Preboard 2 Cluster 3 Radiographic Positioning PDF

NURSING*RADTECH*DENTISTRY*CRIMINOLOGY*MIDWIFERY*MEDTECH LET*PSYCHOMET*RESPIRATORY THERAPY*CIVIL SERVICE*NAPOLCOM NCLEX*DHA*HAAD* PROMETRIC...

NURSING*RADTECH*DENTISTRY*CRIMINOLOGY*MIDWIFERY*MEDTECH LET*PSYCHOMET*RESPIRATORY THERAPY*CIVIL SERVICE*NAPOLCOM NCLEX*DHA*HAAD* PROMETRIC* UK-CBT PREBOARD 2 CLUSTER 3 Radiographic Positioning and Radiologic Procedures 1. The abdomen, for purposes of describing the single projections of the basic knee series position of the abdominal viscera, is divided will best demonstrate this condition? into nine regions, by four imaginary planes A. AP projection named after which of the following? B. Lateral projection A. Mills C. Medial oblique projection B. Addison D. Lateral oblique projection C. Caldwell D. Law 7. What does the Coyle method with central ray angulation of 45 degrees away from the 2. How many degrees of internal rotation of hip shoulder at elbow joint demonstrates? joint will bring the neck of the femur parallel A. Coracoid Process to the cassette and the head and B. Trochlea trochanteric bone on the same level? C. Coronoid Process A. 30 D. Capitulum B. 40 C. 50 8. What is part position of a lateral projection D. 60 of the wrist (lateromedial)? A. Extend elbow at 90 degrees to rotate 3. A patient is lying on her back facing the x- the ulna in lateral position. ray tube. The right side of their body is B. Flex elbow at 90 degrees to rotate the turned 20 degrees toward the IR. What is ulna in lateral position. this radiographic position? C. Twist elbow at 90 degrees to rotate the A. Left posterior oblique ulna in lateral position. B. Right posterior oblique D. Flex the elbow at 90 degrees to rotate C. Left anterior oblique the ulna in neutral position. D. Right anterior oblique 9. Which of the ff. projections will best 4. There are seven landmarks of the abdomen demonstrate the subacromial or subcoracoid that are palpable and important in dislocation? positioning the abdomen of these which one A. Tangential of the following would be found at the level B. AP axial of T9-T10? C. Transthoracic lateral A. Inferior costal rib margin D. PA oblique scapular Y B. Iliac crest C. ASIS 10. In order to evaluate the interphalangeal D. Xiphoid process joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers 5. Which of the following statements below is A. Rest on the cassette for immobilization considered CORRECT? B. Must be supported parallel to the film A. In general the male pelvis had more of C. Are radiographed in natural flexion an acute angle of the pubic arch, while D. Are radiographed in palmar flexion the female pelvis has more of an obtuse angle of the pubic arch 11. The Owen’s modification of the Mayer B. In general the male pelvis is wider, position requires the MSP be placed in what more shallow and flared than the female degree angulation? pelvis A. 30 degrees to the film and a CR C. An AP bilateral "frog leg" projection is angulation of 30 degrees cephalad used on all patients for a hip exam B. 30 degrees to the film and a CR D. The relationship of the head of the angulation of 30 degrees caudad femur to the acetabulum is of very little C. 15 degrees to the film and a CR importance when taking a radiograph of angulation of 15 degrees caudad the hip D. 15 degrees to the film and a CR angulation of 15 degrees cephalad 6. A young male comes to the radiology department with a clinical history of Osgood- 12. Aside from the possible diagnosis of Schlatter disease. Which of the following rheumatoid arthritis, what other condition 1 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY  NURSING*RADTECH*DENTISTRY*CRIMINOLOGY*MIDWIFERY*MEDTECH LET*PSYCHOMET*RESPIRATORY THERAPY*CIVIL SERVICE*NAPOLCOM NCLEX*DHA*HAAD* PROMETRIC* UK-CBT can be demonstrated by the Norgaard 18. For the demonstration of the anterior Method? articulation of the subtalar joint, what A. Fracture of the base of the 4th projection is employed? metacarpal A. Lateral oblique – 20-degree caudal tilt B. Fracture of the base of the 5th B. Dorsi-plantar oblique metacarpal C. 45-degree oblique – medial with 10- C. Fracture of the hamate degree cranial tilt D. Fracture of the capitate D. 45-degree oblique – medial with 15- degree cranial tilt 13. In imaging the carpal tunnel, regardless of the patient position utilized, how many 19. A radiograph shows tibial tuberosity to degrees is the dorsiflexion of the wrist? overshadow the retropatellar joint in a A. 13 degrees supero-inferior projection of the knee. What B. 15 degrees is the error in positioning? C. 113 degrees A. Too much flexion D. 135 degrees B. Not enough flexion C. The patient is seated. 