Pharmacology 1 MCQs PDF

Pharmacology 1 MCQs 1. The statement about bioavailability it is TRUE: A. it is infuenced by the degree of metabolism during the first pass through the liver B. it is 100% in the case of intravenous administration of the drug C. is not influenced by the route of administration D. it is very good for...

Pharmacology 1 MCQs 1. The statement about bioavailability it is TRUE: A. it is infuenced by the degree of metabolism during the first pass through the liver B. it is 100% in the case of intravenous administration of the drug C. is not influenced by the route of administration D. it is very good for drugs that intensively suffer the effect of the frst hepatic passage E. it is 100% in the case of sublingual administration of the drug F. it does not depend on the chemical properties of the drug G. is the fraction of drug that reaches in systemic circulation H. is the fraction of the drug that reaches to the brain I. it is 50% in the case of intrarectal administration of the drug J. is the fraction of the drug that reaches to the liver 2. About drug metabolism it is TRUE: A. the enzyme inductor diminishes the pharmacological effect of the drugs with which it is associated B. the conjugated forms of drugs have little polarity C. conjugation is reaction from phase II of metabolism D. following hepatic metabolism, drugs become very lipophilic E. a drug can be a substrate for several isoforms of cytochrome P450 F. oxidation is reaction from phase I of metabolism G. conjugated drugs are usually active H. the reactions of phase I convert lipophilic molecules into molecules of low polarity I. acetylation is the reaction of phase I of metabolism J. erythromycin is an CYP inhibitor of drug metabolism 3. About the antagonists it is TRUE: A. antagonists oppose or diminish the effect of an endogenous drug or ligand B. epinephrine and histamine are physiological antagonists at bronchial level C. noncompetitive antagonists decrease the effcacy of agonists D. at high partial agonist concentrations, the complete agonists are totally displaced from the receptors E. the irreversible antagonist binds with low affnity to the receptor F. competitive antagonists increase the potency of agonists G. protamine sulfate and heparin are physiological antagonists H. Antagonists have strong intrinsic activity I. in the presence of a non-competitive antagonist the maximum response can be achieved by increasing the agonist dose J. allosteric antagonists prevent receptor activation, even when the agonist is attached to the active site 4. About receptors it is TRUE: A. steroid receptors are intracellular receptors B. the response to stimulation of G protein-coupled receptors takes several hours C. insulin receptors are enzyme-coupled receptors D. the receptor has the ability to recognize the ligand and trigger a biological response E. nicotinic receptors are G protein-coupled receptors F. hydrophilic ligands interact with receptors located on the cell surface G. adrenergic receptors are receptors linked to ion channels H. the response to stimulation of enzyme-coupled receptors takes several milliseconds I. secondary messengers are involved in postreceptor mechanisms J. the attachment of a ligand causes the receptor to switch from an active state to an inactive state 5. The following are TRUE: A. sublingual administration offer a slow absorbtion of drug B. oral drugs are easily self-administered C. extended-release formulations may reduce the patient compliance D. overdose of oral drugs may be overcome with antidotes E. low gastric pH inactivates some drugs F. extended-release medications allow for short duration of action G. extended-release medications allow for rapid absorption H. the pathways involved in oral drug absorption are the most complicated I. an enteric coating is a chemical envelope that protects the drug from stomach acid J. extended-release formulations are advantageous for drugs with long half-lives 6. The following are TRUE: A. transdermal administration may achieve the systemic effects B. inhalation is a less addicted route C. topical route is suitable for high lipid soluble drugs D. topical administration is suitable for drugs with high molecular weight E. transdermal route is ideal for drugs that are slow eliminated from the body F. parenteral administration does not provide the control over the dose of drug delivered to the body G. parenteral route is used circumstances that require a rapid onset of action H. sublingual route avoid the first pass effect I. parenteral administration is used for drugs stable in the GI tract J. rectal route is used in patient with vomiting 7. The following are TRUE: A. exocytosis is the reverse of endocytosis B. the active transport is capable of moving drugs against a concentration gradient C. the active transport is not energy dependent D. the active transport does not involve specifc carrier proteins E. the facilitated diffusion require energy F. carrier proteins allow the passage of drugs into the interior of cells G. lipid soluble drugs penetrate the cell membrane through aqueous channels or pores H. endocytosis is used to transport drugs of small size across the cell membrane I. the facilitated diffusion may be inhibited by compounds that compete for the carrier J. in passive diffusion the drug moves from an area of high concentration to one of lower concentration 8. The followng are TRUE: A. shock minimizes the absorption from subcutaneous administration B. P-glycoprotein is a transmembrane transporter responsible for transporting various drugs C. the absorption from the stomach is favored over the intestine D. if a drug moves through the gastrointestinal tract very quickly, it is not well absorbed E. frst-pass metabolism by the liver limits the effcacy of many oral medications F. in areas of high expression, P-glycoprotein increases drug absorption G. lipid soluble drugs enter the brain with diffculty H. very hydrophilic drugs are well absorbed I. a drug passes through membranes more readily if it is uncharged J. distribution equilibrium is achieved when the permeable form of a drug achieves an equal concentration in all body water spaces 9. The following are TRUE: A. after the metabolism results only inactive compounds B. the half-life of a drug is the time takes to reduce its plasma concentration by a half C. the factors that increase the volume of distribution decrease the half- life of a drug D. albumin is the major drug-binding protein E. the half-life of a drug is the time takes to reduce its concentration in the brain by a half F. metabolism results in products which allows the drug to be eliminated G. a drug which is extensively protein bound has a high volume of distribution H. tissue reservoirs may serve as a major source of the drug and shorten its actions I. a drug has a high molecular weight has a low volume of distribution J. the major factor infuencing the distribution of lipophilic drugs is blood fow to the area 10. The following are TRUE: A. phenobarbital is a CYP inhibitor B. lipid-soluble agents are frst metabolized into more hydrophilic substances C. the highly polar drug conjugates are then excreted by the kidney D. hydrolysis is reaction from phase II of metabolism E. the CYP450-dependent enzymes are an important target for pharmacokinetic drug interactions F. Ketoconazol is a CYP inducer G. in phase II of metabolism the drugs are usually transformed into more lipid-soluble compounds H. the association with a CYP inhibitor can lead to signifcant increase in plasma concentrations of drugs I. the association with a CYP inducer can lead to signifcant increase in pharmacologic effect J. glucuronidation is reaction from phase I of metabolism 11. The following are TRUE: A. the total body (systemic) clearance is the sum of all clearances from the drug-metabolizing and drug eliminating organs B. the drug, if uncharged, may diffuse out of the nephric lumen, back into the systemic circulation C. the liver also contributes to drug clearance through excretion into the bile D. the elimination of a drug is realised only by glomerular fltration E. patients with diminished hepatic blood fow have an increase in drug half-life F. lipid solubility signifcantly infuences the passage of drugs into the glomerular fltrate G. the half-life of a drug may be decreased by increased protein binding H. As a drug moves toward the distal convoluted tubule, its concentration decreases compared to that of the perivascular space I. patients with diminished renal blood fow have a decrease in drug half-life J. neonates have an incompletely developed tubular secretory mechanism and may retain certain drugs in the blood 12. The following are TRUE: A. steady-state concentration is reached when the rate of drug elimination is equal to the rate of drug administration B. the lungs are primarily involved in the elimination of anesthetic gases C. a drug with increased metabolism need less frequent dosing intervals D. the kidney is often the major organ of excretion E. elimination of drugs in breast milk is a potential source of undesirable side effects to the infant F. the steady-state plasma concentration of a drug is indirectly proportional to the intravenous infusion rate G. a faster rate of intravenous infusion of a drug reduces the time needed to achieve steady-state H. a decreased metabolism of a drug, decrease its steady-state plasma concentration I. drugs that are not absorbed after oral administration are excreted in the urine J. steady-state concentration is reached when the drug`s plasma and tissue levels remain relatively constant 13. Are cholinomimetics with direct action the folowing: A. Tacrine B. Acetilcoline C. Cevimeline D. Donepezil E. Carbachol F. Pilocarpine G. Galantamine H. Ecotiofat I. Neostigmine J. Betanecol 14. Are pharmacodynamic effects of acetylcholine, the following: A. reducing the cardiac output B. midriasis C. reducing the blood pressure D. spasm of visual accommodation E. bronchospasm F. reducing the salivary secretion G. reduction of gastrointestinal peristalsis H. bladder sphincter contraction I. tachycardia J. decrease the intraocular pressure 15. About Bethanecol it is TRUE: A. has an antispasmodic effect B. it is indicated in atony of the urinary bladder C. relaxes the bladder sphincter D. stimulates muscarinic and nicotinic receptors E. increases gastrointestinal peristalsis F. has a long-lasting action G. increases blood pressure H. produces hypersalivation I. it is indicated in the treatment of megacolon J. is hydrolyzed by acetylcholinesterase 16. About Ecothiofat it is TRUE: A. produces dry mouth B. reversibly inhibits acetylcholinesterase C. produces generalized cholinergic stimulation D. is indicated in glaucoma E. it is indicated in gastroparesis F. cause breathing diffculties G. can cause cataracts H. has a short duration of action I. it is administered systemically J. produces miosis 17. About intoxication with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors it is TRUE: A. manifested by tachycardia B. these agents are insecticides and combat toxics substances C. atropine antagonizes their both central and peripheral effects D. pralidoxime is a cholinesterase reactivator E. also has convulsions F. manifests itself through bronchoconstriction and bronchial hypersecretion G. pralidoxime readily crosses the blood-brain barrier H. pralidoxime may also reverse the central nervous system effects of ecothiophat I. also has nicotinic symptoms J. pralidoxime is also effective after the production of acetylcholinesterase aging 18. The followings statements are TRUE: A. darifenacin is indicated in the treatment of overactive bladder B. tiotropium is indicated in bronchial asthma C. tropicamide has a long duration of action D. oxybutynin is indicated as an antispasmodic E. trihexyphenidyl is indicated in drug-induced pseudo-Parkinsonism F. the effects of scopolamine are predominantly peripheral G. solifenacin is indicated in bladder atony H. cyclopentolate is indicated as a mydriatic agent I. ipratropium crosses the blood-brain barrier J. scopolamine is indicated in motion sickness 19. About atropine the following is TRUE: A. regardless of the dose it produces tachycardia B. is indicated in preanesthesia C. is indicated in glaucoma D. has antispasmodic effects E. causes hyperthermia in children F. it only has peripheral effects G. produces sedation H. produces xerostomia I. is a quaternary amine J. applied topically