframe, systems, ○ Medication: taking any med? equipment, Avionics ○ Stress: psychological pressure, finance, ○ Pilot: IM SAFE checklist health, or family issues? ○ Passenger: discomfort, ○ Alcohol: drinking within the last 8 hours? anxiety, desire to get there ○ Fatigue: tired and not rested? ○ Programming: GPS, autopilot ○ Emotion: am I emotionally upset? Situational Awareness is key during SRM: ○ Obstacles to situational awareness: Fatigue / Stress / Work Overload / Complacency  Quiz Questions A. The acronym A TOMATO FLAMES helps remember the landing brief B. Fatigue, stress, work overload, and complacency are obstacles to maintaining situational awareness ? Select the true statement regarding Single-pilot Resource Management (SRM): C. Stalls occur when the wing no longer produces enough lift to counter weight B. Fatigue, stress, work overload, and complacency are obstacles to maintaining situational awareness  Aviation and Alcohol Intoxication is determined by the amount of alcohol in the bloodstream which is usually measured as a percentage by weight in the blood. The FARs require that your blood alcohol level be less than.04 percent and that 8 hours pass between drinking alcohol and piloting an aircraft.  Quiz Questions ? Which is required by the FARs to act as Pilot In Command (PIC) of an aircraft? A. You must wait 12 hours after scuba diving when flying above 6,000’ MSL B. Your Transponder must have been inspected within the preceding 12 months C. Your blood alcohol level must be below 0.04 percent B. Your blood alcohol level must be below 0.04 percent General Aviation Aircraft Required Inspections/Tests/Checks Acronym : AV1ATE  Quiz Questions Which is an inspection required by the FARs? (think “AV1ATE”) A. B. C. VOR check every 90 days ELT inspection every 24 calendar months Annual inspection for all aircraft ?? C. Annual inspection for all aircraft  Aircraft Placards Refer to 14 CFR 25.791 & 14 CFR 23.1557 Placards affixed to aircraft contain warnings, operating limitations, and reference information. Placards are also documented in the Pilot's Operating Handbook (POH). CAN’T placard an instrument required for flight under 14 CFR 91.205! Non-essential instruments are placarded “INOPERATIVE” Can I placard my Oil Temperature Gauge? How about my Attitude Indicator during Day VFR?  Quiz Questions Select the true statement regarding airworthiness requirements. A. You can fly with an inoperative fuel gauge as long as it is placarded. B. An altimeter is required by 14 CFR 91.205 for VFR flight C. Complying with airworthiness directives is required ONLY if the aircraft is operated for hire. B. An altimeter is required by 14 CFR 91.205 for VFR flight  Ignition States Normal Ignition Smooth burning that ignites when the piston reaches the top of the cylinder head Detonation Fuel in the cylinders explodes instead of burning smoothly Pre-Ignition Uncontrolled combustion of fuel prior to normal ignition  Quiz Questions What is detonation in a piston engine? A. Fuel in the cylinders explode instead of burning smoothly B. Uncontrolled combustion of fuel prior to normal ignition C. Smooth burning that ignites when the piston reaches the top of the cylinder head A. Fuel in the cylinders explode instead of burning smoothly  Fuel Injection Fuel Discharge Fuel Nozzle Discharge Nozzle Fuel Fuel Discharge Discharge Nozzle Nozzle  Quiz Questions Select the true statement regarding aircraft engines. A. Engine power increases with carb heat because hot air is more dense. B. The fuel/air mixture should always be adjusted when changing altitudes. C. Fuel injection systems include fuel pumps, a fuel control unit, a fuel manifold valve, and fuel discharge nozzles C. Fuel injection systems include fuel pumps, a fuel control unit, a fuel manifold valve, and fuel discharge nozzles Magnetos : independent electricity for the engine Magnetos are engine driven Generate ignition in the cylinders Separate from electrical system Two separate magnetos each go to a seperate spark plug in each cylinder When turned “off” magnetos are grounded preventing electricity to be distributed to the spark plugs If the engine magneto switch is turned to “OFF” but the engine continues to run, the most probable cause is a broken magneto ground wire  Quiz Questions You turn the Ignition Switch to OFF, but the engine continues to run. What is the most probable cause? A. The magneto is in an over-voltage condition B. A broken magneto ground wire C. The engine has overheated and is spontaneously combusting B. A broken magneto ground wire  Pitot-Static System * If the Pitot Tube AND Static Port are BOTH blocked: the Airspeed Indicator, Altimeter, and Vertical Speed Indictor (VSI) are ALL affected.  Quiz Questions If the static port & pitot tube are both blocked, which instruments are affected? A. Altimeter, Turn Coordinator, and Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI) B. Airspeed Indicator, Vertical Speed Indicator, and Altimeter C. Heading Indicator, Turn Coordinator, and Attitude Indicator B. Airspeed Indicator, Vertical Speed Indicator, and Altimeter  Types of Airspeed Airspeed in measured 2 ways: Knots: nautical miles (6076’) per hour MPH: uses statute miles (5280’) per hour V-Speeds VX — Best angle of climb (changes with DA) VY — Best rate of climb (changes with DA) VS0 — Stalling speed in the landing configuration (bottom of WHITE arc) VS1 — Stalling speed in the takeoff configuration (bottom of GREEN arc) VFE — Maximum flaps extended speed (top of WHITE ARC) VNO — Maximum structural cruising speed (bottom of YELLOW Arc) VNE — Never-exceed speed (RED line) Airspeed Indicator VA — Maneuvering speed (changes with weight) Airspeed Tape  Quiz Questions What is the definition of VSO? A. Stalling Speed in a landing configuration B. Stalling Speed in a takeoff configuration C. Maximum Flaps Extend speed A. Stalling Speed in a landing configuration  Quiz Questions According to these airspeed indicators, what is the maximum speed with flaps fully extended? A. (1) 96 knots; (2) 100 knots B. (1) 91 knots; (2) 100 knots C. (1) 91 knots; (2) 91 knots C. (1) 91 knots; (2) 91 knots (top of WHITE arc)  Quiz Questions Which speed represents Maneuvering Speed? A. VS1 B. VNE C. VA C. VA  Calculating Density Altitude (DA) Compute DA for performance data: Pressure Altitude (PA): 3000’ Temp: +20˚ C What is the approximate DA?  