14. What is the central ray ad reference point for D. The patient is in recumbent position. the AP elbow – partial flexion – with the upper arm in contact with the IR? 20. With patient in prone position, Judet’s A. The vertical central ray is centered to projection demonstrates the __ of the the proximal third of humerus. acetabulum and Lauenstein’s projection B. The vertical central ray is centered shows the __ of the acetabulum. midway between the epicondyles of the A. Anterior rim; Lateral rim humerus. B. Posterior rim; Lateral rim C. The vertical central ray is centered to C. Anterior rim; Posterior rim the acromion process. D. Posterior rim; Anterior rim D. The vertical central ray is centered to the coronoid process. 21. When a patient has a swollen wrist, it might be difficult to locate the midcarpal when 15. This can demonstrate the Lisfranc joint positioning for wrist projections. However, injury and other structural ligament injuries. the radiographer may do the following action A. AP weight bearing of foot to locate the midcarpal: B. AP weight bearing of knee A. Hyperextend the wrist and palpate the C. Lateral projection of knee ulnar styloid process D. AP oblique, medial rotation of foot B. Flex the wrist and focus on the flexion C. Move 3 inches below the third 16. To obtain a composite dorsoplantar, weight- metacarpal bearing, axial view of the entire foot, two D. Palpate for the radial styloid process and exposures are made with the central ray center on it angled how? A. 15 degrees posterior angulation and 15 22. The proponent of hanging the arm beside degrees anterior angulation the body and adjusting it in order to B. 25 degrees posterior angulation and 15 superimpose the wing of the scapula so as to degrees anterior angulation demonstrate posterior/anterior dislocations C. 15 degrees posterior angulation and 25 of the glenohumeral joint. degrees anterior angulation A. Lorenz D. 25 degrees posterior angulation and 25 B. Lilienfeld degrees anterior angulation C. McLaughlin D. Blackett & Healy 17. To demonstrate a ligamentous tear at the ankle joint, which of the following 23. Which of the following temporal bone procedures is employed? methods are complementary positions that A. Both oblique views produce similar projections by reversing B. Routine ankle views central ray entrance and exit points? C. Stress views A. Henschen and Schuller D. Angle the central ray 10 degrees B. Schuller and Laws cephalad for the routine ankle views C. Laws and Stenvers D. Stenvers and Arcelin 2 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY  NURSING*RADTECH*DENTISTRY*CRIMINOLOGY*MIDWIFERY*MEDTECH LET*PSYCHOMET*RESPIRATORY THERAPY*CIVIL SERVICE*NAPOLCOM NCLEX*DHA*HAAD* PROMETRIC* UK-CBT A. The glabelomeatal line is vertical. 24. What will be the central ray angulation of PA B. The acanthi meatal line is vertical. axial skull (Caldwell Method) if the GML is C. A line between the mentum and the the used instead of OML perpendicular to the mastoid tip is vertical. image receptor? D. A line between the maxillary occlusal A. 15 degrees caudad plane and the mastoid tip is vertical. B. 20 degrees caudad C. 17 degrees caudad 29. When utilizing the Granger method to D. 23 degrees caudad demonstrate the sella turcica in the PA projection, it requires the use of double 25. Where should the petrous ridges be located angle with the use of which of the following? (on the image) for a well-positioned, 25 A. 10-degree caudad central ray and a 10- degrees caudad PA axial (Haas method) degree angle block projection? B. 25-degree cephalad central ray and a A. Superior to the mastoid processes and 17-degree angle block symmetrical C. 10-degree cephalad central ray and a B. Inferior to the mastoid processes and 17-degree angle block symmetrical D. 17-degree cephalad central ray and a C. Lateral to the mastoid processes and 10-degree angle block symmetrical D. Ipsilateral to the mastoid processes and 30. The apophyseal articulations of the thoracic symmetrical spine are demonstrated with the __. A. Coronal plane 450 to the film 26. A radiograph of an AP axial (Towne method) B. Midsagittal plane 450 to the film for cranium reveals that the left petrous C. Coronal plane 700 to the film portion of the temporal bone is wider than D. Midsagittal plane 700 to the film the right. What is the specific positioning error present on this radiograph? 