Pharmacology Final Review Questions PDF

Pharmacology Final Review Questions 1) Which of the following drug is eliminated in alkaline urine? A) Paracetamol B) Amphetamine C) Diclofenac D) Sulfonamide 2) Which of the following is an enzyme inhibitor? A) Testosterone B) Tobacco smoking C) Ethyl alcohol D) Estrogen 3) What phenomenon can o...

Pharmacology Final Review Questions 1) Which of the following drug is eliminated in alkaline urine? A) Paracetamol B) Amphetamine C) Diclofenac D) Sulfonamide 2) Which of the following is an enzyme inhibitor? A) Testosterone B) Tobacco smoking C) Ethyl alcohol D) Estrogen 3) What phenomenon can occur in the case of using a combination of drugs? A) Accumulation B) Synergism C) Tachyphylaxis D) Tolerance 4) Which receptor could be activated by noradrenaline? A) Dopaminergic receptors B) Alfa receptor C) Both alfa and beta receptors D) Beta receptor 5) Which of the following statements is correct about Isoproterenol? A) Parasympathomimetic directly acting on the nicotinic receptor. B) Parasympathomimetic directly acting on the muscarinic receptor. C) Sympathomimetic directly acting on the alfa-adrenergic receptor. D) Sympathomimetic directly acting on the beta-adrenergic receptor. 6) Which of the following drug is eliminated in acidic urine? A) Phenobarbitone B) Paracetamol C) Amphetamine D) Diclofenac 7) Which of the following is a local hemostatic, Nasal decongestant direct-acting catecholamine? A) Adrenaline B) Phentolamine C) Amphetamine D) Ephedrine 8) What does the term "bioavailability" mean? A) Amount of a substance in urine relative to the initial dose B) Plasma protein binding degree of substance C) Fraction of an uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation following any route administration D) Permeability through the brain-blood barrier 9) What type of drug-drug interaction relates to absorption, biotransformation, distribution, and excretion processes? A) Pharmacodynamic interaction B) Physical and chemical interaction C) Pharmaceutical interaction D) Pharmacokinetic interaction 10) Which of the following route of drug administration is preferred for administering a drug directly into the spinal cord? A) Intra-arterial route B) Intravenous route C) Subcutaneous route D) Intra-thecal route 11) What type of drug-drug interaction results from interaction at the receptor, cell, enzyme, or organ level? A) Pharmacodynamic interaction B) Physical and chemical interaction C) Pharmaceutical interaction D) Pharmacokinetic interaction 12) Which of the following could better define "Conjugation"? A) Process of drug hydrolysis by hydrolytic enzymes B) Process of drug oxidation by special oxidases (CYP450) C) Coupling of a drug with an endogenous substrate as glucuronic acid D) Process of drug reduction by special enzymes 13) Which of the following could define the drug's half-life (t ½)? A) The time required to metabolize half of an introduced drug into the active metabolite B) The time required to absorb half of an administered drug C) The time required to bind half of an administered drug to plasma proteins D The time required to reduce the amount of a drug in plasma by half during the elimination 14) Which of the following best refers to the bioavailability of a drug? A) Percentage of the administered dose that reaches the systemic circulation in the unchanged form B) The ratio of drugs excreted unchanged in urine to eliminated as metabolites C) The ratio of oral to parenteral dose D) The ratio of the orally administered drug to that eliminated in the feces 15) Which of the following statement could define an agonist? A) A drug interacts with the receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing various effects. B) A drug increases the concentration of another substance to produce an effect. C) A drug interacts with the receptor without producing any effect. D) A drug interacts with plasma proteins and doesn't produce any effect. 