Calculating Field Elevation You land at an airport with your altimeter set to 29.92, forgetting to set it to the current setting of 30.13 what will the altimeter read if the field elevation is 444 feet? Formula: ((Standard Pressure (”Hg) - Actual Pressure (“Hg)) x 1,000’) + Actual Field Elevation Answer: ((Standard Pressure (”Hg) 29.92 - Actual Pressure (“Hg)) 30.13 ) x 1000) + Actual Field Elevation 444’ = Altimeter will read 234’  Quiz Questions You are landing at an airport with your altimeter set to 29.92 inches of Mercury (Hg). You forgot to set the local field altimeter setting of 29.84 in. Hg. What will the altimeter read if the field elevation is Sea Level (0’ MSL). A. 80 feet MSL B. - 80 feet MSL C. 800 feet MSL A. 80 feet MSL ((Standard Pressure (”Hg) 29.92 - Actual Pressure (“Hg)) 29.84 = 0.08) x 1000) + Actual Field Elevation 0’ = (+80 + 0)) = Altimeter will read + 80 feet MSL Heading Indicator The Heading Indicator is a gyroscopic instrument that YOU must align with the magnetic compass! Recommend alignment at least every 15 minutes of flight)  Quiz Questions Select a true statement regarding the flight instruments: A. The Heading Indicator is a gyroscopic instrument that you must periodically align with the magnetic compass. B. The Vertical Speed Indicator uses Pitot Tube pressure to measure rate of climb or descent. C. The Turn Coordinator is powered by the vacuum system A. The Heading Indicator is a gyroscopic instrument that you must periodically align with the magnetic compass.  Turn Coordinator Uses the principle of precession Indicates the Rate of Turn The ball shows coordinated flight when centered & uncoordinated flight when not centered (slip / skid) Indicates “standard rate” turns = 3˚ per second when wing aligned with lower WHITE tic mark  Quiz Questions The Turn Coordinator provides an indication of: A. Angle of Bank B. Pitch and Rates of Roll C. Rate of Turn C. Rate of Turn Integrated Flight Displays Attitude and Heading Reference System (AHRS): provides attitude, heading, rate of turn, and slip/skid information ○ Uses inertial sensors for attitude, magnetometer for heading, and often Global Positioning System (GPS) Air Data Computer (ADC): integrates pitot tube, static source, and Outside Air Temperature (OAT) probe to provide data to the flight display system ○ Provides readings to the Airspeed Indicator, Altimeter, and VSI  Quiz Questions Select the true statement regarding Integrated Flight Displays: A. The Attitude and Heading Reference System (AHRS) provides attitude, heading, rate of turn, and slip/skid information. B. The Air Data Computer (ADC) determines readings for the altimeter, VSI, and Turn Coordinator C. The Attitude and Heading Reference System (AHRS) uses the magnetometer for attitude, inertial sensors for heading, and often a GPS A. The Attitude and Heading Reference System (AHRS) provides attitude, heading, rate of turn, and slip/skid information.  The Lift Equation Explained L = CL x ½pv2 x S CL (Coefficient of Lift): wing shape, wing camber, Angle of Attack (AOA). Can change in flight by changing AOA. p (Rho) (Air Density): how many air molecules in a given space - affected by changes in pressure, temperature, altitude, & humidity. Higher air density = more air molecules = more lift. v (Velocity): True Airspeed (TAS): faster airspeed = more lift generated. Can change in flight by changing airspeed. Note velocity is squared indicating it has a large proportional effect to other variables. * When airspeed decreases, you MUST increase the Angle of Attack (AOA) to maintain the same amount of lift. S (wing Surface area): more wing surface area = more lift generated  Quiz Questions Select the true statement regarding the creation of lift. A. The Coefficient of Lift changes due to pressure, temperature, altitude, and humidity. B. When speed decreases, you must increase the angle of attack to maintain the same amount of lift. C. Air Density and Wing Surface area are two components of the Lift Equation that can be changed in flight. B. When speed decreases, you must increase the angle of attack to maintain the same amount of lift.  Angle of Attack (AOA) Angle of attack (AOA) is the angular difference between the chord line and the relative wind. The Critical Angle of Attack is the angle of attack at which air cannot flow smoothly over the surface of the wing resulting in a stall. Aircraft always stall at the same angle of attack, regardless of airspeed, flight attitude, or weight. * Most Cessna 172s don’t have an AOA indicator, so we use the indicated airspeed to help determine the approximate stall point. Well Below Critical AOA Nearing Critical AOA Reach Critical AOA Airflow begins to separate from Airflow completely separates Airflow adheres to top of wing. top of wing at rear moving from top of wing. forward. Chord Chord Chord Line Line Line Relative Relative Relative Wind Wind Wind  Quiz Questions Select the true statement regarding stalls. A. For a given airplane, stalls always occur at the same angle of attack (AOA), regardless of airspeed, flight attitude, or weight. B. For a given airplane, stalls occur at different airspeeds, regardless of angle of attack, weight, or flight attitude C. When an aircraft wing stalls, no lift is produced on that wing. A. For a given airplane, stalls always occur at the same angle of attack (AOA), regardless of airspeed, flight attitude, or weight. Flaps Flaps: increases the Angle of Attack (AOA) and surface area of the wing. Extending wing flaps (“lowering flaps”) increases both lift & drag Lowering flaps reduces stall speed. Up Down  Quiz Questions How does lowering the flaps affect drag and lift? A. Decreases both drag and lift B. Decreases drag and increases lift C. Increases both drag and lift C. Increases both drag and lift  Forms of Drag Induced Drag: formed from the production Min Drag of lift. L/Dmax - Increases as AOA/lift increases. - Decreases as airspeed increases. Parasite Drag Drag that is not produced by the production of lift. Increases as airspeed increases. There are 3 forms of Parasite Drag: ○ Form Drag Drag due to the shape of the aircraft ○ Interference Drag Parasite From the interference of airflows from different parts of the aircraft ○ Skin Friction Drag  Quiz Questions What are the three forms of Parasite Drag? A. Skin Friction drag, Interference drag, and Form drag B. Form drag, Induced drag, and Interference drag C. Interference drag, Friction drag, and Induced drag A. Skin Friction drag, Interference drag, and Form drag  Ground Effect Ground Effect is an increase in lift caused primarily by a reduction in Induced Drag. Occurs within 1 wingspan of the ground & increases the closer you are to the surface. The amount of thrust required to produce lift is reduced so the airplane can lift off at a lower-than-normal speed. Pro: Helps with Soft Field Takeoffs Con: causes the aircraft to “float” above the runway during landings, typically from having too much airspeed.  