31. To demonstrate the occipito-cervical A. Rotation of the skull to the patient's face articulation, which of the following central to the right ray angulations must be employed? B. Rotation of the skull to the patient's face A. Direct the central ray 15 degrees to the left cephalad C. Rotation of the skull to the patient's face B. Use the open-mouth projection down C. Direct the central ray 15 degrees D. Rotation of the skull to the patient’s face caudad up D. Direct the central ray perpendicular to the plane of the film 27. A PA axial projection with a 25° caudal angle of the cranium reveals that the petrous 32. If the traction is already applied for the ridges are at the level of the superior orbital demonstration of C7/T1 but remain margins. Which of the following undemonstrated, what projection should be modifications are required to correct this done? error? A. Open mouth A. Increase extension of cranium to project B. Fuchs the petrous pyramids at or just below C. Swimmer’s lateral the IOML. D. No projection is needed. It is B. Decrease extension of cranium to acceptable. project the petrous pyramids at or just below the IOML. 33. What projection is often used before surgery C. Slight extension of cranium to project to assess movement in the neck for insertion the petrous pyramids at or just below of an endotracheal tube? the IOML. A. Lateral C-spine D. No extension of cranium to project the B. Swimmer’s lateral petrous pyramids at or just below the C. Lateral C-spine: Flexion and Extension IOML. D. AP C-spine 28. To demonstrate the first two cervical 34. Which of the following is not considered as vertebrae in the AP projection, the patient is an essential image characteristic of a lateral positioned so that __. cervical spine? 3 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY  NURSING*RADTECH*DENTISTRY*CRIMINOLOGY*MIDWIFERY*MEDTECH LET*PSYCHOMET*RESPIRATORY THERAPY*CIVIL SERVICE*NAPOLCOM NCLEX*DHA*HAAD* PROMETRIC* UK-CBT A. The whole of the cervical spine should 39. How should a chest examination to rule out be included, from the atlanto-occipital air–fluid levels be obtained on a patient joints to the top of the first thoracic having traumatic injuries? vertebra. A. Perform the examination in the B. The mandible or occipital bone does not Trendelenburg position. obscure any part of the upper vertebra. B. Erect inspiration and expiration images C. Angles of the mandible and the lateral should be obtained. portions of the floor of the posterior C. Include a lateral chest examination cranial fossa should be not be performed in dorsal decubitus position. superimposed. D. Perform the examination AP supine at D. Soft tissues of the neck should be 44 inches SID. included. 40. Modification that utilizes a 15º wedge and is 35. Which of the following statements is employed for flat chested patients so as to considered FALSE? prevent clavicular superimposition during a A. The first cervical vertebrae also known scapular spine examination. as the axis contains a structure known A. Kornguth and Salazar modification as the odontoid process B. Funke modification B. The lateral masses of C1 support the C. McLaughlin modification weight of the head and assist in rotation D. Torres modification of the head C. When doing a swimmers position for the 41. This determines that the exact axial position cervical spine one must demonstrate the of the clavicle is obtained during an AP axial C7 T1 inter-space projection in lordotic position. D. When doing a swimmers position for the A. Clavicle assuming a horizontal cervical spine one must demonstrate the placement vertebral bodies of T4,T5 and T6 B. Clavicle lying above the ribs C. Scapula overlapping the ribs 36. Which of the following statements is NOT D. Anterior and posterior ends of the ribs true about the lateral L5-S1 projection? are superimposed A. If the waist is not supported, the CR must be angled 5° to 8° caudad. 