to the eye has long-lasting effects 20. Are nicotinic receptor antagonists the followings: A. Tolterodine B. Vecuronium C. Succinylcoline D. Mecamilamine E. Trospium F. Cisatracurium G. Solifenacine H. Ipratropium I. Benztropine J. Rocuronium 21. The following statements are TRUE: A. pirenzepine inhibits hydrochloric acid secretion B. tropicamide is used for mydriasis for diagnostic purposes C. scopolamine blocks short-term memory D. scopolamine has weaker central effects than atropine E. oxybutynin produces xerostomia F. scopolamine is short acting G. tolterodine causes diarrhea H. darifenacin causes hypersalivation I. scopolamine produces agitation J. benztropine is indicated in Parkinson's disease 22. The following statements are TRUE: A. neuromuscular blockers easily cross the blood-brain barrier B. nicotine reduces the release of dopamine C. succinylcholine is a ganglioplegic D. atracurium releases histamine E. the action of succinylcholine is achieved through sodium channels associated with nicotinic receptors F. mecamylamine is a neuromuscular blocker G. succinylcholine has a long duration of action H. aminoglycosides antagonize the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents I. neuromuscular blockers are used to facilitate tracheal intubation J. tubocurarine is used as an aid in general anesthesia 23. The following statements are TRUE about stimulation: A. β2 receptors increases muscle and liver glycogenolysis B. β2 receptors increasing peripheral vascular resistance C. β2 receptors produces bronchoconstriction D. β1 receptors produces tachycardia E. of α1 receptors causes a decrease in peripheral vascular resistance F. β2 receptors produces the relaxation of the uterine muscles G. α1 receptors produces vasoconstriction H. β1 receptors causes the intensifcation of lipolysis I. β1 receptors inhibition of renin release J. of β1 receptors causes a decrease in myocardial contractility 24. The following statements are TRUE: A. dobutamine signifcantly increases myocardial oxygen demand B. oxymetazoline is a nasal decongestant C. phenylephrine produces bradycardia D. phenylephrine is indicated in the treatment of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia E. salmeterol has a short duration of action F. dopamine is indicated in cardiogenic shock G. salmeterol is indicated in bronchial asthma H. clonidine is indicated in opioid withdrawal syndrome I. isoproterenol has a negative inotropic effect J. clonidine produces agitation 25. The followings are TRUE statements about amphetamines: A. lower blood pressure B. are indicated in ADHD C. reduce the release of dopamine D. are indicated in narcolepsy E. have direct sympathomimetic action F. cause cardiac arrhythmias G. stimulates the reuptake of norepinephrine H. produce sedation I. they are at risk of addiction J. are indicated in appetite disorders 26. The following statements about ephedrine are TRUE: A. has a short duration of action B. has psychostimulant effects C. produces bronchodilation D. improves athletic performance E. does not cross the blood-brain barrier F. has a mixed mechanism of action: direct and indirect G. selectively stimulates α-adrenergic receptors H. lowers blood pressure I. inhibits the release of norepinephrine J. it is used as a nasal decongestant 27. About β2 receptor agonists, the following statements are TRUE: A. formoterol is contraindicated in nocturnal asthma attacks B. terbutaline is used in preterm labor C. not associated with corticosteroids D. they are used of choice in bronchial asthma E. it is frequently administered by inhaler F. salmeterol is a short-acting agent G. can cause arrhythmias in patients with cardiovascular diseases H. produce bradycardia I. produce sedation J. can cause tremors 28. About fenoxibenzamine, the followings are TRUE: A. is indicated in ischemic coronary conditions B. is indicated in Raynaud's disease C. it is used in the treatment of pheochromocytoma D. is a non-selective α adrenergic blocker E. produces tachycardia F. has a short duration of action G. produces nasal congestion H. increases peripheral resistance I. stimulates ejaculation J. weakly block α-adrenergic receptors 29. About α1 selective antagonists, the following are TRUE: A. improves the lipid profle in hypertensive patients B. cause agitation C. prazosin is used in the treatment of congestive heart failure D. produce refex tachycardia E. tamsulosin strongly reduces blood pressure F. produce disturbances in carbohydrate metabolism G. alfuzosin is contraindicated in prostate adenoma H. tamsulosin is indicated in benign prostatic hypertrophy I. at the beginning of the treatment they produce hypertension J. produce disturbances of sexual function 30. The following about adverse effects of propranolol are TRUE: A. bradicardia B. increases the level of HDL cholesterol C. does not affect sexual function D. hypertension E. bronhoconstriction F. agitation G. mask the manifestations of hypoglycemia H. sudden interruption of administration produces arrhythmias I. depression J. decrease in triglyceride levels 31. The following statements are TRUE: A. timolol is indicated in glaucoma B. carvedilol is indicated in heart failure C. labetalol is contraindicated in pregnant women with hypertension D. nebivolol is a nitric oxide donor E. labetalol is indicated in hypertensive emergencies F. propranolol increases the force of contraction of the heart G. β1 blockers have a lower risk of peripheral circulatory disorders H. metoprolol is contraindicated in heart failure I. metoprolol increases cardiac output J. esmolol has a long duration of action 32. The following statements are TRUE: A. propranolol is contraindicated in thyrotoxicosis B. esmolol is indicated in paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia C. αβ blockers signifcantly disrupt lipid and carbohydrate metabolism D. guanethidine produces orthostatic hypotension E. guanethidine produces disturbances in sexual dynamics F. reserpine is short acting G. metoprolol is cardioselective H. propranolol is indicated for migraine prophylaxis I. reserpine stimulates the release of biogenic amines J. guanethidine stimulates the release of norepinephrine 33. The following statements are TRUE: A. the activation of M1 or M3 muscarine receptors activates phospholipase C B. acetylcholine its slow inactivated by the cholinesterases C. acetylcholine has both muscarinic and nicotinic activity D. the activation of M1 or M3 muscarinic receptors decrease in intracellular Ca2+ E. acetylcholine easily penetrate the membranes F. cholinergic agonists mimic the effects of acetylcholine by binding directly to cholinergic receptors G. the activation of the M+ subtype on the cardiac muscle stimulates the adenylyl cyclase H. nicotinic receptor functions as a ligand-gated ion channel I. direct-acting cholinergic drugs have a shorter duration of action than acetylcholine J. nicotine at low concentration stimulates the nicotine receptors, whereas nicotine at high concentration blocks them 34. The following statements are TRUE: A. pilocarpine can penetrate the central nervous system at therapeutic doses B. carbachol cause release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla by its nicotinic action C. the action of pilocarpine on the eye occurs after a long time D. bethanechol lacks the nicotinic actions E. carbachol causes mydriasis F. bethanechol has low muscarinic activity G. injection with acetylcholine produces vasoconstriction H. acetylcholine is instilled into the anterior chamber of the eye to produce miosis during ophthalmic surgery I. bethanechol inhibits the urination J. pilocarpine can cause night blindness 35. The following statements are TRUE: A. carbachol has a short duration of action B. pilocarpine is the drug of choice for emergency lowering of intraocular pressure C. bethanechol mey produce hypertension D. cevimeline is indicated in Sjögren syndrome E. pilocarpine is contraindicated in xerostomia F. carbachol has only muscarinic actions G. cholinergic agonists may produce diaphoresis H. pilocarpine produces miosis I. cholinergic agonists may produce constipation J. bethanechol increases the gastrointestinal peristalsis 36. The following statements are TRUE: A. edrophonium has a long duration of action B. the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase decreases in acetylcholine amount in the synaptic space C. edrophonium has both peripheral and central effects D. anticholinestarease agents provoke both muscarinic and nicotinic responses E. neostigmine is an indirect cholinergic agonist F. physostigmine relaxes the visceral smooth muscle G. edrophonium is a direct cholinergic agonist H. high doses of physostigmine may lead to convulsion I. acetylcholinesterase is located both pre- and postsynaptically in the nerve terminal J. edrophonium is used in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis 37. The following statements are TRUE: A. echothiophate is contraindicated in glaucoma B. donepezil is contraindicated in Azheimer disease C. rivastigmine is indicated in Arzheimer disease D. neostigmine counteract the central effects of anticholinergic agents E. echothiophate has short duration of action F. neostigmine easily enter in the central nervous system G. tacrine is hepatotoxic H. neostigmine is used in the treatment of myastenia gravis I. neostigmine produces bronchospasm J. neostigmine produces abdominal pain 38. The following statements are TRUE: A. atropine produces cycloplegia B. atropine may produce diarrhea C. atropine is used in the treatment of tachycardia D. scopolamine may produce nausea and vomiting E. scopolamine may produce euphoria F. neuromuscular blocking agents interfere with transmission of efferent impulses to skeletal muscles G. atropine may produce urinary retention H. atropine is effective for the treatment of ulcers I. cyclopentolate is a long acting antimuscarinic agent J. ganglionic blockers act nicotinic receptors of the sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia 39. The following statements are TRUE: A. nicotine is indicated in smoking cessation B. oxybutynin is also available in a transdermal patch C. tolterodine reduces the frequency of bladder contractions D. tiotropium is contraindicated in COPD E. ipratropium easily enter in the central nervos system F. oxybutinin may produce blurred vision G. trospium is indicated in prostatic hypertrophy H. solifenacin is conindicated in urinary incontinence I. trospium is preferred choice in treating overactive bladder in patients with dementia J. trospium easily enter in the brain 40. The following statements are TRUE: A. nondepolarizing blockers easily cross the blood brain barrier B. nondepolarizing blockers are well absorbed after oral administration C. ganglionic blockers block the entire output of the autonomic nervous system at the nicotinic receptor D. the competitive action of nondepolarizing blockers can be overcome by administration of neostigmine E. neuromuscular blocking agents are used in surgery to provide complete muscle relaxation at lower anaesthetic doses F. nicotine reduces the release of serotonin G. nondepolarizing blockers compete with acetylcholine at the nicotine receptor stimulating it H. nicotine stimulates the release of beta endorphins I. nicotine depolarizes autonomic ganglia, resulting frst in stimulation and then in paralysis of all ganglia J. vecuronim is a depolarizing blocker 41. The following statements are TRUE: A. mivacurium is eliminated by plasma cholinesterase B. desflurane act to enhance neuromuscular blockade produced by nondepolarizing blockers C. calcium channels blockers decrease the neuromuscular blockade of competitive blockers D. neuromuscular blocker increases the safety of anesthesia by allowing patients to recover quickly and completely E. tubocurarine is a depolarizing blocker F. aminoglycosides reduce the neuromuscular blockade produced by nondepolarizing blockers G. Cisatracurium is degradated with diffculty in plasma H. cisatracurium is contraindicated in patients with multiorgan failure I. nondepolarizing blockers competitively block acetylcholine at the nicotinic receptors J. cisatracurium is useful in mechanical ventilation in critically ill patients 42. The following statements about succinylcholine are TRUE: A. can potentially induce malignant hyperthermia B. is contraindicated in electroconvulsive shock C. produces hypokalemia D. may produce prolonged apnea to a patient who is