Quiz Questions What is a result of Ground Effect? A. Induced drag increases the closer the aircraft is to the ground B. More lift is produced within 2 wingspans of the runway C. Thrust required to produce lift is reduced so the aircraft can lift off at a lower-than-normal speed C. Thrust required to produce lift is reduced so the aircraft can lift off at a lower-than-normal speed  CG Position Affects Longitudinal Stability - The position of the CG is determined by the distribution of weight. - The CG is typically in front of the CL (CP) - this improves longitudinal stability. - The CG has a forward limit and an aft limit providing CG “envelope.” - The area within the envelope is considered the CG “range.” - When the CG is within the CG range, it is considered controllable & longitudinal stable – the elevator should be effective during all approved maneuvers. - CG TOO FORWARD: if the CG is forward of its Forward CG limit, the aircraft becomes “nose heavy” – the elevator may be unable to hold the nose up & could cause a nose strike during landing. - CG TOO AFT: (more dangerous) if the CG is aft of its Aft CG limit, the aircraft becomes “tail heavy” – the elevator may Center of Gravity (CG) limits are listed in every POH be unable to recover from a a stall or spin condition.  Quiz Questions What is an undesirable flight characteristic of an airplane with a CG located aft of the aircraft’s aft CG limit? A. Nose strike during landing B. Difficulty recovering from a stalled condition C. Stalling at a lower-than-normal airspeed B. Difficulty recovering from a stalled condition Lateral Stability : along the Longitudinal Axis - Helps return wings to a level attitude. - Primarily aircraft design, but pilot can adjust by weight distribution (fuel selection in fuel tanks) - Dihedral: stabilizes the aircraft along the longitudinal axis - upward angle of airplanes wings with respect to horizontal (shallow V) – if one wing lifts & other drops, AOA & lift increase on dropped wing rolling the aircraft level - For prop aircraft: prop wash during high power & low airspeeds decreases lateral stability (and longitudinal stability) – less airflow over the outer portion of the wings (ailerons)  Quiz Questions Dihedral is used to stabilize the aircraft around which axis? A. Lateral Axis B. Vertical Axis C. Longitudinal Axis C. Longitudinal Axis  Spin Concepts Two requirements for a spin: stall and yaw BOTH wings are stalled in a spin Lower wing stalls more than the raised wing (creating yaw) ○ Stall happens unevenly across the wings ○ Lower wing has less lift & more drag - pulls the airplane downward in direction of lower wing Aircraft rotates vertically downward in a corkscrew pattern * Which direction would an aircraft spin if the right wing was raised during a stall?  Quiz Questions Select the true statement regarding spins. A. Both wings are stalled in a spin B. The lower wing has more lift and less drag C. The first step in spin recovery is full opposite rudder A. Both wings are stalled in a spin Left-Hand Turning Tendencies: Asymmetric Thrust (aka, P-Factor) - Occurs during climbs: high AOA and high power settings. - Most U.S. propellers spin clockwise - the descending blade on the right side (seen from the cockpit) has a higher AOA compared to the ascending blade on the left. - The higher blade AOA on the right side produces more thrust than the left. - Higher right side thrust yaws the aircraft left around its Vertical Axis. - P-Factor: asymetrical thrust caused by a higher Angle of Attack on the right side descending propellor blade which causes the aircraft to yaw to the LEFT. - Counteract this tendency by stepping on the right rudder pedal. - Your mantra: “Step on the Ball!”  Quiz Questions What is P-Factor? A. For the prop turning clockwise action, there is an equal and opposite aircraft turning counterclockwise reaction B. A force applied to a gyro (top of spinning prop) acts in the direction of rotation and approximately 90˚ ahead of the point where force is applied (prop center yaws left). C. Asymmetrical thrust caused by a higher angle of attack on the right descending propeller blade, which causes an aircraft to yaw to the left. C. Asymmetrical thrust caused by a higher angle of attack on the right descending propeller blade, which causes an aircraft to yaw to the left. Turning Flight: increase AOB = increase back pressure to keep level Vertical Component to Lift (VCL): lift component parallel & opposing weight Horizontal Component to Lift (HCL): primary force causing an aircraft to turn - lift component perpendicular to VCL & weight Total Lift: vector representing combination of Horizontal & Vertical Lift Components – opposes Resultant Load Resultant Load: created in a turn – force parallel and opposing Total Lift – measure of weight supported by the wings – the Load Factor is 1G (measure of Earth gravity) in straight-and-level flight and increases with increasing AOA Centrifugal Force: apparent force opposing HCL – pulls aircraft away from turn direction lift of lift of Increase AOA = Increase Lift = Increase Induced Drag Aileron deflected down Aileron of lift deflected up of lift Decrease AOA = Decrease Lift = Decrease Induced Drag  Quiz Questions What is the primary force causing an aircraft to turn? A. Centrifugal force B. Horizontal Component of Lift C. Vertical Component of Lift B. Horizontal Component of Lift  Load Factor - Load Factor: ratio of load supported by the wings to the actual weight of the airplane - Maintaining level flight: as AOB increases, the Load Factor (Gs) & Stall Speed Increase - Stall speeds (VS1 & VSO) are found in the aircraft POH - The maximum AOB is most Normal category training aircraft is 60 ˚ Maintaining coordinated, level flight at 60˚ AOB – what is the Load Factor (Gs)? What is the % increase in stall speed? ?  Quiz Questions Select the true statement regarding load factor. A. Load Factor is the ratio of the load supported by the airplane’s wings to the actual weight of the airplane. B. Stall speed decreases as load factor increases. C. The maximum angle of bank in most normal category training aircraft is 90˚. A. Load Factor is the ratio of the load supported by the airplane’s wings to the actual weight of the airplane. Blind Spot: Low wing aircraft vs. High wing aircraft The most practical way to compensate for blind spots in aircraft design while climbing or descending are Shallow S-Turns.  