42. This method provides an angulated basal B. A lead mat should be placed on the view of the chest which shows lower lobe tabletop behind the patient, and there diseases. It uses a 30º caudad angulation should be close collimation to improve towards the midsternum and may be done image quality. erect or supine. C. A 14 × 17-inch IR should be used. A. Chause II Method D. The CR is centered 1.5 inches inferior to B. Judet Method the iliac crest and 2 inches posterior to C. Bennassi Method the ASIS. D. Resnick Method 37. The sternoclavicular joints are best 43. The visibility of this muscle indicates correct demonstrated with the patient PA and exposure factor when doing an abdominal x- A. In a slight oblique position, affected side ray. adjacent to the IR A. Diaphragmatic dome B. In a slight oblique position, affected side B. Psoas muscle away from the IR C. Spinous process of the vertebra C. Erect and weight bearing D. Urinary bladder shadow D. Erect, with and without weights 44. This demonstrates the inferosuperior 38. “Flattening” of the hemi diaphragms in a position of the pubis and ischial bones and chest PA radiograph is a characteristic of the pubic symphysis, with the utilization of which of the following conditions? 35º cephalad CR angulation. A. Pneumothorax A. Taylor method B. Emphysema B. Staunig method C. Pleural effusion C. Bridgeman method D. Pneumonia D. Lilienfeld method 4 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY  NURSING*RADTECH*DENTISTRY*CRIMINOLOGY*MIDWIFERY*MEDTECH LET*PSYCHOMET*RESPIRATORY THERAPY*CIVIL SERVICE*NAPOLCOM NCLEX*DHA*HAAD* PROMETRIC* UK-CBT 45. How long does Miller recommend to make I. Greulich and Pyle the patient lie in left lateral position before II. Tanner and Whitehouse taking an abdominal x-ray in order to III. Lauenstein and Hickey demonstrate small amounts of A. I and III only intraperitoneal gas in acute abdominal B. I and II only cases? C. II and III only A. 5-10 min D. All of the above B. 10-20 min C. 15-20 min 52. This is performed to detect suspected D. 20-30 min abnormalities of development, confirm suspected fetal death, determine 46. Which of the following statements is FALSE? presentation and position of the fetus, and A. The left lateral decubitus of the to determine if the pregnancy is single of abdomen best visualizes free air in the multiple. abdominal cavity A. Pelvimetry B. When doing a lateral decubitus of the B. Cephalometry abdomen we are looking at the side C. Fetography down as the area of interest D. Placentography C. When doing a lateral decubitus of the chest we are looking at the side down 53. He/She/They recommended that infants and as the area of interest children must be given carbonated soft D. For anterior oblique chest exams the drinks to distend the stomach with gas in side of interest is generally the side preparation for urographic contrast farthest from the IR. Thus RAO will best procedures. visualize the left lung A. White and Tanner B. Hope and Campoy 47. This is done to rule out epiglottis of a young C. Liotta child, which could potentially be fatal. D. Wolf A. Upper airway: AP B. Upper airway: Lateral 54. If a pneumothorax is the suspected C. Lower airway: AP diagnosis, the x-ray technologist should D. Lower airway: Lateral obtain which of the following? A. AP and PA 48. The required barium preparation for a B. supine and erect patient older than 10 years undergoing an C. PA and both laterals upper GI procedure. D. inspiration and expiration A. 2-4 oz. B. 25-30 oz. 55. If a patient was positioned for a Valdini C. 12-16 oz. Method with the IOML angled at a 50 D. 5-15 oz. degrees, which of the following anatomical structures would be best seen? 49. The required central ray angulation during A. External Auditory Meatus the PA projection of infants during an upper B. Tympanic Cavity GI series. C. Bony part of the Eustachian tube A. 25-35º cephalad D. Dorsum sellae B. 35-45º caudad C. 5-10º medially 56. What method determines the exact location D. 20-25º cephalad of the foreign body by the use of a geometric calculation? 