Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal PDF

Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal Lecture 1: Overview of Respiration 1. What is the primary function of pulmonary ventilation? A) To regulate blood pH B) To warm and moisten the air o C) To move air in and out of the lungs D) To exchang...

Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal Lecture 1: Overview of Respiration 1. What is the primary function of pulmonary ventilation? A) To regulate blood pH B) To warm and moisten the air o C) To move air in and out of the lungs D) To exchange gases between the blood and body cells 2. Which part of the respiratory system is responsible for gas exchange? A) Nasal cavity B) Alveoli C) Pharynx D) Trachea 3. Which of the following structures is part of the conducting zone? A) Respiratory bronchioles o B) Nasal cavity u C) Alveolar sacs D) Alveoli 4. Where does pulmonary diffusion take place? A) In the trachea o B) Between the blood and alveolar air C) In the nasal cavity u D) In the bronchioles 5. Which function is NOT associated with the respiratory system? A) Regulation of blood pH B) Olfaction (sense of smell) C) Production of digestive enzymes Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal D) Vocalization 6. Which part of the respiratory system marks the division between the upper and lower respiratory tracts? A) Nasal cavity B) Larynx C) Trachea D) Alveoli 7. What is the main function of the nasal conchae? A) To filter, warm, and moisten air B) To increase surface area for gas exchange C) To produce mucus D) To move air in and out of the lungs 8. The nasal cavity is lined by which type of epithelium? A) Simple cuboidal epithelium B) Stratified squamous epithelium C) Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium D) Transitional epithelium 9. Which of the following is a primary function of the conducting zone of the respiratory system? A) Air filtration, warming, and moistening B) Gas exchange C) Oxygen transport to tissues D) Regulation of blood oxygen levels Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal 10. What is the role of the goblet cells in the nasal cavity? A) To produce mucus B) To trap bacteria in the airways C) To warm inhaled air D) To clean air before it enters the lungs 11. In which part of the respiratory system does simple diffusion of gases occur? A) Trachea o B) Alveolar sacs C) Nasal cavity D) Bronchioles 12. What is the total volume of the conducting zone (anatomic dead space)? A) 150 mL B) 5-6 liters C) 10 liters D) 1-2 liters 13. Which part of the respiratory system serves as a passage for both air and food? A) Pharynx B) Trachea C) Larynx D) Bronchioles 14. Which of the following is the correct sequence for the movement of air from the external environment to the lungs? A) Nasal cavity → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchioles B) Nasal cavity → Larynx → Trachea → Bronchioles → Alveolar sacs C) Larynx → Trachea → Nasal cavity → Pharynx Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal D) Bronchioles → Trachea → Nasal cavity → Pharynx 15. What is the average volume of the respiratory zone where gas exchange occurs? A) 10 liters B) 1-2 liters o C) 5-6 liters D) 15 liters 16. Which of the following is an example of an upper airway obstructive disease? A) Asthma B) Bronchitis C) Emphysema D) Obstructive Sleep Apnea (OSA) 17. The pharyngeal tonsil (or adenoids) is located in which part of the respiratory system? 0A) Nasopharynx B) Larynx C) Oropharynx D) Trachea 18. The epiglottis plays a key role in which of the following processes? A) Preventing food from entering the trachea B) Expanding the lungs during inspiration C) Regulating blood pH D) Modifying airflow in the bronchi Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal 19. Which of the following laryngeal cartilages is the largest and unpaired? 0 A) Thyroid cartilage B) Cricoid cartilage C) Epiglottis D) Arytenoid cartilage 20. Obstructive diseases of the lower airway typically include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Asthma B) Emphysema C) Croup D) Bronchitis 21. Which of the following bronchiolar structures lacks cartilage, submucosal glands, and goblet cells? A) Primary bronchus B) Secondary bronchus C) Tertiary bronchus D) Bronchioles 22. Which condition is caused by an overgrowth or inflammation of the pharyngeal tonsil and can lead to obstruction of the airflow between the nasal cavity and pharynx? A) Croup B) Laryngitis 0 C) Adenoid hypertrophy D) Asthma Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal 23. The trachea is supported by which of the following structures? A) C-shaped hyaline cartilage B) Elastic fibers C) Simple squamous epithelium D) Cartilage rings with smooth muscle 24. Which of the following is true about the bronchial tree? A) It starts from the trachea and branches into primary, secondary, and tertiary bronchi B) The bronchioles contain cartilage and submucosal glands C) Bronchioles are lined with stratified squamous epithelium D) Cartilage is absent in both bronchi and bronchioles 25. Ciliostasis, or the inhibition of coordinated ciliary beat, can result from all of the following EXCEPT: A) Smoking B) Excessive cold or heat exposure C) Pollutants D) Reduced mucus production 26. The pulmonary acinus refers to: A) The region where gas exchange occurs between alveolar air and blood B) The area of the lung where air enters during inspiration C) A group of alveolar sacs and alveoli ventilated by one respiratory bronchiole D) The space between the parietal and visceral pleurae Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal 27. Which of the following muscles is the primary muscle responsible for quiet inspiration? A) External intercostals B) Diaphragm