Quiz Questions What is the most practical way to compensate for blind spots in aircraft design while climbing or descending? A. Wing dips left and right B. 90˚ clearing turns C. Shallow S-turns C. Shallow S-turns  Method Perform as a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10˚ sector of the viewing area. 10˚ 10˚ 10˚ 10˚ 10˚ 10˚ 10˚ 10˚ 10˚ GOOD: the relative position of the other aircraft is changing on the windscreen 10˚ 10˚ 10˚ 10˚ 10˚ 10˚ 10˚ 10˚ 10˚ BAD: the other aircraft is NOT changing position on the windscreen & getting larger – collision likely!  Quiz Questions What is the recommended method of scanning for other aircraft during the day? A. Perform as a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10˚ sector of the viewing area. B. Quickly sweep eyes back and forth across the horizon looking for other aircraft C. Start at the 3-o’clock position, then focus on the 12-o’clock position, and then the 9-o’clock position A. Perform as a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10˚ sector of the viewing area.  Right-of-Way: Practical Application North Other airplane heading West at same altitude What should you do in this situation? Alter course to the right, to pass behind the other airplane. You heading North  Quiz Questions While heading north, you find that you are on a converging course with another airplane headed west at the same altitude. What action should you take? A. Continue on course. You have the right-of-way. B. Alter course to the left to pass behind the other airplane. C. Alter course to the right to pass behind the other airplane. C. Alter course to the right to pass behind the other airplane.  Minimum Safe Altitudes: 14 CFR 91.119 § 91.119 Minimum safe altitudes: General. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person may operate an aircraft below the following altitudes: Yellow (a) Anywhere. An altitude allowing, if a Non-Yellow Non-Yellow areas on power unit fails, an emergency landing areas on areas on Sectional without undue hazard to persons or property Sectional Sectional Charts on the surface. Charts Charts (b) Over congested areas. Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open-air assembly of persons, an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft. (c) Over other than congested areas. An altitude of 500 feet above the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated Except when necessary for takeoff and landing, areas. In those cases, the aircraft may not when you fly over congested areas, you must be operated closer than 500 feet to any maintain at least 1,000’ above the highest person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. obstacle within a horizontal distance of 2,000’ of  Quiz Questions Except when necessary for takeoff and landing, when you fly over congested areas, you must maintain at least what minimum safe altitude? A. 500’ separation from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure B. 1,000’ above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 2,000’ of the aircraft C. 500’ above the surface B. 1,000’ above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 2,000’ of the aircraft  Crosswind Taxiing Key is knowing the wind direction relative to the Headwind: turn into wind aircraft. Make these corrections a habit, even in light winds. Headwind: turn into wind Tailwind: Dive away from the wind Why do we do pilots make these corrections? To keep the wind from picking up the wing or tail and flipping the aircraft. The most critical situation exists when you are taxiing a high-wing tricycle-gear airplane in a strong quartering tailwind. Tailwind: dive away from the wind Pushing down on the yoke lowers the elevator. Turning away from the wind lowers the aileron on wind side. Both actions helps keep the wind from getting under the wings & tail which could flip the aircraft.  Quiz Questions Select the true statement regarding the effect of wind during taxi. A. A quartering headwind requires neutral ailerons and turning away from the wind direction. B. The aircraft is heavy enough not to have to worry about crosswind corrections – solid as a rock. C. The most critical situation exists when you are taxiing a high-wing tricycle –gear airplane in a strong quartering tailwind. C. The most critical situation exists when you are taxiing a high-wing tricycle –gear airplane in a strong quartering tailwind.  Positive Exchange of Flight Controls 3-step communication when passing flight controls back and forth: Always confirm the other pilot has taken the controls before stating relinquishing control. Taking controls from other pilot: 1. You: “I have the controls” 2. Other pilot: “You have the controls” 3. You: “I have the controls” Giving controls to another pilot: 1. You: “You have the controls” 2. Other pilot: “I have the controls” 3. Visual verify other pilot has controls, then you state: “You have the controls” Practical application: Your instructor is going to demonstrate a maneuver. What is the proper procedure to transfer control of the airplane to another pilot? Tell the pilot, “You have the controls,” continue flying until the pilot says, “I have the controls,” and then repeat, “You have the controls,” while visually confirming that the pilot has the flight controls.  Quiz Questions Your instructor is going to demonstrate a maneuver. What is the proper procedure to transfer control of the airplane to another pilot? A. Tell the pilot, “You have the controls,” continue flying until the pilot says, “I have the controls,” and then repeat, “You have the controls,” while visually confirming that the pilot has the flight controls. B. Ask the other pilot, “You got this?”, the other pilot says, “Yep,” and you let go of the controls. C. Other pilot states, “My controls” and you state “Your controls.” A. Tell the pilot, “You have the controls,” continue flying until the pilot says, “I have the controls,” and then repeat, “You have the controls,” while visually confirming that the pilot has the flight controls.  Practical Application: Using the Segmented Circle to Determine Traffic Pattern 1st: While overflying the airport, find the 1. Tetrahedron Segmented Circle points north into the wind, so using 2nd: Note direction of wind device to pattern for a landing to North (Rwy determine landing runway – you want 36).Determine which segment to land into the wind matches landing to the north (Rwy 36). 3rd: Look for the segment lines 2. The FINAL corresponding to being on FINAL in segment that lands to the north (Rwy 36) is 3. The bottom of the “L” is the Base Leg – that landing direction below the wind tetrahedron. imagine being on that base leg & turning 4th: Determine the traffic pattern onto final (the top of the ”L”) – which direction – the bottom of the “L” is the direction would you have to turn? If base leg & the top of the “L” is the final N landing to the North, you would turn right leg from Base to Final, so you are on 5th: Make traffic entry corresponding to Runway 36 using Right-hand traffic.  Quiz Questions Refer to the illustration and determine the appropriate landing runway and traffic pattern direction. A. Runway 36, right-hand traffic B. Runway 18, right-hand traffic C. Runway 32, left-hand traffic A. Runway 36, right–hand traffic  Runway Markings Yellow: Taxiway Environment Displaced Threshold White: Runway Environment Blast Pads / Yellow Chevrons: Stopways: Caution don’t use Displaced Threshold: Runway behind a displaced unless threshold is available for takeoffs in either direction emergency and landings from the opposite direction. The purpose of a displaced threshold is to direct pilots to land their aircraft farther down the runway. AIM: Airport Markings and Signs  Quiz Questions What is the purpose of a displaced threshold? A. To clear the threshold before landing. B. To keep aircraft from taxiing onto the runway environment. C. To direct pilots to land their aircraft farther down the runway. C. To direct pilots to land their aircraft farther down the runway Closed Runway/Taxiway Symbols: Look for the “X” Removed Markings May see White or Yellow on Runway. Should see yellow on Taxiway. A large letter “X” placed near the runway threshold indicates the runway is closed.  Quiz Questions What does a large letter “X” placed near a runway threshold indicate? A. The airport is closed. B. Aerial bombing in progress – “X” marks the spot C. The runway is closed. C. The runway is closed Landing and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) LAHSO: when an aircraft is cleared to land and stop on the runway, hold short of an intersecting runway, intersecting taxiway, or some designated point on the runway Only at certain airports – check the Chart Supplement for landing airport Must have at lease a Private Pilot license to accept (Student Pilots CAN’T accept) Pilot must determine whether the Available Landing Distance (ALD) is enough to land using LAHSO Pilot does NOT have to accept a LAHSO clearance – tell ATC “unable” If pilot accepts LAHSO, must comply UNLESS have to reject the landing (go-around) You accept a LAHSO clearance but on short final you experience wind shear. Your approach becomes unstable and you are uncertain you can land and stop before the intersecting runway. What should you do? Go around, inform ATC immediately, and maneuver to avoid any conflicting traffic.  Quiz Questions You accept a LAHSO clearance but on short final you experience wind shear. Your approach becomes unstable and you are uncertain you can land and stop before the intersecting runway. What should you do? A. Adhere to your LAHSO clearance, land, and apply maximum brakes to stop before the runway hold-short point. B. Use the entire runway available and look outside for any potential conflicting traffic. C. Go around, inform ATC immediately, and maneuver to avoid any conflicting traffic. C. Go around, inform ATC immediately, and maneuver to avoid any conflicting traffic.  Airport Beacons Operate from dusk until dawn (night) AND when conditions at airfield are NOT VFR during the day. Green White Yellow White White - White Green Yellow Green White  Quiz Questions Select the true statement regarding the airport beacon. A. Airport beacons that indicate military land airports use alternating white and yellow lights. B. Airport beacons that indicate civilian land airports use alternating white and green lights. C. Airport beacons that indicate civilian water airports use alternating green and white lights B. Airport beacons that indicate civilian land airports use alternating white and green lights.  Two-Bar Visual Approach Slope Indicator < 3˚ (VASI) Typically 3˚ (Check Chart Supplement) > 3˚ “Red over Red, may be dead.” “Red over White, you’re alright” “White over White, out of sight.” Glideslope: descent path for landing – 3˚ is standard When using two-bar VASI lights, what will you Provides 300’ per nm descent see when you are on the proper glide path? rate Near bar white, far bar red. VSI: around 500 fpm for a Cessna 172 on approach to land  Quiz Questions When using two-bar VASI lights, what will you see when you are on the proper glide slope? A. Near bar white, far bar white B. Near bar red, far bar white C. Near bar white, far bar red C. Near bar white, far bar red  Airport Security Always comply with security procedures that limit access to airport ramps and prevent unauthorized use of aircraft. Keep gate codes and lock combinations confidential. Close and lock access gates. Don’t leave the keys in the aircraft unattended. Lock the aircraft doors. Recognize suspicious activity and alert authorities if necessary. If you consider activity suspicious: * If you think you will be safe, consider talking to the individual(s). If not, * Call 911, then * Call 1-866-GA-SECURE (24-hours a day, won’t dispatch law enforcement) An FBO, * Contact example of a best airport practiceor manager, toflight keep airports school and frontaircraft desk secure is calling 1-866-GA-Secure and the nearby FBO manager to report someone who appears to be attempting to open the doors of multiple aircraft.  Quiz Questions Which is an example of a best practice to keep airports and aircraft secure? A. Yell that you’re calling the cops at someone you consider doing something sneaky. B. You call 1-866-GA-Secure and the nearby FBO manager to report someone who appears to be attempting to open the doors of multiple aircraft. C. Text your friends with a picture of the person and “Check this out!” B. You call 1-866-GA-Secure and the nearby FBO manager to report someone who appears to be attempting to open the doors of multiple aircraft.  33˚ 30’ Latitude and Longitude Practical Application 20 tick marks What is the approximate latitude and longitude of Bridgeport North Airport (XBP)? 