50. What projection of the pubic symphysis may A. Sweet method be done to demonstrate its postpartum B. Water’s method widening? C. Vogt bone-free positions A. Lateral erect D. Pfeiffer-Comberg B. Oblique C. Axial 57. In the lateral projection of the nasal bones, D. AP erect which of the following is CORRECT? A. The patient is placed in a prone position 51. Which of the following methods are used for B. The IOML is perpendicular to the IR bone age assessment? 5 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY  NURSING*RADTECH*DENTISTRY*CRIMINOLOGY*MIDWIFERY*MEDTECH LET*PSYCHOMET*RESPIRATORY THERAPY*CIVIL SERVICE*NAPOLCOM NCLEX*DHA*HAAD* PROMETRIC* UK-CBT C. The CR is directed perpendicular to the 63. Which of the following agents for oral roof of the nose cholecystography would be preferred if one D. The anterior nasal spine cannot be wanted to obtain the examination after visualized in the image starting it in the morning? A. Telepaque 58. A sprinter was accidentally over-everted his B. Bilopaque foot. He was rushed in the hospital and a C. Oragrafin radiographic examination was performed and D. Cholagrafin image showed that there is a fracture of the lower end of the fibula and of the medial 64. Which of the following occurs in many malleolus. What type of fracture is this? patients and is defined as an expected A. Dupuytren’s fracture outcome to the introduction of iodinated B. Pott’s fracture contrast media? C. Pillion’s fracture A. Moderate itching and sneezing D. Boxer’s fracture B. Metallic taste in mouth and a temporary hot flash 59. What projection is valuable in women where C. Mild condition of urticarial lymph gland involvement of a breast D. All of the above carcinoma is suspected or there is accessory breast tissue? 65. Which of the following conditions would A. Lateral Projections – Lateromedial indicate vigorous preparation to insure a B. Extended cranio-caudal projection clean colon prior to barium enema? C. Cranio-caudal A. Obstruction D. Axillary Tail B. Perforation C. Acute diverticulitis 60. What imaginary line in mammography is D. Polyps used to evaluate the depth of breast tissue? A. Posterior Nipple Line (PNL) 66. What examination is useful for the detection B. Nipple to Pectoral Line of lesions in the duodenum distal to the C. Glandular tissue to Nipple Line duodenal bulb and for the diagnosis of D. All are the same pancreatic disease? A. Upper Gastrointestinal Studies 61. What will happen to dry barium sulfate B. Small Intestinal Series powder that has been adequately mixed with C. Biphasic Examination water but allowed to stand for a long period D. Hypotonic Duodenography of time? A. The barium will dissolve in the water 67. What is the flow rate of barium injected B. The barium will combine with water to during enteroclysis? form barium oxide A. 10 ml per minute C. The sulfate part of the barium will B. 100 ml per minute combine with the hydrogen part of the C. 1 ml per minute water to form sulfuric acid D. 100 ml D. None of the above 68. What would you tell a patient in preparation 62. Iodine-containing solutions and barium can for a barium enema? both be used to radiograph the A. Instruct the patient to follow an all- gastrointestinal tract. Comparing the two liquid diet beginning the morning of the agents, which of the following concerning procedure iodinated solutions is false? B. Tell the patient the procedure will last 4 A. It is absorbed poorly from the GI tract hours B. It moves through the GI tract more C. Instruct the patient to take the contrast rapidly than barium so the examination medium in the form of one tablet every can be completed faster 5 minutes apart, until six tablets are C. Better anatomic visualization of the taken the night before ileum is obtained D. Tell the patient he may have a glass of D. The taste is strongly bitter when milk the morning of the examination compared to barium 69. During a small bowel follow through exam, the contrast reaches the ileocecal valve as 6 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY  NURSING*RADTECH*DENTISTRY*CRIMINOLOGY*MIDWIFERY*MEDTECH LET*PSYCHOMET*RESPIRATORY THERAPY*CIVIL SERVICE*NAPOLCOM NCLEX*DHA*HAAD* PROMETRIC* UK-CBT fast as __ in pediatric patients versus __ in D. 20 minutes adult patients. A. 1 hour, 