16) Which drug activates Dopaminergic (D1 and D2) and adrenergic (alfa and beta) receptors? A) Dobutamine B) Phenylephrine C) Dopamine D) Methoxamine 17) Which of the following could refer to the term "chemical antagonism"? A) One drug combines with one another to form an inactive compound B) One drug combines with one another to form a more fat-soluble compound C) One drug combines with one another to form a more water-soluble compound D) One drug combines with one another to form a more active compound 18) Which of the following is more likely to be used as a nasal decongestant? A) Dobutamine B) Clonidine C) Isoprenaline D) Adrenaline 19) Which of the following statements could define "Pharmacodynamics"? A) Absorption and distribution of the drug B) The effect of the body on the drug C) The effect of the drug on the body D) Biotransformation and execration of the drug 20) Which of the following is noncatecholamine dual-acting adrenergic drugs which induce tachyphylaxis? A) Propranolol B) Amphetamine C) Phentolamine D) Ephedrine 21) What are the reasons for determining bioavailability? A) The oral dose and frequency of the drug B) Physiological parameters of blood C) The extent of absorption and hepatic first-pass effect D) Glomerular filtration rate 22) Which of the following acts by enhancing the release of noradrenaline? A) Cocaine B) Ephedrine C) Guanethidine D) Amphetamine 23) Which receptor could be activated by isoprenaline? A) Alfa receptor B) Dopaminergic receptors C) Beta receptor D) Both alfa and beta receptors 24) Which type of drugs could be rapidly excreted by the alkalinization of urine? A) Weakly basic drugs B) Weakly acidic drugs C) Nonpolar drugs D) Strong electrolytes 25) Which effect may lead to toxic reactions when a drug is taken continuously or repeatedly? A) Tolerance B) Idiosyncrasy C) Tachyphylaxis D) Cumulative effect 26) Which among the given drugs is metabolized by MAO and COMT? A) Acetylcholine B) Amphetamine C) Adrenaline D) Ephedrine 27) Which of the following drugs is used for the prolongation of action of local anesthetics? A) Adrenaline B) Tubocurarine C) Acetylcholine D) Muscarine 28) Which of the following results from the drug biotransformation? A) High binding affinity to cellular membranes B) Faster urinary excretion C) Slower urinary excretion D) High binding affinity to plasma protein 29) Which type of drug interaction will occur If two drugs with the same effect, taken together, produce an effect equal in magnitude to the sum of the effects of the medications given individually? A) Additive effect B) Accumulation C) Antagonism D) Potentiation 30) Which of the following is an enzyme inducer? A) Chloramphenicol B) Cimetidine C) Grape juice D) Testosterone 31) Which of the following agents is a less lipophilic, more potent histamine receptor subtype-1 blocker with no central action and no atropine-like activity? A) Cimetidine B) Cetirizine C) Cyproheptadine D) Diphenhydramine 32) Which of the following agents acts as an ecbolic drug used to induce parturition or abortion and control postpartum hemorrhage? A) Zileuton B) Zafirlukast C) Celecoxib D) Prostaglandin F2-alpha 33) Which of the following could treat both atropine and curare toxicity? A) Acetylcholine B) Muscarine C) Neostigmine D) Noradrenaline 34) Which of the following agents is of insignificant value in for treatment of peptic ulcer? A) Hydrocortisone B) Betamethasone C) Zileuton D) Diphenhydramine 35) Which of the following analgesic agents is safe to be used during pregnancy? A) Diclofenac B) Paracetamol C) Celecoxib D) Ketoprofen 36) Which of the following agents is a 5-HT agonist with antianxiety activities? A) Olanzapine B) Cyproheptadine C) Ondansetron D) Buspirone 37) Which of the following drugs is recommended for the treatment of carcinoid tumor in a 72-old lady and acts by blocking 5- HT receptors? A) Dexamethasone B) Diphenhydramine C) Misoprostol D) Cyproheptadine 38) Which of the following antispasmodic agents