defcient in plasma cholinesterase E. its effects slowly disappear upon discontinuation F. is slow hydrolyzed by plasma cholinesterase G. is administered orally H. is useful when rapid endotracheal intubation is required I. initially produces brief muscle fasciculations J. is a depolarizing blocking agent 43. The following statements are TRUE: A. dopamine causes renal ischemia B. norepinephrine is indicated in angina pectoris C. ephedrine is indicated in A-V block D. the stimulation of α1 receptors causes vasoconstriction E. norepinephrine stimulates only β receptors F. dopamine is indicated in cardiogenic shock G. norepinephrine has a role in body defending against cold H. amphetamines bypass the blood brain barrier I. dopamine bypasses the blood brain barrier J. epinephrine has inotrop negative effect 44. The following statements are TRUE: A. adrenergic neurons release norepinephrine as the primary neurotransmitter B. the alpha adrenergic receptors have 2 subtypes: α1 and α2. C. epinephrine acts only on α adrenergic receptors D. norepinephrine decreases systolic and diastolic blood pressure E. norepinephrine is hydroxylated to form dopamine F. the stimulation of β2 receptors produces bronchodilation G. β2 receptors stimulation causes vasodilation H. catecholamine receptors are located on the surface of the cell membrane I. the dominant action of epinephrine is on the the smooth muscle and the metabolism J. the α1 adrenergic receptors are localized presynaptically 45. The following statements are TRUE: A. stimulation of β2 receptors relaxes the uterine smooth muscles B. epinephrine has a catechol structure C. dopamine has a noncatechol structure D. cocaine is used mainly for medical therapeutic purposes E. salmeterol is a long acting β2 selective agonist F. stimulation of β1 receptors decreases lipolysis G. amphetamines are indirect-acting adrenergic stimulants H. ephedrine is indicated in hypertension I. stimulation of α1 receptors decreases the peripheral resistance J. the stimulation of α2 adrenergic receptors inhibits the norepinephrine release 46. The following statements are TRUE: A. dopamine has strong positive inotropic effect B. epinephrine is indicated in hypertension C. ephedrine produces local vasoconstriction D. ephedrine produces bronchoconstriction E. epinephrine and norpinephrine are indicated in cardiogenic shock F. norepinephrine has dominant action on cardiovascular system G. ephedrine decreases the heart rate H. norepinephrine is indicated in tachyarrhythmia I. prolonged exposure to the catecholamines reduces the responsiveness of these receptors J. epinephrine is used in glaucoma 47. The following statements are TRUE: A. norepinephrine is metabolized by catechol-O-methyltransferase in the synaptic space B. phenylephrine is used to treat hypertension C. norepinephrine binds only to postsynaptic receptors D. the reuptake of norepinephrine by the neuronal membrane involves a Na+/Cl−–dependent transporter E. clonidine is used in the treatment of hypertension F. all beta adrenergic receptors are localized postsynaptically G. norepinephrine is not degraded by monoamine oxidase H. dopamine is then transported into synaptic vesicles by an amine transporter system I. tyramine produces hypotension J. α2 adrenergic receptors are also localized presynaptically 48. The following statements about α1 agonists are TRUE: A. activation of α1 receptors lead to an increase in intracellular Ca2+ B. the activation increases the peripheral resistance C. the activation decreases of closure of internal sphincter of the bladder D. the stimulation increases the production of inositol-1,4,5- trisphosphate and diacylglycerol E. formoterol is an α1 agonist F. the stimulation produces miosis G. the activation increases the blood pressure H. salbutamol is an α1 agonist I. the stimulation produces vasodilation J. are stimulated by epinephrine 49. The following statements β2 agonists are TRUE: A. the activation relaxes the uterine smooth muscle B. terbutaline is a a β2 agonist C. albuterol is along acting β2 agonist D. the stimulation produces vasodilation E. the activation increases the myocardial contractitily F. the stimulation increases muscle and liver glycogenolysis G. formoterol is a β2 agonist H. the stimulation decreases the release of glucagon I. the activation produces bronchoconstriction J. the stimulation increases the peripheral resistance 50. The following statements about Clonidine are TRUE: A. used to minimize symptoms of withdrawal from opiates B. is an α2 agonist C. may produce sedation D. acts postsynaptically E. increases the sympathetic outfow to the periphery F. stimulates the β2 receptors G. is used in the treatment of hypotension H. may produce diarrhea I. may produce xerostomia J. used in the management of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder 51. The following statements are TRUE: A. phenylephrine induces reflex bradycardia B. Dopamine is slowly metabolized by MAO or COMT C. dobutamine increases cardiac output in acute heart failure D. amphetamines are direct-acting adrenergic stimulants E. norepinephrine mai induce angina pectoris F. terbutaline is a long acting β2 agonist G. midodrine causes hypotension H. phenylephrine is also used in ophthalmic solutions for mydriasis I. dobutamine is indicated in atrial fbrilation J. oxymetazoline could not be used as nasal drops more than 3 days 52. The following statements are TRUE: A. Norepinephrine decreases the peripheral resistance B. Isoproterenol has cardiac stimulatory action C. Dopamine can be used for septic shock D. Epinephrine induces hyperglycemia E. Isoproperenol produces bronchoconstriction F. norepinephrine may reduce renal function G. Epinephrine can also induce pulmonary edema H. Dopamine has negative inotropic and chronotropic effects I. Epinephrine may produce sedation J. Dopamine contracts renal and splanchnic arterioles 53. The following statements about are TRUE: A. decreases the oxygen demands on the myocardium B. has a short duration of action C. decreases the afterload D. is released from adrenal medulla E. may be used in cardiac arrest F. interacts only with α adrenergic receptors G. greatly increases the duration of local anesthetics H. is used in the induction and maintenance of mydriasis during intraocular surgery I. is slowly metabolized by MAO and COMT J. inhibits the release of renin 54. The following statements are TRUE: A. albuterol produces bronchoconstriction B. phenylephrine is a vasoconstrictor C. phenylephrine is used as a nasal decongestant when applied topically D. phenylephrine is contraindicated in paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia E. terbutaline may cause tachycardia F. oxymetazoline directly stimulates α receptors on blood vessels G. terbutaline is used in premature labor H. oxymetazoline may be used chronically as local decongestant I. dobutamine is contraindicated in acute heart failure J. midodrine is a selective β1 agonist 55. The following statements are TRUE: A. indirect-acting adrenergic agonists directly affect postsynaptic receptors B. ephedrine improves athletic performance C. ephedrine does not penetrate in the brain D. ephedrine is a catecholamine E. ephedrine has a mixt mechanism of action F. abrupt discontinuation with clonidine induces the rebound hypertension G. ephedrine produces a mild stimulation of the CNS H. ephedrine has a long duration of action I. clonidine produces the inhibition of sympathetic vasomotor centers J. indirect-acting adrenergic agonists potentiate the effects of epinephrine produced endogenously 56. The following statements about amphetamine are TRUE: A. is indicated in hyperthyroidism B. produces hypotension C. its derivatives are used in the treatment of obesity D. may induce dependence E. is indicated in narcolepsy F. produces somnolence G. is used in attention deficit hyperactivity disorder H. is indicated in the treatment of angina pectoris I. stimulates the monoamine oxidase J. stimulates the release of dopamine and norepinephrine from nerve terminals 57. The following statements are TRUE: A. methylphenidate stimulates the dopamine reuptake B. cocaine is a sympathomimetic drug C. amphetamine increases the appetite D. tyramine is found in fermented foods E. cocaine blocks the reuptake of the monoamines into the presynaptic terminals F. cocaine decreases the blood pressure G. amphetamine has marked central depressant action H. methylphenidate has abuse potential I. cocaine has a low addicted potential J. methamphetamine has hallucinogenic properties 58. The following are selective β1 blockers TRUE: A. labetalol B. atenolol C. metoprolol D. nebivolol E. esmolol F. carvedilol G. betaxolol H. propranolol I. timolol J. carteolol 59. The following are nonselective β1 blockers TRUE: A. nebivolol B. carvedilol C. labetalol D. esmolol E. nadolol F. propranolol G. timolol H. pindolol I. metoprolol J. carteolol 60. The following statements are TRUE: A. drugs that block α1-adrenoceptors weakly affect blood pressure B. blockade of α1 receptors increases peripheral vascular resistance C. phenoxybenzamine is a nonselective α blocker D. α blockers have no effect on the actions of epinephrine E. blockade of α1 receptors reduces the sympathetic tone of the blood vessels F. phenoxybenzamine is contraindicated in Raynaud`s syndrome G. the α1 produces refex bradycardia H. phenoxybenzamine is used in the treatment hypertension associated with pheochromocytoma I. α blockers have no effect on the actions of isoproterenol J. phenoxybenzamine should be used with caution in patients with cerebrovascular diseases 61. The following statements are TRUE: A. the selective α1 blockers severely impair the glomerular fltration rate B. phentolamine is used for the diagnosis of pheochromocytoma C. terazosin is a non selective α blocker D. prazosin is a selective α1 blocker E. the selective α1 blockers cause the relaxation of both arterial and venous smooth muscle F. the selective α1 blockers are used in the treatment of hypertension G. phentolamine is useful to treat hypertensive crisis due to ingestion of tyramine containing foods in patients taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors H. the selective α1 blockers increase peripheral vascular resistance I. the selective α1 blockers cause important changes in renal blood fow J. tamsulosin is indicated in the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia 62. The following statements are TRUE: A. yohimbine decreases the sympathetic outfow to the periphery B. yohimbine acts on the central nervous system C. alfusosin is contraindicated in benign prostatic hyperplasia D. the selective α1 blockers may cause modest improvement in lipid profles in hypertensive patients E. yohimbine is a selective competitive α2 -blocker F. α1 blockers does not infuence the sexual performances G. α1 blockers may cause nasal congestion H. prazosin is contraindicated in hypertension I. the selective α1 blockers cause minimal changes in cardiac output J. first dose of α1 receptor blocker may produce syncope 63. The following statements about β-blockers are TRUE: A. produce tachycardia B. are effective in treating portal hypertension C. do not induce postural hypotension D. lower blood pressure E. are contraindicated in angina pectoris F. nebivolol has a short duration of action G. are contraindicated in hypotension H. are contraindicated in myocardial infarction I. are indicated for the prophylaxis of migraine headaches J. are contraindicated in hyperthyroidism 64. The following statements about Propranolol are TRUE: A. has negative inotropic effect B. increases the oxygen consumption C. decreases the cardiac workload D. produces tachycardia E. is effective in attenuating supraventricular cardiac arrhythmias F. is a selective β1 antagonist G. have the ability to block the actions of isoproterenol on the cardiovascular system H. has positive chronotropic effect I. directly depresses sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodal activity J. increases cardiac output 65. The following statements about Propranolol are TRUE: A. increases the glucagon secretion B. reduces both systolic and diastolic blood pressures C. attenuate the normal physiologic response to hypoglycemia D. produces refex peripheral vasoconstriction E. increases the blood fow to the periphery F. stimulates the glycogenolysis and decreased glucagon secretion G. can precipitate an exacerbation in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease H. increases peripheral vascular resistance I. stimulates of renin release from the kidney J. produces bronchodilation 66. The following statements about Propranolol are TRUE: A. have a protective effect on the myocardium B. penetrates with diffculty in the brain C. does not infuence the sexual activity D. increases the incidence of sudden arrhythmic death after myocardial infarction E. has numerous central nervous system effects F. is contraindicated in asthma G. is useful in the management of chronic stable angina H. may increase the reduced high-density lipoprotein (HDL) I. is contraindicated in hyperthyroidism J. the suddenly interruption of the treatment may precipitate cardiac arrhythmias 67. The following drugs are used in glaucoma: A. carteolol B. timolol C. brimonidine D. terbutaline E. betaxolol F. apraclonidine G. phentolamine H. prazosin I. tamsulosin J. salmeterol 68. The following statements are TRUE: A. nebivolol is contraindicated in patient with asthma B. atenolol is a β-blocker with intrisic sympathomimetic activity C. pindolol is a β-blocker with intrisic sympathomimetic activity D. nadolol is a β-blocker with intrisic sympathomimetic activity E. acebutolol is a β-blocker without intrisic sympathomimetic activity F. selective β1 antagonists increase exercise tolerance in angina G. β-blockers with intrisic sympathomimetic activity are not used for stable angina H. bisoprolol is a non selective β blocker I. β-blockers with intrisic sympathomimetic activity are effective in hypertensive patients with moderate bradycardia J. nebivolol causes vasodilation 69. The following statements are TRUE: A. carvedilol is contraindicated in heart failure B. carvedilol also decreases lipid peroxidation C. carvedilol is a selective α blocker D. carvedilol is an αβ blocker E. carvedilol enhances the effects of sympathetic stimulation on the heart F. αβ blockers may produce orthostatic hypotension G. αβ blockers may produce dizziness H. labetalol blocks the effects of sympathetic stimulation on the heart I. labetalol is a selective β blocker J. labetalol produces peripheral vasoconstriction 70. The following statements are TRUE: A. reserpine increases the levels of biogenic amines B. methyldopa is contraindicated in pregnancy C. reserpine blocks the transport of biogenic amines D. Reserpine is also indicated in agitated psychotic states to relieve symptoms E. reserpine is contraindicated in hypertension F. methyldopa is mainly used for management of hypertension in pregnancy G. reserpine has short duration of action H. methyldopa is an α2 agonist I. methyldopa increases the adrenergic outfow from the central nervous system J. methydopa produces sedation 71. The following statements are TRUE: A. Guanfacine is indicated in attention deficit hyperactivity disorder B. Clonidine is used in the treatment of hypotension C. Suddenly interruption of clonidine may induce hypertensive crisis D. Dexmedetomidine is an α2 receptor agonist E. Clonidine stimulates the α1 receptors F. Clonidine is contraindicated in attention defcit hyperactivity disorder G. Brimonidine is an α2 receptor antagonist H. Brimonidine is contraindicated in glaucoma I. Clonidine acts presynaptically J. Clonidine is used to minimize symptoms of withdrawal tobacco smoking 72. The following statements are TRUE: A. acts in the periphery to decrease arterial and venous tone B. dopamine is a catecholamine C. midodrine e is indicated for the treatment of orthostatic hypotension D. dopamine blocks the dopaminergic receptors E. ephedrine is s noncathecolamine F. phenylephrine inhibits the release of norepinephrine from cell storage G. catecholamines easily bypasses the blood brain barrier H. noncatecholamines are inactivated by COMT I. epinephrine has predominant action on smooth muscle and metabolism J. the synthesis of catecholamines starts from tyrosine 73. About anti-H antihistamines, the following are TRUE: A. cause nausea and vomiting B. are indicated in the treatment of urticaria C. promethazine causes high blood pressure D. promethazine produces xerostomia E. diphenhydramine is used for motion sickness F. those of the Ist generation do not interact with ethyl alcohol G. those of the IInd generation do not cross the blood-brain barrier H. those of Ist the generation produce agitation I. reduce the appetite J. those of the Ist generation cause constipation 74. The following statements are TRUE: A. zileuton is an enzyme inducer B. cromolyn is used in the prophylaxis of bronchial asthma C. montelukast is administered to children D. zafrlukast is a 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor E. cromolyn is long acting F. cromolyn is contraindicated in exercise-induced asthma G. montelukast is administered only by inhalation H. zafirlukast is ineffective in asthma attacks I. leukotriene antagonists are hepatotoxic J. the use of leukotriene antagonists allows reducing the doses of bronchodilators and corticosteroids 75. About prostaglandin derivatives, the followings are TRUE: A. travoprost blocks the drainage of aqueous humor B. loratadine produces sedation C. misoprostol is used to prevent gastric ulcers caused by non-steroidal anti-infammatory drugs D. latanoprost, in long-term administration, produces iris pigmentation E. latanoprost is indicated in glaucoma F. histamine causes bronchodilation G. doxylamine produces agitation H. misoprostol is indicated in the treatment of ulcers in pregnant women I. histamine produces vasodilation of the small vessels J. mifepristone is indicated as an abortifacient drug 76. About triptans the followings are TRUE: A. produce chest pain sensation B. can be administered to patients with cardiovascular diseases C. are serotonergic antagonists D. increase blood pressure E. sumatriptan is also administered intranasally F. are indicated in the treatment of migraine G. rizatriptan has reduced effcacy H. sumatriptan has a short duration of action I. act at the peripheral level J. frovatriptan is short-acting 77. The following statements are TRUE: A. calcium channel blockers are indicated in angina pectoris in diabetics patients B. nifedipine produces bradycardia C. ranolazine blocks the late phase of Na+ channels D. nitrates increase the O2 requirement of the myocardium E. verapamil is indicated in heart failure F. nitrates develop tolerance G. nifedipine has a vasodilating effect H. nitrates can be safely combined with phosphodiesterase inhibitors I. nitrates increase the preload J. nitrates increase myocardial perfusion 78. The following statements are TRUE: A. angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors produce a dry cough B. angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors produce hyperkalemia C. quinidine can cause sinoatrial or atrioventricular block D. digoxin has a high therapeutic index E. losartan is an angiotensin II receptor antagonist F. nitrates are contraindicated in heart failure G. milrinone is contraindicated in heart failure H. angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors cause angioedema I. angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors are used of choice in heart failure J. digoxin is indicated in diastolic heart failure 79. The following statements are TRUE: A. verapamil has a stronger action at the vascular level B. procainamide produces erythematosus lupus C. class I antiarrhythmics stimulate Na+ channels D. diltiazem has positive inotropic effects E. lidocaine is indicated in ventricular tachycardia F. sotalol blocks K+ effux G. digoxin has a long half-life H. verapamil also has vasodilator effects I. amiodarone is contraindicated in atrial fbrillation J. propranolol is contraindicated in atrial futter 80. About angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, the followings are TRUE: A. causes postural hypotension B. lower bradykinin levels C. they slow down the progression of diabetic nephropathy D. decrease both preload and afterload E. prevent ventricular remodeling after myocardial infarction F. increase aldosterone production G. produce arteriolar and venous vasodilatation H. refexively increase the heart rate I. are contraindicated in hypertensive patients with chronic renal impairment J. are contraindicated in patients at risk of coronary heart disease 81. The following statements are TRUE: A. aliskiren is a direct renin inhibitor B. verapamil has positive inotropic and dromotropic effects C. aliskiren is indicated in pregnant women with hypertension D. calcium channel blockers have also natriuretic effects E. sartans increase bradykinin levels F. sartans are the medication of choice for diabetics with high blood pressure G. sartans are used in heart failure H. calcium channel blockers are indicated in heart failure I. ranolazine is indicated in angina pectoris J. sartans produce severe dry cough 82. The following statements are TRUE: A. statins inhibit 3-hydroxy 3-methyl glutaryl coenzyme A B. statins can cause rhabdomyolysis C. cholestyramine is an ion exchange resin D. fbrates are indicated in the treatment of hypertriglyceridemia E. niacin does not interact with statins F. ezetimibe stimulates the absorption of exogenous and biliary cholesterol from the intestine G. niacin stimulates lipolysis in adipose tissue H. statins are hepatotoxic I. colestipol does not infuence the intestinal absorption of drugs J. fbrates do not interact with oral anticoagulants 83. The following statements are TRUE: A. methyldopa strongly reduces cardiac output B. minoxidil causes hydrosaline retention C. direct vasodilators block K+ channels D. eptifbatide increases thromboembolic complications associated with acute coronary syndromes E. methyldopa is indicated in hypertensive patients with renal failure F. enoxaparin is a low molecular weight heparin G. clopidogrel is indicated for the prevention of atherosclerotic events after recent myocardial infarction H. hydralazine produces refex tachycardia I. methyldopa produces agitation J. abciximab stimulates GPIIb/IIIa glycoprotein receptors 84. The following statements are TRUE: A. streptokinase is a vitamin K antagonist B. dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor C. protamine sulfate antagonizes the anticoagulant effects of heparin D. heparin is contraindicated in pregnant women with heart valve prostheses E. at doses between 50-325 mg, acetylsalicylic acid is antiplatelet agent F. heparin is long-acting G. alteplase is indicated in the treatment of acute myocardial infarction H. heparin is used in the prophylaxis of postoperative venous thromboses I. treatment with dabigatran requires frequent INR monitoring J. warfarin has no drug interactions 85. About K+ sparing diuretics, the following statements are TRUE: A. spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist B. spironolactone is contraindicated in patients with liver cirrhosis C. eplerenone has stronger endocrine effects than spironolactone D. stimulates the reabsorption of Na+ at the level of the collecting tubules E. it is frequently associated with thiazide diuretics F. spironolactone produces gynecomastia G. triamterene is a very effective diuretic H. spironolactone is indicated in heart failure I. spironolactone is an enzyme inhibitor J. triamterene increases the level of uric acid in the blood 86. The following statements about acetazolamide are TRUE: A. has strong diuretic effects B. produces renal lithiasis C. is indicated for altitude sickness D. produces hyperkalemia E. has long action F. is indicated in the treatment of glaucoma G. produces metabolic alkalosis H. can produce kidney stones I. cause agitation J. it is contraindicated in patients with liver cirrhosis 87. Regarding thiazide diuretics, the following statements are TRUE: A. produce hyperuricemia B. are contraindicated in diabetes insipidus C. are contraindicated in heart failure D. produce hyperlipidemia E. are indicated in the treatment of arterial hypertension F. reduce urinary Ca2+ excretion G. increase peripheral vascular resistance H. stimulates the elimination of K+ I. cause hypoglycemia J. stimulates reabsorption of Na+ and Cl- from the distal convoluted tubule 88. About loop diuretics, the following statements are TRUE: A. produce hyperkalemia B. are the most effective diuretics C. are indicated in the treatment of hyperkalemia conditions D. produce ototoxicity E. they have a long-lasting action F. inhibits the Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporter at the level of the loop of Henle G. stimulates the urinary elimination of Ca2+ H. are contraindicated in acute pulmonary edema associated with heart failure I. reduce the synthesis of prostaglandins J. produce hypermagnesemia 89. Which from the following below is a proton pump inhibitor: A. diciclomine B. misoprostol C. rabeprazole D. pantoprazole E. esomeprazole F. lansoprazole G. sucralfate H. nizatidine I. pirenzepine J. omeprazole 90. In the treatment schemes of ulcer disease and Helicobacter pylori infection are included the following below: A. butylscopolamine B. claritromicine C. vancomicine D. nistatin E. omeprazole F. misoprostole G. papaverine H. gentamicine I. compounds with bismuth J. metronidazole 91. About anti-H2 antihistamines the following statements are TRUE: A. are contraindicated in gastroesophageal refux disease B. cimetidine has also antiandrogenic effects C. ranitidine is short-acting D. nizatidine has 100% bioavailability after oral administration E. cimetidine is an enzyme inhibitor F. are indicated in stress ulcers G. cimetidine increases the absorption of ketoconazole H. are contraindicated in patients treated with non-steroidal anti-infammatory drugs I. does not infuence nocturnal acid secretion J. famotidine is the most potent 92. The following statements are TRUE: A. proton pump inhibitors are contraindicated in refux esophagitis B. sucralfate is a gastric cytoprotector C. docusate sodium is antidiarrheal D. proton pump inhibitors do not associate with antacids E. metoclopramide also blocks dopamine receptors F. prolonged therapy with proton pump inhibitors decreases the absorption of vitamin B12 G. magnesium hydroxide causes constipation H. bisacodyl inhibits the activity of the colon I. ondansetron is an antiemetic J. proton pump inhibitors are indicated in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome 93. About diuretics the following statements are TRUE: A. about 90% to 95% of the fltered sodium chloride is reabsorbed in the distal convoluted tubule B. in the collecting tubule and duct intercalated cells affect H+ secretion C. diuretics working in the proximal convoluted tubule display high diuretic properties D. in the proximal convoluted tubule almost all the glucose, bicarbonate and amino acids are reabsorbed E. loop diuretics, have the weakest diuretic effect. F. in distal convoluted tubule, the Na+/Cl− transporter is the target of thiazide diuretics G. the initial mechanism of action of diuretics is based upon decreasing blood volume H. in the collecting tubule and duct aldosterone decreases Na+ reabsorption and K+ excretion I. calcium, under the regulation of aldosteron is transported by a Na+/Ca2+-exchanger into the interstitial fluid J. in the loop of Henle, the cells of the ascending tubular epithelium are impermeable to water 94. The following statements are TRUE: A. increasing the dose of thiazides, above normal therapeutic doses, does not promote further diuretic response B. thiazides are a mainstay of antihypertensive treatment C. all thiazides affect the distal convoluted tubule D. indapamide is excreted only in urine E. thiazides have as an adverse effect hypouricemia F. thiazides can’t cause orthostatic hypotension or light-headedness G. thiazides decrease the concentration of Na+ and Cl− in the tubular fluid H. thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics produce a hypoosmolar urine I. thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics decrease the Ca2+ content of urine J. the effcacy of thiazides may be diminished with concomitant use of nonsteroidal anti-infammatory drugs 95. Which from the following below is a thiazide diuretic: A. spironolactone B. indapamide C. metolazone D. acetazolamide E. amiloride F. hydrochlorothiazide G. furosemide H. chlorthalidone I. mannitol J. chlorothiazide 96. The following statements are TRUE about urianry excretion from diuretic therapy: A. loop diuretics decrease the urine volume B. loop diuretics decrease the excretion of K+ C. loop diuretics increase the excretion of uric acid D. epithelium sodium channel antagonists increase the excretion of K+ E. thiazides increase the excretion of Cl- F. aldosterone antagonists decrease the excretion of K+ G. loop diuretics increase the excretion of Mg2+ H. thiazides increase the excretion of Na+ I. carbonic anhydrase inhibitors increase the excretion of HCO3- J. thiazides increase the excretion of Ca2+ 97. About the adverse effects of diuretics the following statements are TRUE: A. hypouricemia B. hypokalemia C. hypermagnesemia D. hypomagnesemia E. hyperuricemia F. hypernatremia G. hypoglycemia H. hyperglycemia I. hypervolemia J. hypovolemia 98. The following statements are TRUE about adverse effects of loop diuretics: A. loop diuretics may cause or exacerbate gouty attacks B. loop diuretics can cause a severe and rapid reduction in blood volume C. the loss of K+ from cells in exchange for H+ can lead to acidosis D. the most common adverse effect of the loop diuretics is hypokalemia E. ethacrynic acid is the most likely to cause ototoxicity F. fuid and electrolyte issues are the least predominant adverse effects G. loop diuretics may cause hypermagnesemia H. loop diuretics may affect vestibular function inducing vertigo I. loop diuretics can’t cause cardiac arrhythmias J. Reversible or permanent hearing loss may occur with loop diuretics when administered in low doses 99. The following statements are TRUE about potassium-sparing diuretics: A. eplerenone is more selective for aldosterone receptors and causes fewer endocrine effects than spironolactone B. eplerenone may induce gynecomastia C. potassium-sparing diuretics are indicated in patients with severe renal dysfunction D. triamterene and amiloride are commonly used in combination with other diuretics E. Spironolactone is not used for the treatment of polycystic ovary syndrome F. spironolactone antagonizes the activity of aldosterone, resulting in retention of K+ and excretion of Na+ G. aldosterone antagonists increase mortality associated with heart failure H. resistant hypertension does not respond well to aldosterone antagonists I. aldosterone antagonists are particularly effective diuretics in hepatic cirrhosis and nephrotic syndrome J. potassium-sparing diuretics act in the collecting tubule to inhibit Na+ reabsorption and K+ excretion 100. The following statements are TRUE about carbonic anhydrase inhibitor: A. acetazolamide can cause the formation of renal stones B. the use of acerazolamide could lead to a decreased excretion of NH4+ C. the loss of HCO3− causes a hyperchloremic metabolic alkalosis D. acetazolamide causes a severe excretion of Ca2+ and Cl- E. acetazolamide is indicated in patients with hepatic cirrhosis F. they are more effcacious than the thiazide or loop diuretics G. oral acetazolamide reduces intraocular pressure in patients with glaucoma H. acetazolamide is approximately 90% protein bound and eliminated through hepatic metabolism I. acetazolamide can be used in the prophylaxis of symptoms of altitude sickness J. the decreased ability to exchange Na+ for H+ in the presence of acetazolamide results in a mild diuresis 101. About calcium channel blockers, the following statements are TRUE: A. they are contraindicated in patients who also have asthma and/or diabetes B. calcium channel blockers administered high doses of short-acting can cause myocardial infarction C. dihydropyridines have less affnity for vascular calcium channels than for calcium channels in the heart D. diltiazem has a favorable side effect profle E. calcium channel blockers are a recommended frst-line treatment option in black patients F. calcium channel blockers are useful in hypertensive patients with diabetes or stable ischemic heart disease G. calcium channel blockers dilate veins H. amlodipine has a very short half-life I. verapamil and diltiazem are indicated in patients with heart failure or with atrioventricular block J. verapamil is used to treat angina and supraventricular tachyarrhythmias 102. The following statements are TRUE about calcium channel blockers: A. dihydropyridines may cause gingival hyperplasia B. calcium channel blockers are contraindicated in the treatment of angina C. verapamil can cause migranes D. calcium channel blockers can cause atrial fbrillation E. they can cause peripheral edema F. they can cause headache G. they can cause dizziness H. they can cause fushing I. they can cause an increase in blood pressure J. diltiazem has the least favorable side effect profle 103. Which from the following below is a calcium channel blocker: A. verapamil B. amlodipine C. bisoprolol D. felodipine E. propranolol F. nitroglycerin G. nifedipine H. diltiazem I. isosorbide dinitrate J. ranolazine 104. The following statements are TRUE about CCB: A. calcium channel blockers cause a decrease in smooth muscle tone and vascular resistance B. calcium channel blockers increase myocardial oxygen consumption C. diltiazem increases the rate of fring of the sinus node pacemaker D. verapamil has greater positive inotropic effects than amlodipine E. nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers could be benefcial in heart failure due to their positive inotropic effect F. calcium channel blockers decrease the afterload G. amlodipine is useful in the treatment of variant angina caused by spontaneous coronary spasm H. all calcium channel blockers are arteriolar vasodilators I. amlodipine functions mainly on cardiac conduction J. diltiazem slows AV conduction 105. The following statements are TRUE about nitrates: A. they are effective in stable, unstable, and variant angina B. the fastest onset of action of nitroglycerin is 30 minutes C. sublingual nitroglycerine is the drug of choice for prompt relief of an angina attack D. nitroglycerin causes dilation of the large veins, which reduces preload E. organic nitrates contract vascular smooth muscle F. these compounds cause a reduction in myocardial oxygen demand G. isosorbide mononitrate has a duration of action of 4-8 hurs H. nitrates dilate the coronary vasculature I. administration via sublingual or transdermal route facilitates frst-pass metabolism in the liver J. all nitrates are similar in their onset of action and rate of elimination 106. The following statements are TRUE about nitrates: A. the nitrate free interval should be 10 to 12 hours and usually taken at night B. high doses of nitrates can also cause postural hypotension, facial fushing, and tachycardia C. nitroglycerine patches are worn for 48 hours D. the constant use of nitrates does not induce tolerance E. headache is the most common adverse effect of nitrates F. isosorbide mononitrate has the shortest duration of action G. tolerance to the actions of nitrates develops rapidly H. phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors such as sildenafl inhibits the action of the nitrates I. nitroglycerin administered oraly has the onset of action after 35 min J. the nitrate free interval in variant angina should be taken early in the morning 107. The following statements are TRUE about hormones of the posterior pituitary: A. oxytocine rarely causes water retention B. oxytocine`s antidiuretic and pressor effects are much less than those of vasopressin C. oxytocine may induce hypotension D. oxytocine may rarely cause fetal death and uterine rupture E. hormones are administered intravenously and have very long half- lives F. oxytocin causes milk ejection G. oxytocin inhibits the contraction the myoepithelial cells around the mammary alveoli H. vasopressin and oxytocin are regulated by releasing hormones I. oxytocin is used in obstetrics to stimulate uterine contraction J. oxytocine can not induce labor 108. The following statements about vasopressin are TRUE: A. the major toxicities are water intoxication and hyponatremia B. it causes hypernatremia C. it can cause abdominal pain, tremor and vertigo D. is contraindicated in esophageal varices E. is also called diuretic hormone F. has both antidiuretic and vasopressor effects G. it can’t be used in septic shock H. causes constriction in vascular smooth muscles I. is contraindicated in diabetes insipidus J. in the kidney, it binds to the V2 receptor to increase water permeability and reabsorption 109. The following statements about desmopressin are TRUE: A. nasal spray can cause nasal irritation B. has minimal activity at the V1 receptor C. is longer acting than vasopressin D. has only antidiuretic effect E. has the shortest acting period F. is an analog of vasopressin G. nasal spray can be used in children with enuresis H. is preferred for the treatment of diabetes insipidus I. can not be used in nocturnal enuresis J. acts only on V1 receptors 110. The following statements are TRUE: A. sucralfate is a gastric cytoprotector B. prolonged therapy with proton pump inhibitors decreases the absorption of vitamin B12 C. docusate sodium is antidiarrheal D. proton pump inhibitors do not associate with antacids E. proton pump inhibitors are contraindicated in refux esophagitis F. metoclopramide also blocks dopamine receptors G. magnesium hydroxide causes constipation H. bisacodyl inhibits the activity of the colon I. ondansetron is an antiemetic J. proton pump inhibitors are indicated in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome 111. About aspirin the following statements are TRUE: A. stimulates cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1) B. associated with anticoagulants decrease bleeding C. side effect includes bleeding D. is used in the prophylactic treatment of transient cerebral ischemia E. is the only antiplatelet agent that irreversibly inhibits platelet function F. is used to reduce the incidence of recurrent myocardial infarction G. is not absorbed by passive diffusion and quickly hydrolyzed to salicylic acid in the liver H. blocks cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1) I. is associated with severe hematologic reactions J. low doses of aspirin increase drug-related toxicities 112. The following statements are TRUE: A. fondaparinux selectively inhibits factor Xa B. warfarin is indicated in pregnacy C. dabigatran is an oral inhibitors of factor Xa D. warfarin interfere with the synthesis of the coagulation factors E. heparin cross the placenta and can not be use for treating pregnant women F. heparin limit the expansion of thrombi by preventing the fbrin formation G. clopidogrel is approved for prevention of atherosclerotic events in patients with a recent MI H. apixaban is approved for prevention of stroke in non valvular atrial fbrillation I. heparin therapy should be continued when patients develop heparin- induced thrombocytopenia J. cilostazol is an anticoagulant 113. Which from the following below is a class III antiarrhythmic drug: A. amiodarona B. metroprolol C. dronedarone D. sotalol E. diltiazem F. dofetilide G. procainamide H. verapamil I. ibutilide J. digoxin 114. The following statements are TRUE: A. lidocaine activates Na+ channels B. class III antiarrhythmic drugs activates K+ channels C. verapamil is a K+ channel blocker D. digoxin is a Ca2+ channel blocker E. class III agents block K+ channels F. class II agents are β-adrenergic antagonists G. class I antiarrhythmic drugs act by blocking voltage-sensitive Na+ channels H. digoxin inhibits the Na+/K+-ATPase pump I. amiodarona is a Na+ channel blocker J. class IV drugs are the nondihydropyridine Ca2+ channel blockers 115. About Amiodarone the following statements are TRUE: A. activates K+ channels B. is a class III antiarrhythmic drug C. has been a mainstay of therapy for the rhythm management of atrial fibrillation or futter. D. is a class I antiarrhythmic drug E. is a K+ channel blocker F. is a β-adrenergic antagonists G. is a nondihydropyridine Ca2+ channel blocker H. is used in the treatment of severe refractory supraventricular and ventricular tachyarrhythmias I. is a class II antiarrhythmic drug J. dominant effect is prolongation of the action potential duration and the refractory period 116. The following statements are TRUE: A. digoxin is used to control ventricular response rate in atrial fibrillation and futter B. class IV antiarrhythmic drug activates action potential in SA and AV nodes C. fecainide blocks Na+ channels, leading to increased duration of the action potential D. verapamil and diltiazem increase conduction in AV and SA nodes E. amiodarone is used for the treatment of severe refractory supraventricular and ventricular tachyarrhythmia F. ibutilide is a Ca2+ channel blocker is used for chemical conversion of atrial futter G. class II agents are useful in treating tachyarrhythmia caused by increased sympathetic activity H. magnesium is the drug of choice for treating the potentially fatal arrhythmia torsades de pointes I. class III Antiarrhythmic Drugs shorten the duration of the action potential J. intravenous adenosine is the drug of choice for converting acute supraventricular tachycardia 117. Which from the following below is a class I antiarrhythmic drug: A. procainamide B. lidocaine C. flecainide D. amiodarona E. digoxin F. quinidine G. propafenone H. adenosine I. verapamil J. atenolol 118. Which from the following below is a statine? A. atorvastatin B. colesevelam C. cholestyramine D. ezetimibe E. simvastatin F. rosuvastatin G. pravastatin H. fenofbrozil I. niacin J. lovastatin 119. The following statements are TRUE: A. statins are indicated during pregnancy, lactation B. omega-3 fatty acids inhibit very–low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) and triglyceride synthesis in the liver. C. HMG CoA reductase inhibitors increase LDL-cholesterol D. statins are indicated in active liver disease E. bile acid sequestrants have signifcant LDL-cholesterol increasing effects F. fenofbrate lowers serum triglycerides and increase HDL-cholesterol. G. ezetimibe selectively inhibits absorption of dietary and biliary cholesterol in the small intestine H. statins are effective in lowering plasma cholesterol levels I. fibrates are used in the treatment of hypertriglyceridemia J. fbrates lower HDL-cholesterol 120. The following statements are TRUE: A. proton pump inhibitors suppress the secretion of hydrogen ions into the gastric lumen B. omeprazole has the capacity to neutralize gastric HCL C. sucralfate creates a physical barrier that protects the ulcer from pepsin and acid D. antacids reduce pepsin activity E. prostaglandine E stimulates secretion of acid F. prostaglandine E inhibits secretion of mucus and bicarbonate G. H2 receptor antagonists are contraindicated in peptic ulcers H. proton pump inhibitors is preffered for the treatment of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome I. misoprostol is contraindicated in pregnancy J. antacids are contraindicated in gastroesophageal refux disease  121. Adverse effects of proton pump therapy include: A. galactorrhea B. confusion C. gynecomastia D. nausea E. headache F. diarrhea G. inhibits cytochrome 450 H. constipation I. gastrointestinal disturbance J. bone fractures 122. Which from the following bellow is an antiemetic drug? A. colesevelam B. haloperidol C. metoclopramide D. ezetimibe E. droperidol F. lorazepam G. cholestyramine H. atorvastatin I. rosuvastatin J. dolasetron 123. The following statements are TRUE: A. sulfasalazine stimulates intestinal folate absorption B. corticosteroids are used in infammatory bowel disease for their anti-inflammatory effects C. immunomodulators, such as methotrexate are used in infammatory bowel disease D. sulfasalazine reversibly impairs male fertility E. sulfasalazine is indicated in ulcerative colitis for induction and maintenance of remission F. dicyclomine is contraindicated in irritable bowel syndrome G. 5-aminosalicylates are contraindicated in ulcerative colitis H. biological agents are contraindicated in infammatory bowel disease I. mesalamine formulations have improved tolerability than sulfasalazine, with similar efficacy J. alosetrol is contraindicated in irritable bowel syndrome 124. The following statements are TRUE: A. antimotility agents activate presynaptic opioid receptors in the enteric nervous system to inhibit acetylcholine release and decrease peristalsis B. adverse effects of bismuth subsalicylate may include black tongue and black stools. C. antidiarrheals increase motility of the GI tract D. bismuth subsalicylate increases fuid secretion in the bowel E. aluminum hydroxide and methylcellulose they can not interfere with the absorption of other drugs F. loperamide is used for the general treatment of acute diarrhea G. antihistamines have a high antiemetic activity H. saline cathartics distends the bowel, increasing intestinal activity and producing defecation in a few hours I. loperamide can contribute to toxic megacolon J. antidiarrheal drugs do not include drugs that modify fuid and electrolyte transport * 125. The following statements are TRUE: ⑥ A. castor oil may stimulate uterine contractions in pregnant patients B. laxatives increase the potential for loss of pharmacologic effect of poorly absorbed, delayed- acting, and extended-release oral preparations C. laxatives decrease the frequency of bowel movements D. bulk laxatives are indicated for immobile patients E. lactulose cannot be hydrolyzed by gastrointestinal enzymes F. polyethylene glycol (PEG) powder for solution without electrolytes causes cramping and gas builtup G. docusate sodium and docusate calcium are used in acute treatment H. bisacodyl acts directly on nerve fbers in the mucosa of the colon. I. Senna causes evacuation of the bowels within 6 to 12 hours J. laxatives can cause cause electrolyte imbalances when used chronically 126. The following statements are TRUE: A. other drugs should be separated from psyllium by at least two hour B. Senna causes water and electrolyte secretion into the bowel C. castor oil may be administered in pregnant women with constipation D. the bulk laxatives cause water retention and intestinal distension E. bisacodyl is a potent inhibitor of the colon F. Senna is a widely used stimulant laxative G. the bulk laxatives include hydrophilic colloids H. psyllium can increase the absorption of other oral drugs I. castor oil decreases peristalsis J. the bulk laxatives could be administered in patients with intestinal obstruction 127. The following statements are TRUE: A. docusate sodium is a stool softener B. magnesium citrate is a nonabsorbable salt laxative C. lactulose increases the ammonia levels D. methylcellulose is a stool softener E. magnesium hydroxide holds water in the intestine by osmosis F. lactulose is used for the treatment of hepatic encephalopathy G. lactulose is a bulk laxative H. magnesium citrate decreases intestinal activity I. glycerin suppositories are lubricants J. stool softeners could be taken concomitantly with mineral oil 128. The following are used in the treatment of peptic ulcer associated with Helicobacter pylory: A. loperamide B. tetracylines C. butylscopolamine D. clarithromycine E. metronidazole F. amoxicillin G. ondansetron H. bethanechol I. bismuth compounds J. kanamycine 129. The following are used in the treatment of peptic ulcer associated with Helicobacter pylory: A. metoclopramide B. gentamycine C. omeprazole D. pantoprazole E. lansoprazole F. vancomycine G. esomeprazole H. misoprostole I. carbachol J. domperidon 130. The following statements are TRUE: A. the proton pump inhibitor have less intense effects than H2 antagonists in suppressing acid production and healing ulcers B. omeprazol is a proton pump inhibitor C. proton pump inhibitors are indicated in gastroesofageal reflux disease D. H2 receptor antagonists are used in the treatment of ulcer E. pantoprazole is contraindicated in ulcer F. ranitidine is a H2 receptor antagonist G. famotidine is a H1 receptor antagonist H. cimetidine may induce gynecomastia and galactorrhea I. cimetidine is an enzymatic inducer J. H2 receptor antagonists increased the efficacy of drugs that require an acidic environment for absorption 131. The following statements about the proton pump inhibitors are TRUE: A. are contraindicated in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome B. are not effective in eradication Helicobacter pylori infection C. proton pump inhibitors inhibit the H+/K+-ATPase D. may induce diarrhea E. may induce Clostridium difficile colitis F. may increase the level of vitamin B12 G. can not be associated with aspirin H. at standard doses, inhibit both basal and stimulated gastric acid secretion by more than 90% I. stimulate the secretion of hydrogen ions into the gastric lumen J. for maximum effect, should be taken 30 to 60 minutes before breakfast or the largest meal of the day 132. The following statements about antiacids are TRUE: A. magnesium hydroxide tends to produce constipation B. systemic absorption of sodium bicarbonate produce a significant sodium load C. aluminum hydroxide produces diarrhea D. acts through chemical mechanism E. aluminum hydroxide