C) Scalenes D) Sternocleidomastoid 28. Pulmonary circulation is responsible for: A) Carrying oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart B) Carrying deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs C) Supplying oxygen to the bronchial tree D) Ventilating the alveoli 29. What happens during inspiration in terms of diaphragm movement? A) The diaphragm rises and the ribs contract B) The diaphragm flattens and the ribs elevate C) The diaphragm stays neutral and the ribs move inward D) The diaphragm elevates and the ribs remain stationary 30. The glottis is: A) The region of the throat that controls airflow into the lungs B) The opening between the vocal cords through which air passes to the trachea C) A layer of smooth muscle found around the alveoli D) A cartilage structure that separates the esophagus and trachea 31. The pleural cavity is: Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal A) A potential space between the visceral and parietal pleurae B) Filled with alveolar fluid to facilitate gas exchange C) A rigid structure that protects the lungs from damage D) The location where blood circulates through pulmonary veins 32. Which of the following is a key function of the pharyngeal tonsils (adenoids)? A) Supporting vocalization during speech B) Blocking the entrance of food into the respiratory system C) Preventing airflow from the nasal cavity to the pharynx D) Assisting in immune defense against pathogens 33. Chronic exposure to pollutants can lead to which of the following respiratory conditions? A) Croup o B) Progressive massive fibrosis C) Asthma D) Bronchitis 34. The bronchial arteries are responsible for: A) Supplying oxygenated blood to the lung tissue B) Transporting deoxygenated blood from the lungs C) Carrying oxygenated blood to the alveoli D) Connecting the heart to the lungs 35. Which of the following accessory muscles becomes important during physical exertion to aid in ventilation? A) Sternocleidomastoid B) Diaphragm Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal C) External intercostals D) Scalenes Lecture 2: Lung Volume 1. Which lung volume represents the amount of air remaining in the lungs after maximal exhalation? A) Tidal volume (TV) B) Vital capacity (VC) C) Residual volume (RV) D) Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) 2. Which lung capacity is most informative about lung functional status and can be determined by spirometry? A) Total lung capacity (TLC) B) Functional residual capacity (FRC) C) Vital capacity (VC) D) Residual volume (RV) 3. What lung volume is typically measured by spirometry during maximal exhalation? A) Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) B) Tidal volume (TV) C) Vital capacity (VC) D) Residual volume (RV) 4. Which lung volumes cannot be measured directly by spirometry? Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal A) Vital capacity (VC) B) Residual volume (RV) C) Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) D) Tidal volume (TV) 5. What does the volume of functional residual capacity (FRC) consist of? A) TV + IRV B) RV + ERV C) TV + ERV D) IRV + RV 6. Which method can be used to measure functional residual capacity (FRC)? A) Spirometry B) Helium dilution method C) X-ray D) CT scan 7. Which of the following is true about the diaphragm's function during quiet breathing? A) It relaxes during expiration B) It contracts during expiration C) It contracts during inspiration D) It does not participate in quiet breathing 8. What drives air out of the lungs during quiet, passive expiration? A) Active muscle contraction B) Elastic recoil of alveolar fibers and surface tension C) Inspiratory muscles Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal D) Diaphragm contraction 9. Intrapleural pressure (Pip) during quiet inspiration is: A) 0 mm Hg B) -5 mm Hg o C) -8 mm Hg D) +1 mm Hg 10. During inspiration, alveolar pressure (Palv) must be: A) Higher than atmospheric pressure (Patm) B) Equal to atmospheric pressure C) Lower than atmospheric pressure D) Equal to intrapleural pressure 11. What is Boyle's Law in the context of lung mechanics? A) P × V = constant, meaning pressure and volume are inversely related B) Pressure increases when volume increases C) Volume increases when temperature increases D) Pressure is directly proportional to temperature 12. Which of the following describes the respiratory pressures at the end of quiet expiration? A) Palv = -5 mm Hg B) Palv = 0 mm Hg C) Pip = +1 mm Hg D) Pip = 0 mm Hg Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal 13. What happens to the pleural pressure (Pip) during forced expiration? A) It becomes negative B) It becomes positive C) It stays at 0 mm Hg D) It remains unchanged 14. During active expiration, which muscles are involved? A) Diaphragm and external intercostals B) Internal intercostals and abdominal muscles C) Only external intercostals D) Only diaphragm 15. What causes the collapse of small airways in infants with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)? A) Surfactant insufficiency B) Excess mucus production C) Overexpansion of the alveoli D) Poor ventilation due to diaphragm paralysis 16. Which condition is most likely to result from surfactant insufficiency in newborns? A) Pneumonia B) Asthma C) Infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS) D) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) 17. Which of the following is a symptom of infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS)? Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal 0 A) Cyanosis B) Hypertension C) Bradycardia D) Hyperventilation 18. What is the primary treatment for infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS)? A) Antibiotics B) Artificial surfactant and steroids C) Mechanical ventilation only D) Oxygen therapy alone 19. What is a common cause of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) in adults? A) Trauma or inhalation injury B) Lack of surfactant C) Low blood oxygen levels D) Restrictive lung disease 20. Which condition is a restrictive lung disease characterized by difficulty in lung expansion? A) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) B) Asthma C) Pneumothorax D) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis 21. What does lung compliance (C) refer to? A) The ability of the lungs to return to their original shape B) The effort required to stretch the lungs Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal C) The total volume of air the lungs can hold D) The pressure gradient between the alveoli and pleura 22. What happens to lung compliance in restrictive lung diseases? A) Compliance increases B) Compliance decreases C) Compliance remains the same D) Compliance fluctuates 23. Which of the following increases lung compliance? o A) Surfactant production r B) Increased surface tension C) Alveolar fibrosis D) Diaphragm paralysis 24. What does surfactant do to surface tension (ST) in the alveoli? A) Increases ST to prevent alveolar collapse B) Reduces ST to prevent alveolar collapse C) Increases ST to expand alveoli D) Reduces ST to increase alveolar size 25. What is the role of type II pneumocytes in the lungs? A) Produce surfactant B) Reabsorb oxygen C) Conduct gas exchange D) Remove carbon dioxide Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal 26. What condition can result from the deficiency of surfactant in premature infants? A) Pneumothorax B) Atelectasis C) Chronic bronchitis D) Tuberculosis 27. What can occur as a result of prolonged exposure to high levels of oxygen in premature infants? A) Improved vision B) Retinopathy of prematurity C) Bronchopulmonary dysplasia D) Hypercapnia 28. What happens to lung volume in restrictive lung diseases? A) It increases B) It decreases C) It remains unchanged D) It fluctuates 29. Which of the following is a symptom of obstructive lung diseases? A) Decreased airway resistance B) Increased lung compliance C) Difficulty exhaling air D) Decreased residual volume 30. Which lung volume or capacity increases during exercise? Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal A) Residual volume (RV) B) Tidal volume (TV) C) Functional residual capacity (FRC) D) Total lung capacity (TLC) Lecture 3: Airway Resistance 1. According to Poiseuille's law, what is the greatest factor influencing airway resistance and flow? A) Lung volume B) Airway radius C) Airway length D) Temperature 2. Which type of airflow is typically observed in the trachea and large airways? A) Laminar flow B) Transitional flow C) Turbulent flow D) Smooth flow 3. Which of the following is true about beta-2 adrenergic agonists like albuterol? A) They block muscarinic receptors to reduce bronchoconstriction B) They bind to beta-2 receptors to dilate bronchioles Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal C) They inhibit inflammation through corticosteroid action D) They reduce mucus secretion through acetylcholine inhibition 4. The process by which air moves through the respiratory system is primarily determined by which equation? A) Fick's law of diffusion B) Poiseuille’s law C) Boyle’s law D) Charles’ law 5. Which of the following is characteristic of laminar flow? A) Air flows in irregular, turbulent eddies B) Flow is more efficient in larger airways C) Flow is smooth and occurs in smaller airways D) It occurs in the trachea and large bronchi 6. In the context of asthma, which drug class blocks muscarinic receptors to reduce bronchoconstriction? A) Beta-2 agonists B) Anticholinergics C) Corticosteroids D) Methylxanthines 7. What does Poiseuille's law suggest about airway resistance when the radius of the airway is reduced? Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal A) Resistance decreases significantly B) Resistance is unaffected C) Resistance increases exponentially D) Resistance increases linearly 8. Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? A) Increased mucus secretion B) Chronic cough C) Loss of elastic recoil in the lungs D) Hypocapnia during exacerbation 9. In obstructive pulmonary diseases like asthma, FEV1 is typically: A) Increased during attacks B) Decreased during attacks C) Unchanged regardless of the attack D) Normal during an exacerbation 10. Which of the following structures in the respiratory system contributes most to airway resistance in healthy individuals? A) Terminal bronchioles B) Trachea C) Large bronchi D) Nose Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal 11. The majority of airway resistance in the healthy respiratory system is located in which part? A) Terminal bronchioles B) Small bronchi C) The trachea D) The nose 12. Which factor increases airway resistance by causing swelling and fluid accumulation in the nasal mucosa? A) Increased ciliary movement B) Mast cell degranulation C) Decreased mucus secretion D) Reduced vasodilation 13. In patients with emphysema, the loss of lung elasticity leads to: A) Increased exhalation efficiency B) Increased lung compliance C) Reduced tidal volume D) Higher inspiratory reserve volume 14. Which of the following is characteristic of the airflow in the lungs during emphysema? A) Higher expiratory flow rates B) Increased lung recoil during exhalation C) Trapped air due to reduced recoil Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal D) Reduced lung compliance 15. Which of the following is a feature of asthma-related airway obstruction? A) Permanent damage to alveolar walls B) Smooth muscle constriction and inflammation C) Reduced lung compliance D) Decreased mucus production 16. In emphysema, the destruction of alveolar walls leads to: A) Increased surface area for gas exchange B) Reduced surface area for gas exchange C) Improved alveolar elasticity D) Increased alveolar pressure 17. Which of the following measurements from spirometry can be most indicative of airway obstruction? A) Forced vital capacity (FVC) B) FEV1/FVC ratio C) Peak expiratory flow (PEF) D) Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) 18. Which condition is commonly associated with a "seal-like" barking cough and stridor in young children? Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal A) Asthma B) Bronchiolitis C) Croup D) Epiglottitis 19. In obstructive pulmonary diseases like asthma and COPD, which of the following lung volumes is typically elevated? A) Vital capacity B) Residual volume (RV) C) Tidal volume (TV) D) Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) 20. The primary cause of emphysema in 80% of cases is: A) Viral infection B) Genetic mutation C) Smoking D) Environmental pollutants 21. Which of the following is true about the mechanism of airway narrowing during parasympathetic stimulation? A) It results from the release of norepinephrine B) It causes relaxation of smooth muscles in the airway C) It leads to bronchoconstriction via acetylcholine binding to muscarinic receptors D) It dilates the airways through the activation of beta-2 receptors Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal 22. In asthma, which type of drug is used to inhibit inflammation? A) Beta-2 agonists B) Corticosteroids C) Methylxanthines D) Muscarinic antagonists 23. The obstructive pattern seen in spirometry in asthma typically includes: A) Normal FEV1/FVC ratio B) Decreased FEV1 and increased FVC C) Increased FEV1/FVC ratio D) Decreased FEV1 and FVC with a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio 24. Which of the following is the hallmark of restrictive lung diseases? A) Increased lung compliance B) High FEV1/FVC ratio C) Decreased residual volume D) Reduced tidal volume due to air trapping 25. Which of the following is a common symptom of chronic bronchitis? A) Chronic productive cough with mucus overproduction B) Wheezing and dyspnea during exertion C) Acute episodes of shortness of breath D) Decreased mucus production Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal 26. The primary mechanism behind airway resistance in obstructive lung diseases is: A) Decreased lung compliance B) Excessive airway narrowing and inflammation C) Loss of elastic recoil in the alveoli D) Increased tidal volume 27. Which spirometry value is most affected during an asthma attack? A) Forced vital capacity (FVC) B) Peak expiratory flow (PEF) C) Total lung capacity (TLC) D) Inspiratory capacity (IC) 28. In emphysema, which of the following occurs due to the destruction of lung tissue? A) Increased elasticity of the lung parenchyma B) Increased gas exchange efficiency C) Reduced surface area for gas exchange D) Increased ability to exhale efficiently 29. In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the lungs may be overinflated due to: A) Increased lung elasticity B) Loss of alveolar recoil C) Increased mucus production Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal D) Decreased lung compliance 30. The loss of lung elasticity in emphysema leads to which of the following? A) Improved exhalation B) Decreased airway resistance C) Difficulty in exhalation D) Increased tidal volume Lecture 4: Gas Exchange 1. What is the primary control mechanism for the adequacy of alveolar ventilation? A) PO2 B) PCO2 C) Hemoglobin concentration D) Respiratory rate 2. What is the result of hypoventilation? A) Decrease in PCO2 and respiratory alkalosis B) Increase in PCO2 and respiratory acidosis C) Increase in PO2 and respiratory alkalosis D) Decrease in PO2 and respiratory acidosis Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal 3. Which of the following is a possible cause of hyperventilation? A) Pulmonary embolism B) Anxiety or panic attacks C) Pneumonia D) Stroke 4. What is the primary function of the alveoli in the lungs? A) Remove carbon dioxide from the blood B) Serve as mixing chambers for inspired air and blood C) Filter foreign particles from inspired air D) Control the body's acid-base balance 5. What causes a decrease in oxygen diffusion in the lungs? A) Increased number of alveoli B) Decreased number of capillaries C) Decrease in the area of diffusion D) Increased alveolar ventilation 6. How rapidly does oxygen typically diffuse into red blood cells during normal gas exchange? A) In less than one second B) In about 1/4 of a second Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal C) In about 1/2 of a second D) In about 1/10 of a second 7. What is Fick's law of diffusion related to? A) Blood volume B) Gas transfer rate C) Capillary pressure D) Oxygen saturation 8. What factor increases the diffusion of oxygen into the blood? A) Increased distance between alveolar membrane and blood B) Decreased area of exchange C) Increased oxygen tension gradient between alveoli and blood D) Thickening of the alveolar-capillary barrier 9. What percentage of oxygen in the blood is carried by hemoglobin? A) 50-60% B) 80-85% C) 97-98% D) 10-20% 10. Which form of hemoglobin is predominant in adult humans? Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal A) Hemoglobin A2 B) Hemoglobin F C) Hemoglobin A D) Hemoglobin S 11. What does the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve show? A) The effect of carbon dioxide on hemoglobin binding B) The saturation of hemoglobin as a function of PO2 C) The effect of body temperature on hemoglobin affinity D) The percentage of red blood cells saturated with oxygen 12. What shift in the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve occurs with increased PCO2? A) A shift to the left, increasing affinity B) A shift to the right, decreasing affinity C) No shift in the curve D) A shift to the left, decreasing affinity 13. Which condition is associated with a high affinity for oxygen in fetal hemoglobin? A) Adult respiratory distress syndrome B) Pregnancy C) Carbon monoxide poisoning D) High altitude Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal 14. How is carbon monoxide (CO) harmful to the body? A) It increases the amount of oxygen dissolved in plasma B) It increases the binding of oxygen to hemoglobin C) It diminishes the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood by binding to hemoglobin D) It decreases the partial pressure of oxygen in alveolar air 15. Which condition occurs due to an abnormal form of hemoglobin and causes sickling of red blood cells? A) Thalassemia B) Anemia C) Sickle cell disease D) Polycythemia 16. What is methemoglobinemia? A) A condition where oxygen is not released from hemoglobin at tissues B) A condition where hemoglobin binds to carbon monoxide C) A condition where hemoglobin is oxidized to an unusable form D) A condition that increases the number of red blood cells in circulation 17. How does methemoglobinemia affect oxygen delivery to tissues? Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal A) It increases oxygen delivery to tissues B) It causes no change in oxygen delivery C) It reduces oxygen delivery to tissues D) It increases oxygen carrying capacity in the blood 18. What is the normal saturation of hemoglobin in arterial blood at sea level? A) 50-60% B) 65-75% C) 97-99% D) 80-85% 19. Which gas is transported in the blood as bicarbonate ions? A) Oxygen B) Nitrous oxide C) Carbon dioxide D) Nitrogen 20. What happens when the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to the left? A) Affinity between oxygen and hemoglobin decreases B) Oxygen is more readily released to tissues C) Hemoglobin binds more oxygen at a lower partial pressure D) Blood oxygen saturation decreases Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal Lecture 5: Control of Breath 1. Which neurons are responsible for stimulating the diaphragm during inspiration? A) Medullary inspiratory neurons B) Phrenic motoneurons C) Intercostal motor neurons D) Central chemoreceptors 2. If the CNS is cut below the medulla, what happens to spontaneous respiration? A) Breathing continues normally B) Breathing rate increases C) Breathing stops D) Breathing becomes irregular 3. Which of the following receptors respond to low PaO2, high PCO2, and low pH in the blood? A) Stretch receptors B) Peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies C) Juxtacapillary receptors D) Medullary inspiratory neurons Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal 4. During inspiration, which type of feedback loop is activated by chemoreceptors to increase ventilation? A) Negative feedback B) Positive feedback C) Inhibitory feedback D) Reciprocal feedback 5. Where are the central chemoreceptors that respond to changes in PCO2 located? A) In the carotid and aortic bodies B) Near the ventral surface of the medulla C) In the spinal cord D) In the pons 6. Which cranial nerves transmit information from peripheral chemoreceptors to the respiratory centers in the medulla? A) Trigeminal (CN V) and facial (CN VII) B) Vagus (CN X) and glossopharyngeal (CN IX) C) Vagus (CN X) and olfactory (CN I) D) Vagus (CN X) and accessory (CN XI) 7. Which type of hypoxia is characterized by low PO2 in arterial blood, often due to factors like high altitude or airway obstruction? A) Hypoxemic hypoxia B) Ischemic hypoxia Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal C) Anemic hypoxia D) Histotoxic hypoxia 8. What does the Hering-Breuer reflex primarily help prevent during respiration? A) Hyperventilation B) Overinflation of the lungs C) Hypoventilation D) Constriction of the airways 9. Which receptors are primarily responsible for the cough reflex and bronchoconstriction in response to irritants such as smoke? A) Stretch receptors B) Juxtacapillary receptors C) Irritant receptors D) Peripheral chemoreceptors 10. What type of hypoxia results from the inability of tissues to utilize oxygen, such as during cyanide poisoning? A) Hypoxemic hypoxia B) Ischemic hypoxia C) Anemic hypoxia D) Histotoxic hypoxia Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal 11. In obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), what causes airflow cessation despite continued inspiratory muscle contraction? A) Airway obstruction from relaxed pharyngeal muscles B) Central respiratory failure C) Muscle fatigue in the diaphragm D) Alveolar hypoxia 12. Which treatment is commonly used to manage obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)? A) Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) B) Diaphragmatic pacing C) Oxygen supplementation only D) Bronchodilators Lecture 6: Renal #1 1. What is the primary function of the kidneys in the excretory system? A) Regulation of blood glucose B) Filtration of blood to remove waste and toxins C) Transport of urine to the bladder D) Reabsorption of water from the filtrate 2. What hormone is released by the kidneys to regulate red blood cell production? Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal A) Calcitriol B) Erythropoetin C) Renin D) Insulin 3. Which structure of the kidney is responsible for urine formation? A) Renal capsule B) Renal cortex C) Nephron D) Ureter 4. What is the primary role of the renal pelvis? A) Storage of urine B) Filtration of blood C) Collection of urine from calyces and transport to the ureter D) Secretion of hormones 5. What structure connects the kidney to the urinary bladder? A) Renal artery B) Urethra C) Ureter D) Renal vein 6. Which part of the nephron is primarily involved in the reabsorption of water and solutes? Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal A) Glomerulus B) Proximal tubule C) Distal tubule D) Loop of Henle 7. The renal corpuscle consists of two parts. Which of the following is one of them? A) Loop of Henle glomerulus B) Bowman’s capsule B C C) Ureter D) Collecting duct 8. What is the main function of the loop of Henle? A) Filtration of blood B) Reabsorption of glucose o C) Concentration of urine by creating a medullary osmotic gradient D) Production of erythropoetin 9. What is the main composition of kidney stones? A) Uric acid only B) Calcium oxalate, calcium phosphate, uric acid, cystine C) Phosphates only D) Sodium chloride 10. Which of the following is the first step in urine formation? Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal A) Tubular secretion B) Reabsorption C) Filtration D) Excretion 11. What is the primary function of the renal medulla? A) Blood filtration B) Reabsorption of water and solutes C) Secretion of waste products D) Concentration of urine 12. What structure is located at the apex of the renal pyramids? A) Renal papilla B) Glomerulus C) Bowman’s capsule D) Renal cortex 13. What is the role of the vasa recta in the kidney? A) Blood filtration B) Blood reabsorption and secretion in juxtamedullary nephrons C) Formation of urine D) Transport of urine to the bladder 14. Which part of the kidney is responsible for producing erythropoetin? Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal A) Renal capsule B) Renal cortex C) Renal medulla D) Ureter 15. What is the primary location where blood enters the kidney for filtration? A) Renal hilus B) Renal pelvis C) Glomerulus D) Renal vein 16. Which type of nephron is especially efficient at conserving water during dehydration? A) Cortical nephron B) Juxtamedullary nephron C) Superficial nephron D) Peritubular nephron 17. What is the primary ion found in high concentrations in intracellular fluid (ICF)? A) Sodium (Na+) B) Potassium (K+) C) Calcium (Ca++) D) Chloride (Cl-) Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal 18. How much of the plasma that enters the kidney is typically filtered into the nephron? A) 40% B) 60% C) 80% D) 20% 19. Which of the following substances is mostly reabsorbed in the kidneys? A) Urea B) Sodium C) Phosphate D) Potassium 20. What is the term for the process by which substances are transported from the blood into the nephron? A) Filtration B) Reabsorption L a C) Secretion D) Excretion 21. What is the main function of the renal corpuscle? A) Reabsorption of water B) Filtration of blood plasma C) Secretion of hormones D) Excretion of urine  Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal 22. Which blood vessel brings blood to the renal corpuscle for filtration? A) Renal vein B) Efferent arteriole C) Afferent arteriole D) Peritubular capillaries 23. How much plasma volume is typically reabsorbed in the kidneys? A) 50% B) 70% C) 90% D) 99% 24. Which fluid compartment makes up about 60% of total body water (TBW)? 0A) Intracellular fluid (ICF) B) Extracellular fluid (ECF) C) Blood plasma D) Interstitial fluid 25. What is the main characteristic of the renal parenchyma? A) High capillary density in the cortex B) Low capillary density in the medulla C) Absence of capillaries in the medulla D) Both A and B Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal 26. Which of the following is responsible for the salty condition in the inner medulla of the kidney? A) High concentration of sodium B) High concentration of potassium C) High osmolarity D) Low capillary density 27. What is the main role of the efferent arteriole in the nephron? A) Filtration of blood B) Transport of blood away from the glomerulus C) Secretion of waste products D) Reabsorption of glucose 28. What is the typical osmolarity of the renal cortex? A) 500 mOsM B) 1000 mOsM C) 1200 mOsM D) 290 mOsM 29. What happens to a substance if its filtered load is greater than its excretion rate? A) The substance is secreted B) The substance is reabsorbed C) The substance is filtered only D) The substance is not filtered Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal 30. Which of the following is an example of a substance that is both filtered and secreted in the kidneys? A) Glucose B) Sodium C) Inulin D) Potassium Lecture 7: Renal #2 1. Which structure of the nephron is directly responsible for the filtration of blood? a) Proximal convoluted tubule b) Glomerulus c) Loop of Henle d) Collecting duct 2. What is the primary function of the podocytes in the filtration barrier of the glomerulus? a) Absorb nutrients b) Prevent large molecules like proteins from passing into the filtrate c) Regulate blood pressure d) Secrete renin 3. What is the main driving force for glomerular filtration? a) Active transport Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal b) Osmotic pressure c) Hydrostatic pressure d) Diffusion 4. Which component of the glomerular filtration barrier prevents the passage of proteins? a) The endothelial cells of the glomerulus b) The basement membrane c) The podocyte foot processes d) The mesangial cells 5. What is the function of the juxtaglomerular apparatus in the nephron? a) Filtration of waste b) Regulation of glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and blood pressure c) Reabsorption of sodium d) Secretion of erythropoietin 6. Which cells in the juxtaglomerular apparatus secrete renin? a) Podocytes b) Macula densa cells c) Granular (juxtaglomerular) cells d) Mesangial cells 7. What does the macula densa primarily sense in the nephron? a) Blood