2-3 hours 75. Which of the following statements is/are B. 2 hours 2-4 hours TRUE? C. 1 hour, 3-4 hours A. A non-visualized gallbladder after D. 2 hours, 2-3 hours second dose oral cholecystography is a highly accurate indicator of a diseased 70. A radiograph of an AP barium enema (BE) gallbladder. projection reveals poor visualization of the B. The biliary tree is best examined by oral sigmoid due to excessive superimposition of cholecystography, especially when the sigmoid colon and rectum. How can this radiographs are obtained after a fatty area be better visualized on the repeat meal. exposure? C. Both A and B are true. A. Angle the central ray (CR) 30° to 40° D. None of the above cephalad with AP projection. B. Increase kV 76. A radiograph of the lateral projection reveals C. Take a PA projection with the patient in that the epicondyles are not superimposed the left lateral decubitus position. and the trochlear notch is not clearly seen. D. Take a PA projection with a 30° to 40° What must be done to correct this cephalad CR angle. positioning error during the repeat exposure? 71. Enteroclysis is a double contrast method A. Angle central ray 45 degrees toward used to evaluate the small bowel. What shoulder negative contrast agent is preferred due to B. Place humerus/forearm in same its adherence to the bowel while distending horizontal plane it? C. Angle central ray 45 degrees away from A. Oxygen the shoulder B. Carbon Dioxide D. Extend elbow to form an 80-degree C. Gastroluft horizontal plane angle D. Methylcellulose 77. This demonstrates nephroptosis during 72. Which of the following modifications intravenous urography. employed during BE places the patient in a A. Erect, AP projection, scout LAO position, with the CR directed 30°- 35° B. Erect, AP projection, postvoid cephalad at a point 2” superior to ASIS? C. LPO 30º, scout A. Fletcher’s D. RPO 30º, postvoid B. Oppenheimer’s C. Robin’s 78. The following are true regarding IV D. Chassard-Lapine urography: I. Compression should not be 73. What type of gallstones can be seen on a done for patients with history plain film of the abdomen? of abdominal masses, I. Stones that contain calcium obstructions, aneurysms or II. Stones greater than 2 cm in recent surgery. diameter II. IV urography may also be III. Stones that contain large called Excretory Urography. amounts of cholesterol III. Clinical indications include IV. Stones round or ovoid in shape pyelonephritis. A. I only IV. Breathing instruction is B. III only inhalation during exposure. C. II and III A. I and II D. III and IV B. II and III C. I, II, and III 74. Maximum opacification of the gallbladder D. I, II, III and IV occurs after how many minutes/hours after the contrast injection? 79. To visualize the ureters, which of the A. 30 minutes following would be employed routinely? B. 1 hour A. Prone C. 2 hours B. Oblique projections 7 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY  NURSING*RADTECH*DENTISTRY*CRIMINOLOGY*MIDWIFERY*MEDTECH LET*PSYCHOMET*RESPIRATORY THERAPY*CIVIL SERVICE*NAPOLCOM NCLEX*DHA*HAAD* PROMETRIC* UK-CBT C. Erect AP 87. Which of the following are reasons why D. Trendelenburg position foreign bodies entering the trachea are more likely to enter the right bronchus than the 80. How many minutes does the greatest left? concentration of CM in the kidneys normally I. The right bronchus lies in a occurs after injection? more vertical position A. 10-15 II. The right bronchus is larger B. 15-20 III. The left bronchus is capped by C. 20-25 a valve D. 25-30 A. I and II only B. I and III only 81. What is the radiographic study of the urinary C. II and III only bladder involving distending the bladder with D. I, II and III a gas and then adding small amount of positive iodinated contrast medium? 