is a H2 antagonist F. systemic absorption of sodium bicarbonate can produce transient metabolic alkalosis G. block the secretion of hydrocloric acid in the stomach H. increase the pepsin activity I. food delays stomach emptying, allowing more time for the antacid to react and prolonging the duration of action J. neutralize the gastric acidity 133. About penicillins, the followings are TRUE: A. the association of beta-lactams with aminoglycosides has synergistic effects B. methicillin produces interstitial nephritis C. carbenicillin is an anti-pseudomonas penicillin D. the amoxicillin-clavulanic acid combination has a narrow antibacterial spectrum E. the natural ones are inactivated by beta-lactamases F. inhibits bacterial protein synthesis G. benzathine penicillin G is short acting H. they are also active on mycobacteria I. penicillin V is a semisynthetic penicillin J. oxacillin is an antistaphylococcal penicillin 134. About cephalosporins, the followings are TRUE: A. ceftriaxone concentrates in bile B. those of the first generation are resistant to penicillinase C. those of the first generation cross the blood-brain barrier D. cephalosporins do not cross the fetoplacental barrier E. those of the 3rd generation cross the blood-brain barrier F. monobactams are active on Gram-positive and anaerobic microorganisms G. cefepime is active on Pseudomonas aeruginosa H. carbapenems inhibit bacterial protein synthesis I. ceftriaxone is active on Neisseria gonorrhoeae J. cephalexin is given by injection only 135. The followings about tetracyclines, are TRUE: A. concentrates in the bone B. minocycline concentrates in lactate secretion C. produce phototoxicity D. does not associate with antacids E. it is not eliminated in breast milk F. inhibits bacterial wall synthesis G. have a narrow antibacterial spectrum H. they can be administered to small children I. can be administered with milk J. doxycycline is indicated in the treatment of infections in patients with renal failure 136. About aminoglycosides, the followings are TRUE: A. are ototoxic B. achieve effective concentrations in the cerebrospinal fuid C. they have no renal toxicity D. they are effective against both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria E. does not cross the fetoplacental barrier F. neomycin is also given orally to prepare the bowel for surgery G. inhibits bacterial protein synthesis H. not absorbed after oral administration I. are bacteriostatic J. are active on Pseudomonas aeruginosa 137. About macrolides, the followings are TRUE: A. are hepatotoxic B. intravenous administration of erythromycin has a risk of thrombophlebitis C. azithromycin has a short half-life D. does not concentrate bile E. are indicated in genital infections with Chlamydia F. Clarithromycin is an enzyme inducer G. erythromycin is indicated in Mycoplasma pneumonia H. erythromycin is used of choice in the patient with penicillin allergy I. telithromycin shortens the QT interval on the electrocardiogram J. crosses the blood-brain barrier 138. The following statements are TRUE: A. fuoroquinolones inhibit DNA replication B. chloramphenicol has a narrow antibacterial spectrum C. sulfonamides are bactericidal D. chloramphenicol produces gray syndrome in the child E. linezolid is not active on resistant Gram-positive bacteria F. ciprofoxacin is indicated in Enterobacteriaceae infections G. isoniazid is not active on Mycobacterium tuberculosis H. trimethoprim produces megaloblastic anemia I. sulfonamides produce crystalluria J. rifampicin has a bacteriostatic effect on mycobacteria 139. The following statements about Penicillins are TRUE: A. penicillins stimulate the synthesis of peptidoglycans B. the penicillinase-resistant penicillins have minimal activity against gram-negative infections C. food decreases the absorption of dicloxacillin D. piperacillin is an antistaphylococcal penicillin E. penicillin V is more acid stable than Penicillin G F. penicillins are active on spirochetes G. penicillins are bacteriostatic antibiotics H. aminopenicillins are narrow spectrum antibiotics I. procaine penicillin G is a depot form J. probenecid decreases the blood level of penicillins 140. The following statements are TRUE: A. carbapenemes are narrow spectrum antibiotics B. penicillins are neurotoxic C. aztreonam is an antistaphylococcal penicillin D. penicillins easily penetrate into the cerebral spinal fuid during inflammation. E. cross-allergic reactions occur among the βlactam antibiotics F. carbapenemes affect the bacterial protein synthesis G. tetracyclins may be associated with penicillins H. penicillin use may induce pseudomembranous colitis I. isoniazid is active only against Mycobacterium tuberculosis J. most gram-negative organisms are sensible to vancomycin 141. The following statements about cephalosporins are TRUE: A. ceftriaxone is excreted into bile B. ceftriaxone is the agent of choice in the treatment of meningitis C. cefuroxime has a short half-life D. the activity of second-generation against gram-positive organisms is weak E. the frst generation are resistant to the staphylococcal penicillinase F. the second-generation display lower activity against gram-negative organisms G. ceftriaxone has low penetration into bones H. cefepime is administrated orally I. resistance to the cephalosporins may be due to the hydrolysis of the beta-lactam ring by β-lactamases J. ceftriaxone is contraindicated in renal diseases 142. The following statements are TRUE: A. aztreonam may cause phlebitis B. high levels of imipenem may provoke seizures C. tazobactam is a betalactamase inhibitor D. meropenem is known to reach therapeutic levels in bacterial meningitis even without infammation E. carbapenemes are administered orally F. imipenem is active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa G. imipenem is extensively hydrolyzed by β-lactamases H. monobactams are very active against gram-positive organisms I. monobactams inhibit the bacterial protein synthesis J. imipenem is not active on Pseudomonas aeruginosa 143. The following statements are TRUE: A. vancomycin is the drug of choice for methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus infection B. vancomycin inhibits the bacterial cell wall synthesis C. daptomycine is not hepatotoxic D. vancomycin has poor absorption after oral administration E. vancomycin releases histamine F. fosfomycine is a bacteriostatic antibiotic G. vancomycine is not active on Clostridium diffcile H. vancomycine is a bacteriostatic antibiotic I. polymyxins are nephrotoxic J. fosfomycine ihibits the bacterial protein synthesis 144. The following statements about tetracyclins are TRUE: A. could be administered in pregnancy B. doxycycline is well concentrated in the cerebrospinal fuid C. are concentrated into bile D. doxycycline is contraindicated in patients with renal dysfunction E. are not hepatotoxic F. could be associated with iron supplements G. clindamycine inhibits the bacterial protein synthesis H. are inactivated by calcium antiacids I. doxycycline is a bacterial wall synthesis inhibitor J. are effcient in Chlamydia infections 145. The following statements about aminoglycosides are TRUE: A. could be administered in patients with miastenia gravis B. are well concentrated in the tissues C. are ototoxic D. are effective for the majority of aerobic gram-negative bacilli E. easily concentrated into the cerebrospinal fuid F. do not cross the blood brain barrier G. neomycine is high nephrotoxic H. are administrated only parenterally I. inhibit the bacterial protein synthesis J. neomycine is administered topically for skin infections 146. The following statements about macrolides are TRUE: A. clarithromycine could be indicated in patients with renal impairment B. azythromycine has a short half-life C. clarithromycine is not eliminated into the urine D. erithromycine diffuses into prostatic fuid E. are not concentarted into bile F. erithromycine stimulates the gastrointestinal motility G. does not penetrate the CNS H. could induce cholestatic jaundice I. erithromycine has a long half-life J. are ototoxic 147. The following statements about chloramfenicol are TRUE: A. inhibits the bacterial wall synthesis B. is a narrow-spectrum antibiotic C. is not concentrated into cerebrospinal fuid D. acts on the bacterial 50S ribosomal subunit E. is restricted to life-threatening infections for which no alternatives exist F. is not active agains anaerob bacterias G. chloramfenicol could induce anemia H. produces marrow toxicity I. is not secreted into breast milk J. could induce gray baby syndrome 148. The following statements abot fuoroquinolones are TRUE: A. frst-generation compounds fuoroquinolones are broad-spectrum agents B. ciprofoxacin is a CYP450 inducer C. fluoroquinolones could induce phototoxicity D. moxifoxacin is contraindicated in renal impairment E. could produce tendinitis F. ingestion of fuoroquinolones with magnesium-containing antacids can reduce the absorption G. are well concentrated into bones H. may be used without caution in patients with arrhythmias I. ciprofloxacin is indicated in urinary tract infections J. are bacteriostatic antibiotics 149. The following statements are TRUE: A. rifampicin is a second-line tuberculostatic drug B. isoniazid is hepatotoxic C. ethionamide is a frst-line tuberculostatic drug D. ethambutol produces optic neuritis E. moxifoxacin is not effcient in multidrug-resistant tuberculosis F. ethambutol is indicated in the treatment of tuberculosis in the patients with gout G. pyrazinamide increases the uric acid concentration in blood H. rifampin produces the orange-red coloration of the urine I. ethambutol is used in the treatment of tuberculosis J. rifampicin is a bacteriostatic drug 150. The following statements are TRUE: A. ketocoazole is hepatotoxic B. itraconazole has a negative inotropic effect C. griseofulvin concentrates in skin, hair, nails D. itraconazole has a short half-life E. nistatin is indicated in Candida infections F. acyclovir does not crosses the blood brain barrier G. griseofulvin is a CYP450 inhibitor H. acyclovir is the prototypic antiherpetic therapeutic agent I. griseofulvin stimulates the fungal mitosis J. fluconazole is effective against most forms of mucocutaneous candidiasis  151. Factors that may limit bioavailability after oral administration include: A. solubility of the drug B. high plasma protein binding C. special ingredients that control the rate of release of the therapeutic agent to prolong the duration of action D. property of the drug to be highly lipophilic E. bioinactivation in the intestine or at the frst hepatic passage F. destruction of the active substance in the drug by proteases G. property of the drug to be very hydrophilic H. chemical instability of the substance I. rapid emptying of the stomach J. small particle size of the drug 152. Oral administration of medicinal substances is characterised by: A. dependence of absorption of some medicinal substances on the presence of food B. the effect occurs very quickly C. ideal for administration of high molecular weight proteins D. provides the best control over the dose of drug entering the body E. complex mechanisms involved in drug absorption F. convenient for unconscious patients ⑭ G. low risk of systemic infections H. makes it possible to administer various forms of medication such as enteric-coated I. administration by this route is irreversible J. the possibility of combating overdose by administering activated charcoal 153. Drugs act on receptors: A. by neuromediator release from cellular stores B. by alteration of nucleic acids C. transmembrane D. by blocking the release of free radicals E. by membrane pore formation F. coupled to G-proteins G. ligand-gated ion channel type H. enzyme-coupled I. intracellular J. by physicochemical mechanisms of action 154. Select drug(s) that act as enzyme inhibitors of CYP isoenzyme activity: A. Warfarin B. Carbamazepine C. Rifampicin D. Cimetidine E. Dexamethasone F. Erythromycin G. Phenobarbital H. Omeprazole I. Phenytoin J. Ketoconazole 155. Factors that may limit bioavailability after oral administration are: A. solubility of the drug B. the property of the drug to be very hydrophilic C. small particle size of the drug D. bioinactivation in the gut or on frst pass through the liver E. strong binding to plasma proteins F. rapid emptying of the stomach G. chemical instability of the substance H. special ingredients that control the rate of release of the therapeutic agent to prolong the duration of action. I. destruction of the active substance of the drug by proteases J. property of the drug to be highly lipophilic ⑭ 156. It can be said that: A. The rectal route avoids the entire portal circulation B. The respiratory route completely avoids portal circulation C. The sublingual route avoids the portal circulation entirely ↑ D. In intravenous administration, the drug comes into action more quickly than after intramuscular administration E. The hepatic first-pass effect is not taken into account for the amount of drug that enters the bloodstream after oral administration F. Rectal route partially bypasses portal circulation G. The hepatic first-pass effect is not taken into account for the amount of drug that reaches the bloodstream after parenteral administration H. Bioavailability is the affnity of a drug for a receptor I. In intravenous administration, the drug does not pass through the absorption barriers J. All drugs can be given orally 157. It can be said that: A. The intravenous route is used for continuous administration of drugs B. The rectal route is avoided for drugs with high frst-pass metabolism C. Intravenous administration is used for drugs that may induce tissue damage D. Avoid the intravenous route for cytotoxic drugs E. The intravenous route is used for the administration of furosemide in pulmonary oedema F. The oral route is preferred for the administration of furosemide in pulmonary oedema G. Oral route preferred for drugs with high frst-pass metabolism H. Intravenous administration is used for drugs that can induce tissue damage I. With intravenous administration, the drug comes into action more quickly than after intramuscular administration J. Sublingual route is avoided for drugs with high frst-pass metabolism 158. It can be said that: A. Acetaminophen is converted to a toxic intermediate metabolite B. Digestive absorption is proportional to the fat solubility of the drugs C. Nordiazepam is converted into the active metabolite Diazepam D. Placenta is a very effective barrier that does not let anything through E. Oxazepam is converted into the active metabolite Diazepam F. The intestinal membrane is a barrier that does not let anything through G. Absorption of non-ionised molecules is easier H. Drug absorption occurs in the small intestine I. Prodrugs are inactive J. Passive transport does not depend on the molecular weight of the drug 159. It can be said that: A. Hyperthyroidism affects drug biotransformation reactions B. Hypothyroidism affects drug biotransformation reactions C. Liver failure affects drug biotransformation reactions D. Taking enzyme-inhibiting drugs affects the biotransformation reactions of drugs E. Enzyme-inducing drugs affect drug biotransformation reactions F. Genetic polymorphisms affect drug biotransformation reactions G. Age over 65 years affects drug biotransformation reactions H. Heart failure affects drug biotransformation reactions I. Water administration affects drug biotransformation reactions J. Physical exertion affects drug biotransformation reactions 160. It can be said that: A. Acetylsalicylic acid acts by inhibition of cyclooxygenase B. Some diuretics act by inhibition of cyclooxygenase C. There are antidepressants that act by inhibition of cyclooxygenase D. Acetylsalicylic acid acts by inhibition of carbonic anhydrase E. Some antidepressants act through inhibition of carbonic anhydrase F. There are diuretics that act by inhibition of carbonic anhydrase G. Some diuretics work by inhibiting monoamine oxidase H. Some drugs act through enzyme-linked receptors I. Some antidepressants work by inhibiting monoamine oxidase J. Some drugs act by inhibition of acetylcholinesterase 161. It can be said that : A. Adrenaline and histamine are physiological antagonists in vascular smooth muscle B. A non-competitive antagonist binds with high affinity to the receptor. C. The receptors for insulin are enzyme-coupled receptors. D. Secondary messengers are involved in post-receptor mechanisms. E. Insulin receptors are ion channel receptors F. Adrenergic receptors are ion channel linked receptors G. Competitive antagonists increase the potency of agonists H. The receptor has the ability to recognise the ligand and trigger a biological response I. Protamine sulphate and heparin are physiological antagonists J. Nicotinic receptors are G protein coupled receptors. 162. It can be said that : A. The inhibition of the enzyme cyclooxygenase by acetylsalicylic acid is of the irreversible type B. Nifedipine inhibits Na+ transport through sodium ion channels C. Nifedipine inhibits Ca2+ transport through calcium ion channels D. Local anaesthetics inhibit Ca2+ transport through calcium ion channels E. Lidocaine inhibits Ca2+ transport through calcium ion channels F. Oral antidiabetics inhibit K+ transport through potassium ion channels G. Lidocaine inhibits Na+ transport through sodium ion channels H. Oral antidiabetics inhibit Ca2+ transport through calcium ion channels I. Inhibition of the enzyme cyclooxygenase by acetylsalicylic acid is reversible J. Local anaesthetics inhibit Na+ transport through sodium ion channels 163. It can be said that : A. Adrenaline can abolish the anticoagulant effect of heparin B. Acetylsalicylic acid acts by osmotic mechanism C. There are diuretics that act by osmotic mechanism D. Acetylsalicylic acid causes irreversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase E. Nicorandil causes inhibition of calcium channels F. Protamine can abolish the anticoagulant effect of heparin G. Adrenaline acts by osmotic mechanism H. Contrast agents act on receptors I. Adrenaline acts by a physicochemical mechanism J. There are laxatives that act by osmotic mechanism 164. The following statement(s) are correct: A. mannitol acts by osmotic mechanism B. Lidocaine opens chloride channels C. Lidocaine opens sodium channels D. captopril acts as a 'false substrate E. tolbutamide acts by opening potassium channels F. glyburide acts by closing potassium channels G. Minoxidil closes potassium channels H. carmustine acts as an alkylating agent on the DNA chain I. labetalol has oxygen free radical blocking action J. Naloxone is an opioid receptor agonist 165. The following statement(s) are correct: A. captopril acts as a 'false substrate B. glimepiride acts by closing potassium channels C. tolbutamide acts by opening potassium channels D. cyclophosphamide acts as an alkylating agent on the DNA chain E. Nalbuphine is total agonist on opioid receptors F. Lidocaine opens chloride channels G. glycerol acts by osmotic mechanism H. Bupivacaine opens chloride channels I. carvedilol has oxygen free radical blocking action J. Diazoxide closes potassium channels 166. The following statement(s) are correct: A. Nalbuphine is total agonist on opioid receptors B. glimepiride acts by closing potassium channels C. carvedilol has oxygen free radical blocking action D. Lidocaine opens sodium channels E. Diazoxide closes potassium channels F. captopril acts as a 'false substrate G. tolbutamide acts by opening potassium channels H. Bupivacaine opens chloride channels I. lactulose acts by osmotic mechanism J. lomustine acts as an alkylating agent on the DNA chain 167. About antagonists it can be said that: A. allosteric antagonists prevent receptor activation, even when the agonist is attached to the active site B. competitive antagonists increase the potency of agonists C. irreversible antagonist binds with reduced affnity at the receptor D. protamine sulphate and heparin are physiological antagonists E. non-competitive antagonists decrease the effectiveness of agonists F. at high concentrations of partial agonist, full agonists are displaced completely from receptors G. Allosteric antagonists are displaced from receptors by agonists H. in the presence of a non-competitive antagonist the maximal response can be achieved by increasing the dose of the agonist I. epinephrine and histamine are physiological antagonists at the level of vascular smooth muscle J. antagonists oppose or diminish the effect of an endogenous drug or ligand 168. About receptors it can be stated that: A. secondary messengers are involved in post-receptor mechanisms B. the response to stimulation of enzyme-coupled receptors lasts a few milliseconds C. nicotinic receptors are G protein-coupled receptors D. ligand attachment causes the receptor to switch from an active to an inactive state E. hydrophilic ligands interact with receptors located on the cell surface F. the receptor has the ability to recognise the ligand and trigger a biological response G. insulin receptors are enzyme-coupled receptors H. steroid receptors are intracellular receptors I. the response to stimulation of G protein-coupled receptors takes several hours J. adrenergic receptors are receptors bound to ion channels 169. About receptors it can be stated that: A. insulin receptors are Gq protein-coupled receptors B. GABA-A receptor is coupled to a chloride channel C. the M3 subtype muscarinic receptor is coupled to Gq-type proteins D. β1-adrenergic receptor stimulation decreases intracellular cAMP levels E. thyroid hormone receptors are intracellular receptors F. Gallamine is a competitive antagonist at M2 receptors G. nicotinic receptors are Gq protein-coupled receptors H. the β2-adrenergic receptor is coupled to Gs-type proteins I. receptors for aldosterone are membrane receptors J. β2-adrenergic receptor stimulation increases intracellular cAMP levels 170. About enzyme inhibition it can be stated that: A. inhibition of acetylcholinesterase by neostigmine is of the reversible type B. Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase by pyridostigmine is irreversible C. Aprotinin inhibits cyclooxygenases in a reversible manner D. Cyclooxygenase enzyme inhibition by acetylsalicylic acid is of the irreversible type E. acetylcholinesterase inhibition by parathion is of the irreversible type F. Aprotinin inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase G. Competitive enzyme inhibition implies that the molecule has structural similarities to the enzyme substrate, so that it binds at the enzyme active center, which it inhibits H. Fomepizole inhibits kalikrein I. acetylcholinesterase inhibition by eecothiophate of the irreversible type parathion e of the irreversible type J. inhibition of reverse transcriptase by nevirapine is by competitive mechanism 171. The following statement(s) are correct: A. isosorbide acts by osmotic mechanism B. labetalol has oxygen free radical blocking action C. carmustine acts by intercalation at the DNA strand level D. carmustine acts as an alkylating agent on the DNA chain E. lidocaine opens chloride channels F. diazoxide opens chloride channels G. tolbutamide acts by opening potassium channels H. dactinomycin acts by intercalation at the DNA strand level I. captopril acts as a 'false substrate J. diazoxide closes potassium channels 172. About antagonists it can be stated that: A. antagonists oppose or diminish the effect of an endogenous drug or ligand B. competitive antagonists increase the potency of agonists C. in the presence of a non-competitive antagonist the maximal response can be achieved by increasing the dose of the agonist D. epinephrine and histamine are physiological antagonists at the level of vascular smooth muscle E. Antagonists have strong intrinsic activity F. protamine sulphate and heparin are physiological antagonists G. allosteric antagonists prevent receptor activation, even when the agonist is attached to the active site H. irreversible antagonist binds with reduced affnity at the receptor I. non-competitive antagonists decrease the effectiveness of agonists J. at high concentrations of partial agonist, full agonists are displaced completely from receptors 173. About receptors it can be stated that: A. the receptor has the ability to recognise the ligand and trigger a biological response B. insulin receptors are enzyme-coupled receptors C. the response to stimulation of G protein-coupled receptors takes several hours D. the response to stimulation of enzyme-coupled receptors lasts a few milliseconds E. secondary messengers are involved in post-receptor mechanisms F. steroid receptors are intracellular receptors G. nicotinic receptors are G protein-coupled receptors H. hydrophilic ligands interact with receptors located on the cell surface I. adrenergic receptors are receptors bound to ion channels J. lig