pressure b) Sodium concentration in the distal convoluted tubule c) Oxygen levels in the blood Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal d) Glucose levels in the filtrate 8. Which of the following best describes the role of the loop of Henle? a) Reabsorbs glucose b) Creates a concentration gradient for water reabsorption c) Secretes waste into the filtrate d) Regulates sodium levels 9. What effect does constriction of the afferent arteriole have on glomerular filtration rate (GFR)? a) It increases GFR b) It decreases GFR c) It has no effect on GFR d) It increases urine output 10. Which of the following is directly related to the reabsorption of water in the nephron? a) Proximal convoluted tubule b) Glomerulus c) Loop of Henle d) Collecting duct 11. What is the role of aldosterone in kidney function? a) Promotes the reabsorption of sodium and water b) Increases glomerular filtration rate (GFR) c) Decreases sodium reabsorption Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal d) Stimulates the secretion of glucose 12. Which substance is commonly used to estimate glomerular filtration rate (GFR)? a) Glucose b) Creatinine c) Sodium d) Urea 13. Which cells in the kidney are responsible for sensing blood pressure and regulating renal blood flow? a) Macula densa cells b) Granular (juxtaglomerular) cells c) Endothelial cells d) Podocytes 14. Which of the following describes the relationship between the efferent arteriole and glomerular filtration rate (GFR)? a) Constriction of the efferent arteriole increases GFR b) Constriction of the efferent arteriole decreases GFR c) Dilation of the efferent arteriole increases GFR d) The efferent arteriole has no effect on GFR 15. What is a common feature of nephrotic syndrome? a) Decreased urine output b) Hematuria (blood in urine) c) Severe proteinuria (protein in urine) Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal d) Hypertension 16. What happens to the permeability of the glomerular filtration barrier in diseases like diabetic nephropathy? a) It becomes less permeable to all substances b) It becomes more permeable to larger molecules like proteins c) It becomes completely impermeable to small molecules d) It has no change in permeability 17. Which structure of the nephron is involved in the final concentration of urine? a) Proximal convoluted tubule b) Distal convoluted tubule c) Loop of Henle d) Collecting duct 18. How does the juxtaglomerular apparatus respond to low sodium concentration in the distal tubule? a) It decreases renin secretion b) It increases renin secretion c) It decreases glomerular filtration rate (GFR) d) It increases filtration pressure 19. Which of the following is a key function of the renal corpuscle? a) Reabsorption of glucose b) Filtration of blood into the glomerular capsule c) Regulation of sodium and potassium levels Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal d) Concentration of urine 20. In which part of the nephron does the majority of sodium reabsorption occur? a) Proximal convoluted tubule b) Loop of Henle c) Distal convoluted tubule d) Collecting duct 21. What happens to the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) when the afferent arteriole is dilated? a) GFR increases b) GFR decreases c) GFR remains unchanged d) GFR fluctuates 22. What substance does the proximal convoluted tubule primarily reabsorb? a) Glucose b) Sodium c) Water d) All of the above 23. What is the effect of aldosterone on the distal convoluted tubule? a) Increases sodium and water reabsorption b) Increases glucose reabsorption c) Decreases potassium secretion d) Decreases sodium reabsorption Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal 24. Which part of the nephron regulates potassium and sodium levels through aldosterone? a) Proximal convoluted tubule b) Loop of Henle c) Distal convoluted tubule d) Collecting duct 25. What does the glomerular basement membrane prevent from passing into the filtrate? a) Small uncharged molecules b) Large proteins c) Sodium ions d) Glucose 26. Which of the following is a consequence of decreased GFR? a) Increased urine output b) Decreased filtration of waste products c) Increased filtration of waste products d) Decreased renal blood flow 27. Which factor would most likely cause a decrease in glomerular filtration rate (GFR)? a) Constriction of the efferent arteriole b) Increased blood pressure c) Constriction of the afferent arteriole d) Increased plasma proteins Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal 28. What happens in the nephron during antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion? a) Decrease in water reabsorption b) Increase in water reabsorption c) Decrease in sodium reabsorption d) Increase in glucose reabsorption 29. In which part of the nephron does the regulation of calcium reabsorption primarily occur? a) Proximal convoluted tubule b) Loop of Henle c) Distal convoluted tubule d) Collecting duct 30. Which of the following is most likely to cause an increase in glomerular filtration rate (GFR)? a) Decreased blood flow to the kidneys b) Increased afferent arteriole dilation c) Increased plasma protein concentration d) Constriction of the efferent arteriole Lecture 8: Renal #3 1. What process changes the composition of the filtrate in the kidneys? Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal A) Glomerular filtration B) Tubular transport C) Osmosis D) Diffusion 2. Which of the following is the main function of the kidneys in relation to plasma solutes? A) Secretion of glucose B) Excretion of water C) Maintenance of plasma concentration of solutes D) Filtration of proteins 3. In the proximal tubule, which transport mechanism is primarily used for the reabsorption of solutes like glucose and amino acids? A) Facilitated diffusion B) Primary active transport C) Secondary active transport D) Simple diffusion 4. Which of the following substances is 100% reabsorbed in the proximal tubule under normal conditions? A) Sodium B) Glucose Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal C) Urea D) Chloride 5. What is the primary ion that drives the movement of water in the proximal tubule? A) Calcium B) Sodium C) Potassium D) Chloride 6. What is the major function of the Loop of Henle? A) Bulk reabsorption of glucose B) Electrolyte reuptake and maintenance of the osmotic gradient C) Secretion of hydrogen ions D) Active transport of urea 7. In which segment of the nephron is water reabsorbed exclusively in the descending limb of the Loop of Henle? A) Proximal tubule B) Ascending limb C) Descending limb D) Distal tubule Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal 8. What is the role of the Na+/K+/2Cl- transporter in the thick ascending limb of the Loop of Henle? A) Reabsorbs water B) Pumps sodium and chloride into the lumen C) Helps create the cortico-medullary osmotic gradient D) Secretes potassium 9. Which of the following hormones is involved in regulating sodium and water reabsorption in the distal nephron? A) Insulin B) Aldosterone C) Epinephrine D) Glucagon 10. Which segment of the nephron is responsible for fine-tuning the reabsorption and secretion of solutes? A) Proximal tubule B) Distal tubule and collecting duct C) Loop of Henle D) Renal corpuscle 11. What is the main effect of aldosterone in the distal nephron? Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal A) Stimulates water reabsorption B) Promotes sodium and water reabsorption and potassium secretion C) Inhibits sodium reabsorption D) Increases urine volume 12. How does antidiuretic hormone (ADH) affect the cells of the distal nephron? A) Makes them water impermeable B) Makes them water permeable C) Inhibits sodium reabsorption D) Increases potassium secretion 13. In which part of the nephron does bulk reabsorption of Na+, Cl-, K+, Ca++, and water occur? A) Distal tubule B) Proximal tubule C) Collecting duct D) Loop of Henle 14. What is the primary driving force behind the reabsorption of water in the proximal tubule? A) Active transport of glucose B) Electrochemical gradient created by sodium transport C) Passive diffusion of water D) Solvent drag from potassium ions Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal 15. Which of the following conditions could result in glucosuria? A) Increased plasma glucose due to diabetes mellitus B) Decreased sodium reabsorption C) Excessive secretion of sodium D) Increased water reabsorption 16. The filtrate that leaves the proximal tubule is: A) Hypotonic B) Hypertonic C) Isotonic D) Highly concentrated 17. What is the primary transport mechanism for water reabsorption in the proximal tubule? A) Active transport B) Osmosis C) Facilitated diffusion D) Ion channel transport 18. In the thick ascending limb of the Loop of Henle, the reabsorption of sodium chloride is: Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal A) Passive B) Active, using Na+/K+/2Cl- transporter C) Active, using a sodium-glucose transporter D) None of the above 19. Which of the following substances is mainly reabsorbed in the distal tubule and collecting duct under the influence of ADH? A) Glucose B) Water C) Urea D) Sodium 20. What role do the peritubular capillaries play in renal function? A) They provide oxygen to the renal tubules B) They filter blood to form filtrate C) They facilitate the reabsorption of water and solutes D) They secrete waste products into the filtrate 21. What condition is characterized by the loss of glucose, amino acids, and bicarbonate in the urine due to impaired reabsorption in the proximal tubule? A) Nephrotic syndrome B) Fanconi’s syndrome C) Diabetes mellitus D) Cystic fibrosis Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal 22. Which of the following substances is NOT reabsorbed in the proximal tubule under normal conditions? A) Glucose B) Amino acids C) Urea D) Potassium 23. The concentration of filtrate exiting the thick ascending limb of the Loop of Henle is: A) Isotonic B) Hypertonic C) Hypotonic D) Very concentrated 24. What is the key role of the countercurrent multiplier mechanism in the kidneys? A) To increase water excretion B) To maintain the cortico-medullary osmotic gradient C) To promote glucose reabsorption D) To secrete sodium ions 25. Which diuretic works by inhibiting the Na+/K+/2Cl- transporter in the thick ascending limb of the Loop of Henle? Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal A) Thiazides B) Furosemide (Loop diuretics) C) Spironolactone (Potassium-sparing diuretics) D) Acetazolamide (Proximal tubule diuretics) 26. What is the primary side effect of loop diuretics like furosemide? A) Hyperkalemia B) Hypertension C) Hypokalemia D) Glucosuria 27. What happens to the filtrate osmolarity as it descends through the descending limb of the Loop of Henle? A) It becomes isotonic B) It increases, becoming hyperosmotic C) It decreases, becoming hyposmotic D) It remains constant 28. Which of the following substances is mainly involved in the solvent drag mechanism in the proximal tubule? A) Calcium B) Glucose C) Sodium D) Chloride Physiology (Fall 2024) Practice Questions- Respiratory and Renal 29. Which type of diuretics works in the distal tubule and inhibits the Na+/Cl- symporter? A) Loop diuretics B) Thiazide diuretics C) Potassium-sparing diuretics D) Proximal tubule diuretics 30. What is the effect of hyperglycemia on water reabsorption in the kidneys? A) Increases water reabsorption B) Decreases water reabsorption C) Does not affect water reabsorption D) Promotes water excretion