with muscarinic-blocking activities? A) Hyoscine butyl bromide B) Physostigmine C) Benztropine D) Homatropine 39) Which of the following agents is considered physiological antagonist histamine? A) Cimetidine B) Diphenhydramine C) Glucocorticoids D) Adrenaline 40) Which of the following drugs is considered a parasympatholytic agent and could be used for examining the eye fundus due to its mydriatic effects? A) Atropine B) Adrenaline C) Ephedrine D) Amphetamine 41) Which 'choline esterase inhibitor' produces miosis in the eye? A) Neostigmine B) Carbachol C) Pilocarpine D) Arecholine 42) Which of the following in its parenteral form is lifesaving in severe bronchial asthma and acts by inhibiting phospholipase A2? A) Aminophylline B) Hydrocortisone Or cortisone C) Zileuton D) Zafirlukast 43) Which of the following is correct about hemicholinium? A) It activates both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors. B) It activates muscarinic receptors of smooth muscles. C) It inhibits the synthesis of acetylcholine and acts as a skeletal muscle relaxant. D) It is one of the synthetic choline esters. 44) Which agent of the following could block the effect of acetylcholine on autonomic ganglia? A) d-Tubocurarine B) Lobeline C) Propranolol D) Hexamethonium 45) Which is the essential drug in the treatment of organophosphate poisoning? A) Atropine sulfate B) Adrenaline C) Amphetamine D) Neostigmine 46) Which of the following drugs could be used to treat d-tubocurarine toxicity? A) Succinylcholine B) Hemicholinium C) Adrenaline D) Neostigmine 47) Which agent of the following could block the action of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction? A) Hexamethonium B) d-Tubocurarine C) Propranolol D) Lobeline 48) Which drug act as a GABA agonist skeletal muscle relaxant? A) Dantrolene B) Baclofen C) Chlorzoxazone D) Succinylcholine 49) Which of the following drugs act as an alfa-2 adrenergic agonist? A) Phenylephrine and terbutaline B) Albuterol and Dobutamine C) Clonidine and Tizanidine D) Diazepam and Baclofen 50) Which of the following agents is effective against bronchial asthma? A) Aspirin B) Diphenhydramine C) Celecoxib D) Montelukast Or Zafirlukast 51) Which of the following is correct about mephenesin? A) Competitive antagonist of nicotinic receptors at autonomic ganglia. B) Competitive antagonist of nicotinic receptors at the neuromuscular junction. C) The specific antidote to strychnine toxicity. D) Peripherally acting skeletal muscle relaxant. 52) Which of the following is a leukotriene receptor blocker? A) Prednisone B) Montelukast C) Celecoxib D) Ibuprofen 53) Which drug is considered a sedative antihistamine and recommended before sleeping? A) Diphenhydramine B) Cetirizine C) Ranitidine D) Loratadine 54) Which drug act as an alpha-2 adrenergic receptor antagonist with aphrodisiac activities? A) Dihydroergotamine B) Yohimbine C) Prazosin D) Phentolamine 55) Which of the following is correct about mephenesin? A) It is a competitive antagonist of nicotinic receptors in the autonomic ganglia. B) Peripherally acting skeletal muscle relaxant. C) It is a central skeletal muscle relaxant acting as a specific antidote to strychnine toxicity. D) It is a competitive antagonist of nicotinic receptors at the neuromuscular junction. 56) Which of the following analgesic is best prescribed for children? A) Ibuprofen B) Diclofenac sodium C) Celecoxib D) Aspirin 57) A 45-year-old man with a duodenal ulcer was treated with a combination of drugs to heal the mucosal damage and eradicate Helicobacter pylori. Which antibacterial drugs are used commonly to eradicate intestinal H pylori? A) Ciprofloxacin B) Amoxicillin C) Clarithromycin D) Tetracyclines 58) A 40-year-old man came to the emergency department with severe burning chest pain radiating to his neck. His electrocardiogram was normal, and the troponin test was negative. GERD diagnosis was made, and he was sent home with a prescription for a drug that inhibits stomach acid. Which of the following is a drug that irreversibly inhibits the H*/K* ATPase in the parietal cells? A) Cimetidine B) Omeprazole C) Metoclopramide 59) Which of the following drugs is a small molecule that polymerizes in gastric HI and coats the ulcer bed, resulting in accelerated healing and reduced symptoms? A) Misoprostol B) Pantoprazole C) Sucralfate D) Cimetidine 60) Which of the following agents is a natural product steroid licorice derivative used for peptic ulcers? A) Proglumide B) Sucralfate C) Misoprostol D) Carbenoxolone 61) Which of the following sentences better describes metoclopramide? A) It is a prokinetic drug with central and peripheral dopaminergic antagonist activities. B) It is a prokinetic drug with central and peripheral dopaminergic agonist activities. C) It is a prokinetic drug with peripheral dopaminergic antagonist activities. D) It is a prokinetic drug with central dopaminergic antagonist activities 62) Which of the following could be used for the treatment of dry cough? A) Mucolytics B) Antitussives C) Expectorants D) Corticosteroids 63) Which of the following drugs acts by breaking disulfide bonds in mucus through its free SH group? A) N-Acetylcysteine B) Bromhexine C) Dornase alfa D) Guaifenesin 64) Which of the following drugs is acting as a peripheral and central antitussive? A) Dextromethorphan B) Benzonatate C) codeine D) Guaifenesin 65) Inflammation is a complex tissue reaction that includes the release of cytokines, leukotrienes, prostaglandins, and peptides. Leukotrienes involved in inflammatory processes are typically produced from arachidonic acid by which of the following enzyme? A) Cyclooxygenase-1 B) Cyclooxygenase-2 C) Lipoxygenase D) Phospholipase A2 66) Which of the following is the target molecule of low-dose aspirin to prevent thrombosis? A) Phospholipase A2 B) Lipoxygenase C) PGI2 D) TXA2 67) Which of the following in its parenteral form is lifesaving in severe bronchial asthma and acts by inhibiting phospholipase A2? A) Hydrocortisone B) Zileuton C) Zafirlukast D) Aspirin 68) Which of the following agents is contraindicated in asthmatic patients with peptic ulcers? A) Aspirin B) Zafirlukast C) Cortisone D) Dexamethasone 69) Which of the following agents is effective against bronchial asthma? A) Cetirizine B) Betamethasone C) Prostaglandin F2-alpha D) Aspirin 70) Which of the following is considered a medium-acting corticosteroid? A) Cortisone B) Prednisone C) Hydrocortisone D) Betamethasone 71) Which of the following is considered mineralocorticoid? A) Cortisone B) Prednisone C) Hydrocortisone D) Aldosterone 72) Which of the following class of drugs produces 'moon face,' 'fish mouth,' and 'buffalo hump' as their adverse drug reactions? A) Corticosteroids B) Beta-blockers C) Ganglionic blockers D) Antihistamines 73) Which of the following analgesics is best recommended for pregnant women suffering from mild headache pain in the 42nd week of pregnancy? A) Morphine B) Tramadol C) Ibuprofen D) Paracetamol 74) Which route of drug administration is most likely to lead to the first-pass effect? A) Intravenous B) Intramuscular C) Sublingual D) Oral 75) Which of the following is considered an effect of liver microsomal enzyme induction? A) Decrease drug excretion through the kidney B) Prolong the duration of the action of a drug C) Shorten the duration of the drug action D) Increase the toxic effects of a drug 76) Which of the following is considered Phase I Metabolic transformation? A) Transformation of substances due to oxidation, reduction, or hydrolysis B) Glucuronidation and glucuronide formation C) Renal elimination of the drugs D) Binding to plasma proteins 77) Which of the following is also known as the drug's primary effect? A) Side effect B) Toxic effect C) Teratogenic effect D) Therapeutic effect 78) Which of the following statements could define "Pharmacokinetics"? A) The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs B) The study of biological and therapeutic effects of drugs C) The study of methods of new drug development D) The study of mechanisms of drug action 79) Which of the following statement could define an antagonist? A) A drug binds to the receptors and initiates changes in cell function, producing a submaximal effect B) A drug binds to the receptors and initiates changes in cell function, producing a maximal effect C) A drug binds to the receptors without directly altering their functions D) A drug interacts with plasma proteins and doesn't produce any effect 80) Which of the following statement could define therapeutical dose? A) The amount of a substance to produce the minimal biological effect B) The amount of a substance to produce effects hazardous for an organism C) The amount of a substance to accelerate an increase of concentration of medicine in an organism D) The amount of a substance to produce the required effect in most patients 81) Which of the following is considered the main therapeutic use of organophosphorus compounds? A) Insecticides B) Antispasmodic. C) Mydriatic D) Anticonvulsant 82) Which of the following is a selective alfa 2 adrenoceptor antagonist? A) Phentolamine B) Prazosin C) Clonidin D) Yohimbine 83) Which of the following is one of the similarities between ephedrine and adrenaline? A) Potency B) Producing both alfa and beta-adrenergic effects C) Duration of action D) inability to penetrate the blood-brain barrier 84) Which of the following statement about amphetamine is correct? A) It is a parasympathomimetic agent that could be used to treat curare toxicity. B) It is abuse drug acts indirectly by enhancing the release of noradrenaline. C) It is a parasympatholytic agent that could be used for treating obesity due to its anorexigenic effect. D) Directy acting sympathomimetic agent with central stimulant action. 85) Why is acetylcholine not used in clinical practice? A) Because it is very toxic B) Because the doses required are very high C) Because it is very costly D) Because it is very rapidly hydrolyzed 86) Which of the following is considered an effect of parasympathomimetic drugs? A) Bradycardia B) Constipation C) Mydriasis D) Bronchodilation 87) Which of the following drugs is the prototype beta-adrenergic blocker and is considered a competitive antagonist to isoprenaline? A) Carvedilol B) Propranolol C) Atenolol D) Labetalol 88) Which of the following is a noncatecholamine sympathomimetic drug? A) Dopamine B) Adrenaline C) Ephedrine D) Isoprenaline 89) Which of the following drugs is an anticholinergic agent that could be used to treat peptic ulcers? A) Misoprostol B) Carbenoxolone C) Proglumide D) Pirenzepine 90) A 40-year-old man came to the emergency department with severe burning chest pain radiating to his neck. His electrocardiogram was normal, and the troponin test was negative. GERD diagnosis was made, and he was sent home with a prescription for a drug that inhibits stomach acid. Which of the following is a drug that irreversibly inhibits the H*/K* ATPase in the parietal cells? A) Cimetidine B) Pantoprazole C) Sucralfate D) Metoclopramide 91) Which of the following drugs is preferable to be given simultaneously with bismuth subsalicylate to guarantee a maximum gastric mucosal defense against peptic ulcer? A) Ranitidine B) Clarithromycin C) Magnesium hydroxide D) Omeprazole 92) Which of the following statements is correct about cimetidine drug interaction? A) Cimetidine antagonizes the therapeutic effects of sucralfate B) Cimetidine counteracts the toxic effects of digitoxin C) Cimetidine antagonizes the therapeutic effects of theophylline D) Cimetidine potentiates the therapeutic effects of clorazepate 93) Which of the following drugs is considered a prostaglandin analog and could be used for the treatment of peptic ulcers due to excessive ibuprofen intake? A) Ranitidine B) Misoprostol C) Carbenoxolone D) Omeprazole 94) Which of the following agents is a natural product steroid derivative used for peptic ulcers? A) Proglumide B) Misoprostol C) Sucralfate D) Carbenoxolone 95) Which of the following anti-secretory agents is a gastrin receptor blocker? A) Somatostatin B) Proglumide C) Sucralfate D) Pirenzepine 96) Which of the following sentences better describes domperidone? A) It is a prokinetic drug with peripheral dopaminergic antagonist activities B) It is a prokinetic drug with central and peripheral dopaminergic agonist activities C) It is a prokinetic drug with central dopaminergic antagonist activities D) It is a prokinetic drug with central and peripheral dopaminergic antagonist activities 97) Which of the following drugs is recommended for the treatment of carcinoid tumor in a 72-old lady and acts by blocking 5- HT receptors? A) Diphenhydramine B) Cyproheptadine C) Misoprostol D) Dexamethasone 98) Which of the following antimicrobial agent is contraindicated during pregnancy? A) Erythromycin B) Penicillin C) Tetracyclines D) Amoxicillin 99) Which of the following is considered a category X (definite human teratogenic risk) (definite human teratogenic risk)? A) ACE inhibitors B) Retinoids C) Thyroid hormones D) Asprin 100) Which of the following is considered a long-acting corticosteroid? A) Cortisone B) Prednisone C) Betamethasone Or Dexamethasone D) Hydrocortisone 101) Which of the following drugs could be used for the treatment of vomiting associated with cancer chemotherapy? A) Diphenhydramine B) Ondansetron C) Cyproheptadine D) Buspirone 102) Which of the following agents acts as an ebolic drug used to induce parturition or abortion and control postpartum hemorrhage? A) Prostaglandin F2-alpha B Zafirlukast C) Celecoxib D) Zileuton 103) Which of the following is noncatecholamine dual-adrenergic drugs which induce acting tachyphylaxis? A) Amphetamine B) Phenolamine C) Ephedrine D) Propranolol 104) Which of the following is used for the treatment of hypertension through its inhibitory action on noradrenaline synthesis? A) Alpha-Methyl Dopa B) Guanethidine C) Isoprenaline D) Reserpine 105) Which of the following is used for the treatment of hypertension through its inhibitory action on noradrenaline storage? A) Alpha-Methyl Dopa B) Isoprenaline C) Reserpine D) Guanethidin 106) Which of the following is used for the treatment of hypertension through its inhibitory action on noradrenaline release? A) Reserpine B) Guanethidine C) Isoprenaline D) Alpha-Methyl Dopa 107) Which of the following is a cardio-selective beta blocker with no pulmonary side effects? A) Atenolol B) Propranolol C) Timolol D) Alpha-Methyl Dopa 108) Which of the following induces orthostatic hypotension as a side effect? A) Tolazoline B) Dihydroergotamine C) Prazosin D) Reserpine 109) Which of the following is suitable for treating angina in asthmatic patients? A) Propranolol B) Timolol C) Isoprenaline D) Atenolol 110) Which of the following is considered the source of atropine? A) Natural plant source B) Natural animal source C) Natural microbial source D) Semisynthetic source 111) Which of the following restricts the entry of many drugs into the brain and is constituted by p. glycoprotein efflux carriers in brain capillary cells? A) First-pass metabolism B) Blood-brain barrier C) Blood-placental barrier D) Blood-milk barrier 112) Which of the following phenomena is acute acquired tolerance due to repeated intravenous injection of ephedrine? A) Tachyphylaxis B) Anaphylaxis C) Idiosyncrasy D) Drug resistance 113) Which of the following drugs is one of the catechelamings used for the prolongation of action of local anesthetics? A) Amphetamine B) Acetylcholine C) Isoprenaline D) Adrenaline 114) Which type of antagonism exists between adrenaline and histamine? A) Pharmacological B) Physiological C) Chemical D) Physical 115) Which drug of the following produces qualitatively different actions when administered through various routes? A) Phenytoin sodium B) Magnesium sulfate C) Hydralazine D) Nitroglycerine 116) For which of the following purpose could adrenaline be injected with a local anesthetic? A) It Prolongs the duration of the local anesthetic. B) It reduces the local toxicity of the local anesthetic. C) It Shortens the duration of local anesthesia. D) It makes the injection less painful. 117) What are the factors that determine bioavailability? A) The extent of absorption and hepatic first-pass effect B) The oral dose and frequency of the drug C) Physiological parameters of blood D) Glomerular filtration rate 118) Which of the following is a liver microsomal enzyme inhibitor? A) Estrogen B) Tobacco smoking C) Ethyl alcohol D) Testosterone 119) Which of the following is a liver microsomal enzyme inducer? A) Testosterone B) Cimetidine C) Chloramphenicol D) Grape juice 120) Which of the following induces positive inotropic and chronotropic action in the heart? A) Noradrenaline B) Albuterol C) Adrenaline D) Salmeterol 121) Which of the following drugs acts as a peripheral antitussive with no central action? A) Codeine B) Guaifenesin C) Dextromethorphan D) Morphine 122) Which of the following analgesics is best recommended for a 6-year-old boy suffering from mild headache pain? A) Tramadol B) Celecoxib C) Aspirin D) Ibuprofen 123) Which of the following drugs can be administered orally or parenterally and acts by depolymerizing mucopolysaccharides? A) Acetylcysteine B) Bromhexine C) Guaifenesin 124) Which of the following drug classes can induce Cushing’s syndrome and osteoporosis after long-term administration? A) NSAIDs B) Glucocorticoids C) Beta-blockers D) Antibiotics 125) Which of the following terms is used to describe a drug that blocks the action of epinephrine? A) Beta agonists B) Alpha antagonist C) Cholinergic agonists D) Calcium channel blockers 126) Which of the following drugs could be used for the treatment of wet cough? A) Codeine B) Mucolytics / expectorant C) Dextromethorphan D) Loratadine 127) Which of the following drugs is considered non-sedative? A) Diphenhydramine B) Chlorpheniramine C) Cetirizine D) Promethazine 128) Which of the following acts as a uterine stimulant (ecbolic)? A) Prostaglandin B) Progesterone C) Oxytocin D) Estrogen 129) Which of the following drugs is an inhibitor of lipoxygenase? A) Montelukast B) Zileuton C) Aspirin D) Ibuprofen 130) Which of the following drugs activates alpha-adrenergic receptors but not beta-adrenergic receptors? A) Adrenaline B) Noradrenaline C) Isoproterenol D) Dobutamine 131) Which of the following drugs activates both alpha and beta-adrenergic receptors? A) Noradrenaline B) Adrenaline C) Isoproterenol D) Phenylephrine 132) Which of the following drugs activates beta-adrenergic receptors only? A) Adrenaline B) Noradrenaline C) Isoprenaline D) Phenylephrine 133) Which type of antagonist exists between histamine and cyproheptadine? A) Chemical antagonist B) Physiological antagonist C) Pharmacological antagonist D) Competitive antagonist 134) Which of the following is a mast cell stabilizer? A) Diphenhydramine B) Cromoglycate C) Montelukast D) Fluticasone 135) Which of the following agents is effective against bronchial asthma and recommended before sleep? A) Salbutamol B) Formoterol C) Beclometasone D) Theophylline 136) Which of the following induces anti-androgenic activity and androgenic side effects like hyperprolactinemia in men, and is used for the treatment of peptic ulcer? A) Ranitidine / Comaitdine B) prostaglandin C) ibuprofen D) Aspirin 137) Which agent of the following could block the action of acetylcholine at the muscarinic junction? A) Atropine B) Bethanechol C) Pilocarpine D) Neostigmine 138) Which receptor(s) could be activated by adrenaline? A) Alpha B) Beta C) Alpha & Beta D) Gamma 139) When 100 m g of the drug X was given intravenously, after 8 hours, its blood concentration became 50 mg, and after 16 hours, its concentration became 25 Which of the following is the drug's half-life? A) 4 hours B) 8 hours C) 16 hours D) 24 hours