98˚ 00’ West Longitude Line Latitude 97˚ 30’ West Longitude Line Line 1st: Find Bridgeport Airport on your Sectional Chart Longitude: count tick marks (minutes’) to the Right (West) & add to 97˚30’ Longitude 2nd: Find the closest Latitude and Longitude lines degrees near Line 🡪 20 tick marks = 20’ the airport (in this case: 33˚ Latitude & 98˚ Longitude in the minutes’ to add: block below) 97˚ 30’ W Long + 20’ minutes’ 3rd: Determine the Latitude & Longitude Line degrees˚ & = 97˚ 50’ W Longitude minutes’ for the BLOCK LINES on ALL FOUR surrounding sides around Bridgeport Airport Remember that every block is defined by 30’ minutes’ of Latitude & Longitude and there are 60 minutes’ in each degree˚ Latitude: count tick marks (minutes’) up (North) & add Helpful to write 00’ minutes after each WHOLE degree to to 33˚00’ Latitude Line 🡪 11 assist when adding/subtracting tick marks (minutes’) 🡪 11 tick tick marks = 11’ minutes’ to Example: for 33˚ degrees˚ write 33˚ 00’ marks add: 33˚ 00’ N Lat 4th: Determine Latitude: see purple instructions + 11’ minutes’ 5th: Determine Longitude: see orange instructions = 33˚ 11’ N Latitude 33˚ 00’ North Latitude Line Approximate latitude and longitude of Bridgeport Airport (XBP): 33˚ 11’ N - 97˚ 50’ W  Sectional Chart: Airport Data NAME: BREMERTON NTL Location Identifier: (PWT) Weather Observation Type: AWOS-3PT Weather Frequency: 121.2 Elevation: 444’ Lighting (*L): Lighting Limitations (refer to Chart Supplement) Length of Longest Runway (in hundreds of feet): 60 x 100’ = 6000’ (useable length may be less) Common Area Traffic Frequency (CTAF) © : 123.05 Traffic Pattern: Left Pattern if Runway Number not listed – listed as “RP” if Right Pattern with the applicable Runway Number. For Bremerton: no RP for Runway 20, so Left Pattern. ”RP 2” indicates Runway 02 is Right Pattern  Quiz Questions What is true about Decatur Airport (2)? A. The elevation is 42’ B. Fuel and services are available during normal business hours C. CTAF frequency is 118.225 B. Fuel and services are available during normal business hours  Sectional Chart: NAVAID Data NAME: OLYMPIA Type: VORTAC Frequency: 113.4 Underlined Frequency: No voice on frequency Identifier: OLM Morse Code ID: ( - - - /. -.. / - - ) Quiz Questions Select the true statement regarding the communication and navigation frequencies. A. The line below 115.7 (Ranger VORTAC) indicates voice available on this frequency (5) B. You can contact Heritage Creek UNICOM on 122.9 (3) C. The control tower at Denton Enterprise Airport does not operate continuously (4) C. The control tower at Denton Enterprise Airport does not operate  Class Delta (D) Airspace (Dialogue) Has an operating control tower but does not provide radar services Provides sequencing for IFR and VFR traffic Must “establish” two-way radio communication (dialogue) before entering Departing from a nontowered satellite airport within Class D requires contact with the Class D controlling tower as soon as practicable after takeoff Transponder & ADS-B not required VFR weather minimums: ○ 3 SM visibility ○ 500’ below / 1,000’ above / 2,000’ horizontal General dimensions (a cylinder): ○ 4 NM radius from the airport  Quiz Questions What action, if any, is required when you are departing a nontowered satellite airport located within Class D airspace? A. Contact the control tower as soon as practicable after takeoff. B. Contact the control tower before takeoff. C. Setting the transponder with appropriate squawk and turning on ADS-B meets legal requirements. A. Contact the control tower as soon as practicable after takeoff. VFR Visibility & Cloud Clearance: Practical Application Determine minimum ceiling requirement for VFR operations in the traffic pattern at Ft. Worth Alliance Airport (KAFW): Determine type of airspace – look for border lines, shading, & dashes Airport has blue dashed lines surrounding it – this represents Class D airspace on a Sectional Chart Refer to Basic VFR minimums at Controlled airfields (Class B, C, D, and E (controlled to surface): 3 SM visibility and 1,000’ ceilings Therefore, a Class D airfield has a minimum ceiling requirement in the Quiz Questions What is the minimum ceiling requirement for VFR operations when operating in the traffic pattern at Ft. Worth Alliance Airport? A. Clear of Clouds B. 2,000 feet C. 1,000 feet C. 1,000 feet Airspace entry & equipment requirements: Practical Application What are the entry and equipment requirements to fly at 8,500’ MSL in the airspace at position 7? Determine the type of airspace surrounding the point Point is surrounded by thick blue solid lines – Class B airspace (within the designated altitude) Determine the altitude of the Class B airspace at the point – the block of airspace lists 110/60 – this means Class B airspace extends from 6,000’ – 11,000’ MSL 7 Determine the altitude of the flight: 8,500’ MSL Flying at 8,500’ MSL is inside the Class B altitude – Class B entry requirements apply This means the pilot must receive ATC clearance, use a Mode C Transponder, & ADS-B equipment  Quiz Questions What are the entry and equipment requirements to fly at 8,500 feet MSL in the airspace at position 7? A. Establish radio communication B. ATC clearance; Mode C Transponder/ADS-B 7 C. No requirements B. ATC clearance; Mode C Transponder / ADS-B  Special VFR SVFR operations in weather conditions less than basic VFR minima (1,000’ Ceilings AGL & 3 SM visibility) are authorized: Only within the lateral boundaries of Class B, C, D, or E surface areas (below 10,000’ MSL) Must be requested by the pilot (ATC will never initiate request) Day VFR: ○ 1 SM visibility ○ Clear of clouds Night VFR: ○ Requires an instrument rating ○ IFR-certified aircraft  Quiz Questions What are your cloud clearance and visibility requirements if you obtain a special VFR clearance to operate in Class B, C, D, or E airspace that extends to the surface? A. 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally; 3 SM B. Clear of clouds; 1 SM C. 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 SM horizontally; 5 SM B. Clear of clouds; 1 SM  Special Use Airspace: MC P RAWN Restricted Areas Regulatory - Not authorized to enter without permission from Controlling Agency Contains hazards invisible to aircraft, such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missile flight If IFR or VFR on-top: ○ If not active - ATC may grant permission to enter ○ If active - ATC will route around If VFR: must receive Controlling Agency clearance to fly through Altitudes, times of use, controlling agency, & frequencies listed on back of Sectional Chart Legend in Blue  Quiz Questions Under what condition, if any, can you fly through a restricted area? A. Not allowed B. With authorization from the controlling agency C. Does not require authorization B. With authorization from the controlling agency  Other Airspace Areas: Temporary Flight Restrictions Regulatory (TFRs) Used to clear airspace for purpose of security or safety (protect persons and property on surface or in the air from a hazard on the surface) Examples: disaster relief, wildfires, VIP visits (President, Vice-President, etc…), sightseeing areas, open area assemblies of large crowds (stadium games) Special TFR around Washington, DC, at all times – requires special training to fly within Listed in NOTAMS that specify the dimensions, restrictions, and effective time Graphically depicted on maps at FAA – Graphic TFR’s website Always check for TFRs for your route of flight before you fly! TFR Map TFR List  Quiz Questions Select the true statement regarding TFRs. A. TFRs are for temporary aerial flight restrictions B. TFRS permanently restrict aircraft to protect persons or property in the air or on the ground C. TFRs are issued in NOTAMs that specify the dimensions, restrictions, and effective times. C. TFRs are issued in NOTAMs that specify the dimensions, restrictions, and effective times.  Intercept Procedures If intercepted by U.S. military or law enforcement aircraft: Don’t adjust altitude, speed, or heading until directed by intercepting aircraft Your responsibilities once intercepted: 1. Adhere to instructions from intercepting aircraft (from visual devices, hand signals, radio communications) – rock your wings to acknowledge instructions 2. Tune 121.5 (Emergency Frequency): provide your call sign, position, and nature of flight 3. Set transponder squawk 7700, unless ATC instructs otherwise 4. Comply with intercepting aircraft instructions until positively released – follow the intercepting aircraft’s flight path * Recommend you keep a copy of procedures in your flight bag.  Quiz Questions A military aircraft appears on your left side, rocks it wings, and begins a slow left turn away from your flight path. What does this mean? A. You are about to unintentionally invade Canada. Turn back! B. You have been intercepted. Rock your wings, turn left to follow the aircraft, squawk 7700, and attempt to contact the aircraft on 121.5 MHz. C. Proceed on your route. He will ensure no enemy aircraft keep you from your destination. B. You have been intercepted. Rock your wings, turn left to follow the aircraft, squawk 7700, and attempt to contact the aircraft on 121.5 MHz.  RADAR Services RADAR stands for ”RAdio Detection And Ranging” A controller may issue a Radio waves sent from the transmitter are reflected back safety alert to an aircraft off objects in the sky, OR the radar interrogates when: in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or Transponder signal other aircraft. RADAR determines aircraft distance & ground speed Basic ATC Radar Services: (1) Safety alerts: (using Mode C transponder), Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) warnings, Aircraft Conflict (aircraft in potentially unsafe proximity) When ATC verifies that (2) Traffic Advisories: aircraft at close proximity you are in radar contact, (3) Limited radar vectoring: when pilot requests the Pilot In Command (4) Sequencing: adjust the flow of VFR & IFR traffic at (PIC) is primarily responsible for VFR traffic certain airports separation. Flight Following: VFR pilots can request radar service with Approach or Center using Flight Following  Quiz Questions A controller may issue a safety alert to an aircraft in which situation? A. Near severe thunderstorms B. About to enter Special Use Airspace C. In unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft C. In unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft  Quiz Questions When ATC verifies you are in radar contact, who is primarily responsible for VFR aircraft separation? A. Pilot in command B. Air Traffic Controller C. Tower A. Pilot in Command  Transponders: Modes & Codes Modes Important Codes “Squawks” 1200: VFR aircraft Mode A: provides only the 4-digit transponder code entered by the pilot 7500: Highjacking – “Seven Fife, man with a knife” Mode C: provides Mode A + pressure altitude (altitude encoding transponder) 7600: Communication Failure – “Seven Six, – mandatory in Mode C Veil within 30 radio needs a fix” NM of Class B airport 7700: Emergency – “Seven seven, may go to heaven” Mode S: provides a unique code associated only to that aircraft; returns information about heading, altitude, vertical speed, & aircraft ID ADS-B: modern transponders often include ADS-B “out”  Quiz Questions What is the correct transponder code to use for a communication failure? A. 7700 B. 7500 C. 7600 C. 7600  ADS-B (Automatic Dependent constellation (2) GPS receiverSurveillance-Broadcast) Four main components: (1) Satellite (3) Mode S Transponder (4) Ground Stations ADS-B Out broadcasts line-of sight signals from aircraft to ATC ground receivers and to aircraft receivers ADS-B Out provides information about an aircraft's GPS location, altitude, ground speed and unique aircraft ID to ground stations and other aircraft (once per second) ADS-B “out”: signal sent out by aircraft ADS-B “in”: signal received by aircraft providing traffic (TIS-B), NOTAMs (FIS-B), & weather (FIS-B) 2 types: (1) 1090 ES: broadcasts on 1090 MHz freq, mandatory > FL 180 in U.S. (no FIS-B) (2) 978 UAT: broadcasts on 978 MHz freq, primarily used by GA aircraft, provides FIS-B NOTAMs & weather info  Quiz Questions Select the true statement regarding ADS-B. A. ADS-B In provides traffic and weather information on both 1090ES and 978UAT bands B. ADS-B Out transmits line-of-sight signals from aircraft to ATC ground receivers and to aircraft receivers C. General aviation aircraft must have an ADS-B In receiver to operate within 30 NM of Class B airspace B. ADS-B Out transmits line-of-sight signals from aircraft to ATC ground receivers and to aircraft receivers  Traffic Advisory: Practical Application Northwest quadrant Northeast quadrant (270˚ - 000˚ Compass) 000˚ North (000˚ - 090˚ Compass) Heading 000˚ Other aircraft’s heading: 3 Southbound (180˚) Compass Quadrants s ile 000˚ 2m NW NE Positions Clock 090˚ 270˚ 090˚ 12 Your Heading: 6 Heading 270˚ Heading SW SE 180˚ Southwest quadrant Southeast quadrant (180˚ - 270˚ Compass) (090˚ - 180˚ Compass) 9 180˚ Heading You are on a heading of 270˚. ATC issues this traffic advisory, “Traffic one o’clock, two miles, southbound.” Where should you look? Northwest – between directly ahead and 90˚ to the right  Quiz Questions You are on a heading of 270˚. ATC issues this traffic advisory, “Traffic one o’clock, two miles, southbound.” Where should you look? A. Southwest – between directly ahead and 90˚ to the right B. Northwest - between directly ahead and 90˚ to the right C. Northeast - between directly ahead and 90˚ to the left B. Northwest - between directly ahead and 90˚ to the right Using the Radio at Controlled/Uncontrolled Airports Initial radio calls follow the same format: Who you’re talking to Example of Controlled Airport Initial Call Who you are (10 NM from airport): Where you are You: “Tacoma Narrows Tower, Cessna 1115U, 10 miles North, inbound for landing, with What you want Alpha” At Uncontrolled Airfields: Example of Uncontrolled Airport Initial Call Repeat the “who you’re talking to” at the (10 NM from airport): end – state the airport name You: “Bremerton Traffic, Cessna 1115U, 10 Make regular radio calls stating position (10 miles southwest, 3,500, 45 entry to left NM out, 5 NM out, entering 45, downwind, downwind Runway 20, full stop, Bremerton” base, final) When approaching an airport with an operating control tower: Establish two-way * First radio call should happen 10 NM from field communication with the tower prior to entering Class D airspace. At towered airports: Readback all ATC instructions and clearances Reply to ATC instructions: end readback  Quiz Questions What procedure applies when approaching an airport with an operating control tower? A. Obtain a transponder code prior to entering Class D airspace B. Establish two-way radio communication with tower prior to entering Class E airspace C. Establish two-way radio communication with tower prior to entering Class D airspace C. Establish two-way radio communication with tower prior to entering Class D airspace  Emergency Procedures “Communication” “Mayday, Mayday”: Aircraft in Steps to handle emergency distress: a condition of serious communication: and/or imminent danger requiring Squawk emergency transponder code: 7700 immediate assistance – you receive Use 121.5 (VFR emergency frequency ATC priority over all other aircraft monitored by most aviation ground facilities) Mayday, Mayday examples: engine fire, mechanical failure, or structural Use “Pan-Pan” or “Mayday, Mayday” failure Example radio call: You: “Mayday, Mayday, Cessna 1115U, on 121.5, 10 miles southwest "Pan, Pan”: an urgent situation of Bremerton Airport at 4,000 with engine requiring priority on the radio failure, gliding to off field landing.” frequency and timely but not immediate assistance If you are lost: use the 5-C’s Pan, Pan examples: you are lost, ○ Climb: increases radio range loss of equipment that could ○ Communicate: find nearest ATC potentially lead to an emergency frequency or use 121.5 ○ Confess: tell ATC you are lost ○ Comply: follow ATC instructions  Quiz Questions What is the VHF emergency frequency monitored by most aviation ground facilities? A. 122.2 B. 123.05 C. 121.5 C. 121.5  Quiz Questions What is indicated when you use the words “Pan, Pan” in a radio message? A. An urgent situation requiring priority on the radio frequency and timely but not immediate assistance B. A situation requiring immediate assistance from ATC C. You have been intercepted by a military aircraft and are complying with instructions A. An urgent situation requiring priority on the radio frequency and timely but not immediate assistance  Interpreting Chart Supplement Entries What frequency should you use to announce your position for an approach to landing at Taos Municipal airport? 122.8 CTAF airports are uncontrolled, using the same CTAF frequency for approach, departure, taxi, & pattern.  Quiz Questions What frequency should you use to announce your position during an approach for landing at Taos Municipal airport? A. 122.8 B. 122.25 C. 117.6 A. 122.8  Interpreting Chart Supplement Entries What is the length of the longest runway at Portland International Airport? 11,000 feet H11000X150: H = Hard runway (asphalt), 11000 = 11,000 feet runway length, X150 = 150’ runway width  Quiz Questions What is the longest runway at Portland International Airport? A. 9,825 feet B. 11,000 feet C. 6,000 feet B. 11,000 feet  Notice to Air Missions (NOTAMs) Notice containing information essential to personnel Primary types: concerned with operations but not known far enough in advanced to be publicized by other means NOTAM(D): Distant NOTAM: disseminated States real-time abnormal status of a component of for all navigational facilities of the NAS – the National Airspace System (NAS) includes taxiway closures, Concern the establishment, condition, or change of personnel/equipment near/on runways, & any facility, service, procedure, or hazard in the NAS Have a unique language using special contraction airport lights not affecting instrument make communications more efficient (FAA NOTAMs approaches Contractions List) NOTAM(L): Distributed for military NOTAMs can be reviewed online from both the FAA operations – civilian NOTAMs(L) are now and DOD websites included in NOTAM(D) ALWAYS check NOTAMs for entire route of flight and possible alternates/diverts prior to flight FDC NOTAM (regulatory): Flight Data Center NOTAM: provides changes in You can obtain NOTAMs from Flight Service with procedures/ airways/charts/etc… - lists your online weather briefing or during a phone Temporary Flight Restrictions (TFRs) briefing, or use an FAA tool to search for NOTAMs online Center Area NOTAM: issued by ARTCCs & cover multiple airports – include airway restrictions, laser activity, & TFRs  Quiz Questions Select the true statement regarding NOTAMs. A. You can obtain NOTAMs from Flight Service with your online weather briefing or during a phone briefing, or use an FAA tool to search for NOTAMs online B. NOTAMs are issued annually C. NOTAMs include airport data not depicted graphically on charts, such as LAHSO rules, airport services, and types of runway lighting A. You can obtain NOTAMs from Flight Service with your online weather briefing or during a phone briefing, or use an FAA tool to search for NOTAMs online  Advisory Circulars (ACs) ACs are non–regulatory FAA publications providing guidance for compliance with airworthiness regulations, pilot certification, operational standards, training standards, and any other rules within the Title 14 CFRs (the FARs) Accessible online for free through FAA Advisory Circulars (ACs) website Advisory Circulars (ACs) are nonregulatory information, including guidance on methods to comply with FARs  Quiz Questions What information is provided by advisory circulars (ACs)? A. Regulatory information on how to use the National Airspace System within Federal Aviation Regulations (FARs) B. Nonregulatory information on public airports, seaplane bases, heliports, military facilities, & select private-use airports which has a DOD approach procedure in the TPP C. Nonregulatory information, including guidance on methods to comply with FARs C. Nonregulatory information, including guidance on methods to comply with FARs Homework for Next Time Read: Jeppesen’s Guided Flight Discovery Private Pilot Handbook ○ Chapter 6: Meteorology for Pilots Read: FAA’s Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge ○ Chapter 12: Weather Theory  Any Questions? Email: [email protected] Cell/Text: (318) 205-2748 Avian Front Desk: (360) 674-2111