88. Pes planus and cavus are best demonstrated A. Single contrast cystography on __ radiographs. B. Double contrast cystography A. Medial oblique C. Voiding cystography B. Lateral oblique D. Excretory cystography C. Lateral weight-bearing D. Tangential 82. Where should a Colcher-Sussman ruler be placed for an AP? A. 10 cm above the tabletop 89. The average amount of contrast media used B. 15 cm above the tabletop for an aortogram and venocavogram. C. 10 cm below the symphysis pubis A. 10-20 ml D. At the level of the symphysis pubis B. 20-30 ml C. 30-40 ml 83. Shenton’s line is a radiological line used to D. 40-30 ml determine the pathology of? A. Hip 90. Prolonged injection times are not generally B. Ankle used in angiography because C. Elbow A. It increases the incidence of nausea and D. Shoulder vomiting B. It has increased toxicity to the vessel 84. A fracture of the vertebral body and spinous wall process that results from a hyperflexion C. Radiographs will be inferior force is known as __. D. Slowing of the circulation will occur A. Spina bifida B. Chance fracture 91. Which of the following are critical elements C. Spondylolysis of an operative cholangiographic procedure? D. Herniated nucleus pulposus (HNP) I. Minimum exposure time II. Film centered to the right 85. They introduced the use of inspiratory upper quadrant of the phonation for the demonstration of the abdomen laryngeal ventricle during laryngography. III. A pressure injector is available A. Valsalva and Mueller if needed B. Powers et al A. I and II only C. Gunson et al B. I and III only D. Kornguth and Salazar C. II and III only D. I, II and III 86. What is the rationale of asking the patient to remain NPO for at least an hour prior to 92. Which term describes an opacification study ERCP procedure? of the peripheral or central veins? A. Patient’s throat will be anesthetized A. Angiography B. To prevent aspiration of food and liquid B. Lymphangiography into the lungs C. Venography C. To limit salivation D. Arteriography D. To limit vomiting 8 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY  NURSING*RADTECH*DENTISTRY*CRIMINOLOGY*MIDWIFERY*MEDTECH LET*PSYCHOMET*RESPIRATORY THERAPY*CIVIL SERVICE*NAPOLCOM NCLEX*DHA*HAAD* PROMETRIC* UK-CBT 93. A cervical puncture is indicated for an upper B. Tangential position spinal region myelogram if: C. Lateral position A. The patient has severe lordosis D. Oblique position B. The patient has mild scoliosis C. The patient has HNP of the L4-L5 level 98. During the study of the parotid gland, this D. The patient has complete blockage at instruction is given to the patient for better thoracic spine level demonstration of calculi: A. Suspend respiration 94. Supine chest radiographs are often B. Phonate the word “aaahhh” to raise the performed when patients are too ill or tongue incapacitated to be positioned erect. Which C. Fill the mouth with air and puff cheeks of the following statements comparing PA D. Orthostatic technique erect versus AP supine positions of the chest is FALSE? 99. Which is NOT demonstrated anatomy with a A. The thoracic organs will be more shoulder arthrography? compressed in the AP projection/supine A. Rotator cuff position B. Long tendon of biceps B. Air-fluid levels will not be demonstrated C. Humeral epicondyles on the AP projection/supine position D. Joint capsule C. Heart magnification will be greater on the PA projection/erect position 100. The cause of stress incontinence in females D. The clavicles will assume a higher may be accurately evaluated by which of the position in the AP projection/supine following radiographic examinations? position A. Chain cystourethrography B. Retrograde cystography 95. A correctly positioned lateral ankle is C. Double-contrast cystography demonstrated radiographically by: D. Percutaneous nephrostomy A. The distal fibula being free of superimposition from the tibia B. The proximal fibula being free of *** END OF EXAMINATION *** superimposition C. Superimposing the distal fibula over the posterior three-quarters of the tibia D. Superimposing the distal fibula over the posterior one-third of the tibia 96. Which of the following are true regarding venography? I. Performed to visualize thrombophlebitis, varicose veins or vessel damage secondary to trauma II. Requires AP and lateral projection III. Use of exam is limited because deep veins cannot be imaged IV. Injection is made into superficial veins A. I, II and III only B. I and IV only C. II and III only D. I, II and IV only 97. This position in sialography best demonstrates the bony structures and any calcific deposit or swelling in the unobscured areas of the parotid and submandibular glands. A. Intraoral position 9 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY